The document provides an overview of computer hardware and software components. It discusses how data is stored in binary form in computers and defines the primary functions of hardware as input, processing, output, and storage. The two main input devices are listed as the keyboard and mouse, while the two main output devices are the monitor and printer. Electronic hardware requires a method for the CPU to communicate, software to control it, and electricity to power it. The document also reviews operating system functions and common OS types, as well as components of the computer boot process.
1. A+ Guide to Managing and Maintaining your PC, 6e (Comprehensive)
CHAPTER 1
REVIEWING THE BASICS
1. Why is all data stored in a computer in binary form?
Binary is the format that the computer “understands,” not a programming language or a human
language. All instructions between hardware and software in a computer are reduced to a simple
yes or no, a state of on or off.
2. What are the four primary functions of hardware?
Input, processing, output, and storage
3. What are the two main input devices and two main output devices?
The two main input devices are the keyboard and the mouse. The two main output devices are the
monitor and the printer.
4. What three things do electronic hardware devices need in order to function?
A method for the CPU to communicate with the device, software to instruct and control the
device, and electricity to power the device
5. How many bits are in a byte?
Eight
6. What is the purpose of an expansion slot on a motherboard?
An expansion slot on a motherboard is used for an expansion card, which enables a device that is
not on the motherboard to communicate with the CPU.
7. Which component on the motherboard is used primarily for processing?
2. The CPU (central processing unit), also called the processor
8. Name three CPU manufacturers.
Possible answers: Intel, AMD, Cyrix, IBM
9. What technology is most often used today to manufacture microchips?
CMOS (complementary metal-oxide semiconductor)
10. What are two other names for the system bus?
Possible answers: memory bus, host bus, front side bus, external bus
11. What are two other names for the motherboard?
Main board, system board
12. What are the two basic types of cables found inside a computer case and what are their
basic functions?
A data cable used for passing data between devices and a power cable used to supply power to a
device.
13. List three types of ports that are often found coming directly off the motherboard to be
used by external devices.
Possible answers: serial port, parallel port, USB port, network port, FireWire or 1394 port, mouse
port, keyboard port, S/PDIF port, sound port, wireless LAN antenna port
14. What is the purpose of the S/PDIF port?
The S/PDIF port connects to an external home theater audio system, providing digital output and
the best signal quality.
15. List three kinds of memory modules.
SIMMs (single inline memory modules), DIMMs (dual inline memory modules), RIMMs
16. What is the difference between volatile and nonvolatile memory?
3. Volatile memory is temporary and needs a constant electrical charge to hold data. Nonvolatile
memory is permanent and holds memory even when electricity is turned off.
17. Of the two types of storage in a system, which type is generally faster and holds data and
instructions while the data is being processed? Which type of storage is generally slower,
but more permanent?
Primary storage, secondary storage
18. What technology standard provides for up to four devices on a system, including the hard
drive as one of those devices? What are two common industry names loosely used to
describe this standard?
ATA (AT attachment), also called EIDE (enhanced integrated drive electronics) or IDE
19. What is the size of the data path on most system buses today?
64 bits
20. What is the measurement of frequency of a system bus and CPU? Which is faster, the
system bus or the CPU?
Frequency is generally measured in Hz, MHz, or GHz. The CPU is faster than the system bus.
21. Name four types of buses that are likely to be on a motherboard today.
Possible answers: PCI (Peripheral Component Interconnect), AGP (Accelerated Graphics Port),
ISA (Industry Standard Architecture), system bus, PCI Express
22. A power supply receives 120 volts of ___ power from a wall outlet and converts it to 3.3,
5, and 12 volts of ____ power.
AC, DC
4. 23. ROM BIOS or firmware chips that can be upgraded without replacing the chips are called
________.
Flash ROM
24. CMOS setup allows a technician to change configuration settings on a motherboard
stored in ______.
CMOS RAM
25. Name three examples of secondary storage devices.
Some possible answers: CD drive, hard drive, floppy drive, DVD drive, Zip drive
26. A hertz is ________ cycle per second; a megahertz is ________ cycles per second, and a
gigahertz is ________ cycles per second.
One, one million, and one billion
27. An AGP slot is normally used for a(n) _______ expansion card.
Video
28. How many sizes of PCI Express slots are currently manufactured for personal computers?
Four
29. Name the three purposes the motherboard ROM BIOS serves.
The BIOS is used to manage simple devices (system BIOS), to start the computer (startup BIOS),
and to change settings on the motherboard (CMOS setup).
5. 30. From where does CMOS RAM receive its power?
CMOS RAM is powered by a trickle of electricity from a small battery located on the
motherboard or computer case.
THINKING CRITICALLY
1. When selecting secondary storage devices for a new desktop PC, which is more important, a
CD-ROM drive or a floppy drive? Why?
A CD-ROM drive is more important, because most software today is distributed on CD.
2. Based on what you have learned in this chapter, when working on a Word document, why is it
important to save your work often? Explain your answer using the two terms, primary storage
and secondary storage.
It is important because data is temporarily stored in RAM or primary storage, which is volatile. If
the power is lost, all data in primary storage is lost. In order to secure the data, it must be copied
from primary storage to secondary storage, such as a hard drive or floppy disk, which is
nonvolatile or permanent storage.
3. Most buses are 16, 32, 64, or 128 bits wide. Why do you think these bus widths are multiples
of eight?
Because everything in a computer is stored and processed in binary, and 1 byte equals 8 bits
4. Why would it be difficult to install four hard drives, one CD-ROM drive, and one DVD drive
in a single low-end system?
These types of drives are normally EIDE devices, and most low-end systems can only hold four
EIDE devices. Also, most computer cases do not have enough bays to hold this many drives.
5. In this chapter, a light bulb is used to demonstrate the binary concept used for computer storage
and communication. Give another example in everyday life to explain this binary concept.
6. Get creative.
Possible answer: A water hydrant is either on or off. It is difficult to measure the amount of water
coming out of the hydrant, but not difficult to decide if the water is off or on.
6. If the CMOS battery inside your computer system died, when you first turn on your system, will
you expect the system to boot up normally to the operating system level? What information do
you think the system would not have available for a successful boot?
No, the system will not boot normally because the configuration information would not be
available. This information includes the type of hard drive and floppy drive installed and the boot
sequence.
7. Why is it more accurate to describe the CPU and motherboard bus using the term frequency
rather than speed? Explain your answer.
It is more accurate to describe the CPU and motherboard with the term frequency than speed
because the term speed implies there is a continuous motion or flow of data, whereas frequency
suggests a digital or binary flow of data. Frequency is more accurate because computer
technology is built using the binary on/off system.
Chapter 2
REVIEWING THE BASICS
1. List four major functions of an OS.
It manages hardware; runs applications; provides an interface for users; and stores, retrieves, and
manipulates files.
2. Which operating system is only used on Apple Macintosh computers?
Mac OS
7. 3. Which operating system was developed by Microsoft using core components of OS/2 and
was meant to replace OS/2?
Windows NT
4. What is the next Microsoft operating system for desktop computers to be released in 2007?
Windows Vista
5. Which operating system often used for server applications is a scaled-down version of
Unix?
Linux
6. Why did many users choose not to upgrade to Windows Me?
Users did not feel it was a significant upgrade from Windows 98.
7. What Microsoft OS is an upgrade of Windows 2000?
Windows XP
8. What are three possible interfaces an OS provides to the user? Briefly explain the functions
of each.
Command-Driven – The user types in commands to tell the OS what operations to perform. This
type of interface is like that of DOS commands and is often preferred by computer techs who
know this DOS-like command.
Menu-Driven – The OS allows the user to choose from a list of options in order to perform any
given operation.
Icon-Driven – Also known as GUI, the OS allows a user to choose from icons or pictures on the
screen in order to perform any given operation. Most operating systems today offer both a menu-
driven as well as an icon-driven interface.
8. 9. Which file system is used by floppy disks?
FAT
10. What are two file systems used by hard drives?
FAT and NTFS
11. Real mode operates using a(n) ___-bit data path, and protected mode uses a(n) ____-bit
data path.
16, 32
12. Which Microsoft operating system(s) support 16-bit device drivers or 32-bit device
drivers?
Windows 95 or Windows 98 (DOS, Windows Me, and Windows NT/2000/XP do not.)
13. Real mode allows programs direct access to ____, but protected mode does not.
hardware devices including memory
14. List three types of information that are kept in the Windows registry.
OS configuration data, user settings, application settings
15. List four ways to launch an application from the Windows desktop.
• By double-clicking a shortcut icon on the desktop
• By clicking Start, pointing to Programs, and selecting the program from a list of installed
software
• By using the Run command from the Start menu
• By double-clicking a filename in My Computer or Windows Explorer
16. Give two situations in which Windows keystroke shortcuts might be useful.
Keyboard shortcuts are sometimes faster for experienced typists, and they are useful when the
mouse is not usable during some troubleshooting situations.
17. How do you access the Display Properties window? What are two settings you can change
from this window?
9. Right-click anywhere on the desktop and select Properties from the shortcut menu or use the
Display applet in Control Panel to access Display Properties. From this window, you can change
the background, screen saver, color scheme, icon settings, color range, screen resolution, screen
refresh rate, and drivers.
18. What Windows 2000/XP and Windows 9x utility allows you to update the device driver
for a device?
Device Manager
19. Users and applications depend on what to relate to all hardware components?
Users and applications depend on the OS to relate to all hardware components.
20. Every operating system has two main internal components. The ________ relates to the
user and to applications and provides a command, menu, or icon interface, whereas, the
________ is responsible for interfacing with the hardware.
Shell, kernel
21. What command can you enter in the Run dialog box to launch Device Manager?
Devmgmt.msc
22. Applets in the Control Panel are stored as program files with what file extension?
.cpl
23. What Windows 2000/XP tool can you use to view the number of partitions used by a hard
drive?
Disk Management
24. What command can you enter in the Run dialog box to launch the Windows 2000/XP
System Information utility?
