1. Social workers should only interview parents when assessing for ODD or CD. 2. In regards to ODD and CD, when a child has had a recent stressful life event, social workers should consider: 3. Approximately _____ percent of youths with ODD will later develop CD. 4. Which of the follow interventions are shown to be effective? 5. Which of the following is a common comorbid disorder with ODD and CD? 6. Oppositional behaviors should be distinguished from disruptive behaviors associated with ADHD, which occur in response to frustrations associated with inattention and hyperactivity 7. Living in poor and disadvantaged communities poses substantial risks for antisocial behavior in children in terms of unemployment, community disorganization, availability of drugs, the presence of adults involved in crime, community violence, and racial prejudice. 8. Medication cannot help youth with CD or ODD. 9. Females may be underrecognized for CD because the presentation of CD is less noticeable. 10. Which of the following is a critique to the DSM V’s ODD and CD disorders? 11. If a client presented with the following symptoms, which disorder would you evaluate for: A repetitive and persistent pattern of behavior in which the basic rights of others or major age- appropriate societal norms or rules are violated, as manifested by the presence of at least three of the following criteria: Aggression to people and animals, destruction of property, deceitfulness or theft, and serious violations of rules. 12. The essential feature of oppositional defiant disorder is frequent and persistent pattern of angry/irritable mood, argumentative/defiant behavior, or vindictiveness. 13. he first symptoms of oppositional defiant disorder usually appear during the early adolescence years and rarely in the early preschool years. 14. ODD is persistent throughout development, individuals with this disorder experience frequent conflicts with parents, teachers, supervisors, peers, and romantic partners. 15. The essential feature of conduct disorder is repetitive and persistent patterns of behavior in which the basic rights of others or major age-appropriate societal norms or rules are violated. 16. The intervention of social information process for CD or ODD involves all of the following except: 17. Substance use disorders are the first most diagnosed group of disorder in the United States. 18. There are possible mental health risks, such as psychotic symptoms and short-term cognitive impairments associated with marijuana use. 19. What percentage of overdoses from opioids came from prescriptions? 20. What disorders are often associated with substance use disorders? 21. Which of the following are appropriate interventions for substance use disorders? 22. Social workers should be aware that people with depression may be slower to benefit from treatment and that depression may impede recovery.

1. 39. For adolescents specifically, according to the National Comorbidity Survey Replication
Adolescent Supplement, 62 percent have experienced a traumatic event; however, rates of
PTSD were only 4.7 percent.
40. PTSD is the only disorder to have as a result of trauma.
41. PTSD can present as ADHD, ODD, depression and bipolar, therefore carefully reviewing the
symptoms can help distinguish the proper diagnosis.
42. When treating PTSD, all exposure methods, however, share a common feature: the client
confronts threatening stimuli until the anxiety is reduce.
43. When was PTSD added to the DSM?
44. The lifetime prevalence of bulimia is ___% of the population.
45. The average age for bulimia and anorexia is 18.9.
46. Involvement in certain activities that emphasize very low body fat, such as certain sports and
dance, places an individual at risk for eating disorders.
47. Suicide is not a risk of eating disorders.
48. Partial hospitalization is the first-line treatment for eating disorders.
49. Despite research, experienced clinicians do not find CBT as a useful as described in research for
treating eating disorders.
50. One of the challenges faced by those involved in preventing eating disorders is the difficulty of
changing the dieting and weight preoccupations that are so culturally pervasive.
SOWK 431 Quiz 3 Conduct Disorders to Personality Disorders
1. Social workers should only interview parents when assessing for ODD or CD.
2. In regards to ODD and CD, when a child has had a recent stressful life event, social workers
should consider:
3. Approximately _____ percent of youths with ODD will later develop CD.
4. Which of the follow interventions are shown to be effective?
5. Which of the following is a common comorbid disorder with ODD and CD?
6. Oppositional behaviors should be distinguished from disruptive behaviors associated with ADHD,
which occur in response to frustrations associated with inattention and hyperactivity
7. Living in poor and disadvantaged communities poses substantial risks for antisocial behavior in
children in terms of unemployment, community disorganization, availability of drugs, the
presence of adults involved in crime, community violence, and racial prejudice.
8. Medication cannot help youth with CD or ODD.
9. Females may be underrecognized for CD because the presentation of CD is less noticeable.
10. Which of the following is a critique to the DSM V’s ODD and CD disorders?
11. If a client presented with the following symptoms, which disorder would you evaluate for:
A repetitive and persistent pattern of behavior in which the basic rights of others or major age-
appropriate societal norms or rules are violated, as manifested by the presence of at least three
of the following criteria: Aggression to people and animals, destruction of property, deceitfulness
or theft, and serious violations of rules.
12. The essential feature of oppositional defiant disorder is frequent and persistent pattern of
angry/irritable mood, argumentative/defiant behavior, or vindictiveness.
13. he first symptoms of oppositional defiant disorder usually appear during the early adolescence
years and rarely in the early preschool years.
14. ODD is persistent throughout development, individuals with this disorder experience frequent
conflicts with parents, teachers, supervisors, peers, and romantic partners.
15. The essential feature of conduct disorder is repetitive and persistent patterns of behavior in
which the basic rights of others or major age-appropriate societal norms or rules are violated.
16. The intervention of social information process for CD or ODD involves all of the following except:
17. Substance use disorders are the first most diagnosed group of disorder in the United States.

