The passage describes an experiment involving the diffusion of antibodies through an agarose gel. A central well containing a mixture of antibodies X and Y is surrounded by four outer wells containing different antigens. Based on the pattern of precipitation bands that form, the outer wells can be identified as:
Well M and N contain antigen X.
Wells P and O contain antigens Y and Z respectively.
Introduction to Probability - NZ Level 2 2.12Kate FLR
2.12 Probability - this covers everything for Year 12 students except normal distribution (see the next ppt, hopefully?!) so.. risk, relative risk, tables, trees, equally likely outcomes..
Good luck!
This document provides instructions for the National Entrance Screening Test (NEST) in 2013. It details that the test contains 5 sections worth 50 marks each, including a compulsory General section and 3 out of 4 subject sections. Calculators and electronics are not permitted. Answers must be marked on the provided OMR sheet using an HB pencil. The test contains 19 multiple choice questions in the General section worth either 3 or 2 marks depending on the question. Sample questions on topics like physics, evolution, and statistics are provided for practice.
This document provides instructions for a National Entrance Screening Test (NEST) exam. It states that the exam contains 5 sections worth a total of 200 marks. Section 1 is general and compulsory, while sections 2-5 cover specific subjects (biology, chemistry, math, physics) and students must choose 3 of the 4 subject sections. The instructions provide details on answering questions, using the answer sheet, time limits, and prohibited items.
The document describes the instructions for a National Entrance Screening Test (NEST) exam with the following key details:
- The exam has 5 sections with a total of 200 marks: Section 1 (General) is compulsory with 60 marks, and the test taker must choose two of sections 2-5 (Biology, Chemistry, Math, Physics) which are each worth 70 marks.
- Section 1 contains 22 multiple choice questions worth either 3 or 2 marks depending on the question. Wrong or unattempted questions receive 0 marks.
- The answer sheet instructions specify how to fill it out correctly including writing identification details, bubbling in answers, and erasing properly if needed. Calculators and
1. The document provides instructions for a science test, including telling students not to open the test booklet until instructed. It lists what materials are needed and some tips for taking the test.
2. The test contains multiple choice and short answer questions about various science topics like biology, physics and chemistry.
3. Students are advised to try and answer all questions, show their work, and ask the teacher if unsure about anything.
GATE Chemistry 2013 Question Paper | Sourav Sir's ClassesSOURAV DAS
GATE Chemistry Past Year Question Paper
GATE Chemistry Preparation
GATE 2013 Questions
GATE Exam Tips
For full solutions contact us.
Call - 9836793076
Sourav Sir's Classes
Kolkata, New Delhi
Prepare for the IITJEE with past papers solved by the coaching experts at Sri Chaitanya Junior College. Set your sights on the IITJEE 2014 Entrance examinations. To know more - visit www.srichaitanya.net or call 040 66060606. You can also stay in touch with us at www.facebook.com/SriChaitanyaEducationalInstitutes
The document provides instructions for the National Entrance Screening Test (NEST) to be held on 2017. It details that the test contains 5 sections - a compulsory General section carrying 30 marks and optional sections on Biology, Chemistry, Mathematics and Physics each carrying 50 marks. Candidates must attempt at least 3 of the 4 optional subject sections. Calculators and mobile phones are not permitted. Answers must be marked on the OMR sheet provided and the question booklet and OMR sheet codes must match.
Introduction to Probability - NZ Level 2 2.12Kate FLR
2.12 Probability - this covers everything for Year 12 students except normal distribution (see the next ppt, hopefully?!) so.. risk, relative risk, tables, trees, equally likely outcomes..
Good luck!
This document provides instructions for the National Entrance Screening Test (NEST) in 2013. It details that the test contains 5 sections worth 50 marks each, including a compulsory General section and 3 out of 4 subject sections. Calculators and electronics are not permitted. Answers must be marked on the provided OMR sheet using an HB pencil. The test contains 19 multiple choice questions in the General section worth either 3 or 2 marks depending on the question. Sample questions on topics like physics, evolution, and statistics are provided for practice.
This document provides instructions for a National Entrance Screening Test (NEST) exam. It states that the exam contains 5 sections worth a total of 200 marks. Section 1 is general and compulsory, while sections 2-5 cover specific subjects (biology, chemistry, math, physics) and students must choose 3 of the 4 subject sections. The instructions provide details on answering questions, using the answer sheet, time limits, and prohibited items.
The document describes the instructions for a National Entrance Screening Test (NEST) exam with the following key details:
- The exam has 5 sections with a total of 200 marks: Section 1 (General) is compulsory with 60 marks, and the test taker must choose two of sections 2-5 (Biology, Chemistry, Math, Physics) which are each worth 70 marks.
- Section 1 contains 22 multiple choice questions worth either 3 or 2 marks depending on the question. Wrong or unattempted questions receive 0 marks.
- The answer sheet instructions specify how to fill it out correctly including writing identification details, bubbling in answers, and erasing properly if needed. Calculators and
1. The document provides instructions for a science test, including telling students not to open the test booklet until instructed. It lists what materials are needed and some tips for taking the test.