Msinfo32.exe
25. Which Windows operating system(s) allow more than one user to be logged on
simultaneously, each having his own open applications?
10. Windows XP
26. When using Linux, what is the purpose of an X Windows application?
To provide a GUI shell for Linux
27. What command can you enter in the Run dialog box of Windows 2000/XP to launch the
Disk Management utility?
Diskmgmt.msc
28. A floppy drive is divided into tracks, which are divided into sectors. How large is each
sector?
512 bytes
29. What is the name of the file used by Windows 2000/XP to hold data and instructions in
virtual memory?
Pagefile.sys
30. Which of the two OS core components includes the Windows desktop? Which of the two
OS core components includes the Windows memory manager?
Shell, kernel
31. What is the purpose of the Boot Camp software on a Mac?
To allow Windows to be installed as a dual boot alone with the Mac OS
32. What type of data is contained in files that have an .ini or .inf file extension?
These file extensions generally relate to initialization files. This file, along with a registry,
maintains information necessary for hardware/software configuration, user preferences, and
application settings.
33. In Windows XP Device Manager, how do you uninstall a device?
Right-click on the device and select Uninstall from the shortcut menu.
34. What is the Windows keyboard shortcut to move from one loaded application to another?
To display the Start menu from the Windows desktop? To close the active application
11. window? To shutdown Windows when no applications are loaded?
Alt + Tab, Win or Ctrl+Esc, Alt+F4, Alt+F4
THINKING CRITICALLY
1. Is a mouse more likely to be controlled by a device driver or by system BIOS?
By a device driver
2. Name one device that is likely to be controlled by system BIOS.
Possible answers: floppy disk drive, hard drive, keyboard, video
3. If your printer is giving you trouble, what is the best way to obtain an update for the device
driver?
Download the latest driver from the device manufacturer’s Web site.
4. What Windows tool can you use to know how much RAM is installed on your system?
Possible answers: System Properties, System Information
5. Why is 16-bit Windows software considered to be legacy software?
16-bit Windows software is considered to be legacy software because it is software written for
Windows 3.x and data is accessed at 16 bits at a time; whereas computers running Windows 95 or
later OSs use 32-bit or 64-bit programs written to be able to access 32 or 64 bits of data at a time.
Chapter 3
Reviewing the Basics
1. What is the difference between a hard boot and a soft boot?
A hard boot usually involves restarting the computer by pressing the on/off switch. A soft boot is
performed from the operating system, such as by pressing the key combination Ctrl+Alt+Del or
by choosing a Restart option from the Shut Down dialog box.
2. What are the four main parts of the boot process?
• BIOS checks hardware through POST.
• The ROM BIOS program searches for and loads an OS.
12. • The OS configures the system and completes its own loading.
• The user executes application software.
3. What memory address is always assigned to the first instruction in the ROM BIOS startup
program?
FFFF0h
4. How does startup BIOS communicate errors during POST if video is not yet available?
Beep codes
5. Name the program that is needed to locate the beginning of the OS on a drive.
The MBR (master boot record)
6. List three types of information contained in a hard drive’s partition table.
• How many partitions are present
• Where each partition begins and ends
• Which partition is the active partition
7. What is the name of the Windows NT/2000/XP boot loader program?
Ntldr
8. How many startup disks are needed to boot Windows 2000 from a floppy disk?
Four
9. When troubleshooting a failed boot, if you don’t see any lights or hear any noises, what
hardware system do you first assume is at fault?
The electrical system
10. When booting your computer and you see a blank screen, but hear a single beep, what can
you assume worked with no errors?
POST
11. When booting your computer and you see a blank screen, but hear a single beep, what
component should you check first?
13. The monitor or monitor cable
12. Using the rule “trade good for suspected bad,” describe how to easily troubleshoot a video
problem.
Exchange the suspected bad monitor for one you know is good. If that does not help, try
exchanging the video card.
13. Give five possible questions that should be asked of a user who is experiencing computer
problems.
• Possible answers:
• What procedure was taking place at the time?
• What had just happened?
• What recent changes did the user make?
• When did the computer last work?
• What has happened in the meantime?
• What error messages did the user see?
14. What is the best way to document intermittent problems?
Keep a log of when the problems appear and exactly what error messages occur.
15. Using Windows, list the steps to print a screen that shows an error message.
• In Windows, the Print Screen key copies the displayed screen to the Clipboard.
• Launch the Paint software accessory program and paste the contents of the Clipboard into the
document. You might need to use the Zoom Out command on the document first. You can
then print the document with the displayed screen, using Paint. You can also paste the
contents of the Clipboard into a document created by a word-processing application such as
Word.
16. What preventive maintenance measures need to be done inside the case at least once a year?
• Make sure air vents are clear.
14. • Use compressed air to blow the dust out of the case, or use a vacuum to clean vents, power
supply, and fan.
• Ensure that chips and expansion cards are firmly seated.
17. List at least three tasks you should complete before moving or shipping a computer.
• Back up the hard drive.
• Remove any floppy disks, tape cartridges, or CDs from the drives.
• Turn off power to the PC and all other devices.
• Disconnect all power cords and external devices.
• Label cables and cable connections.
• Coil all external cords and secure them with twist ties or rubber bands.
• Pack all components in their original boxes or in similar boxes with sufficient packing
material.
18. How do you properly dispose of a battery pack from a notebook computer? A broken
monitor? A toner cartridge from a laser printer?
Battery pack from notebook computer: Return to original dealer or take to a recycling center.
Broken monitor: Check with local county or environmental officials for laws about disposal. Take
to recycling center if available. In all cases, discharge monitor before disposing of it.
Laser toner cartridge: Return to dealer or manufacturer to be recycled.
19. If you are unsure how to properly dispose of a can of contact cleaner, how can you find
out the acceptable method of disposal?
Check the MSDS of the cleaner.
20. What two tools can be used to remove dust from inside a computer case?
Compressed air or anti-static vacuum cleaner
21. What are three types of ribbon cables you might find inside a PC?
40-conductor IDE cable, 80-conductor IDE cable, 34-pin floppy drive cable
15. 22. Why is it important to not rock an expansion card from side to side as you remove it from
its slot?
You can widen the slot and weaken the connection.
23. What type of expansion card can have a retention mechanism at the bottom of the card to
help stabilize it in the slot?
A video card
24. Name three tools that you can use to protect a system against ESD as you work on it.
Ground bracelet, ground mat, antistatic gloves
25. If you suspect that a USB port is faulty, what tool can you use to test the port?
Loop-back plug
THINKING CRITICALLY
1. As a help-desk technician, list some good detective questions to ask if the user calls to
say, “My PC won’t boot.”
What is the nature of the problem? Does the problem occur before or after the boot? Does an
error message display? Does the system hang at certain times? Start from a cold boot and do
whatever you must do to cause the problem to occur. What are the specific steps you took to
duplicate the problem?
2. Starting with the easiest procedures, list five things to check if your PC does not boot.
• Make sure everything is plugged in and all cable connections are solid.
• Boot into Safe Mode and eliminate customized configuration in the OS.
• Boot from the recovery CD.
• Eliminate any unnecessary hardware devices.
• Disconnect the network card, CD-ROM drive, mouse, and maybe even the hard drive.
3. Someone calls saying he has attempted to install a modem, but the modem does not work.
List the first four questions you ask.
16. Answers will vary. Here are some possible ones:
• What operating system are you using?
• Can you see the modem listed in Device Manager with no errors?
• Is the modem an internal or external device?
• Have you ever installed a modem before this one?
4. If a PC boots first to the hard drive before checking the floppy disk for an OS, how do you
change this boot sequence so that it first looks on the floppy disk for an OS?
Make the change in CMOS setup.
Chapter 4
REVIEWING THE BASICS
1. Volts are a measure of what characteristic of electricity?
The potential difference in a circuit
2. What is the normal voltage of house electricity in the U.S.?
110 volts to 120 volts
3. Hot wires in home wiring are normally colored ____ and ground wires in computers are
normally colored _____.
Black, black
4. What is the difference between a transformer and a rectifier? Which are found in a PC
power supply?
A rectifier is a device that converts alternating current to direct current. A transformer is a device
that changes the ratio of current to voltage. A computer power supply functions as both.
5. What are the five voltages produced by an ATX or BTX power supply?
+5, -5, +12, -12, and +3.3
6. What is the purpose of the 4-pin auxiliary connector on a motherboard?
To provide extra voltage for a processor
17. 7. How many pins does the main power connector on a BTX board have?
24 pins
8. When taking a computer apart, why is it important to not stack boards on top of each
other?
You could accidentally dislodge a chip.
9. Describe the purpose of the ground line in a house circuit. What is the electrical symbol
for ground?
The electricity on the hot line is seeking the path of least resistance, which is usually through
some device that controls its current flow as it moves to the neutral line that goes back to the
power source. Sometimes there is an easier path than through any controlling device, and the
electricity follows that path, causing a short. This sudden increase in the flow of electricity can
harm a person or a piece of equipment. The ground line keeps the uncontrolled flow of electricity
from continuing indefinitely.
The symbol for ground is a vertical line with three horizontal lines underneath it, as shown in
Figure 4-5.
10. What is the basic electronic building block of an integrated circuit?
The transistor
11. Why is a power supply dangerous even after the power is disconnected?
Capacitors inside a PC power supply create the even flow of current needed by the PC.
Capacitors maintain their charge long after current is no longer present, which is why the inside
of a power supply can be dangerous even when power is disconnected.
12. What is the symbol for a diode?
The symbol for a diode is a vertical and horizontal line with an arrow head at the point of
intersection of the two lines. See Figure 4-16.
13. What is a simple way to detect EMI?
18. On an inexpensive AM radio, turn the tuning dial away from a station into a low-frequency range.
With the radio on, you can hear the static produced by EMI. Try putting the radio next to several
electronic devices to detect the EMI they emit.
14. What is an unintended, high-current, closed connection between two points in a circuit
called?