2. 18. There are possible mental health risks, such as psychotic symptoms and short-term cognitive
impairments associated with marijuana use.
19. What percentage of overdoses from opioids came from prescriptions?
20. What disorders are often associated with substance use disorders?
21. Which of the following are appropriate interventions for substance use disorders?
22. Social workers should be aware that people with depression may be slower to benefit from
treatment and that depression may impede recovery.
23. Families do not have tremendous potential impact on either perpetuating or ameliorating the
substance use problems of a family member.
24. What are the types of medication used to treat substance use?
25. What are some of the risk factors for substance use disorders?
26. What is considered high risk drinking?
27. The essential feature of a substance use disorder is a cluster of cognitive, behavioral, and
physiological symptoms indicating that the individual continues using the substances despite
significant substance- related problems.
28. It is estimated that 1 in 7 intensive care unit admissions in some urban hosptials is related to
alcohol.
29. Borderline Personality Disorder is experienced by ___ of the general population.
30. Borderline Personality Disorder o-occurs most often with:
31. Between 60% to 70% of people with Borderline Personality Disorder have a history of suicide
attempts.
32. What is one of the challenges to interventions when it comes to treating someone who has
Borderline Personality Disorder?
33. Out of the following interventions, which one is seen as superior to the other psychodynamic
interventions for treating borderline personality disorder?
34. Which of the following is critique to borderline personality disorder?
35. A personality disorder is an enduring pattern of inner experience and behavior that deviates
markedly from the expectations of the individuals’ culture, is pervasive and inflexible, has an
onset in adolescence or early adulthood, is stable over time, and leads to distress or impairment.
36. Borderline personality disorder does not have any biological factors.
37. A client’s ethnic, cultural, and social backgrounds should not be taken into account when
assessing for personality disorders.
38. When a client is not wanting to do inpatient treatment for substance abuse disorders what is the
next steps a social worker should take?
39. It is important to remember when assessing for CD or ODD, children tend to down play their
symptoms.
40. What are the social influence risks for CD and ODD?
41. In 2015, ________ people died from prescription opioid overdose.
42. What theories have been postulated to explain high comorbidity between substance use and
other mental disorders?
43. A conservative position is to wait after 6 weeks of sobriety to determine the presence of
comorbid disorders, although this is rarely practiced.
44. When assessing for substance use in children/adolescences, the interview of the parent and
child should be done separately.
45. What percentage of people with alcohol dependency receive treatment?
46. What are possible goals for adolescents who abuse substances?
47. When considering treatment for substance use treatment which of the follow should be
considered?
48. For clients with depression and anxiety, CBT can address both the psychiatric and substance
use concerns.
49. The initial phase of substance use treatment may be crucial to successful engagement and
retention, so developing interventions that focus on improving early success in clients who are
depressed may be beneficial.
50. Medication for borderline personality disorders have been FDA approved.

4. SOWK 431 Quiz 2
https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/sowk-431-quiz-2/
SOWK 431 Quiz 2 Anxiety to Eating Disorders
1. Andrew is a 15 year old male enrolled in the 9th His mother has contacted an outpatient mental
health agency because of his extreme fears of going to school. She stated that he has bot been
able to attend a single day in the past 2 months. During your intake, Andrew was nervous and
sweating profusely, but was friendly and mature. He smiled a lot, even when discussing painful
subjects. He had minimal contact, however, focused instead on the floor. He identifies that he is
afraid of larger class sizes in high school and large crowds. Which of the following disorders
would you evaluate Andrew for?
2. When assessing for anxiety in children, it is recommended that interviews should be conducted
together with parents
3. Separation anxiety in children have about ___ percent that persist into adulthood.
4. When assessing for anxiety disorders the following should be a part of the assessment except:
5. Typically, people who are diagnosed with Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD) have not
experienced a history of uncontrollable stress.
6. Anxiety disorders also increase the risk of suicidality.
7. Which of the following therapies have been studied to assist with anxiety?
8. What is a disadvantage to using medication to treat anxiety?
9. The following are common themes found in obsessive-compulsive disorder except:
10. The social worker’s information-gathering about OCD should include:
11. Families with children who have OCD tend to provide excessive reassurance, assist by avoiding
triggers, and catering to the obsessions and compulsions, sometimes participating in rituals. This
is important to assess and target as a reduction results in better treatment response.
12. Obsessive-compulsive disorder typically develops in late adulthood.
13. What is psychoeducation?
14. In treating OCD which of the following could be a part of that treatment?
15. OCD and hoarding disorders have their own groups in the DSM V.
16. Which of the following develop when a person has PTSD?
17. Increased arousal is a part of PTSD
18. PTSD is the only disorder that is a result of trauma.
19. Which of the following methods are appropriate treatment options for PTSD?
20. Cognitive interventions aim to modify a client’s problematic cognitions involving self-blame, lack
of safety, inability to trust, powerlessness, and loss of control.
21. Crisis debriefing has been found to be helpful in working with children who have PTSD.
22. People with eating disorders tend to be underdiagnosed and undertreated.
23. Although eating disorders are more prevalent in females, males represent about 25% of cases.
24. Bulimia is moderately heritable and more so then anorexia.
25. Having a mental disorder puts one at risk for having an eating disorder.
26. Goals for treating eating disorders include all of the following except:
27. Treatment for eating disorders can only take place in inpatient facilities.
28. is the emotional response to real or perceived imminent threat, where as _____ is the
anticipation of future threat.
29. If a client presents with an excessive anxiety and worry, occurring more days then not for at least
6 months, about a number of events or activites, you would assess them for what type of
disorder?
30. You can meet criteria for posttraumatic stress disorder if you have learned that a traumatic event
occurred to a close family member or close friend when the event was violent or accidental.
31. PTSD can only be diagnosed within 3 months of the event.
32. What is the rate of recovery for generalized anxiety disorder?

5. 33. What is the probability of generalized anxiety reoccurring?
34. Anxiety disorders are often comorbid with one another and with _____.
35. Obsessive compulsive disorder has common comorbid disorders with all of the follow except:
36. In adulthood, females are at a heightened risk for OCD than do males, although in childhood,
rates between gender groups are similar.
37. Obsessive-compulsive disorder typically develops in late adulthood.
38. What is mindfulness?
39. For adolescents specifically, according to the National Comorbidity Survey Replication
Adolescent Supplement, 62 percent have experienced a traumatic event; however, rates of
PTSD were only 4.7 percent.
40. PTSD is the only disorder to have as a result of trauma.
41. PTSD can present as ADHD, ODD, depression and bipolar, therefore carefully reviewing the
symptoms can help distinguish the proper diagnosis.
42. When treating PTSD, all exposure methods, however, share a common feature: the client
confronts threatening stimuli until the anxiety is reduce.
43. When was PTSD added to the DSM?
44. The lifetime prevalence of bulimia is ___% of the population.
45. The average age for bulimia and anorexia is 18.9.
46. Involvement in certain activities that emphasize very low body fat, such as certain sports and
dance, places an individual at risk for eating disorders.
47. Suicide is not a risk of eating disorders.
48. Partial hospitalization is the first-line treatment for eating disorders.
49. Despite research, experienced clinicians do not find CBT as a useful as described in research for
treating eating disorders.
50. One of the challenges faced by those involved in preventing eating disorders is the difficulty of
changing the dieting and weight preoccupations that are so culturally pervasive.

