The document provides an overview of the content to be covered on the semester 1 exam for English 10 at Bright School in the 2023-2024 school year. The exam will consist of 4 parts testing grammar, vocabulary, and communication skills from Units 1-2 of the textbook. Part 1 includes 14 multiple choice questions testing pronunciation, word stress patterns, and grammar points like the present simple and continuous tenses. Part 2 presents 25 fill-in-the-blank conversation questions to assess inviting, suggesting, accepting and declining. Part 3 outlines the exam structure and content in 3 sentences.
1. The document contains multiple choice questions about short conversations and passages. It asks about topics like internet usage, driving without a license, taking public transportation, music preferences, and more.
2. The questions assess comprehension of details like number of deaths from a snowstorm, reasons for choosing a particular hotel, appropriate responses to good or bad news, and inferences about people's opinions, intentions, and responses in conversations.
3. Key details assessed include numbers, reasons, opinions, intentions, responses, and meanings of words used in the given passages and conversations.
This document provides instructions for a reading comprehension test with multiple choice questions. It is divided into three sections - incomplete dialogues, error recognition, and reading comprehension. For each section, the reader must choose the correct answer from the options provided to complete sentences, identify errors, or answer questions about passages. The purpose is to evaluate the test-taker's reading and English language skills.
This document contains an English exam for graduating high school students in Vietnam. The exam includes a reading passage about the benefits of reading, questions testing grammar and vocabulary, and a short story about Cinderella. It tests a variety of English skills through multiple choice questions regarding parts of speech, tense, pronouns, word stress and meaning based on context. The document also provides the answers to the exam questions.
Unit 8 focuses on teaching students how to produce oral and written invitations as well as memos. It begins by providing examples of oral invitations and having students practice common invitation phrases. Students then learn how to write invitations by reviewing examples and filling in invitation templates. The unit emphasizes using correct prepositions of time and place and modal verbs when extending and responding to invitations.
The document discusses the benefits of exercise for mental health. Regular physical activity can help reduce anxiety and depression and improve mood and cognitive function. Exercise causes chemical changes in the brain that may help protect against mental illness and improve symptoms.
This document provides sample questions and passages for an English proficiency test at the A1 level. The test assesses writing, reading, and vocabulary skills. The writing section includes tasks like choosing the correct answers to fill in blanks in sentences. The reading comprehension section provides short conversations and passages followed by multiple choice questions to test understanding. Vocabulary is assessed through tasks like choosing the correct word to complete a sentence. Overall, the document samples the type of basic English language questions and assessments targeted at elementary or beginner English learners.
Anhvan thay hai trung tam luyen thi dai hoc qsc-45 - communication skillsTrungtâmluyệnthi Qsc
This document provides a communication skills test with 75 multiple choice questions about common English phrases used in greetings, conversations, and small talk. It tests knowledge of appropriate responses to questions about schedules, activities, opinions, requests, and farewells. The document is from a Vietnamese test preparation center and provides an English language practice test to help students improve their communication skills.
This document contains a reading comprehension test with multiple choice questions. It includes 5 parts with different types of questions:
1) Matching notices or signs to sentences describing situations
2) Choosing the best answer to complete sentences about restaurants and food
3) Choosing the best completed sentence from groups of words
4) Choosing the best word or phrase to complete sentences about travel and airports
5) Matching short conversations to appropriate responses
The test contains a variety of questions to assess reading comprehension of common situations and contexts.
1. The document contains multiple choice questions about short conversations and passages. It asks about topics like internet usage, driving without a license, taking public transportation, music preferences, and more.
2. The questions assess comprehension of details like number of deaths from a snowstorm, reasons for choosing a particular hotel, appropriate responses to good or bad news, and inferences about people's opinions, intentions, and responses in conversations.
3. Key details assessed include numbers, reasons, opinions, intentions, responses, and meanings of words used in the given passages and conversations.