A short, or short circuit
15. Which form factor uses a riser card on the edge of the motherboard?
NLX
16. List four types of computer case form factors. What is the most popular type of form
factor for PCs today?
Possible answers: AT, ATX, BTX, LPX, NLX, and backplane form factors. The most popular is
ATX.
17. List three advantages an ATX system has over a Baby AT system.
It makes it easier to add and remove components, provides greater support for I/O devices, and
lowers costs.
18. List four computer symptoms that indicate a faulty power supply.
• The PC sometimes halts during booting. After several tries, it boots successfully.
• Error codes or beep codes occur during booting, but the errors come and go.
• The computer stops or hangs for no reason. Sometimes it might even reboot itself.
• Memory errors appear intermittently.
• Data is written incorrectly to the hard drive.
• The keyboard stops working at odd times.
• The motherboard fails or is damaged.
• The power supply overheats and becomes hot to the touch.
19. According to ACPI standards, the S1 mode causes what two devices to stop using power?
19. Hard drive and monitor
20. What is another name for the ACPI standard S4 mode?
Hibernation
21. What power management standard is older than ACPI and has mostly been replaced by
ACPI?
APM
22. How can you easily tell if a computer is designed to comply with Green Standards?
See whether it displays the green Energy Star logo onscreen when the PC is booting.
23. What unit of measure is used to describe the amount of work a surge suppressor can do
before it stops protecting the circuit from an electrical surge?
Joule
24. Why is it important to have an indicator light on a surge suppressor?
It is important so you can tell when the surge suppressor is no longer providing protection against
a power surge.
25. What are the two main types of uninterruptible power supplies?
Standby and inline
26. How does a smart UPS differ from one that is not smart?
A smart UPS can be controlled by software from a computer to allow additional functionality.
27. If you are asked to identify the form factor of a motherboard, what are two criteria you
can use to help you identify the board?
Look for how the expansion slots are oriented in reference to the CPU and look for the type of
power connector the board is using.
28. What are three motherboard form factors that can be used with a compact case?
NLX, LPX, or mini-LPX
29. What is one thing you can regularly do to prevent a computer system from overheating?
Remove the dust from the inside of the case.
20. 30. Which type of case form factor is best designed to keep a system cool?
BTX
THINKING CRITICALLY
1. How much power is consumed by a load drawing 5 A with 120 V across it?
600 watts
2. You suspect that a power supply is faulty, but you use a multimeter to measure its voltage
output and find it to be acceptable. Why is it still possible that the power supply may be
faulty?
IT is because problems with power supplies are intermittent (they can come and go).
3. Someone asks you for help with a computer that hangs at odd times. You turn it on and
work for about 15 minutes, and then the computer freezes and powers down. What do
you do first?
• Replace the surge protector.
• Replace the power supply.
• Turn the PC back on, go into CMOS setup, and check the temperature reading.
• Install an additional fan.
• Turn the PC back on, go into CMOS setup, and check the temperature reading.
4. When working on a computer, which of the following best protects against ESD? Why?
• Always touch the computer case before touching a circuit board inside the case.
• Always wear an antistatic bracelet clipped to the side of the case.
• Always sit a computer on an antistatic mat when working on it.
Chapter 5
REVIEWING THE BASICS
1. If a motherboard has a slot 1, what processor(s) is it designed to support?
Pentium II or Pentium III
2. What was the first Intel processor to contain external cache?
21. Pentium Pro
3. When is it appropriate to use a Celeron rather than a Pentium 4 in a computer system?
The Celeron is appropriate for use in low-end multimedia PCs to reduce total cost.
4. Which is more powerful, the current Celeron or the current Xeon processor?
Xeon
5. Who is the major competitor of Intel in the processor market?
AMD
6. Why did the competitors of the Intel Pentium II choose to stay with Socket 7 rather than
use slot 1 for their competing processors?
Because Intel patented slot 1
7. What components inside a computer case keep a processor cool?
Fans, heat sinks, coolers
8. Describe the difference between a PGA socket and an SPGA socket.
In a PGA (pin grid array) socket, pins are aligned in uniform rows around the socket. In an SPGA
(staggered pin grid array) socket, the pins are staggered over the socket to squeeze more pins into
a smaller space.
9. Name a processor that requires dual voltage. How are the two voltages used?
Pentium MMX, Cyrix M2, and AMD K6 processors all use dual voltage. These processors use
one voltage for external operations and another for internal operations.
10. Name a processor that uses Socket A..
AMD Athlon and AMD Duron
11. What are the four speeds of the most popular motherboards currently available on the
market that support Intel processors?
1066 MHz, 800 MHz, 533 MHz, and 400 MHz
12. Name three manufacturers of motherboard chip sets.
22. Intel, SiS, ALi Inc., Standard Microsystems Corp., United Microelectronics Corp., VIA
Technologies Inc. combined with AMD Inc.
13. Beginning with the Intel i800 chip sets, what are the two main chips of the chip set
called?
North Bridge and South Bridge
14. What is the name for the bus that connects L2 cache to the processor inside the Pentium
II processor housing?
back-side bus, or cache bus
15. What is the word size of the Pentium family of processors?
32
16. What is the data path size of the Front Side Bus of the Pentium family of processors?
64
17. If a Pentium 4 Extreme Edition uses two ALU units inside the processor housing, how
many ALU units does the Pentium D have?
4
18. Why is a land socket preferred to a pin socket?
Because the pins in a pin socket can be bent during installation
19. Explain the difference between the locations of discrete L2 cache and Advanced Transfer
Cache.
Discrete L2 cache is stored on a separate die inside the processor housing. Advanced Transfer
Cache is stored on the same die as the processor core.
20. Which instruction set is used by the Itanium processors?
EPIC
21. Which group of Intel processors uses a 32-bit word size and a 64-bit word size?
Xeon
23. 22. Which Windows personal computing operating system(s) support Intel Hyper-Threading
Technology?
Windows XP
23. Name an AMD processor that uses dual-core processing.
Athlon 64 X2 Dual-Core processor or the Opteron
24. What processor manufacturer once targeted the desktop processor market, but is now
more focused on processors used for personal electronics?
VIA
25. What is the latest socket used by Intel desktop processors?
LGA775 land socket
THINKING CRITICALLY
1. When overclocking a system, what two problems are most likely to occur?
a. “Low memory” errors
b. An unstable system that causes intermittent errors
c. Loss of hard drive space used by the overclocking virtual memory file
d. Overheating
(b) An unstable system that causes intermittent errors, and (d)
Overheating
2. What must software developers do to take advantage of a 64-bit processor such as the
Itanium?
The software does not need to be rewritten, but it does need to be recompiled by the software
compiler (such as the COBOL or Visual Basic compiler) so that the software relates to the OS
using 64-bit access rather than the older 32-bit access.
3. You upgrade a Windows 98 system by upgrading a Pentium 4 processor to a Pentium4
Extreme Edition with HT. Now users complain to you that Windows hangs a lot and
gives errors. What do you do first?
a. Reinstall Windows 98.
b. Upgrade Windows 98 to Windows XP.
24. c. Check CMOS setup to verify that hyper-threading is disabled.
d. Check CMOS setup to verify that hyper-threading is enabled.
The first thing you do is (c) Check CMOS setup to verify that hyper-threading is disabled. It’s
important to check the simple things first.
Chapter 6
REVIEWING THE BASICS
1. What are three main categories of form factors used for motherboards?
AT, ATX, BTX
2. How many power cords connect to a Baby AT motherboard?
Two
3. On the Enhanced ATX motherboard that supports PCI Express, how many pins does the
P1 power connector have?
24
4. What are the names of the two power connectors used on the AT motherboard form
factors?
P8 and P9
5. What is the name of the one power connector on the ATX motherboard form factor?
P1
6. How many pins does the regular ATX power connector to the motherboard have? How
many pins does the Enhanced ATX power connector to the motherboard have?
20, 24
7. What are the three versions of the BTX form factor for motherboards?
BTX, Micro BTX, Pico BTX
8. Name 10 components that are contained on a motherboard.
25. Processor, chip set, system clock, ROM BIOS, CMOS configuration chip, CMOS battery, RAM,
RAM cache, system bus with expansion slots, jumpers and DIP switches, ports that are directly
on the board, power supply connections
9. What are two data bus widths used by the conventional PCI bus?
32 bits, 64 bits
10. When people speak of bus size, to what are they specifically referring?
The width of the data path on the bus, which can be 8, 16, 32, 64, or more bits.
11. What are the four speeds of the most popular motherboards currently available on the
market that support Intel processors?
1066 MHz, 800 MHz, 533 MHz, and 400 MHz
12. Name the three most popular manufacturers of system BIOS programs.
AMI BIOS, Award BIOS, Compaq, Dell, IBM, Micro Firmware (BIOS upgrades), Phoenix
BIOS, Unicore (BIOS upgrades)
13. Which is faster, a PCI Express x16 bus or the latest AGP bus?
PCI Express x16 is about 4 times faster than the latest AGP bus
14. What is one reason to flash BIOS?
To add new features made available by the BIOS manufacturer or to attempt to solve problems
with the motherboard
15. What is the easiest way to obtain the latest software to upgrade BIOS?
Go to the Web site of the BIOS or motherboard manufacturer.
16. When examining a PCI expansion card, how can you tell what voltage(s) the card can
use?
The notches on the card connector are keyed to voltage requirements. A single notch near the
back plate of the card is keyed to 3.3V. A notch near the end of the card indicates a 5V card and
notches in both positions indicate a universal card that can use either a 5V or 3.3V PCI slot.
17. What are the four categories of cargo that are carried over a bus?
26. Electrical power, control signals, memory addresses, and data
18. What bus is expected to replace AGP to support the video card in a system?
PCI Express
19. What is the name of the BIOS program that edits the values in CMOS RAM?
CMOS setup
20. Describe how you can access the CMOS setup program.
By pressing certain keys (depending on the specific computer and CMOS program) during the
boot process
THINKING CRITICALLY
1. Why does a motherboard sometimes support more than one system bus speed?
So that it can support different processors running at different speeds
2. Why don’t all buses on a motherboard operate at the same speed?
It is because not all devices to which the buses are connected transmit data at the same speed. The
speeds of different hardware components are evolving at different rates.
