What is Quality? If you ask ten people to define quality, you probably will get ten definitions. Product Quality Dimensions There are several definitions of quality, or quality dimensions. One of the most respected collections of quality dimensions was compiled by David Garvin 1 of the Harvard Business School. Garvin found that most definitions of quality were eithertranscendent, product-based, user-based, manufacturing-based, or value-based. What does each of these terms mean? 1Garvin, D., “What Does ‘Product Quality’ Really Mean?” Sloan Management Review (Fall 1984):25–43. Transcendent: Quality is something that is intuitively understood but nearly impossible to communicate, such as beauty or love. Product-based: Quality is found in the components and attributes of a product. User-based: If the customer is satisfied, the product has good quality. Manufacturing-based: If the product conforms to design specifications, it has good quality. Value-based: If the product is perceived as providing good value for the price, it has good quality. Using these five definitions of quality, Garvin developed a list of eight quality dimensions (see Table 1-1). These dimensions describe product quality specifically in the following paragraphs. Performance refers to the efficiency with which a product achieves its intended purpose. This might be the return on a mutual fund investment, the fuel efficiency of an automobile, or the acoustic range of a pair of stereo speakers. Generally, better performance is synonymous with better quality. Features are attributes of a product that supplement the product’s basic performance. These include many of the “bells and whistles” contained in products. A visit to any television or computer retail store will reveal that features, such as surround sound, HDTV capability, plasma, and size, are powerful marketing tools for which customers will pay a premium. A full-line television retail store may carry televisions priced from $200 to $12,000. This range represents a 6,000% price premium for additional features! Reliability refers to the propensity for a product to perform consistently over its useful design life. A subfield in quality management has emerged, called reliability management, based on the application of probability theory to quality. A product is considered reliable if the chance that it will fail during its designed life is very low. If a refrigerator has a 2% chance of failure in a useful life of 10 years, we say that it is 98% reliable. Conformance is perhaps the most traditional definition of quality. When a product is designed, certain numeric dimensions for the product’s performance will be established, such as capacity, speed, size, durability, or the like. These numeric product dimensions are referred to as specifications. The number of ounces of pulp allowed in a half-gallon container of “pulp-free” orange juice is one example. Specifications typically are allowed to vary a small amount called a toleran.

1. What is Quality?
If you ask ten people to define quality, you probably will get
ten definitions.
Product Quality Dimensions
There are several definitions of quality, or quality dimensions.
One of the most respected collections of quality dimensions was
compiled by David Garvin 1 of the Harvard Business School.
Garvin found that most definitions of quality were
eithertranscendent, product-based, user-based, manufacturing-
based, or value-based. What does each of these terms mean?
1Garvin, D., “What Does ‘Product Quality’ Really
Mean?” Sloan Management Review (Fall 1984):25–43.
Transcendent: Quality is something that is intuitively
understood but nearly impossible to communicate, such as
beauty or love.
Product-based: Quality is found in the components and
attributes of a product.
User-based: If the customer is satisfied, the product has good
quality.
Manufacturing-based: If the product conforms to design
specifications, it has good quality.
Value-based: If the product is perceived as providing good
value for the price, it has good quality.
Using these five definitions of quality, Garvin developed a list
of eight quality dimensions (see Table 1-1). These dimensions
describe product quality specifically in the following
paragraphs.
Performance refers to the efficiency with which a product
achieves its intended purpose. This might be the return on a
mutual fund investment, the fuel efficiency of an automobile, or
the acoustic range of a pair of stereo speakers. Generally, better
performance is synonymous with better quality.
Features are attributes of a product that supplement the
product’s basic performance. These include many of the “bells

2. and whistles” contained in products. A visit to any television or
computer retail store will reveal that features, such as surround
sound, HDTV capability, plasma, and size, are powerful
marketing tools for which customers will pay a premium. A
full-line television retail store may carry televisions priced from
$200 to $12,000. This range represents a 6,000% price premium
for additional features!
Reliability refers to the propensity for a product to perform
consistently over its useful design life. A subfield in quality
management has emerged, called reliability management, based
on the application of probability theory to quality. A product is
considered reliable if the chance that it will fail during its
designed life is very low. If a refrigerator has a 2% chance of
failure in a useful life of 10 years, we say that it is 98%
reliable.
Conformance is perhaps the most traditional definition of
quality. When a product is designed, certain numeric
dimensions for the product’s performance will be established,
such as capacity, speed, size, durability, or the like. These
numeric product dimensions are referred to as specifications.
The number of ounces of pulp allowed in a half-gallon container
of “pulp-free” orange juice is one example. Specifications
typically are allowed to vary a small amount called a tolerance.
If a particular dimension of a product is within the allowable
range of tolerance of the specification, it conforms.
The advantage of the conformance definition of quality for
products is that it is easily quantified. However, it is often
difficult for a service to conform to numeric specifications. For
example, imagine trying to measure the quality of a counselor’s
work versus that of a carmaker. Because counseling is
intangible, it is almost impossible to measure.
Not Available for Electronic Viewing
Durability is the degree to which a product tolerates stress or
trauma without failing. An example of a product that is not very
durable is a light bulb. Light bulbs are damaged easily and
cannot be repaired. In contrast, a trash can is a very durable