This document provides instructions for a reading comprehension test with multiple choice questions. It is divided into three sections - incomplete dialogues, error recognition, and reading comprehension. For each section, the reader must choose the correct answer from the options provided to complete sentences, identify errors, or answer questions about passages. The purpose is to evaluate the test-taker's reading and English language skills.
This document contains an English exam for graduating high school students in Vietnam. The exam includes a reading passage about the benefits of reading, questions testing grammar and vocabulary, and a short story about Cinderella. It tests a variety of English skills through multiple choice questions regarding parts of speech, tense, pronouns, word stress and meaning based on context. The document also provides the answers to the exam questions.
Unit 8 focuses on teaching students how to produce oral and written invitations as well as memos. It begins by providing examples of oral invitations and having students practice common invitation phrases. Students then learn how to write invitations by reviewing examples and filling in invitation templates. The unit emphasizes using correct prepositions of time and place and modal verbs when extending and responding to invitations.
The document discusses the benefits of exercise for mental health. Regular physical activity can help reduce anxiety and depression and improve mood and cognitive function. Exercise causes chemical changes in the brain that may help protect against mental illness and improve symptoms.
This document provides sample questions and passages for an English proficiency test at the A1 level. The test assesses writing, reading, and vocabulary skills. The writing section includes tasks like choosing the correct answers to fill in blanks in sentences. The reading comprehension section provides short conversations and passages followed by multiple choice questions to test understanding. Vocabulary is assessed through tasks like choosing the correct word to complete a sentence. Overall, the document samples the type of basic English language questions and assessments targeted at elementary or beginner English learners.
Anhvan thay hai trung tam luyen thi dai hoc qsc-45 - communication skillsTrungtâmluyệnthi Qsc
This document provides a communication skills test with 75 multiple choice questions about common English phrases used in greetings, conversations, and small talk. It tests knowledge of appropriate responses to questions about schedules, activities, opinions, requests, and farewells. The document is from a Vietnamese test preparation center and provides an English language practice test to help students improve their communication skills.
This document contains a reading comprehension test with multiple choice questions. It includes 5 parts with different types of questions:
1) Matching notices or signs to sentences describing situations
2) Choosing the best answer to complete sentences about restaurants and food
3) Choosing the best completed sentence from groups of words
4) Choosing the best word or phrase to complete sentences about travel and airports
5) Matching short conversations to appropriate responses
The test contains a variety of questions to assess reading comprehension of common situations and contexts.
This document contains an English exam with multiple choice questions testing pronunciation, grammar, vocabulary and reading comprehension. It covers topics such as choosing the differently pronounced word, correcting grammatical errors, completing sentences, answering questions about a passage on Tet traditions, and rewriting sentences with the same meaning. The exam tests a wide range of English language skills.
This document appears to be an English evaluation from a school in Indonesia. It contains multiple choice questions testing grammar concepts, exercises to practice positive and negative responses and changing sentences between active and passive voice. It also includes questions to practice using possessive adjectives and pronouns. The evaluation is signed by the teacher, Miss Laili, and instructs students to be honest, not cheat, do their best, and wishes them good luck.
The document provides instructions for three listening activities about making future plans. Activity 1 involves filling in blanks in conversations about making plans to visit the beach. Activity 2 involves choosing the correct answer based on parts of a conversation, with questions about plans being made by Lauren and Nary. Activity 3 similarly involves choosing the correct answer for questions about a conversation between Markus and his friend. The activities focus on summarizing conversations and answering questions about plans being discussed.
The document discusses common expressions used in English, including expressing and responding to offers, thanks, greetings, introductions, directions, invitations, and preferences. It provides example dialogues and expressions for each category, along with sample responses. Key areas covered are offering and requesting help, accepting or refusing offers, thanking and responding to thanks, formal and informal greetings and partings, self-introductions and introducing others, asking for and giving directions, inviting others and responding to invitations, and expressing preferences.
This document contains a mid-semester exam for grade 8 students studying English at MTs. N Batang Toru for the 2011-2012 academic year. The exam contains 50 questions testing grammar, vocabulary, reading comprehension and the ability to complete dialogues and short passages. The questions cover topics such as daily conversations, short stories, recipes and instructions.