2. The test contains multiple choice and short answer questions about various science topics like biology, physics and chemistry.
3. Students are advised to try and answer all questions, show their work, and ask the teacher if unsure about anything.
GATE Chemistry 2013 Question Paper | Sourav Sir's ClassesSOURAV DAS
GATE Chemistry Past Year Question Paper
GATE Chemistry Preparation
GATE 2013 Questions
GATE Exam Tips
For full solutions contact us.
Call - 9836793076
Sourav Sir's Classes
Kolkata, New Delhi
Prepare for the IITJEE with past papers solved by the coaching experts at Sri Chaitanya Junior College. Set your sights on the IITJEE 2014 Entrance examinations. To know more - visit www.srichaitanya.net or call 040 66060606. You can also stay in touch with us at www.facebook.com/SriChaitanyaEducationalInstitutes
The document provides instructions for the National Entrance Screening Test (NEST) to be held on 2017. It details that the test contains 5 sections - a compulsory General section carrying 30 marks and optional sections on Biology, Chemistry, Mathematics and Physics each carrying 50 marks. Candidates must attempt at least 3 of the 4 optional subject sections. Calculators and mobile phones are not permitted. Answers must be marked on the OMR sheet provided and the question booklet and OMR sheet codes must match.
The document outlines the rules for a contest covering science, math, and general information categories. It details the breakdown of questions by type and category. Easy questions are worth 2 points, average 3 points, and difficult 5 points. The time limits and scoring procedures are provided. A sample set of questions is then given covering the different subject areas and difficulty levels.
This document summarizes the terms and conditions of a multi-round science quiz competition between 5 teams (Teams A through E). It outlines the structure of each round, including the types of questions, time limits for answers, and point values awarded. Round I involves multiple choice questions with 10 points each. Round II has one word answer questions worth 10 points each. Round III features picture identification questions where clues are given and points deducted. Round IV is a true/false round where each team will be asked up to 8 questions in 1 minute worth 5 points each. The document provides examples of questions that would be asked in each round.
The document appears to be instructions for a post graduate entrance exam for various engineering programs. It provides exam details such as date, time, subjects covered, number of questions and marks. It lists instructions for candidates regarding filling the answer sheet correctly and provides guidance on answering questions within the allotted time. The questions will be from various subjects with multiple choice answers.
This document outlines the rules and structure of a physics quiz competition consisting of multiple choice and short answer questions across 4 rounds - pass rounds, buzzer rounds, visual rounds, and rapid fire rounds. The pass rounds involve teams answering questions with points awarded or deducted depending on correct or incorrect answers. The buzzer rounds require teams to buzz in to answer questions. The visual rounds involve identifying images on screen. The rapid fire rounds pose many questions to teams in a short time limit.
The document provides instructions for a JEE Advanced exam paper. It details the format and structure of the exam, including three sections in physics, chemistry, and math. Section 1 has 8 single-digit answer questions worth +4 points for correct answers. Section 2 has 8 multiple choice questions worth +4 for fully correct, 0 for unattempted, and -2 for incorrect answers. Section 3 has 2 paragraph-style questions each with multiple choice answers graded the same as Section 2.
The document contains several chemistry bell ringers providing short questions to answer in complete sentences. The questions cover topics like the study of chemistry, population percentages in the US, conversion factors from equivalence relationships, rounding numbers to significant figures and writing them in scientific notation, variables in experiments, and calculating the area of a rectangular piece of paper from measurements with significant figures.
This document provides instructions for a science exam for Class 9. It consists of two sections - Section A and Section B. Section A contains one-mark, two-mark, three-mark and five-mark questions to be answered in words or sentences. Section B contains multiple choice questions based on practical skills, with one mark for each question. Students are instructed to attempt all questions from both sections separately within the allotted time of 3-31⁄2 hours.
This document provides instructions for a chemistry exam. It includes information such as:
- The total mark for the exam is 80 marks
- Questions are labeled with an asterisk if written communication will be assessed
- A periodic table is printed on the back cover
- Students should read questions carefully, keep track of time, try to answer every question, and check answers at the end.
The document contains guidelines for marking a Physics SPM paper. It includes the marking scheme with various assessment criteria and allocated marks for Section A questions. The criteria cover topics like stating variables, recording values from diagrams, tabulating results, drawing graphs, and stating relationships. Examples of expected answers are also provided for Section B, C and D questions involving concepts like npn transistors, force and acceleration experiments, and induced current experiments.
IIt Jee advanced-2014 Solved Paper by Prabhat GauravSahil Gaurav
1. The document provides instructions for a test being administered by FIITJEE Ltd. It details logistical information like the testing location, timing, and materials allowed or prohibited during the exam.
2. Test-takers are instructed to fill in answers on an optical response sheet, bubbling in the appropriate circles corresponding to their responses. They must write their personal details like name and roll number on the response sheet as well.
3. The question paper contains three parts (physics, chemistry, and math) with each part split into two sections. Section 1 contains multiple choice questions where one or more options can be correct, while Section 2 contains single-digit answer questions from 0-9.