3. When you turn off a computer at night, it loses the date, and you must reenter it each
morning. What is the problem and how do you solve it?
The CMOS battery is dead and needs replacing.
4. Why do you think the trend is to store configuration information on a motherboard in
CMOS setup rather than by using jumpers or switches?
Possible answers:
• Because changing setup using jumpers or switches requires opening the computer case, and
CMOS setup is easier to change
• Because there are many more settings on today’s newer motherboards that would require too
many jumpers and switches
27. 5. When troubleshooting a motherboard, you discover the modem port no longer works.
What is the best and least expensive solution to this problem?
a. Replace the motherboard
b. Disable the modem port and install a modem card in an expansion slot.
c. Use an external modem that connects to the serial or USB port.
d. Return the motherboard to the factory for repair.
All the above solutions might be possible. The least expensive and simplest solution is b. Disable
the modem port and install a modem card in an expansion slot.
6. A computer freezes at odd times. At first you suspect the power supply or overheating,
but you have eliminated overheating and replaced the power supply without solving the
problem. What do you do next?
a. Replace the processor.
b. Replace the motherboard.
c. Reinstall Windows.
d.Replace the memory modules.
e.Flash BIOS
Try the simple things first: Flash BIOS
Chapter 7
REVIEWING THE BASICS
1. Name two ways that a SIMM and a DIMM are alike. Name two ways they are different.
Both are rated by their speed and the amount of memory they hold, both store DRAM, and both
have used EDO and FPM in the past. SIMMs hold smaller amounts of memory (from 256K to 16
MB) than DIMMs (8 MB to 1 GB). SIMMs have a single connected pin on the edge connector
and DIMMs have individual pins or connectors on each side of the edge connector. SIMMs must
be installed in pairs and DIMMs can be installed individually.
28. 2. How many pins are on a SDRAM DIMM? On a DDR DIMM? On a SIMM? On a
RIMM?
For DIMM, 168, 184, or 240; for SIMM, 30 or 72; for RIMM, 184 or 232
3. Which is likely to be more expensive, a 512-MB DIMM or a 512-MB RIMM? Why?
A RIMM is more expensive, because Rambus holds the patent on the RIMM technology and
royalties must be paid by the module manufacturer.
4. How many notches are on a DDR SDRAM module?
One
5. What prevents a DDR DIMM from being installed in a DDR2 DIMM slot on a
motherboard?
The position of the one notch on the DIMM module
6. What component must be installed in every empty memory slot on a motherboard using
Rambus technology?
C-RIMM
7. What types of memory can be used on a 100-MHz motherboard?
SDRAM and DDR SDRAM
8. Looking at an SDRAM DIMM, how can you know for certain the voltage needed by the
module?
Look at the notch on the right side of the module.
9. How many 30-pin SIMMs are installed in one bank?
Four
10. How many 72-pin SIMMs are installed in one bank?
Two
11. What are two speeds of RIMMs?
800 MHz, 1066 MHz, 1200 MHz
29. 12. List at least four things you can do if you receive memory errors during a memory
upgrade.
Possible answers are:
• Check that you have the right memory modules supported by your motherboard.
• Check that you have installed the right module size, as stated in the motherboard
documentation. Verify each module that was already installed or newly installed.
• Remove and reinstall the module. Make sure it is seated in the socket at the same height as
other modules.
• Remove the newly installed memory and check whether the error message disappears. Try
the memory in different sockets. Try installing the new memory without the old installed. If
the new memory works without the old, then the problem is that the modules are not
compatible.
• Clean the module edge connectors with a soft cloth or contact cleaner. Blow or vacuum dust
from the memory sockets.
• Try flashing your BIOS. Perhaps BIOS is having problems with the new memory, which can
be solved by a BIOS upgrade.
13. What might be a symptom in Windows of unreliable memory on a motherboard?
A general protection fault or other memory error or the system freezes or hangs.
14. List at least four things you can do if you receive memory errors during normal operation
when you have not recently upgraded memory.
Possible answers:
1. Run a current version of antivirus software to check for viruses.
2. Run diagnostic software such as PC Technician or Memtest86 test memory.
3. Are the memory modules properly seated? Remove and reinstall each one. For a DIMM
module, try a different memory slot.
30. 4. Look for bent pins or chips installed the wrong way on cache memory.
5. Replace memory modules one at a time. For example, if the system only recognizes six out of
eight megabytes of RAM, swap the last two SIMM modules. Did the amount of recognized
RAM change? You might be able to solve the problem just by reseating the modules.
6. Sometimes a problem can result from a bad socket or a broken trace (a fine-printed wire or
circuit) on the motherboard. If so, you might have to replace the entire motherboard.
7. The problem might be with the OS or applications. Download the latest patch for the software
from the manufacturer’s Web site.
8. If you have just installed new hardware, the hardware device might be giving an error, which
is interpreted by the OS as a memory error. Try uninstalling the new hardware.
9. A Windows error that occurs randomly and contains “exception fault 0E at
>>0137:BFF9z5d0” or similar text probably indicates a memory error. Test, reseat, or replace
RAM.
15. If your motherboard calls for 60-ns memory, can you substitute 70-ns memory? Why or
why not?
The smaller the number, the faster the memory. You should not use memory slower than the
recommended memory speed.
16. When buying memory, what can you look for that might indicate that the memory is
remanufactured?
If the date stamps on the chip are more than one year old, the memory is probably used.
17. Which memory module standard (RIMM or DIMM) is an open standard? Which standard
is a copyrighted standard?
DIMM, RIMM
18. What is the data path size of a SIMM? A current DIMM?
32, 64
31. 19. What are the two current data path sizes of RIMMs?
16, 32
20. What improvements did DDR make over regular SDRAM?
Data is processed twice in one clock beat, doubling the speed of regular SDRAM
21. When a DIMM has chips on both sides of the module, do the pins on one side of the
module work independently or dependent to pins on the other side of the module?
Pins on each side work independently.
22. Which is faster, CL3 memory or CL5 memory?
CL3 is faster than CL5 memory.
23. You are looking to purchase two DIMMs running at 400 MHz. You find DIMMs
advertised at PC4000 and PC3200. Which do you purchase?
PC3200
24. You need to find out how much RAM is installed in a system. What command do you
enter in the Run dialog box to launch the System Information utility?
Msinfo32
25. Although ECC memory costs more than non-ECC memory, why would you choose to
use it?
ECC memory is more reliable than non-ECC memory.
THINKING CRITICALLY
1. If your motherboard supports DIMM memory, will RIMM memory still work on the
board?
No, you can only use the type of memory module the board is designed to support.
2. If your motherboard supports ECC SDRAM memory, can you substitute SDRAM
memory that does not support ECC? If your motherboard supports buffered SDRAM
memory, can you substitute unbuffered SDRAM modules?
32. You can substitute non-ECC memory on an ECC board, and the error-checking feature will be
shown disabled in CMOS. You cannot use unbuffered SDRAM on a motherboard that supports
buffered memory, because the notches on buffered DIMMs are in different positions than for
unbuffered DIMMs.
3. You have just upgraded memory on a computer from 64 MB to 128 MB by adding one
DIMM. When you first turn on the PC, the memory count shows only 64 MB. Which of
the following is most likely the source of the problem? What can you do to fix it?
a. Windows is giving an error because it likely became corrupted while the PC was
disassembled.
b. The new DIMM you installed is faulty.
c. The new DIMM is not properly seated.
d. The DIMM is installed in the wrong slot.
The new DIMM is not properly seated. Turn off the PC and reseat the DIMM. Check that the
DIMM is standing in the slot at the same height of the other DIMMs installed.
4. Your motherboard supports dual channeling and you currently have two slots used in
Channel A on the board. You want to install an additional 512MB of RAM. Will your
system run faster if you install two 256 MB DIMMs or one 512 MB DIMM? Explain
your answer.
The system will run faster if you install two DIMMs because dual channeling can be used if both
Channel B slots are filled. Dual channeling is faster than single channeling.
Chapter 8
REVIEWING THE BASICS
1. Name four ATA standards for interfacing with hard drives.
Possible answers: IDE/ATA, ATA-2, Fast ATA, Parallel ATA, EIDE, ATA-3, ATA/ATAPI-4,
Ultra ATA, Fast ATA-2, Ultra DMA, DMA/33, ATA/ATAPI-5, Ultra ATA/66, Ultra DMA/66,
ATA/ATAPI-6, Ultra ATA/100, Ultra DMA/100, ATA/ATAPI-7, Ultra ATA/133, Serial ATA
33. 2. What are the two data transfer modes used by hard drives?
PIO and DMA
3. What are the two types of parallel ATA data cables used with hard drives?
80-conductor cable and 40-conductor cable
4. What is the name of the ATA standard that uses a serial data cable?
Serial ATA
5. What are the two most popular spindle speeds measured in RPMs currently used for hard
drives?
5400 and 7200
6. How does serial ATA help keep a computer case cool better than parallel ATA?
Because serial ATA cables are thinner, they do not hinder air flow as much as wider parallel ATA
cables.
7. If a hard drive has three platters, how many heads does it have?
Six
8. Given that there are 512 bytes per sector, calculate the hard drive storage for the
following: heads = 32, tracks (cylinders) = 1,024, sectors/track = 63.
1,056,964,608 bytes
9. What are three modes that system BIOS can use to relate to hard drives?
CHS mode, ECHS mode (large mode), or LBA mode
10. Which mode must be used for a 10-GB hard drive?
LBA mode
11. What is the ATA standard that changed the number of bits used to address data on a hard
drive?