SMP Satria team entered a tug-of-war contest last month against SMP Taruna. They practiced hard in the two weeks before. On the day of the contest, SMP Taruna's team was much bigger but SMP Satria worked together and won the contest despite being smaller.
CHUYÊN ĐỀ DẠY THÊM + BỔ TRỢ CHUYÊN SÂU TIẾNG ANH LỚP 8 - CẢ NĂM - GLOBAL SUCC...Nguyen Thanh Tu Collection
This document provides an overview of a supplementary English teaching program for 8th grade students in Vietnam for the 2023-2024 school year. It includes details about the program content, order and purchase information, support services, and contact information for the program creator and publisher. The program aims to provide in-depth English instruction and references materials to support students throughout the entire school year. It is available in digital and print formats and includes answer keys.
This document contains an English test with multiple choice questions about grammar, vocabulary and sentences. It asks the student to choose the best answer from options A, B, C or D for questions about parts of speech, sentence structures, verb tenses and forms. It also contains exercises asking the student to introduce themselves, translate sentences, change sentences between active and passive voice and provide opinions.
The passage discusses the advantages of mixed-ability teaching over streaming or separating students by ability into different classes. It argues that mixed-ability teaching enriches both the knowledge and experience of bright students and prevents them from being held back. Streaming does not account for the fact that students develop at different rates and can discourage both high- and low-ability students. The passage also notes it is unrealistic to judge students solely based on intellectual ability, as personality is multidimensional. Mixed-ability teaching fosters development of academic and personal skills. Teachers employ various methods including group work, partner work, individual tasks, and formal instruction to meet students' differing needs and abilities.
Soal bahasa inggris kelas 8 semester 2 kurikulum 2013Infastpedia
The document provides a 40 question English exam for 8th grade semester 2 students following the 2013 curriculum. The questions cover a variety of topics like short stories, conversations, grammar and vocabulary. Students are asked to read passages and answer multiple choice comprehension questions. They are also given conversation exercises to complete with the appropriate words. The exam aims to help students study English and improve their performance. It concludes by wishing students the best in their learning.
Tuyển tập 10 đề thi và đáp án bồi dưỡng HSG tiếng anh lớp 7Dạy Học Tiếng Anh
This document provides a collection of 10 practice tests and answer keys for a 7th grade English proficiency exam in Vietnam. It includes sample tests covering phonetic, vocabulary, grammar, reading and writing sections. Each test section has multiple choice, fill-in-the-blank and rearranging questions. The answer key provides the correct responses and guidance for scoring each part of the tests out of 10 or 100 total points. The document aims to help students prepare for the official 7th grade proficiency exam in English.
The passage discusses checking job references and provides advice for callers. It suggests asking intelligent, legitimate questions to obtain substantive answers rather than limiting oneself to vague questions. Perfunctory reference calling where only vague questions are asked makes for a good show but does not truly assess the candidate. Callers should think carefully about what questions to ask to learn the whole truth from references.
Firman had a great holiday last week in Pulau Putri with his family. They spent the holiday from Friday till Sunday. Firman enjoyed several outdoor activities, including water skiing, wind surfing, and scuba diving, which was his favorite. He did water skiing almost every day during the holiday.
The document is a collection of English language questions covering pronunciation, stress, grammar, vocabulary, and sentence structure. It includes 50 multiple choice questions related to pronouncing different words, identifying words with different stresses, choosing the correct grammar usage or part of speech in sentences, and determining the appropriate word to complete sentences. The questions appear to be from an English proficiency test for 10th grade students in Vietnam and cover a range of fundamental English language concepts.
This document contains a test of 50 English language questions in multiple choice format. The questions cover a range of English grammar topics including verbs, pronouns, prepositions, conjunctions, passive voice, and word combinations. For each question, the correct answer is provided along with a brief explanation of the grammatical rules tested in that question. The test and answers are intended to help students practice and learn English grammar.