6. SOWK 435 Movie Review
https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/sowk-435-movie-review/
SOWK 435 Movie Review Assignment
For this assignment, you will apply your knowledge of the military, and social work with a military
population, by viewing a movie (as approved by the instructor) and reviewing the movie.
This paper should be 4–6 pages long.
No abstract is required, but a title page and reference page are required.
This paper should be written in current APA format.
The focus of the review will be on analyzing the impact that military service has had on the military
character, and evaluating how a social worker can support this individual. In assessing the client from
a bio-psycho-social-spiritual perspective, some questions to consider include: What concerns and
challenges does the character face as a result of military service? What role does or could faith play in
this person’s life? How might a social worker assist this individual with getting needs met and meeting
goals? Etc. Forrest Gump is available for order via MBS if you wish to choose it as the subject of your
review.

7. SOWK 435 Research Paper
https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/sowk-435-research-paper/
SOWK 435 Research Paper Assignment
The student will write a research-based paper that focuses on social work with military, veterans, or
their families in one of the following areas:
Deployments, Trauma, Substance Abuse, Suicide, Traumatic Brain Injury, Homelessness, or
Reintegration
This paper should be 8–10-pages long.
Include a title page, abstract, and reference page. These do not count toward the page
count however.
This paper should be written in current APA format.
Include at least 10 scholarly references.
Use the textbook or journal articles, in addition to the course textbook and Bible as references for
this paper.
After selecting a topic, the student will evaluate this topic with a focus on: understanding the person in
the environment, assessing an individual’s strengths and needs in these circumstances, and preparing
to work with a military veteran, or military family facing one of these circumstances. The Christian faith
must be integrated into this paper.
This paper needs to demonstrate an ability to assess the client, including the client in the environment,
and develop a strong conceptualization of the client. A client conceptualization is simply how you view
that client, considering all of the information that is available at that time.
Along with client conceptualization, the paper must include how you (the social worker) would prepare
to work with this family as well as what work could be done. The paper should show that you’ve
thoughtfully analyzed the client and determined some ways that you could help as the social worker.
Please work to ensure that your approach also addresses potential spiritual needs, as well as an
integrated approach that demonstrates how your own faith influences the work.

8. SOWK 435 Quiz Midterm
https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/sowk-435-quiz-midterm/
SOWK 435 Midterm
SOWK 435 Quiz Midterm
1. In the early 1980’s, service members could be treated for illegal drug use under which program?
2. What is the purpose of SAPRO?
3. True or False: The DoD has preferred that social workers have two years of postgraduate
experience and/or a license to practice independent clinical social work before serving in the
armed forces.
4. During which operation were social workers first deployed to a combat zone?
5. True or False: The National Committee for Mental Hygiene was one of the mayor organizations
responsible for the establishment of a social work branch in the U.S. Army.
6. It is hypothesized that __________may impact a veteran’s ability to successfully transition into
the civilian world and may influence his or her ability to develop rapport in the therapeutic
relationship (especially if the client’s identity clashes with that of the civilian therapist).
7. Which of the following is typically the most salient difference between civilian culture and military
culture?
8. True or False: Military culture provides a purpose which is to support the mission through loyalty,
obedience, and honor.
9. The metaphor “fortress” describes which of the following?
10. True or False: Achieving true cultural competence involves a practitioner’s ability to grasp the
“broad worldviews of the cultural group” while examining the “individual expression of these
views.”
11. The traditional rationale(s) for maintaining women out of the active fighting units include(s) which
of the following?
12. True or False: Military academies do not admit women candidates due to their emotion-based
characteristics.
13. The shortage of women in top leadership positions in the military has been hypothesized to be
due to which of the following?
14. Self-control and stoicism are some of the stereotypical masculine qualities that women
demonstrate in the military in order to mostly gain what?
15. Which of the following statements is NOT true about PTSD?
16. Which of the following statements is/are true about contemporary theories or models of PTSD?
17. As defined in the DSV-IV-TR, PTSD typically develops following exposure to an occurrence that
is threatening or is perceived to be threatening to the well- being of oneself or another person,
where symptoms are grouped into which of the following clusters?
18. PTSD was first formally recognized as a specific syndrome etiologically linked to traumatic
events with veterans of:
19. PTSD is unique among psychiatric diagnoses because of the great importance placed upon
what?
20. True or False: The two major strategies to treat PTSD in patients or clients are prolonged
exposure therapy (PET) and trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapies, including cognitive
processing therapy (CPT).
21. Cognitive processing therapy (CPT) is a form of cognitive behavioral therapy that can be used by
clinicians to treat PTSD. The primary goal of cognitive processing therapy is to:
22. Oftentimes PTSD can be manifested in nightmares and the images are reexperienced when the
individual is awake. These intrusive symptoms are characteristically very vivid and may contain
which of the following?

