3. Question 1
Correct position of inserting a Nasogastric Tube is
a. Supine with Neck flexed
b. Supine with Neck extended
c. Sitting with Neck flexed
d. Sitting with Neck Extended
Ans. C. Sitting with Neck flexed
8. Question 2
Which of the following is not scanned by e-FAST?
a. Pericardium
b. Liver
c. Bowel
d. Spleen
Ans. C. Bowel
9. FAST
Focussed Assessment with Sonography for Trauma.
To assess presence of blood in peritoneum or pericardium.
Focuses on four areas only: Epigastric (pericardial), splenic, hepatic, pelvic
10. e-FAST
Two more places are also examined- Left and right thoracic cavities.
Helps to detect Pneumothorax and Collection in Thoracic cavity.
11. Question 3
Prophylactic antibiotics to minimise the SSI are given
a. 60 minutes before skin incision
b. 1-3 hours before skin incision
c. At time of surgical incision
d. Night before surgery
Ans. a. 60 minutes before skin incision
12.
13. Question 4
Calculate the GCS of a patient exhibiting eye opening on painful stimulus, Conscious but
confused and unable to tell time and exhibits flexion on painful noxious stimuli to the arm
a. 8
b. 9
c. 10
d. 11
Ans. C 10
15. Question 5
Amount of Blood lost in Class III Hemorrhagic Shock
a. 15-30%
b. 30-40%
c. 40- 45%
d. 45-50%
Ans. B 30-40%
16.
17. Question 6
50 kg patient has 40% Burns on his body surface area. Calculate the Ringer lactate fluid to be
given in 1st 8 hours.
a. 1 L
b. 2 L
c. 4 L
d. 8 L
Ans. C
19. Question 7
Which of the following needle is used to suture skin?
a. Cutting needle
b. Reverse cutting needle
c. Round Body needle
d. Straight body needle
Ans. A
20.
21. Question 8
Which of the following is the best parameter to monitor the response to shock
management?
a. Urine output
b. Respiratory rate
c. BP
d. CVP
Ans. a. urine output
22. Question 9
What is the investigation of choice in hemodynamically stable blunt injury abdomen
patient?
a. USG
b. CECT abdomen
c. MRI
d. Diagnostic Peritoneal Lavage
Ans. B
23.
24. Question 10
Identify the procedure shown here for
providing nutrition
a. Feeding Jejunostomy
b. Percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy
c. Central vein insertion
d. Hickman lines
Ans. B Percutaenous endoscopic gastrostomy
27. Question 11
What is the location of Kilian’s dehiscence?
a. Below Superior Constrictor
b. Below Inferior Constrictor
c. Below Cricopharyngeal muscle
d. Below upper third of Smooth musces in esophagus
Ans. B Below Inferior Constrictor
28.
29. Question 12
Which procedure is done for Ranula Management?
a. Incision and drainage
b. Aspiration
c. Excision of Sublingual gland
d. Marsupialization
Ans. C. Excision of Sublingual gland
30.
31. Question 13
Which cancer in thyroid arises from Parafollicular C cells?
a. Anaplastic cancer
b. Medullary cancer
c. Follicular cancer
d. Papillary cancer
Ans. B. Medullary cancer
32. Question 14
FNAC can diagnose all the following lesions except
a. Follicular cancer
b. Papillary cancer
c. Medullary cancer
d. Hashimotos thyroiditis
Ans. A
33. Question 15
Warthin’s Tumor is seen arising from
a. Submandibular gland
b. Parotid gland
c. Sublingual gland
d. Minor salivary glands
Ans. B Parotid Gland
35. Question 16
Most common nerve injured in Thyroid Surgery
a. RLN
b. ELN
c. ILN
d. Vagus nerve
Ans. B. ELN
36. Course of Recurrent Laryngeal Nerve
❑The nerve runs posteriorly and enters at the level of cricothyroid joint where the BERRY
Ligament is attached.
❑Please remember Berry Ligament is the posterior attachment of Pretracheal fascia that
binds Trachea and Thyroid ( One important reason for Gland moving with deglutition.