This document contains a practice test for a 7th grade Vietnamese language exam. It tests students on phonetic skills, grammar, vocabulary, reading comprehension and writing. The phonetic section asks students to identify words pronounced differently. The grammar section contains multiple choice questions testing structures and vocabulary. The reading comprehension section contains a passage for students to answer questions about. The writing section asks students to form questions, sentences and complete a letter with the correct verbs and prepositions. It provides the answers and assesses students' performance.
This document contains a practice test for a 7th grade Vietnamese language exam. It tests students on phonetic skills, grammar, vocabulary, reading comprehension and writing. The phonetic section asks students to identify words pronounced differently. The grammar section contains multiple choice questions testing structures and vocabulary. The reading comprehension section contains a passage for students to answer questions about. The writing section asks students to form questions, sentences and complete a letter with the correct verbs and prepositions. It provides the answers and assesses students' performance.
This document appears to be an English proficiency test containing 50 multiple choice questions testing grammar, vocabulary, pronunciation and reading comprehension. Some of the questions are incomplete sentences that require choosing the correct word or phrase to complete the sentence. Others involve identifying mistakes, stressed syllables, synonyms or choosing the best response to short dialogues or passages. The test covers a wide range of English language skills and concepts.
This document contains an English proficiency test in Thai with 40 multiple choice questions. The test covers topics like grammar, vocabulary, conversations and comprehension. It is intended for Thai students in grade 5 studying English as a foreign language. The test takes 30 minutes to complete and is designed to measure students' English language skills before starting their lesson.
This presentation includes basic of PCOS their pathology and treatment and also Ayurveda correlation of PCOS and Ayurvedic line of treatment mentioned in classics.
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ISO/IEC 27001, ISO/IEC 42001, and GDPR: Best Practices for Implementation and...PECB
Denis is a dynamic and results-driven Chief Information Officer (CIO) with a distinguished career spanning information systems analysis and technical project management. With a proven track record of spearheading the design and delivery of cutting-edge Information Management solutions, he has consistently elevated business operations, streamlined reporting functions, and maximized process efficiency.
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1. NỘI DUNG ÔN THI HỌC KỲ 1 ANH 10 BRIGHT
2023-2024
-0-
PART 1. MULTIPLE CHOICE (4.0 pts):
I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from the others.
Câu 1 phát âm có phần gạch chân với phụ âm “g”-p.21/SB
1. A. B. C. D.
Câu 2 phát âm có phần gạch chân với nguyên âm “i”-Unit 1-2
2. A. B. C. D.
II. Choose the word that has a stress pattern different from the others.
Câu 3 trọng âm của từ có 2 âm tiết-Unit 1-2
3. A. B. C. D.
Câu 4 trọng âm của từ có 3 âm tiết-Unit 1-2
4. A. B. C. D.
III. Choose the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the best option for each of the questions.
Câu 5 kiểm tra từ vựng trong nhóm Daily routines (p.15/Unit 1/SB) hoặc nhóm Household chores (p.17/Unit
1/SB)
5.
A. B. C. D.
Câu 6 kiểm tra từ vựng trong nhóm Free-time activities (p.21/Unit 1/SB)
6.
A. B. C. D.
Câu 7 kiểm tra từ vựng trong nhóm Entertaining activities (p.23/Unit 2/SB)
7.
A. B. C. D.
Câu 8 kiểm tra Grammar về The Present Simple – giới hạn các từ/cụm từ sau: sometimes, (how) often,
usually, always, every day/night/week/…, on Saturdays/Sundays/…, once a day /twice a night /3 times a
week/…
8.
A. B. C. D.
Câu 9 kiểm tra Grammar về The Present Simple với Stative verbs - giới hạn các động từ sau: enjoy, want,
like, love, hate, need, know, believe
9.
A. B. C. D.
Câu 10 kiểm tra Grammar về The Present Continuous với actions happening at the moment of speaking -
giới hạn các từ/cụm từ sau: now, right now, at present, at the moment, at this time, Look!, Listen!, Watch
out!, Be quiet!, Keep silent!, Don’t make noise!, …
10.