This document provides sample questions for the TestAS entrance examination for bachelor's degree programs in mathematics, computer science, and natural sciences. The sample questions are divided into two subtests: Mathematics, Computer Science and Natural Sciences Module with 22 questions testing understanding of natural science topics, and Understanding Formal Depictions with 22 questions requiring the transposition of information into diagrams. Instructions and examples are provided for each subtest to help examinees prepare for the types of tasks involved.
The document describes the rules and structure of a science quiz competition between 5 teams (Team A, B, C, D, E). It is conducted in 4 rounds, with each round having different question formats and rules. Round 1 involves multiple choice questions worth 10 points each. Round 2 asks one-word answer questions worth 10 points each, with unanswered questions passing to the next team for 5 bonus points. Round 3 shows pictures for identification, awarding 10 points for a correct answer and deducting 2 points per clue. Round 4 asks true/false questions to each team for 1 minute, with each question worth 5 points.
This document provides information about the Post Graduate Common Entrance Test (PGCET) to be held on July 1, 2017 for various polymer-related engineering programs. The test will be for 150 minutes, with the first 120 minutes for answering multiple choice questions. The test contains 75 questions worth a total of 100 marks. Candidates are instructed to follow directions for filling out the answer sheet correctly and provided with important instructions about the format and timing of the test.
1
LAB MODULE 5: GLOBAL TEMPERATURE PATTERNS
Note: Please refer to the GETTING STARTED lab module to learn how to maneuver
through and answer the lab questions using the Google Earth ( ) component.
KEY TERMS
You should know and understand the following terms:
Air temperature Heat index Temperature anomalies
Altitude Kelvin (K) Temperature averages
Ambient temperature Latitude Thermopause
Axial Tilt Maritime effect Thermosphere
Celsius (C) Mesopause Tropopause
Continentality, or
Continental effect
Mesosphere Troposphere
Stratopause Urban heat island
Environmental Lapse Rate Stratosphere Urban heat island effect
Exosphere Structure of the atmosphere Wind chill
Fahrenheit (F) Surface temperature
LAB MODULE LEARNING OBJECTIVES
After successfully completing this module, you should be able to the following
tasks:
Describe the differences between air and surface temperature
Explain heat index and wind chill
Explain the urban heat island effect
Describe the structure of the atmosphere
Describe large scale factors influencing temperature
Describe local factors influencing temperature
2
INTRODUCTION
This lab module explores the global surface and air temperatures of Earth and
Earth’s atmosphere. Topics include the structure of the atmosphere, local and
global factors influencing temperature, and temperature anomalies. The modules
start with four opening topics, or vignettes, which are found in the accompanying
Google Earth file. These vignettes introduce basic concepts of the internal structure
of the Earth. Some of the vignettes have animations, videos, or short articles that
will provide another perspective or visual explanation for the topic at hand. After
reading the vignette and associated links, answer the following questions. Please
note that some links might take a while to download based on your Internet speed.
Expand the INTRODUCTION folder.
Read Topic 1: Surface and Air Temperature
Question 1: How do the surface temperatures of the countries in the
northern latitudes (for example, Canada, Iceland, Norway, and Russia)
compare to those of northern Africa (for example, Algeria, Egypt, Libya,
Morocco, and Sudan)?
A. The temperatures are higher in the northern latitudes during summer
months when net radiation is higher.
B. The temperatures are lower in north Africa during the summer months
when net radiation is higher in northern latitudes.
C. Temperatures are lower in northern latitudes year-round.
D. Temperatures are only lower in the northern latitudes during winter
months.
Read Topic 2: Measuring Temperature
Question 2: Considering water freezes (or alternatively, melts) at 0˚C,
determine from the map which countries or landmasses have an annual
mean temperature around 0˚C.
A. Canada and Norway
B. The United States and the United Kingdom
C. Greenland and Antarctica
D. Russia and Antarctica
3
...
1 LAB MODULE 5 GLOBAL TEMPERATURE PATTERNS Note PSilvaGraf83
1
LAB MODULE 5: GLOBAL TEMPERATURE PATTERNS
Note: Please refer to the GETTING STARTED lab module to learn how to maneuver
through and answer the lab questions using the Google Earth ( ) component.
KEY TERMS
You should know and understand the following terms:
Air temperature Heat index Temperature anomalies
Altitude Kelvin (K) Temperature averages
Ambient temperature Latitude Thermopause
Axial Tilt Maritime effect Thermosphere
Celsius (C) Mesopause Tropopause
Continentality, or
Continental effect
Mesosphere Troposphere
Stratopause Urban heat island
Environmental Lapse Rate Stratosphere Urban heat island effect
Exosphere Structure of the atmosphere Wind chill
Fahrenheit (F) Surface temperature
LAB MODULE LEARNING OBJECTIVES
After successfully completing this module, you should be able to the following
tasks:
Describe the differences between air and surface temperature
Explain heat index and wind chill
Explain the urban heat island effect
Describe the structure of the atmosphere
Describe large scale factors influencing temperature
Describe local factors influencing temperature
2
INTRODUCTION
This lab module explores the global surface and air temperatures of Earth and
Earth’s atmosphere. Topics include the structure of the atmosphere, local and
global factors influencing temperature, and temperature anomalies. The modules
start with four opening topics, or vignettes, which are found in the accompanying
Google Earth file. These vignettes introduce basic concepts of the internal structure
of the Earth. Some of the vignettes have animations, videos, or short articles that
will provide another perspective or visual explanation for the topic at hand. After
reading the vignette and associated links, answer the following questions. Please
note that some links might take a while to download based on your Internet speed.