9. 23. True or False: The increase of amygdalae activity in the brain is a hallmark of strong emotional
responses and traumatic memory retrieval in PTSD patients.
24. True or False: Imaginal exposure entails engaging mentally with the fear structure through
repeatedly revisiting the traumatic event in a safe environment.
25. Which of the following statements is/are true about VRE treatment?
26. Which of the following statements is/are an advantage of virtual reality exposure (VRE) therapy?
27. True or False: Posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a chronic condition that occurs in a
significant majority of persons who experience life-threatening traumatic events.
28. Which of the following statements is NOT true about VRE treatment?
29. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding gaba-aminobutyric acid?
30. Which of the following statements is/are true about what clinical social workers should know
about pharmacology when treating military service personnel or veterans?
31. Which of the following SSRI antidepressants has/have been approved by the Food and Drug
Administration for pharmacologic treatment of PTSD?
32. Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding medications for PTSD?
33. Which of the following statements is/are true about the history of U.S. military families?
34. Which of the following statements is NOT true about the ABC-X model of military family stress?
35. Which of the following statements is/are true about the history of U.S. military families?
36. Prior to the enactment of the Education for All Handicapped Children Act (PL 94-142), which
branch of service introduced the Children Have a Potential (CHAP) program to support families
of children with disabilities?
37. What occurred with the end of conscription and the advent of the all- volunteer military force?
38. True or False: Today, across all service branches, more than half of personnel are married, and
40 percent have children.
39. Which of the following statements is true about the predeployment stage in the cycle of
deployment?
40. Which of the following statements is true about the deployment stage in the cycle of
deployment?
41. Which of the following statements is/are true about the postdeployment (reintegration) stage in
the cycle of deployment?
42. In the Global War on Terror, National Guard and Reserve service members tend to experience
the following during postdeployment:
43. True or False: The term transmigrants refers to the concept of non-U.S. citizens serving in the
U.S. military.
44. In the Global War on Terror, National Guard and Reserve service members:
45. True or False: Upon deployment, Reserve component (RC) service members leave families who
may not have had any exposure to military culture.
46. The concept “dual citizen” refers to which of the following?
47. True or False: Thirty-five percent of active duty male soldiers and 58% of active duty female
soldiers reported childhood abuses.
48. True or False: Stigma no longer remains a negative force that prevents many at-risk service
members and their partners from seeking and engaging in necessary social services.
49. Which of the following statements are true regarding contemporary attachment theory?
50. Military couples and families are challenged not only by the physical separation associated with
deployment; they are also challenged by

11. CSTU 101 Quiz Review
CSTU 101
https://www.homeworksimple.com/cstu-101-quiz-review/
CSTU 101 Quiz Review
CSTU101 Quiz 1 Western Culture and Values
1. “The Heritage of the Past is the Seed that Brings Forth the Harvest of the Future.” Is located on
which building in Washington?
2. What two concepts are the main focuses of our studies in CSTU 101?
3. The Egyptian temples were the first structures in the ancient world to be built entirely of
4. Who said “He is no fool who gives what he cannot keep, to gain what he cannot lose”
5. Known as the land between the Rivers.
6. Which system says “the sun is at the center of the universe”?
7. What were the two main rivers in Mesopotamia?
8. What could justly be described as the study of how people process and document their human
experience?
9. The basic way an individual looks at life, his basic worldview, the grid through which he see the
world.
10. What term describes the multiple perspectives we see in Egyptian art, especially in portraying
the human body?
11. Which artifact provided the key that allowed scholars to decode Egyptian hieroglyphics?
12. Who wrote these words for us to live by? “See to it that no one takes you captive through hollow
and deceptive philosophy…”
13. This was perhaps the best known sculpture of Egyptian art.
14. Uncommon valor was a common virtue is located on which monument?
15. The flux of change that we see in a culture is called
16. The first written language was called
17. The most significant Sumerian literary work was
18. Legal standards had been developed in the past but none so practical as the Code of Laws that
established the rule of law from the Persian Gulf to the Mediterranean Sea. Who was the Code
of Laws named after?
19. Sumerians were from which area.
20. Which cultures religion could be described as being pragmatic and self-serving?
21. The Egyptian and Mesopotamian culture were very similar.
22. The Egyptian Culture was very concerned about the color of skin pigmentation and made a point
to segregate those who were different.
23. The Egyptians did not have the technology of the wheel when they built the pyramids.
24. Nebuchadnezzar has been discovered to be just a fictional king.
25. The Egyptians never were able to work with the post and lintel construction method.
26. The pyramids of Egypt were built to represent the wealth of the Egyptians, with no religious or
meaning of permanence whatsoever.
27. King Cyrus that is mentioned in the Bible did not really exist.
28. The Iwo Jima Memorial is located in Japan, and is a tribute to their soldiers.
29. Sumerian civilization was ancient, but not very advanced in learning.
30. The Egyptian Culture was short lived and lasted only a few centuries.
CSTU101 Quiz 2 Ancient Greece

12. 1. Homer composed the Iliad between what years?
2. What types of columns decorated the front of the Supreme Court?
3. A Wealthy-German merchant turned archaeologist discovered Troy in Northern Turkey.
4. When was Neo-classical architecture brought to America?
5. Greek god of the sea.
6. The Mycenae had developed a metal craftsmanship called ___________ , the hammering of
metals into representational form.
7. Who excavated the ancient city of Troy?
8. What do Historians sometimes use to refer to the great leap that propelled Western culture
forward?
9. The first people who dwelt in Greek lands about whom we have much information were the
10. The apex in all the arts for the Greek civilization came to its apex during the high classical period
especially during which Age.
11. Whose view was that the Cosmos was based on the belief that every occurrence in the physical
universe had logos behind it and that is where life originated?
12. The worship of Olympian gods was a complex and fascinating religion. According to the Rawls
textbook, at its most straightforward the religion used mythical gods and goddesses to explain
what?
13. Greece is surrounded by four seas. Which of these is not one of them?
14. The first Greek code of laws. Though very severe did offer a single standard of justice for all
people.
15. The so-called “Archaic Grin” is associated with Greek sculptures? It can be seen on this
sculpture.
16. Who was not an early Athens reformer during the Archaic period?
17. This is the name given to the civilization disseminated throughout the Mediterranean and the
Near East in the wake of Alexander’s conquests.
18. As we have studied the Greek Heritage, what dates could you give the Classical Period in Greek
history.
19. Which style of art do we associate with the Archaic Period of Greece?
20. What type of Architecture is displayed by the Supreme Court?
21. Individualistic to the extreme, the Greeks had no organized religion and, consequently, no
hierarchy of priests.
22. All Greek families were required to have a sacred book in their religious worship.
23. The Indo-European tribe is believed to have lived about 3000 years ago in the area of Central
Asia.
24. According to your textbook, a culture without a divine monarch has no compelling need for
monumental sculptures.
25. The quote “Equal Justice for All” is proudly displayed above the United States Capital Building.
26. Several constants seem to run through all cultures. Seaports are, by their nature, urban centers,
cities are more open to change than rural areas. Thus the farther people are from the seacoast,
the more resistant they will be to change and new ideas.
27. The story of the Odyssey read by generations of people is a very accurate history of the Greeks.
28. The Greeks were not known for being very idealistic or pragmatic.
29. The Parthenon is built during the 2nd century
30. Ancient Greek culture is generally dynamic, while ancient Egyptian culture is generally static.
CSTU 101 Quiz: Greek Philosophy and Humanist Legacy
Module 3: Week 3
1. Professional philosopher- who became the leading teachers in Athens were called:
2. When used in the philosophical sense, this word takes on the meaning of the rational principles
that govern and develops the universe. What is this word?
3. Which one of these is not in the Greek order of columns?