A. B. C. D.
Câu 11 kiểm tra Grammar về The Present Continuous với temporary actions happening around the time -
giới hạn các từ/cụm từ sau: today, these days, present days, nowadays hoặc với fixed arrangements (the place
or the time are often refered) in the near future - giới hạn các từ/cụm từ sau: this afternoon, tonight, this
evening, tomorrow, this week, this month
11.
A. B. C. D.
Câu 12 kiểm tra Grammar về The Past Simple với actions that happened at a certain time in the past – giới
hạn các từ/cụm từ sau: ago, yesterday, in 2008, last night/week/month/…
12.
2. A. B. C. D.
Câu 13 kiểm tra Grammar về The Past Continuous với actions that were happening at a definite/stated time
in the past – giới hạn các từ/cụm từ sau: at 7 o’clock last night, at this time yesterday, at that time
13.
A. B. C. D.
Câu 14 kiểm tra về Communication đơn giản về câu “Inviting” hoặc “Suggesting” (p.21/Unit 1/SB)
14.
A. B. C. D.
IV. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following
questions.
Câu 15 kiểm tra sai về thì động từ không hợp với thời gian và chủ ngữ: The Present simple, The Present
Continuous, The Past simple, hoặc The Past Continuous.
15.
Câu 16 kiểm tra sai về mối liên hệ của đại từ làm tân ngữ hoặc tính từ sở hữu không phù hợp với chủ ngữ
chỉ người/chỉ vật hoặc số ít/số nhiều.
16.
Eg: My sister finally got his own favorite piano to practice every day.
A B C D
CÂU HỘI THOẠI:
LỜI MỜI (INVITING):
QUESTION RESPONSE
– Would you like N/ to-V…?
– Do you feel like/fancy V-ing….?
– I’d like to invite you to…
► ĐỒNG Ý:
– It’s a great idea (Ý hay đấy!).
– That sounds great/ cool/ fun/ lovely… (Nghe hay đấy).
– Yes, I’d love to (Được chứ. Tôi rất muốn).
– Why not? (Tại sao không chứ?).
– That would be great (Sẽ tuyệt lắm đây).
– How wonderful/ fun! (Tuyệt quá!).
►TỪ CHỐI: “Thanks… but”
– Thanks for the invitation, but I’m afraid… (Cảm ơn bạn đã
mời, nhưng tôi e là…).
– That is so kind of you, but I’m sorry… (Bạn thật tốt, nhưng tôi
xin lỗi…).
Ex:
A: Do you feel like going for a walk? (Bạn muốn đi dạo không?).
B: That sounds great. Let’s go round the lake (Nghe hay đấy.
Chúng mình đi vòng quanh hồ nhé).
ĐỀ NGHỊ (SUGGESTING)
– I suggest that… (Tôi đề xuất rằng…).
– How/What about + N/V-ing? (Việc…
thì sao?).
– Why don’t you/ we… (Sao bạn/chúng
ta không …?).
► ĐỒNG Ý:
– That sounds/ would be great! (Nghe tuyệt đấy!).
– That’s a great idea! (Ý tưởng tuyệt vời!).
Thanks. It’s a good suggestion. (Cảm ơn bạn. Đó là một gợi ý
hay).
► TỪ CHỐI:
– I don’t feel like it (Tôi không thích như vậy).
3. – No, I don’t think it’s a good idea (Không, tôi không nghĩ đây
là một ý tưởng hay).
– I’d rather + V (Tôi muốn … hơn).