❑This is the point where nerve is at highest risk of injury**
❑This point is known as BEAHR’S Triangle
38. Question 17
Stage the Breast cancer – Size 3cm and 4 axillary nodes in Axilla
a. Stage I
b. Stage II
c. Stage III
d. Stage IV
Ans. B Stage II
39.
40. Question 18
Which is correct regarding paeu de orange in breast cancer?
a. Infiltration of Cooper’s ligament
b. Infiltration of subdermal lymphatics
c. Associated with Lobular cancer
d. Good prognosis
Ans. B. Infiltration of Subdermal lymphatics
41. Question 19
For Sentinel Node Biopsy in Breast cancer , where is the Dye injected ideally.
a. Subareolar
b. Axilla
c. Tail of Spence
d. Peritumoral
Ans. D Peritumoral
42.
43.
44. Question 20
What is the diagnosis of this mammography
picture shown here :
a. Fibroadenoma
b. Fibroadenosis
c. Cancer breast
d. Paget disease
Ans. A. Fibroadenoma
50. Question 22
Gastric outlet obstruction leads to
a. Hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis
b. Hypochloremic metabolic acidosis
c. Hypernatremic metabolic alkalosis
d. Hyponatremic metabolic acidosis
Ans. A. Hypochloremic Metabolic Alkalosis
54. Question 24
Achalasia Cardia presents with all except
a. Increased LES tone
b. Normal Peristalsis
c. Proximal Dilatation
d. Malignant risk
Ans. B Normal Peristalsis
57. Question 25
Boerhaave syndrome is
a. Spontaneous rupture of esophagus
b. Traumatic rupture of esophagus
c. Tear at GE junction
d. Foreign Body esophagus
Ans. a. Spontaneous Rupture of esophagus
59. Question 26
What is the diagnosis of this Barium enema?
a. Diverticulum
b. Intussusception
c. Volvulus
d. Fistula
Ans. B Intussusception
60. Question 27
A 26 year old male patient presented with
RIF pain and Fever. USG image is shown
below:
a. Acute diverticulitis
b. Crohns disease
c. Acute appendicitis
d. Perforation
Ans. C. Acute Appendicitis
61. Question 28
Which is false about Crohn’s Disease?
a. No occurrence after surgery
b. Apthous ulcers
c. Skip lesions
d. Fistula formation
Ans. A No occurrence after surgery
67. Question 29
Best treatment for Anal Cancer Squamous cell cancer
a. Chemoradiation
b. Radiation only
c. Surgery
d. Chemo only
Ans. A Chemoradiation
68. Question 30
Which is true about Carcinoid Tumor?
a. Always Benign
b. Kulchisky cells origin
c. Present with Paroxysmal hypertension
d. Punch biopsy is done
Ans. B. Kulchisky cell origin
69. Question 31
Which of the following polyp is least likely to turn malignant?
a. Inflammatory polyp
b. Hamartomatous polyp
c. Hyperplastic polyp
d. FAP polyps
Ans.C Hyperplastic polyps
70. Question 32
Most common location of Lymphoma in GIT?
a. Ileum
b. Stomach
c. Colon
d. Rectum
Ans. B Stomach
71. Question 33
All are true about Femoral hernia except:
a. Common in Nulliparous women
b. Lockwood infrainguinal approach is done
c. Cough impulse is seen
d. High incidence of strangulation
Ans. A. Common in Nulliparous women
79. Question 36
MC immediate complication of splenectomy:
a. Fistula
b. Bleeding from Gastric mucosa
c. Pancreatitis
d. Hemorrhage
Ans. D. Hemorrhage
80. Question 37
A 6 year old girl brought with high fever with rigors for 5 days with pain in right
hypochondrium. On examination patient is anicteric and tenderness is noted in right upper
quadrant. What is the best investigation in this case?
a. USG
b. Serology
c. SGOT/LFT
d. Contrast CT scan
Ans. D. Contrast CT scan
82. CT scan- Rim enhancement
smooth edges: Amoebic liver abscess
83. Question 38
What is the name of the investigation shown
here?
a. MRCP
b. ERCP
c. PTC
d. T tube cholangiogram
Ans. B ERCP
84. Question 39
A patient with RUQ pain – USG done shows
this image:
Diagnosis is
a. GB malignancy
b. GB stones
c. GB polyps
d. Porcelain GB
Ans. B GB Stones
85. Question 40
Pringle’s manuever is used to control bleeding from
a. IVC
b. Cystic artery
c. Hepatic artery
d. Hepatic vein
Ans. C
86.
