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OPS 571 Final Exam Version 1 2015 version


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OPS 571 Final Exam Version 1 Answers

OPS 571 Final Exam Version 1

1) According to your text, the most common process metric is:

A. Throughput time

B. Efficiency

C. Utilization

D. Productivity

2) Which of the following is true about make-to-stock processes?

A. Make-to-stock processes can be controlled based on the actual or anticipated amount of

finished goods

B. Make-to-stock process is used when demand is seasonal and the firm does not have


C. Services by their very nature often use make-to-stock processes.

D. A and B

3) ________ is when the activities in the stage must stop because there is no place to

deposit the item just completed.

A. None of these answers

B. Blocking

C. Starving

D. Buffering

4) The type of processing structure that is used for producing discrete products at

higher volume is:

A. Batch

B. Job Shop

C. Assembly line

D. Project

5) According to Hayes and Wheelwright, which of the following is not a major


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OPS 571 Final Exam Version 1 2015 version

  1. 1. OPS 571 Final Exam Version 1 Link : OPS 571 Final Exam Version 1 Answers OPS 571 Final Exam Version 1 1) According to your text, the most common process metric is: A. Throughput time B. Efficiency
  2. 2. C. Utilization D. Productivity 2) Which of the following is true about make-to-stock processes? A. Make-to- stock processes can be controlled based on the actual or anticipated amount of finished goods B. Make-to- stock process is used when demand is seasonal and the firm does not have enough C. Services by their very nature often use make-to-stock processes. D. A and B 3) ________ is when the activities in the stage must stop because there is no place to deposit the item just completed. A. None of these answers B. Blocking C. Starving D. Buffering 4) The type of processing structure that is used for producing discrete products at higher volume is: A. Batch
  3. 3. B. Job Shop C. Assembly line D. Project 5) According to Hayes and Wheelwright, which of the following is not a major process flow structure? A. Batch B. Job Shop C. Assembly Line D. Project 6) The major decision variables in equipment selection are: A. Flexibility B. Labor requirements C. Manufacturer D. Both A and B 7) Quality Function Deployment: A. is a tool for translating customer requirements into concrete operating and engin eering goals. B. facilitates inter-functional cooperation between marketing, engineering, and
  4. 4. manufacturing. C. provides a better understanding and focus on process characteristics that requir e improvements. D both A and B 8) In which phase of new-product design process are considerations to target market, desired level of performance, investment requirements and financial impact made: A. detailed engineering B. concept development and product planning C. preliminary process design D. pilot manufacturing phase 9) When evaluating a new product development project using net present value analysis, which of the following will make the project more attractive? A. Delaying the start of the project B. Making the project run over a longer period of time C. Improving (bringing forward) the date when revenue will begin D. A and B 10) Which of the following is not a dimension of design quality?
  5. 5. A. Durability B. Features C. Serviceability D. Customization 11) The category given the maximum point value in the Baldrige award is: A. Customer and market focus B. Strategic planning C. Business results D. Process management 12) An example of prevention quality cost is: A. Testing B. Inspection C. Train personnel D. Rework 13) The type of processing structure that is used to produce gasoline, chemicals, a nd steel is: A. Job Shop B. Assembly Line C. Continuous Flow
  6. 6. D. Batch 14) Which Quality Guru advocated that senior management is responsible for 94% of quality problems? A. Ishikawa B. Juran C. Crosby D. Deming 15) Which of the following is not an assumption of the basic economic- order quantity model A. ordering or setup costs are constant B. quantity discounts are available C. annual demand is constant and known D. lead time is constant 16) The assignment method is appropriate in solving problems that have the following characteristics? A. There are ‘n’ things to be distributed to ‘n’ destinations. B. Though each destination may handle all the things, the final assignment has eac h thing
  7. 7. assigned to one and only one destination. C. Only one criterion should be used (minimum cost, maximum profit, for example). D. A and C 17) The objective of work-center scheduling include A. To meet due dates. B. To minimize lead times. C. To minimize finish goods inventory. D. Both A and B. 18) The measure of the firm’s ability to make money according to Goldratt include: A. Net profit. B. Return on assets. C. Cash flow. D. Both A and C 19) Which of the following according to Goldratt is not a component of production cycle time A. Wait time B. Maintenance time C. Setup time D. Process time