1. Dick: Would you like a drink? - Jane: …………
A. I don’t like B. I prefer tea C. Coffee, please D. Never mind
2. Daisy: Let’s go to the movie now. - Alice: Oh! …………
A. I need it B. why’s that? C. I don’t D. Good idea!
3. Janet: Do you feel like going to the cinema this evening? - Susan: …………
A. I don’t agree, I’m afraid B. You’re welcome
C. That would be great D. I feel very bored
4. John: “Would you like to have dinner with me?”- Nancy: “………….”
A. Yes, I’d love to B. I’m very happy C. Yes, it is D. Yes, so do I
5. Alice: “Would you like some more tea?” - Bob: “…………”
A. Yes, please B. Here you are C. It doesn’t matter D. I’m OK
6. David: “Let’s meet for a coffee tonight.” - White: “…………”
A. I hope not B. I’m afraid I can C. Yes, let’s D. Yes, thank you
7. Alice: “What shall we do this evening?” - Carol: “…………”
A. Let’s go out for dinner. B. Oh, that’s good!
C. No problem D. I went out for dinner
8. Anna: “How about a biscuit?” - Thomas: …………. I’m on a diet.
A. Yes, please B. Yes, thank you C. No, thanks D. It’s OK
9. Dick: “Let’s eat out tonight!” - Mary: “…………”
A. Ok. Why not? B. Congratulations C. Good luck! D. Yes, I will
10. - Tom: “Would you like to go to the cinema with me tonight?”
- Daisy: “Yes. …………. Where can we meet?”