Expand the INTRODUCTION folder.
Read Topic 1: Surface and Air Temperature
Question 1: How do the surface temperatures of the countries in the
northern latitudes (for example, Canada, Iceland, Norway, and Russia)
compare to those of northern Africa (for example, Algeria, Egypt, Libya,
Morocco, and Sudan)?
A. The temperatures are higher in the northern latitudes during summer
months when net radiation is higher.
B. The temperatures are lower in north Africa during the summer months
when net radiation is higher in northern latitudes.
C. Temperatures are lower in northern latitudes year-round.
D. Temperatures are only lower in the northern latitudes during winter
months.
Read Topic 2: Measuring Temperature
Question 2: Considering water freezes (or alternatively, melts) at 0˚C,
determine from the map which countries or landmasses have an annual
mean temperature around 0˚C.
A. Canada and Norway
B. The United States and the United Kingdom
C. Greenland and Antarctica
D. Russia and Antarctica
3
...
This document contains a model question paper for general sciences with 20 multiple choice questions in Part A covering topics in various areas of general sciences. The questions test concepts in areas like mathematics, physics, chemistry and biology. Sample questions assess understanding of topics like profit growth rates, properties of solutions, series representation, vitamins, plant photoperiodism, binary arithmetic and chemical equations. The question paper is designed to test fundamental knowledge across diverse science disciplines.
GATE (Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering) Physics Preparation || Question ...SOURAV DAS
Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering (GATE) 2013 Question Paper
Physics Previous Years Question Paper
GATE Preparation
For full solutions contact us.
Call - 9836793076
Sourav Sir's Classes
Kolkata, New Delhi
The document is a prayer asking God for guidance and blessings in one's studies and work. It asks God to pour forth brilliance on the intellect to dissipate darkness of sin and ignorance. It asks for a penetrating mind to understand, a retentive memory, ease in learning, lucidity to comprehend, and grace in expressing oneself. It asks God to guide the beginning, direct the progress, and bring the work to completion, through Jesus Christ.
The document describes the theoretical competition portion of the 30th International Physics Olympiad held in Padua, Italy. It provides instructions for the 3 physics problems to be solved in 5 hours. Contestants must show their work, write responses on designated sheets, and submit all materials in order at the end. The first problem involves calculating properties of a gas that absorbs laser light in a cylindrical vessel, including its temperature, pressure, and energy changes.
The document contains information about the Post Graduate Common Entrance Test (PGCET) that will be administered on August 8, 2015 from 10:30 AM to 12:30 PM. It will contain 75 questions testing knowledge of Polymer Science and Technology. Students are provided instructions on filling out the answer sheet correctly and handling the question booklet. They are notified that non-programmable calculators are allowed and the test is divided into two parts - the first 50 questions carrying 1 mark each and the next 25 questions carrying 2 marks each.
The document discusses the benefits of exercise for mental health. Regular physical activity can help reduce anxiety and depression and improve mood and cognitive functioning. Exercise causes chemical changes in the brain that may help protect against mental illness and improve symptoms.
The document discusses the benefits of exercise for mental health. Regular physical activity can help reduce anxiety and depression and improve mood and cognitive function. Exercise causes chemical changes in the brain that may help protect against mental illness and improve symptoms for those who already suffer from conditions like anxiety and depression.
The document outlines the rules for a contest covering science, math, and general information categories. It details the breakdown of questions by type and category. Easy questions are worth 2 points, average 3 points, and difficult 5 points. The time limits and scoring procedures are provided. A sample set of questions is then given covering the different subject areas and difficulty levels.
This document summarizes the terms and conditions of a multi-round science quiz competition between 5 teams (Teams A through E). It outlines the structure of each round, including the types of questions, time limits for answers, and point values awarded. Round I involves multiple choice questions with 10 points each. Round II has one word answer questions worth 10 points each. Round III features picture identification questions where clues are given and points deducted. Round IV is a true/false round where each team will be asked up to 8 questions in 1 minute worth 5 points each. The document provides examples of questions that would be asked in each round.
The document appears to be instructions for a post graduate entrance exam for various engineering programs. It provides exam details such as date, time, subjects covered, number of questions and marks. It lists instructions for candidates regarding filling the answer sheet correctly and provides guidance on answering questions within the allotted time. The questions will be from various subjects with multiple choice answers.
This document outlines the rules and structure of a physics quiz competition consisting of multiple choice and short answer questions across 4 rounds - pass rounds, buzzer rounds, visual rounds, and rapid fire rounds. The pass rounds involve teams answering questions with points awarded or deducted depending on correct or incorrect answers. The buzzer rounds require teams to buzz in to answer questions. The visual rounds involve identifying images on screen. The rapid fire rounds pose many questions to teams in a short time limit.