3. product that can be subjected to much wear and tear.
Serviceability is the ease of repair for a product. A product is
very serviceable if it can be repaired easily and cheaply. Many
products require service by a technician, such as the technician
who repairs your personal computer. If this service is rapid,
courteous, easy to acquire, and competent, then the product
generally is considered to have good serviceability. Note that
different dimensions of quality are not mutually exclusive.
Aesthetics are subjective sensory characteristics such as taste,
feel, sound, look, and smell. Although vinyl interiors in
automobiles require less maintenance, are less expensive, and
are more durable, leather interiors generally are considered
more aesthetically pleasing. In terms of aesthetics, we measure
quality as the degree to which product attributes are matched to
consumer preferences.
Perceived quality is based on customer opinion. As we said in
the beginning of this chapter, quality is as the customer
perceives it. Customers imbue products and services with their
understanding of their goodness. This is perceived quality. We
can witness an example of the effect of perceived quality every
year in college football polls that rank teams. In many cases, the
rankings are based on past records, team recognition, tradition
of the university, and other factors that are generally poor
indicators of team quality on a given Saturday. In the same way
that these factors affect sportswriters’ perceptions, factors such
as brand image, brand recognition, amount of advertising, and
word of mouth can affect consumers’ perceptions of quality.
The Garvin list of quality dimensions, although it is the most
widely cited and used, is not exhaustive. Other authors have
proposed lists of additional quality measures, such as safety.
Carol King 2 identified dimensions of service quality such
asresponsiveness, competence, access, courtesy,
communication, credibility, security, and understanding.
Allowed time, you probably could think of additional
dimensions as well.
2King, C., “A Framework for a Service Quality Assurance

4. System,” Quality Progress 20, 9 (1987):27–32.
Service Quality Dimensions
Service quality is even more difficult to define than product
quality. Although services and production share many
attributes, services have more diverse quality attributes than
products. This often results from wide variation created by high
customer involvement. For example, the consumer of a fountain
pen probably will not care that the factory worker producing the
pen was in a foul mood (as long as the quality of the pen is
good). However, excellent food served in a restaurant generally
will not suffice if the server is in a foul mood. In addition, a
consumer probably will not consider a pen poor quality if he or
she is in a bad mood when using the pen. However, food and
service in a restaurant could be excellent and still be perceived
poorly if the patron is feeling badly.
Parasuraman, Zeithamel, and Berry, three marketing professors
from Texas A&M University, published a widely recognized set
of service quality dimensions. These dimensions have been used
in many service firms to measure quality performance. The
Parasuraman, Zeithamel, and Berry dimensions are defined here
(see Table 1-2).
Not Available for Electronic Viewing
Tangibles include the physical appearance of the service
facility, the equipment, the personnel, and the communication
materials. For example, a hotel with yellowed linens will be
rated low for quality. Hair salons catering to an elite clientele
might invest in ambient lighting and employ only well-dressed
hairstylists. That the hairstylist is dressed well does not affect
the service being provided; however, clients believe that their
hair will be better styled by someone who is dressed stylishly.
Service reliability differs from product reliability in that it
relates to the ability of the service provider to perform the
promised service dependably and accurately. For example, a
firm might hire a consultant based on reputation alone. If the
consultant delivers what the customer wants, then the customer
will be satisfied and pay the consultancy fee. If the consultant

5. delivers something other than what the customer expects, the
customer will not pay the consultancy fee.
Responsiveness is the willingness of the service provider to be
helpful and prompt in providing service. When you last called
your bank for service, how long did it take for a response? Were
your problems taken care of quickly, or did you have to pay for
a toll call while you listened to “elevator music” for an hour?
Does your service provider always respond to you within three
rings of the phone—without forwarding your call to another
location?
Assurance refers to the knowledge and courtesy of employees
and their ability to inspire trust and confidence. If you needed
heart surgery, you probably would not opt for a doctor who
appeared forgetful and disorganized during an office
consultation. Rather, you would want assurance that the doctor
is competent.
Finally, consumers of services desire empathy from the service
provider. In other words, the customer desires caring,
individualized attention from the service firm. A maxim in the
restaurant industry is that “if you are in it for the money, you
probably won’t survive.” A restaurant where the employees are
constantly focused on efficiency will not give the customers the
feeling that their needs are important. Therefore, no empathy
will be shared, and restaurant employees will not adequately
provide service that will make customers want to return again
and again.
Just as there are many quality dimensions relating to
production, there are several other dimensions of service
quality, such asavailability, professionalism, timeliness,
completeness, and pleasantness. It should be noted that service
design strives to address these different service dimensions
simultaneously. It is not sufficient for a services firm to provide
only empathy if responsiveness and service reliability are
inadequate.
Why Does It Matter That Different Definitions of Quality Exist?
One problem with having multiple dimensions of quality is