ATA/ATAPI-6
12. How does block mode give faster access to a hard drive? How can you disable block
mode?
34. Block mode enables multiple transfers of data on a single software interrupt. You can disable
block mode in CMOS setup.
13. When installing a hard drive and a CD-ROM drive on the same IDE channel, which do
you configure as the master and which as the slave?
The hard drive is the master and the CD-ROM is the slave.
14. What are three ATA hard drive interface standards that do not use a 40-conductor hard
drive cable?
ATA/ATAPI-4, ATA/ATAPI-5, ATA/ATAPI-6, ATA/ATAPI-7
15. Generally, which transfer mode is faster, DMA or PIO?
DMA
16. When two drives are connected to the same data cable connected to an IDE channel, how
does BIOS know which drive controls the channel?
One drive is marked as master either by a jumper or DIP switch settings on the devices or by
using a special cable-select data cable.
17. If a motherboard has two parallel ATA connections, how many EIDE devices can the
system support?
Four
18. If a hard drive is too small to physically fit snugly into the drive bay, what can you do?
Use a universal bay kit to fit the drive securely into the bay.
19. How can you tell which side of a hard drive’s data cable connects to pin 1 on the drive?
You can tell by looking at the edge color on the data cable. Pin 1 should be closest to the power
connection.
20. If your BIOS does not support a large-capacity drive that you want to install, what five
choices do you have?
Let the BIOS see the drive as a smaller drive.
Upgrade the BIOS.
35. Upgrade the entire motherboard.
Use software that interfaces between the older BIOS and the large-capacity drive.
Use a controller card that provides the BIOS to substitute for system BIOS.
21. Which ATA standard allows for serial ATA and Serial Attached SCSI to coexist in the
same system?
AATA/ATAPI-7
22. What is the name of the power connector used with floppy drives?
A Berg connector
23. How many pins does a floppy drive cable have?
34
24. What was the underlying cause that prevented hard drives from breaking the 137-GB size
barrier until the ATA/ATAPI-6 standard was released?
The number of bits the OS and hard drive controller used to pass addresses to data on the drive
25. Why does a serial ATA drive sometimes have two power connectors on the drive?
It sometimes has two power connectors to accommodate two different types of power connectors
from the power supply. Only use one connector.
26. What is the name of the expansion card in a SCSI system that controls the SCSI bus?
The host adapter
27. Why is it not necessary to inform CMOS setup about the installation of a new hard drive?
Because setup automatically detects installed hard drives
28. Which has a faster interface to the system, an external serial ATA hard drive or an
external FireWire hard drive?
External serial ATA hard drive
29. On a floppy disk, how many bits are used for each entry in the FAT?
12
30. How can you tell if your motherboard chip set supports Ultra DMA mode?
36. By looking in CMOS setup or the motherboard documentation
THINKING CRITICALLY
1. You install a hard drive and then turn on the PC for the first time. You access CMOS
setup and see that the drive is not recognized. Which of the following do you do next?
a. Turn off the PC, open the case, and verify that memory modules on the
motherboard have not become loose.
b. Turn off the PC, open the case, and verify that the data cable and power cable
are connected correctly and jumpers on the drive are set correctly.
c. Verify that BIOS autodetection is enabled.
d. Reboot the PC and enter CMOS setup again to see if it now recognizes the
drive.
c. Verify that BIOS autodetection is enabled.
2. Every motherboard built today that includes serial ATA connectors has at least one
parallel ATA connector on the board. What is the most important reason this parallel
ATA is present?
a. The hard drive used for booting the OS must use a parallel ATA connector.
b. The IDE controller will not work without at least one parallel ATA connector.
c. It is so the board can accommodate older hard drives using the parallel ATA connector.
d. The parallel ATA connector is needed for EIDE drives such as a CD or DVD drive
c. It is so the board can accommodate older hard drives using the parallel ATA connector.
d. The parallel ATA connector is needed for EIDE drives such as a CD or DVD drive.
3. You want to set up your desktop system to have a total hard drive space of 150 GB, but
your system does not support drives larger than 120 GB. Which of the following do you
do?
a. Buy a new motherboard that will support drives larger than 120 GB.
37. b. Use two hard drives in your system that together total 150 GB.
c. Flash BIOS so that your system will support a 150-GB drive.
d. Use a special IDE controller card that will support a 150-GB drive.
Use two hard drives in your system that together total 150 GB. It would be an unnecessarily
expensive solution to purchase the hardware to support drives larger than 137 GB.
Chapter 9
Reviewing the Basics
1. Identify three things that may cause monitor flicker.
Poor cable connections, accumulated magnetic fields, electrical noise, vertical scan frequency
below 60 Hz, screen resolution set too high
2. Describe what to do if you have just spilled soda pop on your keyboard.
Replace the keyboard. You might be able to salvage the keyboard by thoroughly rinsing it in
running water.
3. Explain how to check that chips on a video card are properly seated in their sockets.
Remove the card from the expansion slot and then use a screwdriver to press down firmly on each
corner of each socketed chip on the card.
4. When troubleshooting problems with a monitor in Windows XP, why would you enter
Safe Mode?
To allow the OS to select a generic display driver and low resolution
5. Describe how to boot Windows XP into Safe Mode.
Press F8 during startup to display the startup menu. Then use the arrow keys to select Safe Mode
from the startup menu.
6. Why would an external modem cost more than an internal modem?
Because an external modem has the added cost of an external case, power source, and data cable
7. Name three possible ways a scanner might interface with a motherboard.
38. Through a SCSI port, a USB port, or through FireWire
8. By definition, what system resources does COM1 use? COM2? COM3? COM4?
COM1—IRQ 4, memory addresses 03F8-3FF
COM2—IRQ 3, memory addresses 02F8-2FF
COM3—IRQ 4, memory addresses 03E8-3EF
COM4—IRQ 3, memory addresses 02E8-2EF
9. What is the display resolution for standard VGA settings?
640 x 480
10. What is the maximum length of a serial cable?
50 feet
11. To what does RS-232 refer?
It refers to Reference Standard 232 revision c. This is the standard for the serial port, which is
sometimes called the RS-232 port.
12. How many pins are on a typical serial port?
9
13. What is the name of a barcode reader that is a gun-type reader that can be handheld and is
often used at a checkout counter?
CCD scanner
14. What is the purpose of a keyboard wedge?
A keyboard wedge is used so that a keyboard and barcode reader can share a keyboard port.
15. What is the name of the technology within the chipset that controls the speed of serial
ports?
UART
16. Why might you choose to use ECP mode for your parallel port rather than EPP mode?
If you need greater speed
17. When might you need to disable ECP mode for a parallel port?
39. If you are having problems with resource conflicts
18. How would you disable a serial port on a motherboard?
Use CMOS setup
19. What Windows OSs support USB? Include the OS version numbers where that
information is important.
Windows 95 OSR 2.1 was the first Microsoft OS to support USB, although Windows 98 offers
much improved USB support. In addition to Windows 95 with the USB update and Windows 98,
Windows 2000 and Windows XP support USB, but Windows NT does not.
20. What is the maximum speed of Original USB? Of Hi-Speed USB?
12 Mbps, 480 Mbps
21. What is the maximum length of a USB Hi-Speed cable?
Five meters
22. What are two other names for FireWire? What is the highest data throughput approved
for FireWire?
i.Link and IEEE 1394; data throughput is 3.2 Gbps
23. When selecting a motherboard, why would you prefer to use PCI Express for the video
card rather than AGP?
Because PCI Express x1 is faster than AGP
24. What is the most important disadvantage of using biometric devices to authenticate a
person to have access to a system?
The danger of false negatives or false positives
25. What criteria affect how much video RAM is needed for a video card to hold one frame
buffer?
Screen resolution, color depth, and enhancements to color information (alpha blending)
26. Give three examples of monitor screen sizes. How are monitor screen sizes measured?
40. There are 14-, 15-, 17-, and 21-inch screen sizes. Screen size describes the diagonal length of the
screen surface.
27. What are two advantages of setting an LCD monitor to run in its native resolution?
Faster response time and sharper display
28. What type of CRT monitor can offer a variety of refresh rates?
Multiscan
29. How many pins are used in the IEEE 1394 connector that supports the IEEE 1394b
standard?
Nine
30. How many keyed notches does an AGP universal slot have?
None
31. What makes a device an ergonomic device?
If it is designed for safe and comfortable interaction between human beings and machines
32. How many pins are there on a DIN connector and a PS/2 connector for a keyboard?
Five pins on a DIN connector; six pins on the smaller PS/2 connector
33. What three colors are used to build all colors on a color monitor screen?
Red, green, and blue
34. Which gives better image quality, a .25-mm dot pitch monitor or a .28-mm dot pitch
monitor? Why?
A .25 does because the smaller the pitch, the sharper the image.
35. If a mouse begins to be difficult to operate, what simple thing can you do to help?
Remove the cover to the mouse ball and the mouse ball itself, and clean the rollers with a cotton
swab dipped in a very small amount of liquid soap.
Thinking Critically
1. You plug a new scanner into a USB port on your Windows XP system. When you first
turn on the scanner, what should you expect to see?
41. a. You see a message displayed by the scanner software telling you to reboot your system.
b. You see the Found New Hardware Wizard launch.
c. Your system automatically reboots.
d. You see an error message from the USB controller.
The Found New Hardware Wizard launches.
2. You install the software bundled with your digital camera to download pictures from
your camera to your system using a serial port. Next you plug up the camera to the port
using a serial cable and turn on your camera. You attempt to use the software to
download pictures, but the software does not recognize the camera is present. What do
you do next?
a. Return the camera and purchase one that uses a USB port for downloading.
b. Reinstall the bundled software.
c. Access CMOS setup and verify that the serial port is enabled.
d. Use Device Manager to verify that the OS recognizes the serial port.
e. Replace the serial cable.
Follow the troubleshooting rule: Do the simple things first. Therefore, the first thing to do is to
use Device Manager to verify that the OS recognizes the serial port.