The document provides instructions for a JEE Advanced exam paper. It details the format and structure of the exam, including three sections in physics, chemistry, and math. Section 1 has 8 single-digit answer questions worth +4 points for correct answers. Section 2 has 8 multiple choice questions worth +4 for fully correct, 0 for unattempted, and -2 for incorrect answers. Section 3 has 2 paragraph-style questions each with multiple choice answers graded the same as Section 2.
The document contains several chemistry bell ringers providing short questions to answer in complete sentences. The questions cover topics like the study of chemistry, population percentages in the US, conversion factors from equivalence relationships, rounding numbers to significant figures and writing them in scientific notation, variables in experiments, and calculating the area of a rectangular piece of paper from measurements with significant figures.
This document provides instructions for a science exam for Class 9. It consists of two sections - Section A and Section B. Section A contains one-mark, two-mark, three-mark and five-mark questions to be answered in words or sentences. Section B contains multiple choice questions based on practical skills, with one mark for each question. Students are instructed to attempt all questions from both sections separately within the allotted time of 3-31⁄2 hours.
This document provides instructions for a chemistry exam. It includes information such as:
- The total mark for the exam is 80 marks
- Questions are labeled with an asterisk if written communication will be assessed
- A periodic table is printed on the back cover
- Students should read questions carefully, keep track of time, try to answer every question, and check answers at the end.
The document contains guidelines for marking a Physics SPM paper. It includes the marking scheme with various assessment criteria and allocated marks for Section A questions. The criteria cover topics like stating variables, recording values from diagrams, tabulating results, drawing graphs, and stating relationships. Examples of expected answers are also provided for Section B, C and D questions involving concepts like npn transistors, force and acceleration experiments, and induced current experiments.
IIt Jee advanced-2014 Solved Paper by Prabhat GauravSahil Gaurav
1. The document provides instructions for a test being administered by FIITJEE Ltd. It details logistical information like the testing location, timing, and materials allowed or prohibited during the exam.
2. Test-takers are instructed to fill in answers on an optical response sheet, bubbling in the appropriate circles corresponding to their responses. They must write their personal details like name and roll number on the response sheet as well.
3. The question paper contains three parts (physics, chemistry, and math) with each part split into two sections. Section 1 contains multiple choice questions where one or more options can be correct, while Section 2 contains single-digit answer questions from 0-9.
This document provides sample questions for the TestAS entrance examination for bachelor's degree programs in mathematics, computer science, and natural sciences. The sample questions are divided into two subtests: Mathematics, Computer Science and Natural Sciences Module with 22 questions testing understanding of natural science topics, and Understanding Formal Depictions with 22 questions requiring the transposition of information into diagrams. Instructions and examples are provided for each subtest to help examinees prepare for the types of tasks involved.
The document describes the rules and structure of a science quiz competition between 5 teams (Team A, B, C, D, E). It is conducted in 4 rounds, with each round having different question formats and rules. Round 1 involves multiple choice questions worth 10 points each. Round 2 asks one-word answer questions worth 10 points each, with unanswered questions passing to the next team for 5 bonus points. Round 3 shows pictures for identification, awarding 10 points for a correct answer and deducting 2 points per clue. Round 4 asks true/false questions to each team for 1 minute, with each question worth 5 points.
This document provides information about the Post Graduate Common Entrance Test (PGCET) to be held on July 1, 2017 for various polymer-related engineering programs. The test will be for 150 minutes, with the first 120 minutes for answering multiple choice questions. The test contains 75 questions worth a total of 100 marks. Candidates are instructed to follow directions for filling out the answer sheet correctly and provided with important instructions about the format and timing of the test.
1
LAB MODULE 5: GLOBAL TEMPERATURE PATTERNS
Note: Please refer to the GETTING STARTED lab module to learn how to maneuver
through and answer the lab questions using the Google Earth ( ) component.
KEY TERMS
You should know and understand the following terms:
Air temperature Heat index Temperature anomalies
Altitude Kelvin (K) Temperature averages
Ambient temperature Latitude Thermopause
Axial Tilt Maritime effect Thermosphere
Celsius (C) Mesopause Tropopause
Continentality, or
Continental effect
Mesosphere Troposphere
Stratopause Urban heat island
Environmental Lapse Rate Stratosphere Urban heat island effect
Exosphere Structure of the atmosphere Wind chill
Fahrenheit (F) Surface temperature
LAB MODULE LEARNING OBJECTIVES
After successfully completing this module, you should be able to the following
tasks:
Describe the differences between air and surface temperature
Explain heat index and wind chill
Explain the urban heat island effect
Describe the structure of the atmosphere
Describe large scale factors influencing temperature
Describe local factors influencing temperature
2
INTRODUCTION
This lab module explores the global surface and air temperatures of Earth and
Earth’s atmosphere. Topics include the structure of the atmosphere, local and
global factors influencing temperature, and temperature anomalies. The modules
start with four opening topics, or vignettes, which are found in the accompanying
Google Earth file. These vignettes introduce basic concepts of the internal structure
of the Earth. Some of the vignettes have animations, videos, or short articles that
will provide another perspective or visual explanation for the topic at hand. After
reading the vignette and associated links, answer the following questions. Please
note that some links might take a while to download based on your Internet speed.