13. 4. Greek word translated to mean “diligence in the pursuit of moral and physical excellence”.
5. This Greek doctrine is concerned with the ethical, ideal, or universal element in an artwork as
distinguished from its emotional appeal.
6. A structural system in which vertical supports or columns support horizontal beams.
7. The Greek marketplace where philosophy was debated was called the ____:
8. Reality, for ___________, consisted of (Ideas) of all basic things, Forms that exist beyond the
grasp of the senses or even the mind.
9. The top or crown of a column.
10. Who wrote about the Peloponnesian War? The war between Sparta and Athens.
11. “Philosophy” literally means:
12. Who created One of Greece’s famous statue “Discobolus” (the Discus-Thrower)?
13. Which one of these did the Greeks consider the most important of the Arts?
14. The view that the universe requires no supernatural cause or government, that it is self existent,
self explanatory, self operating, and self directing, and that it is also purposeless, deterministic,
and only accidently productive of humanity.
15. In Raphael’s painting The School of Athens, ___ is depicted with his finger pointing toward
heaven, while ___ is pointing to the earth below.
16. Who said “Man is the measure of all things”?
17. Most ancient Greek cities developed around a fortified hilltop. What was this hilltop called?
18. The Greek theatre created tragedy in the year __________.
19. Who was Plato’s teacher?
20. Who had the greatest influence in the eld of logic, particularly with his invention of the syllogism
as a tool for deductive reasoning?
21. The Greeks view the individual as paramount because personal achievements were the
measure of all things.
22. The Greeks felt that music was not important and thus did not teach their youth this art.
23. In the Greek culture it was extremely important to obey the Priest and his commands.
24. Aristotle’s Allegory of the Cave regarded all sense-apparent things as shadows of the Real.
25. Pride in the Greek culture was considered a virtue.
26. Thousands of Socrates own personal writing have helped carry on his legacy.
27. Paul encountered the epicureans and the stoics when he spoke at the local agora in Greece?
28. The ancient Greeks saw the human form even in their temple styles.
29. The Greeks had a low regard for education and felt that children should learn best without a tutor
or teacher.
30. Socrates’ favorite student was Aristotle.
CSTU 101 Quiz The Roman Narrative
Module 4: Week 4
1. This is the best preserved of all Roman buildings because it became a Catholic church early in
the history of the Church of Rome.
2. Which of these seas did not touch the shores of Rome?
3. These letters were the universal mark of Roman authority.
4. Rome had two early philosophies that had been taught by the Greeks, one being Epicureanism.
What was the other one?
5. One of the most revolutionary and authoritative structures ever built, which has influenced the
architecture of every age from the ancient Rome to the present day.
6. His long sentences and his forceful word choice and arrangement made him the model of all who
aspired to write Latin correctly from antiquity right through the Renaissance.
7. Who wrote the poem the Aeneid?
8. Representing Roman engineering and power, ______________ were a highly visible portion of
the network of waterways.
9. Literally means “the public affair” or “the people’s affair”.

14. 10. From the Christian’s perspective which of these is true?
11. Which of American founding fathers designed their house with the Pantheon in mind?
12. Which Roman city was destroyed by a volcano, Mt. Vesuvius?
13. Who is credited with introducing the Neo-classical architecture to America’s buildings?
14. What were as common in Rome as billboards are to us today?
15. Which document did Jefferson write?
16. Who proclaimed himself to be the first emperor of Rome?
17. The writings of the ______________ “Golden Age” (70BC-14BC), not only gave aesthetic
pleasure but also promoted civic virtues and pride in the fatherland. His intent was to restore the
morale of educated Romans by means of poetry and history.
18. Caesar Augustus, we know from the Bible gave himself this name. What was his name before he
took this new name?
19. Greeks characteristically created while the Romans were often content to copy art; Roman
artists excelled in portraiture and ____________________ narrative precisely because they
copied the work as they saw it.
20. What structure did the Romans build that allowed their expression of who they were in the world
and what they were trying to do? It was also used as a propaganda device; a representation of
the yoke of oxen.
21. For the Romans, imperialism was a matter of living out their destiny.
22. A good word to describe the Roman mind in relations to art, would be idealistic.
23. Lex, Rex was written by the King of England in 1644.
24. The Roman Coliseum was not as big as previously thought and probably only held a few
thousand people.
25. Philosophy is the one area of Roman culture that is not indebted to the Greeks.
26. The Romans viewed the Greek culture as very distasteful and refused to use any of it with their
own culture.
27. Rome could be described as being pragmatic in their worldview.
28. Greece has very little influence on the Roman culture?
29. The Romans took pride in their Imperialism.
30. The main point we were illustrating with the aqueduct was Roman imperialism.
CSTU 101 Quiz 5 Liberty University
CSTU 101 Quiz: Rome and Christianity
Module 5: Week 5
1. Who was the Latin-speaking Christian who mastered Greek and Hebrew, and produced a
translation of the whole Bible known as the Vulgate?
2. Who was the author of “The City of God”?
3. This Scripture used by modern Christianity is remarkably consistent. It was written over a period
of 1,500 years, by at least ______ different writers and yet remains true to one theme and has a
unified viewpoint on both philosophy and facts.
4. The National Gallery of Art, dedicated in 1941 is a beautiful example of ________ architecture.
5. Constantine played an influential role in the proclamation of the _____________, which decreed
tolerance for Christianity in the empire.
6. The rise of Rome caused a shift from the Greek view of the individual as the ultimate reality to
one in which reality was the
7. Who wrote the Apostles Creed?
8. Old Testament prophet of faith, who preached on abiding trust in the providence of God around
740–700 BC.
9. Meeting in small groups in private homes, early Christians conducted simple services centered
on the____________: the consecrated bread and wine commemorating Christ’s sacrifice on the
cross.