3. You turn on your Windows 2000 computer and see the system display POST messages.
Then the screen turns blue with no text. Which of the following items could be the source
of the problem?
a. The video card
b. The monitor
c. Windows
d. WordPerfect software installed on the system
Windows could be the problem, but not the other three items.
42. Chapter 10
REVIEWING THE BASICS
1. What must be true before MMX, SSE, SSE2, and 3DNow! technology can improve
multimedia performance on a PC?
The applications and hardware devices must be designed to use the technology.
2. What is the significance of the multi-session feature on a CD drive?
The drive can read a disc that has been created in multiple sessions rather than having been
written all at once.
3. Name three ways a CD drive can interface with a motherboard.
With an EIDE interface, sharing an IDE connection, a cable, or both with a hard drive. These
drives use the ATAPI standard.
Using a SCSI interface with a SCSI host adapter
For portable drives, with an external port (such as a USB, FireWire, or SCSI port) on your PC
4. Which side of a CD contains data?
The bright, bottom side (not the side with the label)
5. If a CD drive and a hard drive are sharing the same data cable in a computer system, what
type of connection is the CD drive using? Which of the two drives should be set to
master? Which to slave?
The CD drive is using an EIDE connection. The hard drive should be set to master and the CD
drive to slave.
6. What unit of measure is used to express the sampling rate of a sound card?
Hertz (Hz)
7. Why must sound and video input into a PC be converted from analog to digital?
43. Analog data is smooth and continuous, whereas digital data, such as the binary data used in
computers, has distinct gradations. The process of producing digital data by measuring data at a
series of representative points is called sampling.
8. What is the sampling rate (in Hz) of music CDs?
44,100 Hz
9. How many samples can be stored in 8 bits?
256
10. What would be a quick, short test to see if a sound card was successfully installed?
Play a music CD.
11. In a system that uses a CD drive, the audio wire connects the _____ to the _____.
CD drive, sound card
12. Why would you want to re-tension a backup tape?
Re-tensioning fast-forwards and rewinds the tape to eliminate any loose spots. Some backup
software requires this.
13. Which holds more data, a Microdrive or a Zip drive?
A Microdrive
14. How is the direction of data flow different for data transfers for MP3 players and digital
cameras?
MP3 files are downloaded from the PC to the MP3 player, in contrast to a digital camera, for
which data is transferred or uploaded from the camera to the PC.
15. What is the significance of Sound Blaster compatibility for a sound card?
A Sound Blaster-compatible card can understand the commands sent to it that have been written
for Sound Blaster.
16. When using a single speaker, which port on a sound card is used to send sound out?
The front speaker port, which is generally the center port and is often green
44. 17. What is the difference between MPEG, JPEG, and MP3? Explain for what each one is
used.
MPEG (Moving Pictures Experts Group) is a standard for data compression for motion pictures,
video, and audio. JPEG is a standard for data compression for photographs and graphics. MP3 is
a popular version of MPEG that is used for data compression for audio.
18. Name at least four features you should look for when buying a video capture card.
• A FireWire interface
• Data transfer rates
• Capture resolution and color-depth capabilities
• Ability to transfer data back to the digital camcorder or VCR
• Stereo audio jacks
• Video-editing software bundled with the card
19. When connecting cords to the rear of a sound card and the card has a blue, red, yellow,
and black port, which port is most likely to be used for the microphone?
Red port
20. In the question above, which port is likely to be used for sound input from a DVD player
sitting beside the computer?
Blue port
21. What are the three ways that data on a DVD can be decoded?
• Decoder software is installed on the hard drive.
• A decoder card is installed in an expansion slot.
• A decoder is part of the firmware on a video capture card.
22. What is the most popular way an internal DVD drive interfaces with a motherboard?
EIDE connection
23. What is the difference between CD, CD-R, and CD-RW drives?
45. A CD-ROM is read-only. A CD-R is recordable once. A CD-RW is rewriteable, meaning that you
can write new data over old data.
24. Rank these storage methods in order of their storage capacity: DVD, floppy disk, CD,
tape.
From least to greatest: floppy disk, CD-ROM, DVD, tape
25. How many unique speakers can Surround Sound 7.1 support?
Up to 8 speakers
26. Which type of flash memory device is typically used on a Sony digital camera?
Memory Stick
27. What is currently the most popular memory device used in digital camera?
Secure Digital (SD) cards
28. Of the flash memory device used in digital cameras, which uses the latest technology and
holds the most data?
xD-Picture Card
29. Current DVD recordable drives for personal computers can write only 8.5 GB of data on
a DVD. How many layers and how many sides or surfaces of the disc are used for the
data?
Data is written in two layers to one side or surface of the disc.
30. Which version of RAID is supported by Windows XP? Does this RAID version provide
fault tolerance?
RAID 0 (striped), No
THINKING CRITICALLY
1. You have just installed a new sound card and its drivers and connected the speakers and
amplifier. You insert a music CD into the drive to test the drive. Windows Media Player
launches and says it is playing the CD, but you don’t hear music. What do you do first?
a. Check the volume controls on the speaker amplifier.
46. b. Check the connections of the amplifier and speakers to the card.
c. Check Device Manager for errors with the sound card.
d. Verify that the amplifier has power.
Do the simple thing first: Check the volume controls on the speaker amplifier.
2. You have just upgraded your computer from Windows 98 to Windows XP. Now your
system has no sound. What are the first two things you do?
a. Check Device Manager to see if the sound card is recognized and has no errors.
b. Reinstall Windows 98.
c. Use Device Manager to uninstall the sound card.
d. Identify your sound card by opening the case and looking on the card for
manufacturer and model.
e. Identify your sound card by finding the documentation and driver CD that came
with the card.
f. Download Windows XP drivers for the sound card from the sound card
manufacturer’s Web site.
Check Device Manager to see if the sound card is recognized and has no errors. Then identify
your sound card by finding the documentation and driver CD that came with the card.
3. You have just installed a new DVD drive and its drivers, but the drive does not work.
You check the power and data cables and feel comfortable that the hardware installation
is correct. You then decide to reload the device drivers. What is the first thing you do?
a. Open the Control Panel and launch the Add New Hardware Wizard.
b. Open Device Manager and choose Update Driver.
c. Remove the data cable from the DVD drive so Windows will no longer recognize the drive
and allow you to reinstall the drivers.
d. Open Device Manager and uninstall the drive.
Open Device Manager and uninstall the drive.
47. 4. Which method of fault tolerance is the least expensive per MB of storage, disk duplexing
or disk striping with parity? Explain your answer.
Disk duplexing requires writing the same data twice and requires an extra controller. Disk
striping with parity only writes the data once and requires only one controller. Although the parity
information in disk striping with parity does take up some space, it does not take up as much
space as the duplicate data in disk duplexing. Therefore, disk duplexing is more expensive.
5. Does RAID 0 provide fault tolerance? Explain your answer.
RAID 0 does not provide fault tolerance because a single logical drive is spread over two or more
physical hard drives. If one fails, the data cannot be recovered from the others. RAID 0 is
designed to increase performance, not provide fault tolerance.
Chapter 11
REVIEWING THE BASICS
1. Name the five versions of Windows XP.
Windows XP Home Edition
Windows XP Professional
Windows XP Media Center Edition
Windows XP Tablet PC Edition
Windows XP Professional x64 Edition
2. When installing Windows XP Service Pack 2 on a notebook computer, why is it
important to use an AC adapter rather than a battery during the installation?
So that the notebook doesn’t power down part way through the installation due to a low battery
3. When you are trying to determine if your Windows 2000 computer can support Windows
XP, list the steps to know how much RAM is currently installed.
Right-click the My Computer icon and select Properties from the menu. Click the General tab.
RAM is displayed on this tab.
48. 4. Which version of Windows XP must be installed on a system that is using the Intel
Itanium processor? Why?
Windows XP Professional 64x Edition, because the Itanium is a 64-bit processor.
5. How many processors in a system can Windows XP support?
Two
6. How much free space on a partition does Windows XP require for installation? How
much does it require for acceptable operation?
1.5 GB, 2 GB
7. How much memory is required to install Windows XP? How much is recommended to
run applications under Windows XP?
64 MB, at least 128 MB
8. How long do you have to activate Windows XP? What happens if you don’t?
You have up to 30 days after installation to activate Windows XP, after which the system will
refuse to boot.
9. What is the first Microsoft product to use product activation?
Microsoft Office XP
10. What is the path for the report file created when you run the Windows XP Readiness
Analyzer?
C:Windowscompat.txt
11. What is the difference between joining a workgroup and joining a domain?
In a workgroup, each user account is set up on the local computer independent of other accounts
on other PCs, and there is no centralized control of resources. In a domain, user accounts and
system resources are controlled by a centralized domain controller.
12. What layer of Windows 2000/XP is most responsible for interacting with hardware?
The HAL (hardware abstraction layer)
49. 13. What is one reason that interaction with hardware is limited to only one or two
components of Windows 2000/XP?
Limiting hardware interaction with OS components enables Windows NT/2000/XP to be ported
easily to different hardware platforms and increases OS integrity by providing more control over
resources and better performance.
14. What are the two modes of the Windows 2000/XP architecture?
User mode and kernel mode
15. Which of these two modes contains the NTVDM?
User mode
16. What is the name of the folder on the Windows 2000/XP CD where the installation files
are stored?
i386
17. Before you install Windows 2000/XP, how can you determine if the OS supports all the
hardware on your PC?
The best way is to search the Microsoft Web site. Or check manufacturer web sites for Windows
2000/XP drivers.
18. What is one reason to use a clean install rather than an upgrade when migrating from
Windows 98 to Windows 2000?
Their registries are not compatible. You do not get the benefit of a fresh start.
19. What file systems does Windows 98 support? Windows XP?
FAT16, FAT32
FAT16, FAT32, and NTFS
20. What is the file system that is common to DOS, Windows 9x, Windows NT, Windows
2000, and Windows XP?