A. I would B. I will C. I’d love to D. I like
11. Peter: “Can I carry the bag for you? It seems very heavy. ” – Mrs. Brown: “…………I can manage.”
A. No, thanks B. Yes, please C. Sorry D. You are welcome
12. Jane: “Why don’t you ask Helen for help? I think he is always ready.” - Jill: “…………”
A. Yes, please B. I hope so C. I hope not D. That’s a good idea
13. Mr. Smith: “How about having a drive to the countryside this weekend?” – Mrs. Green: “…………”
A. Not at all B. You are welcome C. No, thanks D. That’s a good idea
14. Janet: “Do you feel like going to the cinema this evening?” - Susan: “…………”
A. I don’t agree, I’m afraid B. You are welcome
C. That would be great D. I feel very boring
15. Dick: “Would you mind lending me your bike?” - Bob: “…………”
A. Yes, let’s B. Yes. Here it is C. Great D. Not at all
16. Mike: “Would you like to have dinner with me?” - Jane: “…………”
A. Yes, it is B. Yes, so do I C. I’m very happy D. Yes, I’d love to
17. Mrs. Jill: “Would you like to join our volunteer group this summer?” - Mrs. Alice: “…………”
A. Do you think I would? B. I wouldn’t. Thank you.
C. Yes, you’re a good friend. D. Yes, I’d love to. Thanks.
18. Mr. Pike: “Would you like beer or wine?” - Mr. Michael: “…………”
A. Yes, I’d love to. B. I couldn’t agree more.
C. No, I’ve no choice. D. I’d prefer beer, please.
19. John: “Would you like to have a get-together with us next weekend?” - Mickey: “…………”
A. No, I wouldn’t B. Yes, let’s C. No, I won’t D. Yes, I’d love to
20. Mr. Smith: “Would you like a cup of tea?” - Mrs. White: “…………”
4. A. Yes, I do B. Yes, please C. I’m sorry D. It’s my pleasure
21. Dick: “Do you feel like going to the stadium this afternoon?” - John: “…………”
A. I don’t agree. I’m afraid. B. I feel very bored.
C. You’re welcome. D. That would be great.
22. Bob: “More coffee? Anybody?” - Robert: “…………”
A. I don’t agree. I’m afraid. B. I’d love to.
C. Yes, please. D. It’s right, I think.
23. Tony: “ Would you like to have dinner with me tonight?” Cindy: “…………”
A. Thanks, but I’m afraid I’ve got something planned
B. Thanks. And you?
C. I’m terribly sorry. But I have to disagree.
D. Sure. Go ahead.
24. Tom: “Would you like to join our volunteer group this summer?” - Paul “ ……………”
A. Do you think I would? B. I wouldn’t thank you
C. Yes, you are a good friend D. Yes, I’d love to, thanks
25. Janet: “Do you feel like going to the cinema this evening?” - Susan: “…………”
A. I don’t agree, I’m afraid B. You’re welcome
C. That would be great D. I feel very bored
1. A. giraffe B. good C. gift D. give
2. A. giant B. magic C. gentle D. game
3. A. give B. generation C. leg D. golf
4. A. gym B. giant C. good D. gentle
5. A. gift B. generation C. giraffe D. magic
6. A. game B. give C. go D. giant
7. A. giraffe B. leg C. gym D. gentle
8. A. magic B. good C. golf D. give
9. A. night B. instead C. avoid D. magic
10. A. boring B. music C. life D. dishwasher
11. A. recycling B. machine C. washing D. iron
12. A. furniture B. tidy C. integral D. sporting
13. A. violin B. video C. gift D. giraffe
14. A. listen B. film C. classical D. exciting
15. A. festival B. visit C. musician D. surprise
16. A. incredible B. traditional C. behind D. audience
17. A. mind B. serious C. life D. rice
18. A. subscribe B. unique C. ending D. amusing
19. A. boring B. interesting C. equipment D. mind
20. A. edit B. fantastic C. decide D. wrist
21. A. latin B. write C. relaxing D. boring
22. A. nice B. noisy C. sympathetic D. brilliant
23. A. amazing B. description C. information D. life
24. A. singer B. audience C. surprise D. integral
25. A. violin B. machine C. night D. iron
1. A. avoid B. answer C. breakfast D. music
2. A. messy B. butler C. magic D. regret
3. A. boring B. busy C. instead D. robot
4. A. cleaner B. around C. gentle D. laundry
5. 5. A. upstairs B. washing C. table D. tidy
6. A. value B. culture C. pretty D. machine
7. A. routine B. agree C. iron D. control
8. A. account B. software C. comment D. hurtful
9. A. picnic B. concert C. about D. local
10. A. visit B. giraffe C. theatre D. water
11. A. trumpet B. attend C. event D. respect
12. A. special B. puppet C. surface D. suppose
13. A. surprise B. legend C. harvest D. dragon
14. A. bamboo B. behind C. special D. attend
15. A. drama B. support C. boring D. funny
16. A. attend B. subscribe C. afford D. edit
17. A. connect B. social C. follow D. gadget
18. A. tablet B. latin C. happy D. decide
19. A. peaceful B. cheerful C. confused D. boring
20. A. noisy B. amaze C. theatre D. breakfast
21. A. entertain B. dishwasher C. grocery D. furniture
22. A. integral B. classical C. festival D. performance
23. A. museum B. musician C. talented D. exciting
24. A. cinema B. violin C. manager D. instrument
25. A. puppeteer B. century C. cultural D. heritage
26. A. completely B. occasion C. encourage D. colourful
27. A. character B. audience C. amusing D. celebrate
28. A. orchestra B. exciting C. tragedy D. serious
29. A. equipment B. comedy C. interesting D. microphone
30. A. annoying B. fantastic C. appearance D. media
31. A. quality B. camera C. relaxing D. generous
32. A. powerful B. amazing C. terrible D. brilliant
33. A. atmosphere B. fantastic C. performance D. description
34. A. performance B. amusing C. exciting D. entertain
35. A. violin B. puppeteer C. fantastic D. entertain
1. What ……… at the moment?
A. do you do B. did you do C. have you done D. are you doing
2. He ……… in London from 1970 to 1973.
A. lives B. had lived C. has lived D. lived
3. Marilyn Monroe ……… in 1962.
A. died B. dies C. is dying D. had died
4. My company ……… a lot of profits 5 years ago.
A. had made B. made C. has made D. makes
5. They ……… a new house in this corner of the street right now.
A. are building B. have been building C. were building D. build
6. Look! That man ……… a photo of you.
A. takes B. is taking C. has took D. is to take
7. Elvis Presley ……… in 1977.
A. dies B. died C. is died D. was died
8. The snake ……… one big egg last week.
A. lay B. laid C. led D. laying
9. They ……… this film last week.
A. have seen B. saw C. were seeing D. had seen
6. 10. She ……… a bath at seven o’clock last night.