15. 10. Who was the Bishop in (339-397) who successfully challenged and limited imperial authority
over the church?
11. The first ecumenical or world council, attended by 220 bishops in 325, formalized a statement of
essential beliefs of Christian faith known as the _____.
12. The Torah consists of the first five books of the Bible called the Pentateuch, which is also known
as
13. Approximately what year did Constantine declare Christianity a legal religion of Rome?
14. One event not depicted in the catacombs was:
15. The crucifixion of Christ occurred in approximately what year? CE (secular) /AD (Christian)
16. His interpretation of history quickly replaced those of classical thinkers and has remained
influential to the present day. Lived (354-430).
17. In the Sarcophagus of Junius Bassus, which two figures are standing on either side of Jesus?
18. What word could be used in association with Christian Coptic Art?
19. Which country dispersed the Ten Tribes of Israel in 722BC?
20. What would be a chief mark describing the Roman Empire, even after Constantine.
21. Rome showed special originality in the eld of education by creating law schools and recognizing
medicine as an important specialization.
22. The prohibition of graven images separated Judaism from all other religions, which represented
their gods in a variety of ways.
23. Life in the later years of the Roman Empire was marked by increasing optimism about the future.
24. As we learned in the presentation “Introduction to Rome and Christianity,” the National Gallery of
Art Museum resembles the Parthenon in Greece.
25. For centuries the Romans had constructed basilicas that served as meeting halls, mercantile
centers, and halls of justice. The basilica was a prototype of the large, dignified structure
Christians needed for worship services.
26. Pompeii was one of the only provinces of Rome that did not get caught up in all of the sexual
representation.
27. The first two centuries of Christianity had little need for art in any form.
28. The Dead Sea Scrolls found in 1947, outside of Jerusalem were old but very inaccurate.
29. The Bible is very specific in saying that Capitalism is the best form of economics.
30. Because of all of the writings by Jesus, we know much about his life.
CSTU 101 Quiz 6
CSTU 101 Quiz: Medieval Period and Development into the Renaissance
Covers the Learn material from Module 6: Week 6.
1. Created the statue David and the painted Sistine Chapel?
2. Consisted a hero of the Renaissance, who wrote Utopia. Lived from 1478-1535.
3. In philosophy, the synthesis of the High Ages was made by_________ in the 13th century, who
merged Christian and Aristotelian thought.
4. Which of these did not contribute to the successes Pepin and Charlemagne?
5. The term “pointed arches” best describes which style?
6. Which word best describes the culture that gave rise to Romanesque architecture?
7. What were two classical values that inspired the Renaissance humanists?
8. What did medieval pilgrims travel to a cathedral to see?
9. Who wrote Don Quizote?
10. Who wished to give the church a new choir and ambulatory, one that would be full of light—
symbolic of the presence of God, through Gothic architecture?
11. According to the chart in your Textbook. What are the years of the Renaissance?
12. Who initiated the Crusades?
13. Who halted the Islamic expansion into France and Europe?

16. 14. In the 13th century who also criticized reliance on deductive logic and metaphysical speculations
and urged scientists to adopt an inductive investigation method involving observation and
experimentation with appropriate instruments and methods, rather than mere reasoning?
15. During the 1200’s Popes would employ a military force to combat heresy and use this judicial
process to eradicate heresy within the Western culture.
16. The Carolingians also stimulated artistic activity. One of these was the development by painters
that involved pictures within manuscript pages called
17. Who gave the Renaissance its first candid picture of human nature with the idealism of
medievalism and humanism stripped away.
18. Who wrote the Canterbury Tales in the 14th century?
19. Who wrote the Divine Comedy, which delineated the options available to mankind?
20. According to the chart in your textbook, which of these types of literature occurs last?
21. Despite the authority of the medieval Catholic church, there was a tremendous amount of
diversity within medieval literature.
22. During the period of 750–1000, Carolingian rulers dominated European life.
23. Science was not very prominent in the medieval intellectual activity.
24. The Black Death that struck Europe killed over 90 % of the population.
25. Charlemagne’s brutal reign destroyed much learning and education in Europe.
26. The so-called Children’s Crusade was the only crusade that was “successful” in any meaningful
sense.
27. Not many churches were built during the 11th century because of the lack of money.
28. Renaissance intellectuals considered themselves to be both humanists and Christians.
29. The Black Death arrived on the docks from London and spread to Europe.
30. Religious architecture was the primary European artistic activity.
CSTU 101 Quiz 7 Liberty University
CSTU 101 Quiz: Protestant Reformation
Module 7: Week 7
1. Luther was not the first voice of reformation of the church, as earlier men such as ___________,
paid with their lives because of their proclamation for reform.
2. The Protestant Reformation did answer several vital questions for mankind in a new way. Which
of these is not one of the 4 questions mentioned?
3. Luther’s teaching and the heart of the Reformation are really summed up in two Latin phrases,
Sola Scriptura and ____________.
4. The art and music of the Reformation rejected the Catholic and Renaissance forms because the
movement was _______________ at its roots.
5. Who saw work as God-pleasing and a calling (Vocatio)?
6. According to the essay “Impact of the Protestant Reformation.” Once people saw the flaws of the
church they begin to question the ____________as well.
7. Which one of these individuals was not part of the Protestant Reformation?
8. Who wrote the Protestant Work Ethic and the Spirit of Capitalism? From the Essay “Influence of
Christianity on Western Culture”.
9. The Reformer from the Protestant Reformation from Scotland?
10. In the Early Modern World, who said that the mind, at birth, was a complete blank, a tabula rasa
(Lat., “blank slate”). This contradicted royalists, clergymen, and others, who insisted that the
natural inclination, at birth, was submission to authority.
11. From the Essay “Influence of Christianity on Western Culture”. Who was the individual who
started an orphanage and created an environment where thousands of children were impacted?
12. Lead a coalition of abolitionists in England for many years and was finally able to get slavery
outlawed in all of the British Empire. From the Essay “Influence of Christianity on Western