87. Question 41
Severity of Acute pancreatitis is assessed by
a. Serum Amylase
b. Stool Trypsin
c. RANSON score
d. ARDS development
Ans. C RANSON Score
88.
89. Ranson’s Score
On Admission At 48 Hours
L- LDH > 350 Units/L B- Base deficit > 4 mmol/L
A- AST>250 Units/L U-Urea Nitrogen > 5mg/dl
G- Glucose>1.1mmol/L ( >200 mg/dl) C- Calcium < 2 mmol/L
A- Age > 55 years H- Hematocrit fall > 10%
W- WBC count > 16X10^9/L O- PaO2 < 60 mmHg ( 8 Kpa)
W- Water Fluid Sequestration >6 L
90. Question 42
In case of Annular Pancreas, what is the surgery of Choice
a. Duodeno-duodenostomy
b. Duodeno-Jejunostomy
c. Pancreatico jejunostomy
d. Porto enterostomy
Ans. A. Duodeno Duodenostomy
93. Question 43
Which of these is the best for management of a 3cm stone in renal pelvis without evidence
of hydronephrosis?
a. ESWL
b. PCNL
c. Antegrade pyeloplasty
d. Retrograde pyeloplasty
Ans. PCNL
96. Question 44
A 40 year old man after TURP for BPH develops seizures in post operative state. What is the
diagnosis?
a. Water intoxication
b. Anaesthetic Over dosage
c. Mismatched Blood Transfusion
d. Malignant Hyperthermia
Ans. a. water intoxication
102. Post op irrigation
Remember that normal saline is used after the operation it is used for post operative
irrigation
( but not for resection)
Surgery Sixer UNDER THE KNIFE 102
103. Question 45
Bell Clapper testis predisposes to
a. Torsion
b. Varicocele
c. Cancer
d. Hydrocele
Ans. A torsion
104. Torsion testis
Predisposing factors:
- Undescended testis
- Testicular Inversion
- Bell Clapper deformity ( MC anomaly) in
which the tunica vaginalis is highly invested
Surgery Sixer 104
106. Surgery Sixer UNDER THE KNIFE 106
▫ In the 1st hour the torsion can be treated by
manipulation (but later on surgery has to be
done to fix the testis )
▫ If not correctable by manipulation or more
than one hour has passed then surgery has
to be done.
▫ Surgery must be done within 4 hours.
Otherwise the testis will be dead
107. Question 46
Chordee is associated with
a. Hypospadias
b. Phimosis
c. Paraphimosis
d. Posterior urethral valve
Ans. a. Hypospadias
109. Clinical features
❑MC anomaly of Lower Urinary System
❑1 in 250
❑No treatment needed for Glandular type ( MC type)
❑Cryptorchidism may be associated- 8%
❑Indirect hernia may be associated
❑Best time to operate 6 months- 12 months
❑Circumcision is Contraindicated.
110. Question 47
Most common complication of stripping varicose veins below knee is
a. Hemorrhage
b. Neuralgia
c. Thromboembolism
d. Infection
Ans. B Neuralgia
112. Question 48
All are true about Buerger’s disease except
a. Ulnar and peroneal vessels involved
b. Nerve involvement can occur
c. Superficial thrombophlebitis seen
d. Small acral vessels of limb involvement causes Hypohidrosis
Ans. D
113.
114. Question 49
What is xenograft?
a. Transplant from one relative to other
b. Transplant between identical twins
c. Transplant of tissues self
d. Transplant from one other species to human
Ans. D
115. Question 50
Craniopharyngioma is a brain tumor arising from
a. Posterior Pituitary
b. Median eminence
c. Neurohypophysis
d. Rathke pouch
Ans. D