6. communication. It is difficult to devise a coherent strategic plan
relating to quality when communication is imprecise. One
important attribute of a strategic plan is functional alignment or
consistency. If different departments in a company understand
quality differently, then the strategic plan will not be in
alignment. Understanding that different definitions and
dimensions of quality exist allows measures to be taken to
provide a good basis for communication and planning. By
sharing a common definition of quality, each department within
a company can work toward a common goal. In addition,
understanding the multiple dimensions of quality desired by
consumers can lead to improved product and service design.
Hewlett-Packard Corporation, a producer of laser printers for
computers, understands this concept very well. Early in their
quality journey, Hewlett-Packard developed products that
consistently conformed to specifications. This involved years of
product design, process control, and process improvement. Once
the printers conformed to specifications, the company
emphasized reliability. After the printers were found to be
reliable, the company was able to improve the aesthetics of their
printers. After years of working on these different quality
dimensions, Hewlett-Packard embarked on a “customer one-on-
one” program that emphasized customer interaction with
production workers. In this program, Hewlett-Packard
production workers take time to call customers on the phone to
assess and improve the “relationship” that the customer has with
a printer.
Differing Functional Perspectives on Quality
One of the important determinants of how we perceive quality is
the functional role we fulfill organizationally. Just as artists and
scientists process information differently, so do employees who
perform different functions in an organization.
For example, information systems analysts often find it difficult
to communicate with information systems users and internal
managers for several reasons. Why? A primary reason is that the
basic nature of the two jobs is different. Users might deal with

7. the consumer of the product or service as the final customer.
Analysts almost never interact with the external customer. To
the analyst, the user is the customer. Training received by
analysts and users is very different. Analysts usually have a
computer science background that stressed logic, systems
languages, and hardware architectures. Management training
more often stresses decision making, human resource
management, and strategic planning. Analysts are more detail
oriented. Users often are more focused on “big picture issues”
such as productivity improvement and cost containment. User
system requirements differ from analyst system requirements.
For example, users often are concerned with work flows and
quality, whereas analysts are concerned with the efficiency and
function of the machine. This difference in the nature of the
work performed by users and analysts causes them to see quality
issues differently. To an analyst, machine performance may be
an important definition of quality. However, to the user, the
manner in which the system improves responsiveness to
customer inquiries may be more important.
Differences between users and analysts are only one instance of
different perspectives created by functional differences.
Accountants are interested in information for accounting and
tax purposes; operations people want information for process
control and scheduling; finance people need information to
manage cash; and marketing needs information to see if sales
quotas are being met.
The organic view of the organization sees the whole as the sum
of different parts uniting to achieve an end. The heart and the
liver do not perform the same function in a body, but they each
perform processes that are necessary for survival of the whole.
Just as the body is subject to breakdown when different parts do
not perform properly, so are organizations. Unfortunately, firms
do not have the magnificent communication network (i.e., the
central nervous system) to coordinate activities that human
bodies have. For this reason, firms must constantly improve
their communication. Recognizing fundamental differences

8. between how different functions view quality is an important
first step in understanding and resolving problems associated
with mismatches of quality perceptions within organizations.
As organizational processes become more cross-functional,
many of these communications issues will find resolution.
However, experience with cross-functional teams has been
difficult for many firms because of poor communication skills
among team members. Therefore, it is expected that cognitive
differences between different functions will continue to be a
major problem that firms must overcome.
This section of the chapter views quality management from the
perspectives of several different functions. Many of the topics
discussed in this chapter are presented in concept only. More in-
depth discussions of these topics appear in later chapters. This
chapter is designed to lay out the field of quality management
from an interdisciplinary, integrative perspective. The functions
that are discussed here include supply chain management,
engineering, operations, strategic management, marketing,
finance/accounting, human resources, and management
information systems.
Please read INSTRUCTORS instructions carefully and
completely
Due date 6/2/15 in 6 hours or earlier
Summary of chapter
No plagiarism in own words
Will run through a plagiarism checker
Will not accept if after due date will dispute
Please cite and reference
References and citation page must include a valid URL to take

9. the reader to the electronic copy of each source.
If cannot complete with the given instructions do not reply
Please contact me if you have questions
Write as a discussion with another student
Write as, I found the material interesting, or what do you think
I may ask to change some areas at later date
Word count is counted by answer only
Please write with question first followed by answer
Please write clearly simplify
I am in the U.S.
No charts or graphs
Needs to be like a discussion in class or post
Make answer at least 4 post 100 to 150 each
Instructions
Select the correct answer for the 70 multiple choice questions
by highlighting the correct answer
1. Item 1
Enzymes:
A. increase the energy of activation for a reaction, thus
increasing the reaction rate.
B. decrease the energy of activation for a reaction, thus
decreasing the reaction rate.