A. was having B. had C. has had D. have had
11. She ……… this exercise yesterday at 8 o’clock.
A. wrote B. has written C. has been writing D. was writing
12. He ……… me to the party yesterday.
A. invited B. has invited C. was inviting D. have invited
13. He ……… a book two days ago.
A. read B. has read C. was reading D. have read
14. It ……… quite often in Britain during the winter.
A. is snowing B. snows C. snowed D. was snowing
15. Sarah has got an exam soon, so she ……… very hard at the moment.
A. works B. was working C. worked D. is working
16. My alarm clock ……… at six o’clock every morning and I jump out of bed to get ready for school.
A. rings B. is ringing C. rang D. rung
17. Kerry ……… hard on the violin last week.
A. practices B. has practiced C. practiced D. is practicing
18. John ……… football at the moment.
A. plays B. is playing C. play D. are playing
19. Patricia ……… now. Please do not disturb her.
A. is sleeping B. was sleeping C. sleeps D. will be sleeping
20. Every morning my mother ……… at 6 o’clock.
A. is getting up B. get up C. gets up D. get ups
21. Look! Tom and Jerry ……… a film.
A. watch B. watches C. is watching D. are watching
22. He often ……… his bicycle to the countryside at weekends.
A. ride B. is riding C. rides D. has ridden
23. Christopher Columbus ……… America more than 500 years ago.
A. discovered B. has discovered C. had discovered D. had been discovering
24. In Viet Nam, it ……… often hot in Summer.
A. has been B. is C. is being D. was
25. Be quiet! The baby ……… in the living room.
A. sleeps B. sleep C. has slept D. is sleeping
26. She ……… the gold medal in 1999.
A. won B. had won C. would win D. win
27. I ……… my old friends three weeks ago.
A. was meeting B. had met C. met D. has met
28. Be quiet! My teacher ……… angry.
A. is being B. is C. has been D. can be
29. At 4 pm yesterday? Well, I ……… in my office at that time.
A. was working C. were doing C. worked D. had worked
30. Mr. Nam ……… his house last month.
A. painted B. paints C. paint D. was painting
31. Listen! The bird ………
A. sings B. singing C. sing D. is singing
32. Hurry up! The train ………
A. came B. is coming C. has some D. has come
33. Henry ……… television at 8 o’clock yesterday.
A. watched B. was watching C. were watching D. watches
34. We ……… our dinner half an hour ago.
A. finished B. finish C. finishes D. had finished
35. Mr. Clinton always ……… to work by bus.
7. A. has gone B. went C. go D. goes
36. He sometimes……… his mother in the kitchen.
A. is helping B. help C. has helped D. helps
37. Please be quiet! I ……… to concentrate.
A. am trying B. have tried C. try D. had tried
38. She sometimes ……… vegetables at this market.
A. will buy B. buys C. buy D. bought
39. They ……… a new house in this corner of the street right now.
A. is building B. build C. built D. are building
40. What ……… you ……… at 6 pm yesterday?
A. was/doing B. did/do C. were/doing D. had done
41. She ……… the gold medal in 1999.
A. won B. had won C. would win D. win
42. I ……… my old friends three weeks ago.
A. was meeting B. had met C. met D. has met
43. Vietnamese people often ……… chopsticks to have meals.
A. uses B. use C. are using D. have used
44. He ……………. in London at the moment.
A. is studying B. will study C. studies D. has been studying
45. Many people ……………. homeless after the earthquake in Haiti a few months ago.
A. will become B. became C. become D. are becoming
46. Hurry up! Everyone ……………. for you.
A. wait B. waited C. is waiting D. was waiting
47. We first ……………. each other in London in 2006.
A. meet B. have met C. met D. had met
48. John ……………. a new diet and exercise program last week.
A. began B. begun C. has begun D. was beginning