Expand the INTRODUCTION folder.
Read Topic 1: Surface and Air Temperature
Question 1: How do the surface temperatures of the countries in the
northern latitudes (for example, Canada, Iceland, Norway, and Russia)
compare to those of northern Africa (for example, Algeria, Egypt, Libya,
Morocco, and Sudan)?
A. The temperatures are higher in the northern latitudes during summer
months when net radiation is higher.
B. The temperatures are lower in north Africa during the summer months
when net radiation is higher in northern latitudes.
C. Temperatures are lower in northern latitudes year-round.
D. Temperatures are only lower in the northern latitudes during winter
months.
Read Topic 2: Measuring Temperature
Question 2: Considering water freezes (or alternatively, melts) at 0˚C,
determine from the map which countries or landmasses have an annual
mean temperature around 0˚C.
A. Canada and Norway
B. The United States and the United Kingdom
C. Greenland and Antarctica
D. Russia and Antarctica
3
...
1 LAB MODULE 5 GLOBAL TEMPERATURE PATTERNS Note PSilvaGraf83
1
LAB MODULE 5: GLOBAL TEMPERATURE PATTERNS
Note: Please refer to the GETTING STARTED lab module to learn how to maneuver
through and answer the lab questions using the Google Earth ( ) component.
KEY TERMS
You should know and understand the following terms:
Air temperature Heat index Temperature anomalies
Altitude Kelvin (K) Temperature averages
Ambient temperature Latitude Thermopause
Axial Tilt Maritime effect Thermosphere
Celsius (C) Mesopause Tropopause
Continentality, or
Continental effect
Mesosphere Troposphere
Stratopause Urban heat island
Environmental Lapse Rate Stratosphere Urban heat island effect
Exosphere Structure of the atmosphere Wind chill
Fahrenheit (F) Surface temperature
LAB MODULE LEARNING OBJECTIVES
After successfully completing this module, you should be able to the following
tasks:
Describe the differences between air and surface temperature
Explain heat index and wind chill
Explain the urban heat island effect
Describe the structure of the atmosphere
Describe large scale factors influencing temperature
Describe local factors influencing temperature
2
INTRODUCTION
This lab module explores the global surface and air temperatures of Earth and
Earth’s atmosphere. Topics include the structure of the atmosphere, local and
global factors influencing temperature, and temperature anomalies. The modules
start with four opening topics, or vignettes, which are found in the accompanying
Google Earth file. These vignettes introduce basic concepts of the internal structure
of the Earth. Some of the vignettes have animations, videos, or short articles that
will provide another perspective or visual explanation for the topic at hand. After
reading the vignette and associated links, answer the following questions. Please
note that some links might take a while to download based on your Internet speed.
Expand the INTRODUCTION folder.
Read Topic 1: Surface and Air Temperature
Question 1: How do the surface temperatures of the countries in the
northern latitudes (for example, Canada, Iceland, Norway, and Russia)
compare to those of northern Africa (for example, Algeria, Egypt, Libya,
Morocco, and Sudan)?
A. The temperatures are higher in the northern latitudes during summer
months when net radiation is higher.
B. The temperatures are lower in north Africa during the summer months
when net radiation is higher in northern latitudes.
C. Temperatures are lower in northern latitudes year-round.
D. Temperatures are only lower in the northern latitudes during winter
months.
Read Topic 2: Measuring Temperature
Question 2: Considering water freezes (or alternatively, melts) at 0˚C,
determine from the map which countries or landmasses have an annual
mean temperature around 0˚C.
A. Canada and Norway
B. The United States and the United Kingdom
C. Greenland and Antarctica
D. Russia and Antarctica
3
...
This document contains a model question paper for general sciences with 20 multiple choice questions in Part A covering topics in various areas of general sciences. The questions test concepts in areas like mathematics, physics, chemistry and biology. Sample questions assess understanding of topics like profit growth rates, properties of solutions, series representation, vitamins, plant photoperiodism, binary arithmetic and chemical equations. The question paper is designed to test fundamental knowledge across diverse science disciplines.
GATE (Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering) Physics Preparation || Question ...SOURAV DAS
Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering (GATE) 2013 Question Paper
Physics Previous Years Question Paper
GATE Preparation
For full solutions contact us.
Call - 9836793076
Sourav Sir's Classes
Kolkata, New Delhi
The document is a prayer asking God for guidance and blessings in one's studies and work. It asks God to pour forth brilliance on the intellect to dissipate darkness of sin and ignorance. It asks for a penetrating mind to understand, a retentive memory, ease in learning, lucidity to comprehend, and grace in expressing oneself. It asks God to guide the beginning, direct the progress, and bring the work to completion, through Jesus Christ.