10. C. increase ΔG for a reaction, thus increasing the reaction rate.
D. decrease the energy of activation for a reaction, thus
increasing the reaction rate.
E. decrease ΔG for a reaction, thus increasing the reaction rate.
1. Item 2
Hemophilia is an X-linked recessive disorder involving blood
clotting. If a Mr. Y, who is a hemophiliac, marries Mrs. Z, who
is a carrier for hemophilia, and one of their daughters (Miss A,
who is not a hemophiliac) marries a normal man (Mr. B), what
is the probability that a grandson of Mr. Y and Mrs. Z is a
hemophiliac?
A. 25% B. 50% C. 75% D. 100% E. Cannot be determined
from the information given
1. Item 3
All of the following could cause increases in resting blood
pressure EXCEPT:
A. increased Na+ reabsorption by the kidney.
B. increased heart rate.
C. decreased dehydration.
D. caffeine.
E. None of the above.
1. Item 4
The functions of the liver include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. formation of blood proteins.
B. regulation of glycogen metabolism.
C. secretion of bile.
D. storage of vitamins.
E. secretion of bicarbonate.
1. Item 5
Osteoblasts, osteoclasts, and osteocytes are the three cell types
found in bone tissue. Osteoclasts are activated by:
A. low blood Ca2+ levels and high parathyroid hormone levels.

11. B. low blood Ca2+ levels and high calcitonin levels.
C. high blood Ca2+ levels and high calcitonin levels.
D. high blood Ca2+ levels and high vitamin D levels.
E. low blood Ca2+ levels and low parathyroid hormone levels.
1. Item 6
Which hormone binds to a receptor on the cell surface?
A. Aldosterone
B. Progesterone
C. Cortisol
D. Adrenaline
E. Testosterone
1. Item 7
Which of the following RNA sequences would be transcribed if
the sequence of the DNA coding strand were TATTGCATCAA?
A. UAUUGCAUCAA
B. AUAACGUAGUU
C. TTGUTGCUUTU
D. AUAAGCAUCAA
E. UUGAUCGUUAU
1. Item 8
The pentose phosphate pathway is involved in all of the
following EXCEPT:
A. eliminating reactive oxygen species.
B. producing nucleotides.
C. facilitating fatty acid synthesis.
D. forming NADH.
E. generating ribose-5-phosphate.
1. Item 9
When blood pressure is low, the rate of blood filtration drops.
The kidney secretes renin to help compensate. The direct effect
that renin has in the body is to:
A. generally constrict arterioles to increase peripheral

12. resistance.
B. convert the blood protein angiotensinogen into angiotensin I.
C. convert angiotensin I into angiotensin II, a powerful
vasoconstrictor.
D. dilate the renal artery.
E. dilate the glomerular capillaries.
1. Item 10
In designing antibiotics to treat infections caused by facultative
anaerobic bacteria in humans, the targets which would be most
attractive are inhibitors of bacterial:
A. mRNA splicing.
B. electron transport.
C. poly-A addition for mRNAs.
D. transcription.
E. None of the above.
1. Item 11
A double homozygous dominant rabbit with bent ears and big
feet is crossed with a double homozygous recessive rabbit with
straight ears and small feet. One of the F1s is backcrossed to
the double homozygous recessive parent producing an F2
generation with the following ratios of phenotypes: 15 rabbits
with bent ears and big feet, 15 rabbits with straight ears and
small feet, 5 rabbits with bent ears and small feet, and 5 rabbits
with straight ears and big feet. What is the recombination
frequency between the gene for ear position and the gene for
foot size?
A. 12.5%
B. 25%
C. 33.3%
D. 50%
E. 66.7%
1. Item 12
During muscle contraction, which regions of the sarcomere

13. shorten?
I. A band II. I band III. H band
A. II only
B. I and II only
C. II and III only
D. I and III only
E. I, II, and III
1. Item 13
Which cells in the testes are responsible for secretion of
testosterone?
A. Sustentacular (Sertoli) cells
B. Spermatogonia
C. Supporting cells
D. Interstitial (Leydig) cells
E. None of the above secrete testosterone.
1. Item 14
What is the primary effect of transposons?
A. Generate mutations and chromosomal rearrangements
B. Facilitate recombination during meiosis
C. Provide protection against integration of lysogenic viruses
D. Increase the affinity of RNA polymerase binding to a
promoter
E. Conduct DNA replication proofreading
1. Item 15
The volume of air that remains in the lungs after a complete
expiration is called the:
A. residual volume.
B. expiratory reserve volume.
C. functional residual capacity.
D. vital capacity.
E. tidal volume.
1. Item 16