FAT16
50. 21. Windows 2000 assumes a BIOS manufactured after what date is a good BIOS?
January 1, 1999
22. Which of the two Windows 2000 setup programs is a 32-bit program? A 16-bit program?
Winnt32.exe, Winnt.exe
23. Windows XP is installed using a system partition and a boot partition. Which of these
partitions must be the active partition of the hard drive?
The system partition
24. In a Windows 2000/XP workgroup, where is access to an individual workstation on the
network controlled?
In a workgroup, access to an individual workstation is controlled from that workstation.
25. In a Windows 2000/XP domain, where is access to an individual workstation on the
network controlled?
In a domain, access to an individual workstation can be controlled from the centralized domain
server.
26. What is required before Windows 2000/XP can provide full power management
functionality?
The system BIOS must be ACPI-compliant.
27. Name three manufacturers responsible for the initial development of ACPI.
Intel, Microsoft, and Toshiba
28. If you are installing Windows 2000 on a new hard drive and your system cannot boot
from a CD, how do you begin the installation?
Create a set of Windows 2000 setup disks on another computer to boot the PC and begin the
installation.
51. 29. If you install Windows 2000 on an 8-GB hard drive, use a single partition for the drive,
and choose not to use the NTFS file system, what file system will Windows 2000
automatically use?
FAT32
30. What is the command to create a set of Windows 2000 boot disks?
Makeboot
31. If your BIOS is not ACPI-compliant, what should you do before you install Windows
2000?
Flash your BIOS to make it ACPI-compliant.
32. If an administrator is concerned about security on a system, which file system is
appropriate?
NTFS
33. Can you perform an upgrade of Windows 2000 from a remote computer on the network?
Explain your answer.
You cannot perform an upgrade of Windows 2000 from a remote computer, because to perform
an upgrade, you must begin the installation while you are in the current OS.
THINKING CRITICALLY
1. You are planning an upgrade from Windows 98 to Windows XP. Your system uses a
modem card that you don’t find listed on the Microsoft Windows XP list of compatible
devices. What do you do next?
a. Abandon the upgrade and continue to use Windows 98.
b. Check the Web site of the modem manufacturer for a Windows XP driver.
c. Buy a new modem card.
52. d. Install a dual boot for Windows 98 and Windows XP and only use the modem when you
have Windows 98 loaded.
Although any of the listed options will work, the best next step is to check the Web site of the
modem manufacturer for a Windows XP driver.
2. You have just installed Windows XP and now attempt to install your favorite game that
worked fine under Windows 98. When you attempt the installation, you get an error.
What is your best next step?
a. Purchase a new version of your game, one that is compatible with Windows XP.
b. Download any service packs or patches to Windows XP.
c. Reinstall Windows 98.
The best choice is to download any service packs or patches to Windows XP. These fixes might
solve your problem.
3. If you find out that one of your applications is not supported by Windows XP and you
still want to use XP, what can you do to solve this incompatibility problem?
Upgrade the application or install XP as a dual boot so the application can still work under the old
OS.
4. Is it possible to install Windows XP on a system that does not have a CD-ROM drive or
other optical drive? Explain your answer.
Yes, it is possible to install Windows XP on a system that already has an OS installed and is
connected to a network. You can copy files on the Windows CD to the PC’s hard drive from
across the network and then run the Setup program from the hard drive.
Chapter 12
REVIEWING THE BASICS
53. 1. What does %SystemRoot% mean?
Indicates the Windows 2000/XP folder on the boot partition, usually C:Windows or C:Winnt
2. What is the normal path and the filename of the Windows 2000/XP virtual memory file?
C:pagefile.sys
3. In what folder does Windows 2000 store a backup of the registry when backing up the
system state?
The %SystemRoot%repairRegBack folder
4. What is the command to install the Windows 2000/XP Support Tools?
D:SupportToolsSetup.exe (substituting the drive letter of the CD-ROM drive for D in the
command line, if necessary)
5. What type of user account must you be using to install a hardware device that is using
drivers that are not digitally signed by Microsoft?
An account with administrative privileges
6. What Windows utility can you use to help you decide if the system needs more RAM?
Task Manager
7. What tool can you use to create a console containing Device Manager and Event Viewer?
MMC (Microsoft Management Console)
8. What is the file extension assigned to a console file?
.msc
9. Name one snap-in contained in a Computer Management console.
Event Viewer, System Information, Device Manager, Disk Management, Disk Defragmenter,
Services Console
10. What is the program filename for System File Checker?
Sfc.exe
11. List three ways to access the Task Manager.
• Press the Ctrl, Alt, and Delete keys simultaneously. If the Windows Security window opens,
54. click the Task Manager button.
• Right-click a blank area on the taskbar and select Task Manager from the shortcut menu.
• Press the Ctrl, Shift, and Esc keys simultaneously.
12. List the steps used to end an application when it refuses to respond to keystrokes or the
mouse action.
Open Task Manager, select the application, and click the End Task button at the bottom of the
Task Manager window.
13. What are the three logs kept by Event Viewer?
Application, security, and system
14. In what folder do you put a console file that you want displayed when you are logged on
as an administrator and then click Start, Programs, and Administrative Tools?
C:Documents and SettingsusernameStart MenuProgramsAdministrative Tools
15. Before clearing the Event Viewer log, explain how you can save the log for later viewing.
In Event Viewer, execute one of the two commands to clear the log. Before clearing the log,
Event Viewer gives you a chance to save it.
16. By default, Windows 2000/XP makes the paging file how large compared to the amount
of RAM installed?
1.5 times the amount of RAM
17. What Windows utility lists all the applications set to load at Windows startup?
Msconfig or the System Configuration Utility
18. What Windows utility can you use to list all the currently running applications?
Task Manager
19. In what folder does Windows File Protection store an extra copy of system files?
C:WindowsSystem32Dllcache
20. What SFC command sets the system to scan system files at the next reboot?
sfc /scanonce
55. 21. What SFC command sets the system to scan system files at every reboot?
sfc /scanboot
22. What two files are used to build the HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT key of the registry?
Software hive and the Usrclass.dat file
23. What two files are used to build the HKEY_USERS key of the registry?
Ntuser.dat and Usrclass.dat
24. What Windows XP program file is used to edit the registry?
Regedit.exe
25. What registry key is used to record installed software?
HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINESoftwareMicrosoftWindowsCurrentVersionUninstall
26. In what folder do you install a program so that it starts up each time any user logs onto
the system?
C:Documents and SettingsAll UsersStart MenuProgramsStartup
27. Looking at a program filename and file extension, how can you tell if the program is a
MMC snap-in or a command-line program?
The file extension .msc indicates a snap-in and the file extension .exe indicates a command-line
program.
28. Which Windows registry subtree gets its information from the four registry files, Sam,
Security, Software, and System?
HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE
29. In Windows 2000/XP, a file that contains part of the Windows registry is called a(n)
______.
Hive
30. To which registry key does the HKEY_CURRENT_USER key point for information?
HKEY_USERS
56. 31. What two components are created when you back up a system using the Automated
System Recovery process?
A backup of the entire volume on which Windows is installed and an ASR floppy disk
THINKING CRITICALLY
1. You installed a hardware device that does not work. Then you updated the device drivers.
Now Windows gives an error when it first starts up. What do you do first?
a. Use System Restore to undo the installation.
b. Use Automated System Recovery to undo the installation.
c. Use Driver Rollback to undo the driver update.
d. Use Device Manager to uninstall the device.
Try the least drastic task first: Use Driver Rollback to undo the driver update.
2. You need to install a customized console on 10 computers. What is the best way to do
that?
a. When installing the console on the first computer, write down each step to make it easier to
do the same chore on the other nine.
b. Create the console on one computer and copy the .mmc file to the other nine.
c. Create the console on one computer and copy the .msc file to the other nine.
d. Create the console on one computer and copy the .msc file to the other nine.
d. Create the console on one computer and copy the .msc file to the other nine.
3. Can an application or device driver specify if it will use physical memory or the swap file
for its data? Why or why not?
57. Windows 2000/XP does not allow installed software to specify physical memory or virtual
memory, but instead uses the VMM to interface between the application or driver and the
physical or virtual memory that it controls. This enables the OS to exercise more control over
memory resources and prevent conflicts.
4. You are attempting to upload images from your digital camera to your Windows XP
system using a USB connection, but you get errors. Select the appropriate task or tasks to
solve the problem.
a. Update Windows XP with service packs or patches
b. Reinstall the digital camera software
c. Reboot your system
d. Verify the camera is turned on
All the items listed are valid tasks.
Chapter 13
REVIEWING THE BASICS
1. What are the two basic differences between the Files and Settings Transfer Wizard and
the USMT utility?
The User State Migration Tool (USMT) tool is a command-line tool and the Files and Settings
Transfer Wizard is a GUI tool.
The USMT is designed to be used on a domain and the Files and Settings Transfer Wizard is
designed to be used in a workgroup.
2. What are the two commands in the USMT?
Scanstate and Loadstate
3. When is the local user profile created?
When the user first logs onto the system.
4. How are a roaming profile and a mandatory profile the same? How are they different?
58. A roaming profile and a mandatory profile are the same in that they follow users from one
computer to another in a workgroup. They are different in that a user can change a roaming
profile that applies only to this one user, but a mandatory profile is the same for a group of users
and cannot be changed by the user.
5. What are two important criteria that make for a good password?
The password is not easy to guess and it contains numbers, letters, and non-alphanumeric
characters.
6. What can a user do to keep from having the administrator reset a forgotten password?
Create a forgotten password floppy disk that can be used if the password is forgotten.
7. Which user group has more rights, Power Users or Administrators?
Administrator
8. When using Group Policy on a computer in a workgroup, which type of configuration do
you use?
Computer configuration
9. What do you implement to control how much disk space a user can take up?
Disk quotas
10. What is the difference between a cross-linked cluster and a lost cluster? What can cause
them?