The document describes the theoretical competition portion of the 30th International Physics Olympiad held in Padua, Italy. It provides instructions for the 3 physics problems to be solved in 5 hours. Contestants must show their work, write responses on designated sheets, and submit all materials in order at the end. The first problem involves calculating properties of a gas that absorbs laser light in a cylindrical vessel, including its temperature, pressure, and energy changes.
The document contains information about the Post Graduate Common Entrance Test (PGCET) that will be administered on August 8, 2015 from 10:30 AM to 12:30 PM. It will contain 75 questions testing knowledge of Polymer Science and Technology. Students are provided instructions on filling out the answer sheet correctly and handling the question booklet. They are notified that non-programmable calculators are allowed and the test is divided into two parts - the first 50 questions carrying 1 mark each and the next 25 questions carrying 2 marks each.
The document discusses the benefits of exercise for mental health. Regular physical activity can help reduce anxiety and depression and improve mood and cognitive functioning. Exercise causes chemical changes in the brain that may help protect against mental illness and improve symptoms.
The document discusses the benefits of exercise for mental health. Regular physical activity can help reduce anxiety and depression and improve mood and cognitive function. Exercise causes chemical changes in the brain that may help protect against mental illness and improve symptoms for those who already suffer from conditions like anxiety and depression.
The document discusses the benefits of exercise for mental health. Regular physical activity can help reduce anxiety and depression and improve mood and cognitive functioning. Exercise boosts blood flow, releases endorphins, and promotes changes in the brain which help enhance one's emotional well-being and mental clarity.
The document discusses the benefits of exercise for mental health. Regular physical activity can help reduce anxiety and depression and improve mood and cognitive functioning. Exercise causes chemical changes in the brain that may help boost feelings of calmness, happiness and focus.
The document discusses the benefits of exercise for mental health. Regular physical activity can help reduce anxiety and depression and improve mood and cognitive function. Exercise causes chemical changes in the brain that may help protect against mental illness and improve symptoms for those who already suffer from conditions like anxiety and depression.
The document discusses the benefits of exercise for mental health. Regular physical activity can help reduce anxiety and depression and improve mood and cognitive function. Exercise causes chemical changes in the brain that may help protect against mental illness and improve symptoms for those who already suffer from conditions like anxiety and depression.
The document discusses the benefits of exercise for mental health. Regular physical activity can help reduce anxiety and depression and improve mood and cognitive functioning. Exercise causes chemical changes in the brain that may help protect against mental illness and improve symptoms.
The document provides information about the Post Graduate Common Entrance Test to be held on July 1st, 2017 from 2:30 pm to 4:30 pm for various Masters programs. It lists instructions for candidates regarding filling the answer sheet correctly and details about the structure of the test, which will consist of 75 multiple choice questions worth 100 marks to be completed within 120 minutes. Candidates are advised to carefully read and follow the guidelines for appearing in the exam.
Civil Service 2019 Prelims Previous Question Paper - 2Eneutron
The document discusses the benefits of exercise for mental health. Regular physical activity can help reduce anxiety and depression and improve mood and cognitive function. Exercise causes chemical changes in the brain that may help protect against mental illness and improve symptoms.
Civil Service 2019 Prelims Previous Question Paper - 1Eneutron
The document discusses the benefits of exercise for mental health. Regular physical activity can help reduce anxiety and depression and improve mood and cognitive function. Exercise causes chemical changes in the brain that may help protect against mental illness and improve symptoms.
Civil Service 2018 Prelims Previous Question Paper - 2Eneutron
The document discusses the benefits of exercise for mental health. Regular physical activity can help reduce anxiety and depression and improve mood and cognitive functioning. Exercise causes chemical changes in the brain that may help protect against mental illness and improve symptoms.
Civil Service 2018 Prelims Previous Question Paper - 1Eneutron
The document discusses the benefits of exercise for mental health. Regular physical activity can help reduce anxiety and depression and improve mood and cognitive functioning. Exercise causes chemical changes in the brain that may help protect against mental illness and improve symptoms.
Civil Service 2017 Prelims Previous Question Paper - 2Eneutron
The document discusses the benefits of exercise for mental health. Regular physical activity can help reduce anxiety and depression and improve mood and cognitive function. Exercise causes chemical changes in the brain that may help protect against mental illness and improve symptoms for those who already suffer from conditions like depression and anxiety.
Civil Service 2017 Prelims Previous Question Paper - 1Eneutron
The document discusses the benefits of exercise for mental health. Regular physical activity can help reduce anxiety and depression and improve mood and cognitive function. Exercise stimulates the production of endorphins in the brain which elevate mood and reduce stress levels.
This document contains the question paper for SNAP 2013 along with the answers to the 150 multiple choice questions. It directs test takers to an online site to attempt previous SNAP papers and provides information about exam preparation resources available on the site such as daily practice questions, preparation strategies, coaching classes, and current affairs.
This document contains the question paper for SNAP 2014 along with the answers to the 150 multiple choice questions. It provides a link to attempt similar past year papers online and lists exam preparation resources for SNAP like daily practice questions, preparation strategies, coaching class recommendations, and current affairs.
A workshop hosted by the South African Journal of Science aimed at postgraduate students and early career researchers with little or no experience in writing and publishing journal articles.