14. All of the following are methods by which bacteria can achieve
genetic diversity EXCEPT:
A. conjugation.
B. binary fission.
C. transformation.
D. transduction.
E. recombination.
1. Item 17
The dendrites of a single postsynaptic neuron often form
synapses with axons of many different presynaptic neurons. The
combined input of all the presynaptic neurons ultimately
determines whether the postsynaptic neuron will fire an action
potential or not. This is known as:
A. facilitation.
B. integration.
C. cooperativity.
D. temporal summation.
E. spatial summation.
1. Item 18
A hospital has possibly switched the babies of Couples X and Y.
Their blood types are as follows:
Couple X: type A and type A Baby 1: type O
Couple Y: type AB and type O Baby 2: type B
Which baby belongs to which couple?
A. Both babies belong to Couple Y.
B. Baby 1 belongs to Couple Y and Baby 2 belongs to Couple
X.
C. Baby 1 belongs to Couple X, but Baby 2 could belong to
either couple.
D. Baby 1 belongs to Couple X and Baby 2 belongs to Couple
Y.
E. Baby 2 belongs to Couple Y, but Baby 1 does not belong to
either couple.

15. 1. Item 19
If red blood cells are placed in pure water, which of the
following would occur?
A. The cells would swell due to the high osmotic pressure of
the water.
B. The cells would shrink due to the high osmotic pressure of
the cells.
C. The cells would neither shrink nor swell because red blood
cells are isotonic to water.
D. The cells would swell because they are hypotonic to the
water.
E. None of the above would occur.
1. Item 20
The net products of glycolysis per glucose molecule are:
A. 4 ATP, 2 NADH, 2 pyruvate
B. 2 ATP, 2 NADH, 2 pyruvate
C. 2 ATP, 4 NADH, 2 lactate
D. 4 ATP, 4 NADH, 4 pyruvate
E. 2 ATP, 2 NADH, 2 lactate
1. Item 21
The hair cells on the basilar membrane represent which of the
following receptor types?
A. Baroreceptor
B. Thermoreceptor
C. Mechanoreceptor
D. Chemoreceptor
E. Nociceptor
1. Item 22
Which of the following cells are produced by the first meiotic
division of oogenesis?
A. Oogonium
B. Primary oocyte and first polar body
C. Secondary oocyte and first polar body

16. D. Secondary oocyte and second polar body
E. Mature ovum and second polar body
1. Item 23
Potassium moving down its concentration gradient through
K+channels in the plasma membrane is an example of:
A. simple diffusion.
B. active transport.
C. exocytosis.
D. osmosis.
E. facilitated diffusion.
1. Item 24
All of the following can be observed during both meiosis and
mitosis EXCEPT:
A. alignment of chromosomes on the metaphase plate.
B. separation of sister chromatids.
C. synapsis of homologous chromosomes.
D. cytokinesis.
E. dissolution of the nuclear membrane.
1. Item 25
The opening of which type of ion channel initiates an action
potential?
A. Voltage-gated Na+
B. K+ leak
C. Voltage-gated K+
D. Voltage-gated Ca2+
E. Na+/K+ pump
1. Item 26
All of the following are true about Gram– bacteria EXCEPT:
A. they have thin cell walls.
B. they have an inner plasma membrane.
C. they stain a dark purple in Gram stain.
D. they are more resistant to antibiotics than Gram+ bacteria.

17. E. they have a layer of plasma membrane outside the cell wall.
1. Item 27
When measuring reaction velocity as a function of substrate
concentration, a researcher usually keeps the concentration of
enzyme at a constant level. What would happen if the enzyme
concentration were NOT kept constant?
A. Vmax would remain constant, but V would change.
B. Vmax would remain constant, but Km would change.
C. Vmax would change, but Km would remain constant.
D. both Vmax and Km would change.
E. None of the above would necessarily occur.
1. Item 28
What role does p53, a typical product of a tumor suppressor
gene, play in the cell?
A. Signal CD4 T cells to destroy a cell infected with a cancer-
causing virus
B. Upregulate transcription of protooncogenes
C. Promote chemotaxis and diapedesis of the cell
D. Trigger apoptosis if abnormal cell growth cannot be halted
E. Stimulate production of additional mitochondria
1. Item 29
Which of the following correctly lists functions of the
sympathetic nervous system?
A. Dilate pupils, reduce heart rate, increase blood pressure,
inhibit GI tract
B. Increase heart rate, constrict pupils, decrease blood
pressure, inhibit GI tract
C. Increase blood pressure, dilate pupils, dilate bronchial
tubes, increase heart rate
D. Inhibit GI tract, increase heart rate, constrict bronchial
tubes, increase blood pressure
E. Dilate bronchial tubes, stimulate GI tract, increase heart rate,
constrict pupils