  8. 8. 20) Goldratt’s rule of production scheduling include all but: A. An hour saved at a non-bottleneck is a marriage. B. A process batch should be fixed both along its route and in time. C. Do not balance the capacity-balance the flow. D. Utilization and activation of a resource is not the same thing 21) According to Goldratt and Fox, a useful performance measure to treat inventory is A. Quick ratio. B. Dollar days. C. Inventory turnover. D. Current ratio 22) “Slack” refers to the difference between: A. finish and start times B. latest and earliest times C. observed and predicted times D. optimistic and pessimistic times 23) Which of the following is not a typical project milestone? A. Production of a prototype B. Completion of design
  9. 9. C. Training of project members D. Completed testing of the prototype 24) The advantages of pure project include all but: A. Team pride, motivation, and commitments are high. B. The project manager has full authority over the project. C. Decisions are made quickly. D. A team member can work on several projects 25) The idea of the Value Density calculation is: A. Matching the weight of the product with an appropriate carrier B. Finding a carrier that can handle the weight C. Determining how a product should be shipped considering its weight and value D. Finding the minimum cost carrier 26) Supply-chain response relates to the following: A. How quickly a customer order can be filled B. How quickly a company can react to a new competing product C. How inexpensive the product is D. A and B 27) According to Hau Lee, which of the following types of products need to be delivered with efficient supply-chains? A. Innovative products
  10. 10. B. Custom products C. Grocery products D. High technology products 28) The best operating level is: A. the level of capacity for which average unit cost is minimized B. the maximum point of the cost curve C. maximum capacity D. the level of capacity for which total cost is minimized 29) Capacity utilization rate can be computed as: A. Capacity used + best operating level B. Capacity used - best operating level C. Capacity used / best operating level D. Capacity used x best operating level 30) The steps to determining capacity requirements include: A. Using decision trees to evaluate capacity alternatives B. Calculating equipment and labor requirements to meet product line forecasts C. Projecting labor and equipment availabilities over the planning horizon D. B and C 31) Which of the following is not true about JIT systems?
  11. 11. A. The goal of JIT is to drive all inventory queues to a moderate level thus minimizi ng inventory investment and shortening lead times. B. The JIT system is based on the philosophy of eliminating waste and utilizing the full capability of the worker. C. JIT is typically applied to repetitive manufacturing. D. Under JIT the ideal lot size is one. 32) Which of the following is not an element of JIT? A. kanan pull system B. small-lot production C. Multifunction worker D. quickly changing schedule 33) Which of the following is NOT one of the more successful applications of lean concepts in services? A. Introduction of demand-push scheduling B. Organize problem-solving groups C. Upgrade quality D. Upgrade housekeeping 34) Which of the following would not be classified as a component of demand?
  12. 12. A. Causal variation B. Trend C. Cycle D. Seasonality 35) Which of the following statements are true about time-series forecasting? A. Time series methods are useful for long- range forecasts when the demand pattern is erratic B. Time series analysis is based on the idea that the history of occurrences over ti me can be used to predict the future. C. Under time-series methods, demand is divided into the time- based components such as daily, weekly, etc. D. Agent liability.Time series analysis tries to understand the system underlying an d surrounding the item being forecast. 36) Given that the previous forecast of 65 turned out to be four units less than the actual demand. The next forecast is 66. What would be the value of alpha if the simple exponential smoothing forecast method is being used? A. 0.02
  13. 13. B. 0.4 C. 0.25 D. 0.04 37) Aggregate planners balance: A. demand and costs B. demand and inventories C. supply and inventories D. demand and capacity 38) Production planning strategies include: A. Chase strategy B. Level strategy C. Stable workforce-variable work hours D. A, B, and C 39) Which of the following accurately describes a chase strategy? A. The firm produces the same amount each day over the planning period and deal s with the variations in demand through the use of inventory or overtime. B. The firm produces at the same level for several months, and then adjusts produc tion to another level and produces at that level for several more months.
  14. 14. C. All of the above could describe the strategy, depending on the organization. D. The firm produces exactly what is needed every month. 40) Which MRP system input element specifies how many and when the firm plans to build each end item? A. Inventory records file B. Bills of material C. Capacity planning D. Master production schedule 41) Which of the following is not an advantage of MRP? A. Reduced sales price B. Reduced inventory C. MRP is flexible - easy to veer away from the schedule if need arises D. Reduced idle time 42) Which of the following most closely describes net material requirements? A. gross requirements - planned order receipts B. gross requirements - on-hand + planned order receipts C. gross requirements - planned order releases D. gross requirements - on-hand - planned order receipts
  15. 15.