17. Culture”.
13. According to the essay “Impact of the Protestant Reformation.” The “freedom to worship gate”
had been closed by the _______________ for centuries.
14. According to the essay “Impact of the Protestant Reformation.” Individuals reside in a defined
culture that in most cases is _______________.
15. According to the essay “Impact of the Protestant Reformation,” which of these is not one of the
methods used by the Roman Catholic Church to control people’s behavior?
16. Martin Luther posted his __________________ on the door of the castle church at Wittenberg
on October 1517.
17. ___________ were remissions by the Catholic Church of temporal punishment on earth or in
purgatory.
18. According to the essay “Impact of the Protestant Reformation.” The invention of the
____________________ in the fifteenth century created an avenue for some to hear and read
what Scripture really said.
19. Who said the famous words “Here I stand. I can do no other”?
20. Swiss Reformer who tried to influence the Catholic church from within to begin with.
21. From the Essay “Influence of Christianity on Western Culture”. Before Christ appeared, there
was an extremely high status for Greek, Jewish, and Roman women.
22. One of the most important theological ideas of the Reformation is expressed by the phrase “sola
scriptura.”
23. Immanuel Kant was a leading scientist of the Early Modern World.
24. Christianity has had little impact on education in Western Culture. From the Essay “Influence of
Christianity on Western Culture”.
25. John Milton wrote many poems critical of the Puritans.
26. In many ways the Renaissance was the spiritual side of the Reformation.
27. The publication of Newton’s Principia in 1687 marked the dawn of the Enlightenment, an
optimistic new age that relied on the intellect to design a rational society in a knowable universe.
28. The Protestant Reformation felt that education was not important and reading should be left up
to church official only.
29. The keystone of the revolt against the Church of Rome was the dazzling realization that people
could live in a direct relation to God with no necessity for an intermediary.
30. The values of a culture will determine the behavior and actions of that culture, so to change the
actions you must change governments.
CSTU 101 Quiz 8
CSTU 101 Quiz The Modern World and the Future of Western Culture
1. Published years after their death. These 1,775 poems were written as if they were entries in a
diary, the private thoughts of a solitary person who took just a little from society and shut out all
the rest. Lived from 1830-1886–
2. Who helped set the initial stages of the Romanticism with his inspirational Social Contract. With
the ringing proclamation: “Man is born free and everywhere he is in chains”.
3. The English philosopher who argued that evolution occurred not only in nature, but in human
institutions as well.
4. What event destroyed the early 1900’s optimism and progress?
5. From the Essay, “The Future of Western Culture.” Which letters below signify-we are Roman and
all of this is ours?
6. Which is these is not an American author?
7. The so called “War to end all Wars.”
8. From the Essay, “The Future of Western Culture.” Massive intellectual changes have shaped and
reshaped our culture since the dawn of the Enlightenment. At the heart of this great intellectual
shift is

18. 9. From the Essay, “The Future of Western Culture.” In the American Western culture, our coins
describe three of the values that provide the foundation that holds American culture together, as
well as unites us. You can think of these like a three-legged stool. If you remove any leg the stool
will fall. Which of these is not one of the three?
10. He believed in an all-encompassing Absolute, a world Spirit that expressed itself in the historical
process. Basing his logic on the “triadic dialectic,” He stated that for every concept or force
(thesis) there was its opposite idea (antithesis). He has a strong influence on Karl Marx. Lived
from 1770-1831.
11. The early 20th century could be described by which representative phrase?
12. Whose quote is this? “Freedom is never more than one generation away from extinction. We
didn’t pass it on to our children in the bloodstream. It must be fought for, protected, and handed
on for them to do the same.”
13. From the Essay, “The Future of Western Culture” This quote by Wendell Phillips “The heritage of
the past is the seed that brings forth the harvest of the future.” is located in front on which
building in Washington D.C.?
14. In philosophical terms, Karl Marx most closely matches up with whom?
15. He was an atheistic existentialist quite unlike Nietzsche, and arrived at his conclusions using
logic. He contended that the idea of God was self- contradictory, that the man called Christ could
not be both divine and human because the terms are mutually exclusive. Lived from 1905-1980.
16. Which building illustrates the materialism and industrialization of 19th- century Europe?
17. The most representative poet of the mid-Victorian era, He reflected the mood of the period in
poetry that was sad, quiet, contemplative, melancholy, sometimes wistful, and often pessimistic.
The old optimism of the early Romantics had vanished.
18. The spokesman and chief painter of the Impressionist style was __________ who throughout his
long and productive career relied wholly on his visual perceptions.
19. Our distance from past ages enables us to perceive the periods when a culture was balanced,
when the balance tipped into chaos, when the adjustment began that leads to a new period of
balance and so on.
20. The Middle Modern World would be considered which dates?
21. According to the video presentation “Modernist Influences on Western Thought”, Rousseau had
a low view of mankind and taught that mankind never had a chance in life because we are born
bad.
22. Matthew Arnold’s poem “Dover Beach” illustrates his love of puritanism during the late 19th
century.
23. Globalization does not appear to have created a global community. Indeed, one can argue it has
made the possibility even more remote.
24. Paris hosted the Great Exhibition of 1851.
25. The Vietnam Memorial is a prime example of Neo-Classical architecture.
26. From the Essay, “The Future of Western Culture.” Radical egalitarianism necessarily presses us
towards collectivism because a powerful state is required to suppress the differences that
freedom produces.
27. There was a general calm over Europe with no revolutions from 1830-1848.
28. The most powerful moving force behind the Civil Rights Movement of the 60’s was Jessie
Jackson, the president of the Southern Christian Leadership Conference.
29. From the Essay, “The Future of Western Culture.” Radical individualism is demanded when there
is no danger that achievement will produce inequality and people wish to be unhindered in the
pursuit of pleasure.
30. Impressionists saw themselves as the ultimate realists whose main concern was the perception
of optical sensations of light and color.