18. 1. Item 30
All of the following statements about DNA replication are true
EXCEPT:
A. it occurs in the 5′ to 3′ direction.
B. both new strands are replicated continuously along the
parent strands.
C. prokaryotes use five different DNA polymerases.
D. it requires an RNA primer.
E. it is semiconservative.
1. Item 31
A virus infects a cell and immediately induces the cellular
machinery to produce new viral particles. These new viruses
exit the cell by budding through the cell membrane. Which of
the following is true about this virus?
A. It is a plant virus involved in a lytic cycle.
B. It is a bacterial virus involved in a lysogenic cycle.
C. It is a plant virus involved in a productive cycle.
D. It is an animal virus involved in a lytic cycle.
E. It is an animal virus involved in a productive cycle.
1. Item 32
The structure that secretes progesterone during the menstrual
cycle is the:
A. oocyte.
B. ovary.
C. developing follicle.
D. corpus luteum.
E. uterus.
1. Item 33
Which of the following lists organelles that have only a single
membrane?
A. Nucleus, rough ER, mitochondria
B. Mitochondria, Golgi apparatus, rough ER C. Lysosome,

19. Golgi apparatus, nucleus
D. Golgi apparatus, rough ER, lysosome
E. Mitochondria, lysosome, rough ER
1. Item 34
Which intermediate of cellular respiration is NOT part of
gluconeogenesis?
A. Oxaloacetate
B. Phosphoenolpyruvate
C. Dihydroxyacetone-phosphate
D. Fructose-6-phosphate
E. Acetyl-CoA
1. Item 35
Which of the following sensory receptors are NOT
mechanoreceptors?
A. Aortic baroreceptors
B. Hearing receptors in the Organ of Corti
C. Rods and cones
D. Pacinian corpuscles
E. Golgi tendon organs
1. Item 36
The hormone responsible for raising blood glucose levels
between meals is:
A. glucagon.
B. insulin.
C. epinephrine.
D. ACTH.
E. none of the above.
1. Item 37
A woman who is heterozygous for brown eyes (blue is
recessive) and heterozygous for brown hair (blond is recessive)
marries a man who has blond hair and is heterozygous for
brown eyes. What is the probability they will have a son who
has brown hair and brown eyes, and who is capable of fathering

20. children with blue eyes?
A. 1/4
B. 1/2
C. 1/8
D. 1/16
E. This cannot be determined from the information given.
1. Item 38
The ion channel responsible for the plateau of the cardiac
muscle cell action potential is the:
A. Na+ leak.
B. K+ leak.
C. voltage-gated Na+.
D. voltage-gated K+.
E. voltage-gated Ca2+.
1. Item 39
The functions of the large intestine include all of the following
EXCEPT:
A. fecal storage.
B. reabsorption of water.
C. production of vitamin K by intestinal bacteria.
D. digestion and absorption of nutrients not fully digested in the
small intestine.
E. reabsorption of electrolytes.
1. Item 40
During which phase of the ovarian cycle are increasing levels of
estrogen secreted?
A. Secretory phase
B. Follicular phase
C. Ovulatory phase
D. Menstrual phase
E. Proliferative phase
1. Item 41

21. Telomerases are important in the replication of eukaryotic DNA
because they:
A. connect leading and lagging strand fragments to create a
contiguous linear chromosome.
B. remove methyl groups from protected sequences to allow
replication.
C. generate the repetitious DNA sequences at the end of linear
chromosomes.
D. provide primers for leading strand synthesis.
E. unwind the double helix for replication to begin.
1. Item 42
In the absence of ATP, which step(s) of the sliding filament
theory CANNOT occur?
I. Myosin head groups attach to actin. II. Myosin “power
stroke” pulls actin toward center of sarcomere. III. Myosin
releases actin. IV. Myosin head groups are cocked back to
“reset” to original position.
A. II only
B. II and III only
C. III and IV only
D. I and II only
E. II, III, and IV only
1. Item 43
Which of the following structures are NOT made of
microtubules?
A. Microvilli
B. Mitotic spindle
C. Flagella
D. Cilia E. Centrioles
1. Item 44
Which blood vessel carries oxygenated blood to the left atrium
of the heart?
A. Aorta