More than one file points to a cross-linked cluster, and no file in the FAT or MFT points to lost
clusters. Both can occur when the mapping in the FAT or MFT becomes corrupted.
11. What Windows 2000/XP utility program checks for cross-linked and lost clusters?
Chkdsk.exe
12. What file system is necessary to use if a volume is to be compressed under Windows
2000?
NTFS
13. What is the difference between an incremental backup and a differential backup?
59. An incremental backup backs up only files that have changed or have been created since the last
backup, whether that backup was full or incremental. A differential backup backs up all files
since the last full backup, regardless of whether other differential backups have been made since.
Another difference is that incremental backups mark files as having been backed up, and
differential backups do not.
14. What must you do before you can use the Windows Backup utility on a Windows XP
Home Edition PC?
Install the utility from the Windows XP setup CD.
15. Why should you create a disaster recovery plan? What type of information would you
include in it?
A disaster recovery plan can help you determine the impact of a disaster, when the last backup
was made, and how to recover from the disaster. Include information on backup schedules, how
to perform recovery procedures, and the name, type, date, time, and contents of the last backup.
16. List three third-party utility programs used to support hard drives.
Norton Utilities, SpinRite, PartitionMagic, GetDataBack, PowerMax
17. When Windows XP is first installed, what two built-in user accounts are also installed?
The administrator account and the guest account
18. If you want to log onto a Windows XP system using the administrator account, what keys
do you first press?
Ctrl-Alt-Del
19. How do you change the way a user can log onto Windows XP?
From Control Panel, open the User Accounts applet. Click Change the way users log on or off.
Make your selections and then click Apply Options to close the dialog box.
20. The _______ command erases files or groups of files.
Del or Erase
60. 21. What command is used to create a subdirectory? To change the current directory? To
remove a subdirectory?
MD, CD, RD
22. The ______ command displays or changes the read-only, archive, system, and hidden
characteristics of files.
Attrib
23. What is the command to check drive C for errors, repair these file system errors, and
recover data from bad sectors?
Chkdsk C: /R
24. What is the command to move data on drive C so that all clusters of a file are in
contiguous locations on the drive?
Defrag C:
25. What is the command to format drive D, using the NTFS file system?
Format D: /FS:NTFS
THINKING CRITICALLY
1. Your Windows XP system locks up occasionally. What are some probable causes and
solutions? Note: This question combines skills learned in this and other chapters.
a. The hard drive has errors. Run ____ to correct file system errors.
b. An application might not be compatible with Windows XP. To find out if you
have applications installed that are not certified by Microsoft for Windows XP,
run the ____ utility.
c. The hard drive might be full. To find out, use _______ .
d. The system might have a virus. To eliminate that possibility, use __________.
Chkdsk
61. Sigverig
Windows Explorer, disk Properties window
Anti-virus software
2. You have an important FoxPro database stored on your hard drive. The drive has been
giving bad sector errors for several weeks. You kept meaning to back up the data, but
have not gotten around to it. Now you attempt to access the database and FoxPro tells
you it cannot open the file. What do you try first? Second? Third?
a. Reenter all the data and promise yourself you’ll be more faithful about backups.
b. Use SpinRite software to attempt to recover the file.
c. Use Chkdsk to recover data from bad sectors.
d. Change the file extension of the database file to .txt and tell FoxPro to attempt to open
the file as an ASCII text file.
Use Chkdsk to repair the drive. If this does not work, change the file extension of the database
file to .txt and tell FoxPro to attempt to open the file as an ASCII text file. If this does not work,
then try to use SpinRite software to recover the file. If that does not work, then reenter the data.
3. A virus has attacked your hard drive and now when you start up Windows, instead of
seeing a Windows desktop, the system freezes and you see a blue screen of death (an
error message on a blue background). You have extremely important document files on
the drive that you cannot afford to loose. What do you do first?
a. Try a data recovery service even though it is very expensive.b. Remove the hard drive from
the computer case and install it in another computer.
c. Try GetDataBack to recover the data
d. Use Windows utilities to attempt to fix the Windows boot problem.
Since recovering the data is certainly the top priority, you do not want to do anything to risk
doing further damage to this data. The choice that is least likely to affect the data is to remove the
62. hard drive from this computer case and install it in another computer. Then boot into Windows
and try copying the data from the bad hard drive to the good drive.
Chapter 14
REVIEWING THE BASICS
1. In the Windows 2000/XP boot process, what file reads and loads the boot menu?
Ntldr
2. Where is the Boot.ini file stored?
Root directory of the system partition (usually C:)
3. What does %SystemRoot% mean?
Indicates the Windows 2000/XP folder on the boot partition, usually C:Windows
4. Under what circumstances would you use the Enable VGA Mode option on the
Advanced Options menu?
When the video setting has problems that prevent you from seeing well enough to fix it
5. What key do you press to display the Advanced Options menu during startup?
F8
6. When you look at a Windows desktop, how can you tell if the system has been booted
into Safe Mode?
“Safe Mode” is displayed in all four corners of the screen.
7. What is the purpose of Safe Mode with networking under the Advanced Options menu?
This mode is used when there is a problem with the boot process that requires access to the
network to solve, or when the Windows 2000/XP installation files are loaded from the network
and access to those files is required.
8. What is the name of the log file that Windows 2000/XP uses when booting in Safe
Mode?
Ntbtlog.txt
63. 9. List the steps to load the Recovery Console when using the four Windows 2000 rescue
disks.
Insert the first of the four setup disks and restart the PC. You are directed to insert each of the
four disks in turn, and then the Setup screen appears.
Type R to select the “To repair a Windows 2000 installation” option. The Windows 2000 Repair
Options window opens. Type C to select the Recovery Console.
The Windows 2000 Recovery Console window opens. The Recovery Console looked at the hard
drive and determined that only a single Windows 2000 installation was on the drive installed in
the C:Winnt folder. (The Winnt folder might be on a different drive on your machine.) Press 1
and then press Enter to select that installation.
Enter the Administrator password and press Enter. If you do not know the password, you cannot
use the console.
You now have a command prompt. You can use a limited group of DOS-like commands at this
point to recover a failed system.
10. Which Windows 2000/XP folder contains one subfolder for every user account?
C:Documents and Settings
11. What two subfolders in the C:Windowssystem32 folder contain files needed for
Windows startup?
config and drivers
12. What Recovery Console command is used to extract a file from a .cab file?
Expand
13. Which option on the Windows XP Advanced Options menu is not available on the
Windows 2000 menu?
Disable automatic restart on system failure
14. Which Recovery Console command can be used to examine the partitions on a hard drive
for errors?
64. Diskpart
15. On the Windows setup CD, what type of file uses an underscore as the last character in
the file extension?
A compressed file
16. Under what circumstances is the Administrator password not required when launching
the Recovery Console?
If the registry is so corrupted that it cannot read the Administrator password in order to validate it,
you are not asked for the password, but you are limited as to what you can do in the Recovery
Console.
17. What is the purpose of the Systemroot command under the Recovery Console?
Sets the current directory to the directory where Windows 2000/XP is installed
18. Under the Recovery Console, what is the command to rewrite the Master Boot Program?
Fixmbr
19. What is the command to install the Recovery Console on the boot loader menu?
winnt32 /cmdcons
20. Before you can perform the Windows 2000 Emergency Repair Process, what disk must
you have? What is contained on the disk?
The ERD (Emergency Repair Disk), which contains enough data to restore the system to the state
in which it was in immediately after the Windows 2000 installation
21. When would you use System File Checker? What is the command to execute it?
The SFC is used to verify that the system is using correct versions of all protected system files.
The command to execute it is Sfc or Sfc.exe. Use it when you suspect the system has corrupted
system files.
22. What is the program filename for System File Checker?
Sfc.exe
65. 23. What is the name of two utility programs that allows you to view the contents of the
Boot.ini file?
Bootcfg and Msconfig
24. What is the Windows XP recovery tool that is similar to the Windows 2000 Emergency
Repair Process?
Automated System Recovery
25. Place these tools in the order in which you should try them when troubleshooting the boot
process: Recovery Console, Advanced Options Menu, and System Restore.
Advanced Options Menu, System Restore, Recovery Console
THINKING CRITICALLY
1. Your Windows XP system boots to a blue screen and no desktop. What do you do first?
a. Reinstall Windows XP.
b. Attempt to boot into the Advanced Options menu.
c. Attempt to boot into the Recovery Console.
d. Attempt to use the Automated System Recovery.
b. Attempt to boot into the Advanced Options menu.
2. You tried to use the Automated System Recovery to restore a failed Windows XP system.
The process failed with errors, but there is a very important data file on the hard drive
that you need to recover. The hard drive is using the NTFS file system. What do you do?
a. Most likely the file is toast. The ASR process probably destroyed the file if it was
not already destroyed.
66. b. Boot to the Recovery Console using the Windows XP setup CD and attempt to
recover the file.
c. Reinstall Windows XP and then recover the file.
d. Boot to the Advanced Options menu and use Safe Mode to recover the file.
a. Most likely the file is toast. The ASR process probably destroyed the file if it were not already
destroyed. The ASR process completely erases everything on drive C. Always recover data first
before using ASR.
3. When you start Windows XP, you see an error message about a service that has failed to
start and then the system locks up. You think this service is related to a critical Windows
process. What do you try first? Second?
a. Boot into Safe Mode and run System Restore.
b. Select the Last Known Good Configuration on the Advanced Options menu.
c. Perform an in-place upgrade of Windows XP.
d. Use the Recovery Console to restore the system file.
b. Select the Last Known Good Configuration on the Advanced Options menu.
a. Boot into Safe Mode and run System Restore.
4. While cleaning up the Windows XP startup process, you discover a program in this
folder: C:WINDOWSSystem32GroupPolicyMachineScriptsStartup. You know that
this program is not one that an administrator or other user placed there. What is your next
step?
a. Delete the program file and move on to the next step in cleaning up startup.
b. Assume the file is malicious and run antivirus software.