19. BIBL 104 Quiz Review
BIBL 104
https://www.homeworksimple.com/bibl-104-quiz-review/
More quizzes from BIBL 104
BIBL 104 Quiz The Bible, The Old Testament, and The Pentateuch
1. The Major Prophets are twelve separate compositions in our English Bible, but they appear as a
single “Book of the Twelve” in the Hebrew Bible.
2. The last three Minor Prophets are focused on the Jewish exiles who have returned from Babylon
to rebuild the tabernacle and reestablish Jerusalem.
3. The thematic focus of Nehemiah is rebuilding the Temple.
4. The turning point in the book of Numbers is
5. The Historical Books extend from the book of Joshua to the book of Esther.
6. and ____________ were the two faithful spies who believed God would deliver Canaan into the
hands of Israel.
7. 1–2 Kings details the Kings of Israel and Judah.
8. In Moses’ ___________ sermon in Deuteronomy, he seeks to invoke covenant renewal on the
part of the second generation by reminding them of what God did for Israel.
9. In Deuteronomy, Moses explains the intent of the Ten Commandments as an ___________
motivation toward godly behavior in the civil, social, and ceremonial life of Israel.
10. The JEDP Theory asserts that anonymous editors compiled the Pentateuch from four documents
long after the time of Moses.
11. When Moses reflects on the second generation of Israel, the present generation in front of him,
he points them to
12. In the third major sermon in Deuteronomy Moses continues with his theme of covenant renewal
by forecasting Israel’s
13. The book of Hosea underscores God’s unquenchable love.
14. Deuteronomy focuses on covenant renewal.
15. The book of Jonah centers around the consequences for individual disobedience.
16. The book of Haggai deals with the theme, “repent of sin.”
17. Leviticus describes the religious system of worship that was given at Mt. Carmel.
18. Despite God’s promise that Abraham would have a son from his “own body,” Sarah insisted they
use Hagar their Egyptian slave as a surrogate mother. Together Abraham and Hagar had a child
named _____________ became the ancestor of the Arab peoples.
19. In Exodus, God’s miraculous provisions included the
20. Genesis is the book of Beginnings.
21. Moses died and was buried
22. The biblical description of creation is___________________ and by the power of God’s spoken
word.
23. From Jacob’s son ______________ would come the messianic line of Christ.
24. The book of Malachi deals with the theme, “rebuild the Temple.”
25. According to Leviticus, there were ____________ religious feasts that were to be celebrated in
the Spring and Fall.
26. The book of Habakkuk presents the destruction of Babylon.
27. The book of Joel deals with the day of the Lord.
28. Deuteronomy provides instructions for the new generation of Israelites as they prepare to enter
Canaan in fulfillment of God’s promises.
29. The book of Obadiah relates the doom of Nineveh.
30. After Jacob’s descendants migrated into Egypt, they began to experience numerical growth. This
growth emphasizes

20. 31. The Shema involves loving God with all one’s heart and the totality of one’s being and
32. The events surrounding the death of Moses were probably written by
33. The _______________ plagues were intended to show Yahweh’s superiority over the gods of
Egypt and Pharaoh himself.
34. The book of _______________ tells the story of the wilderness journey. It serves as a travel
diary of the Israelites after the exodus.
35. In Numbers, the Israelites were given divine guidance in
36. Altogether the Minor Prophets are a collection of messages to Israel and Judah that serve both
as predictions of judgment and as promises of hope for the future.
37. The dispersion of the nations occurred
38. The book of Job deals with questions related to suffering.
39. Moses selected _____________ men, one from each ancestral tribe, to scout out the land of
Canaan in advance.
40. The first five books of the Bible are known as the Torah.
41. The first five books of the Bible trace the actions of God in history from the creation of the world
until the death of Joshua.
42. In the book of Amos God’s ultimate justice is an area of focus.
43. 1–2 Samuel thematically focuses on Kings and Priests.
44. The __________________ represented how God was to dwell among His people and how the
nation would fellowship with God
45. A theme to the book of Judges is “The Struggle”.
46. Genesis concludes with Israel in Canaan.
47. According to the book of Numbers, people could also be sanctified through the __________
Blessing assuring them of God’s continued grace upon them.
48. The messages of the Major Prophets remind us that God holds all nations accountable for their
behavior and policies.
49. In Moses’ speeches in Deuteronomy he unfolds the essence of the covenant in the form of
50. The books of 1–2 Chronicles offers a priestly perspective.
BIBL 104 Quiz The Old Testament Books of History
1. As Samuel aged, the people of Israel insisted that they should select a king “like all the other
nations.
2. In the books of Kings, the various kings of the nation are evaluated by the Abrahamic, Mosaic,
and Davidic covenants so the exiles will learn from this history and be deterred from future
covenant disobedience.
3. While Joshua prepared to attack Jericho he
4. According to our textbook, one reason for the northern kingdom’s downfall is their intermarriage
with pagan nations.
5. Ruth plays an important role in the history of the Old Testament as the great grandmother of
6. In Joshua’s farewell address he explains to the people of Israel that they will remain in Canaan
and prosper in the land only when they comply with the Mosaic covenant.
7. The book of Judges concludes with a civil war in Israel that almost exterminated the tribe of
8. The Judge ______________ tore down his father’s Baal altar that was kept on the family farm.
9. According to our textbook, _______________ is obvious throughout the book of Esther.
10. The Judge ___________, was a left-handed Benjamite, who assassinated King Eglon with a
dagger.
11. 2 Samuel records only the highlights and positive episodes in King David’s reign.
12. Half of the tribe of Manasseh settled land on the East bank of the Jordan River.
13. According to our textbook, the uniqueness of Samson was
14. In the north, Jeroboam built two sanctuaries (temples or high places) at
15. God’s promise to Abraham that He would bless all nations begins to come to fruition through
Boaz and Ruth.
16. served as the nation’s religious headquarters for about 300 years.