22. B. Pulmonary artery
C. Pulmonary vein
D. Superior vena cava
E. Coronary artery
1. Item 45
Blood filtration by the kidney takes place at the:
A. vasa recta.
B. proximal tubule.
C. renal artery.
D. glomerular capillaries.
E. distal tubule.
1. Item 46
A competitive inhibitor causes:
A. Vmax to decrease and Km to remain unchanged.
B. Vmax to remain unchanged and Km to decrease.
C. Vmax to remain unchanged and Km to increase.
D. Vmax to increase and Km to remain unchanged.
E. neither Vmax nor Km to be affected.
1. Item 47
Which of the following is a characteristic of prokaryotic protein
synthesis?
A. Prokaryotic mRNA is monocistronic.
B. The first amino acid translated is formyl-methionine.
C. Prokaryotic transcription requires three separate RNA
polymerases.
D. The mRNA must be polyadenylated at the 3’ end.
E. Introns must be spliced out before translation can occur.
1. Item 48
What attributes of prions makes them difficult to destroy?
A. Tough outer cell wall
B. Resistance to heat and chemical treatment
C. Ability to mutate quickly

23. D. Resemblance to human cell surface receptors
E. Integration into the host cell genome
1. Item 49
The role of surfactant in the respiratory system is to:
A. stimulate the diaphragm.
B. increase the lipid solubility of oxygen, allowing it to diffuse
more easily into the blood.
C. dilate the bronchial tubes.
D. reduce surface tension in the alveoli.
E. trap inhaled dirt and dust particles.
1. Item 50
Which of the following contributes the most to maintenance of
the normal resting membrane potential of cells?
A. K+ leak channels
B. Na+ leak channels
C. Na+/K+ ATPase
D. Opening of voltage-gated Na+ and K+ channels
E. Establishment of a strong Na+ concentration gradient
1. Item 51
Including the ATP used for amino acid activation/tRNA
loading, approximately how many ATP equivalents are required
to synthesize a 200 amino acid protein?
A. 200
B. 400
C. 600
D. 800
E. 1000
1. Item 52
Which best described the process by which rod cells are
activated?
A. light strikes a depolarized rod cell → Na+ channels close →
hyperpolarization of rod stops release of an inhibitory

24. neurotransmitter
B. light strikes a depolarized rod cell → Na+ channels open →
hyperpolarization of rod stops release of an inhibitory
neurotransmitter
C. light strikes a rod cell at resting membrane potential →
Na+channels open → depolarization of rod leads to an action
potential
D. light strikes a rod cell at resting membrane potential →
K+channels open → hyperpolarization of rod stops release of an
inhibitory neurotransmitter
E. light strikes a depolarized rod cell → K+ channels open →
hyperpolarization of rod stops release of an inhibitory
neurotransmitter
1. Item 53
Which of the following bacterial auxotrophs should be grown in
a lactose-based medium containing arginine and threonine but
lacking histidine?
A. Arg– Lac+ Thr– His+
B. Arg– Lac– Thr+ His–
C. Arg+ Lac– Thr+ His–
D. Arg+ Lac+ Thr+ His–
E. Arg– Lac– Thr– His+
1. Item 54
The area of the cerebral cortex which controls voluntary motor
function and complex reasoning is the:
A. parietal lobe.
B. frontal lobe.
C. temporal lobe.
D. occipital lobe.
E. olfactory lobe.
1. Item 55
In an operon, which of the following best describes the

25. promoter?
A. It is the binding site for the repressor.
B. It is a molecule that inactivates the repressor and permits
transcription.
C. It activates the repressor-inducer complex to permit
transcription.
D. It is the binding site for met-tRNAmet to initiate translation.
E. It is the binding site for RNA polymerase.
1. Item 56
In muscle cells undergoing anaerobic respiration (i.e.,
fermentation):
A. pyruvate is reduced to ethanol.
B. pyruvate is oxidized to ethanol.
C. pyruvate is reduced to lactic acid.
D. pyruvate is oxidized to lactic acid.
E. none of the above. Muscle cells cannot undergo fermentation.
1. Item 57
Spermatogenesis occurs in the:
A. vas deferens.
B. epididymis.
C. scrotum.
D. seminiferous tubules.
E. none of the above.
1. Item 58
Cholecystokinin functions in digestion to cause the release of:
I. trypsinogen. II. bile. III. pepsinogen.
A. II only
B. I and II only
C. I and III only
D. II and III only
E. I, II, and III

26. 1. Item 59
Alcohol inhibits the production of antidiuretic hormone. A
person who has consumed alcohol would have:
A. increased urine output and increased urine osmolarity.
B. decreased urine output and increased urine osmolarity.
C. increased urine output and increased blood osmolarity.
D. decreased urine output and decreased blood osmolarity.
E. increased urine output and decreased blood osmolarity.
1. Item 60
Which of the following muscle fiber types uses oxidative
metabolism?
I. Type I II. Type IIa III. Type IIb
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. III only
D. II and III only
E. I, II, and III
1. Item 61
Cell surface proteins, such as receptors, begin synthesis on
cytoplasmic ribosomes, but are targeted by signal sequences
(particular amino acid sequences within the protein) to the
rough ER to complete their synthesis. Which of the following
statements concerning signal sequences is/are true?
I. They are hydrophobic. II. They can be found at the beginning
of the protein’s amino acid sequence. III. They are always
cleaved from the mature protein upon completion of translation.
IV. They can be found in the middle of the protein’s amino acid
sequence.
A. I and II only
B. II and III only
C. I, II, and III only
D. III only
E. I, II, and IV only

27. 1. Item 62
Carbon dioxide is a small hydrophobic molecule that can freely
diffuse across plasma membranes. In the bloodstream, it
combines with water to form carbonic acid. Excess carbon
dioxide provides the primary drive for respiration, primarily as
dissociated carbonic acid. Low arterial PCO2 would cause all of
the following physiological changes EXCEPT:
A. decreased HCO3– reabsorption by the kidney.
B. increased HCO3– transport out of the cerebrospinal fluid.
C. faster ventilation rate.
D. decreased PCO2 in the cerebrospinal fluid.
E. increased plasma pH.
1. Item 63
Aerobic respiration in eukaryotes produces less ATP per
glucose molecule than aerobic respiration in prokaryotes. This
is because:
A. prokaryotes can produce a larger proton gradient across the
inner mitochondrial membrane, thus causing a greater driving
force for ATP synthesis.
B. eukaryotes must actively transport glucose into the
mitochondria where respiration occurs.
C. prokaryotes can generate 2.5 ATP per FADH2 molecule,
whereas eukaryotes can only generate 1.5 per FADH2.
D. the electrons from cytoplasmic NADH in eukaryotes are
shuttled to ubiquinone instead of NADH dehydrogenase.
E. fermentation and the tricarboxylic acid cycle can run
simultaneously in prokaryotes, generating two additional ATP
per glucose molecule.
1. Item 64
The autonomic nervous system uses several different
neurotransmitters in several different locations with several
different receptor types. Which of the following receptors binds
ACh at parasympathetic target organs?
A. Muscarinic receptors

28. B. Nicotinic receptors
C. α receptors
D. β receptors
E. Adrenergic receptors
1. Item 65
All of the following statements about stem cells are true
EXCEPT:
I. adult stem cells can be collected from the bone marrow and
are multipotent. II. the zygote and early cells of the embryo are
totipotent. III. embryonic stem cells are pluripotent and can
become any of the embryonic germ layers or the trophoblast.
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III only
D. II and III only
E. I, II, and III
1. Item 66
HIV, the virus that causes AIDS, is a (+)RNA retrovirus. A
significant concern in the treatment of HIV infection with drugs
is the development of drug-resistant virus. Which of the
following is most likely to contribute to the development of
drug-resistant HIV?
A. Mutation of the virus after insertion into the host-cell
genome
B. Frequent random errors in transcription of the viral genome
by host-cell enzymes
C. Viral proteins folding differently in the presence of drug
than in its absence
D. Covalent modification of viral nucleic acids by the drug
E. Mutation of viral reverse transcriptase after infection of the
host cell
1. Item 67
A portion of prokaryotic mRNA has the following base

29. sequence: 5’ACAUCUAUGCCACGA3’. Which of the following
could result from a mutation that changes the underlined base to
A?
I. Inhibition of initiation of translation II. Truncation of the
polypeptide III. A shift in the reading frame for translation
A. I only
B. II only
C. II and III only
D. I and II only
E. I, II, and III
1. Item 68
During systole, the left ventricle of the heart pumps about 60%
of its blood out to the body. This amount is referred to as the
ejection fraction. The blood that remains in the ventricles at the
end of ejection is called the residual volume, and is typically
about 50 mL. Congestive heart failure is caused by a reduced
pumping efficiency of the left ventricle. This could result in all
of the following EXCEPT:
A. congestion of blood in the pulmonary artery.
B. residual volume less than 50 mL.
C. decreased aortic pressures and blood flow.
D. right ventricular failure.
E. pulmonary edema.
1. Item 69
Polydactyly is a disorder caused by a dominant allele that
results in extra fingers. If the allele causing polydactyly is
present at a frequency of 0.2 in a certain large, isolated,
randomlymating population, what is the frequency of affected
individuals in this population?
A. 0.04
B. 0.32
C. 0.36

30. D. 0.64
E. 0.96
1. Item 70
Epidural block is a form of anesthesia commonly used to
prevent the pain of childbirth. It involves the injection of a
somewhat lipid-soluble anesthetic into the epidural space (a fat
filled region outside the dura mater of the spinal cord). This
successfully blocks the pain of uterine contractions during labor
without blocking the contractions themselves. This is because:
A. the somatic motor neurons innervating the uterus are not
affected by the anesthetic.
B. injection of the anesthetic occurs too low on the spinal
column to affect the uterus.
C. the anesthetic does not cross the dura mater and thus does
not affect the spinal cord.
D. the blood vessels that pick up and transport the anesthetic do
not travel to the uterus.
E. the contractions are stimulated by hormonal stimuli that are
not affected by the anesthetic.