Main Java[All of the Base Concepts}.docxadhitya5119
This is part 1 of my Java Learning Journey. This Contains Custom methods, classes, constructors, packages, multithreading , try- catch block, finally block and more.
हिंदी वर्णमाला पीपीटी, hindi alphabet PPT presentation, hindi varnamala PPT, Hindi Varnamala pdf, हिंदी स्वर, हिंदी व्यंजन, sikhiye hindi varnmala, dr. mulla adam ali, hindi language and literature, hindi alphabet with drawing, hindi alphabet pdf, hindi varnamala for childrens, hindi language, hindi varnamala practice for kids, https://www.drmullaadamali.com
Exploiting Artificial Intelligence for Empowering Researchers and Faculty, In...Dr. Vinod Kumar Kanvaria
Exploiting Artificial Intelligence for Empowering Researchers and Faculty,
International FDP on Fundamentals of Research in Social Sciences
at Integral University, Lucknow, 06.06.2024
By Dr. Vinod Kumar Kanvaria
This document provides an overview of wound healing, its functions, stages, mechanisms, factors affecting it, and complications.
A wound is a break in the integrity of the skin or tissues, which may be associated with disruption of the structure and function.
Healing is the body’s response to injury in an attempt to restore normal structure and functions.
Healing can occur in two ways: Regeneration and Repair
There are 4 phases of wound healing: hemostasis, inflammation, proliferation, and remodeling. This document also describes the mechanism of wound healing. Factors that affect healing include infection, uncontrolled diabetes, poor nutrition, age, anemia, the presence of foreign bodies, etc.
Complications of wound healing like infection, hyperpigmentation of scar, contractures, and keloid formation.
Leveraging Generative AI to Drive Nonprofit InnovationTechSoup
In this webinar, participants learned how to utilize Generative AI to streamline operations and elevate member engagement. Amazon Web Service experts provided a customer specific use cases and dived into low/no-code tools that are quick and easy to deploy through Amazon Web Service (AWS.)
How to Build a Module in Odoo 17 Using the Scaffold MethodCeline George
Odoo provides an option for creating a module by using a single line command. By using this command the user can make a whole structure of a module. It is very easy for a beginner to make a module. There is no need to make each file manually. This slide will show how to create a module using the scaffold method.
How to Manage Your Lost Opportunities in Odoo 17 CRMCeline George
Odoo 17 CRM allows us to track why we lose sales opportunities with "Lost Reasons." This helps analyze our sales process and identify areas for improvement. Here's how to configure lost reasons in Odoo 17 CRM
LAND USE LAND COVER AND NDVI OF MIRZAPUR DISTRICT, UPRAHUL
This Dissertation explores the particular circumstances of Mirzapur, a region located in the
core of India. Mirzapur, with its varied terrains and abundant biodiversity, offers an optimal
environment for investigating the changes in vegetation cover dynamics. Our study utilizes
advanced technologies such as GIS (Geographic Information Systems) and Remote sensing to
analyze the transformations that have taken place over the course of a decade.
The complex relationship between human activities and the environment has been the focus
of extensive research and worry. As the global community grapples with swift urbanization,
population expansion, and economic progress, the effects on natural ecosystems are becoming
more evident. A crucial element of this impact is the alteration of vegetation cover, which plays a
significant role in maintaining the ecological equilibrium of our planet.Land serves as the foundation for all human activities and provides the necessary materials for
these activities. As the most crucial natural resource, its utilization by humans results in different
'Land uses,' which are determined by both human activities and the physical characteristics of the
land.
The utilization of land is impacted by human needs and environmental factors. In countries
like India, rapid population growth and the emphasis on extensive resource exploitation can lead
to significant land degradation, adversely affecting the region's land cover.
Therefore, human intervention has significantly influenced land use patterns over many
centuries, evolving its structure over time and space. In the present era, these changes have
accelerated due to factors such as agriculture and urbanization. Information regarding land use and
cover is essential for various planning and management tasks related to the Earth's surface,
providing crucial environmental data for scientific, resource management, policy purposes, and
diverse human activities.
Accurate understanding of land use and cover is imperative for the development planning
of any area. Consequently, a wide range of professionals, including earth system scientists, land
and water managers, and urban planners, are interested in obtaining data on land use and cover
changes, conversion trends, and other related patterns. The spatial dimensions of land use and
cover support policymakers and scientists in making well-informed decisions, as alterations in
these patterns indicate shifts in economic and social conditions. Monitoring such changes with the
help of Advanced technologies like Remote Sensing and Geographic Information Systems is
crucial for coordinated efforts across different administrative levels. Advanced technologies like
Remote Sensing and Geographic Information Systems
9
Changes in vegetation cover refer to variations in the distribution, composition, and overall
structure of plant communities across different temporal and spatial scales. These changes can
occur natural.
LAND USE LAND COVER AND NDVI OF MIRZAPUR DISTRICT, UP
NEST 2016 Question Paper
1. NATIONAL ENTRANCE SCREENING TEST (NEST – 2016)
SET A
Total Marks: 200 Time: 3 hours
General instructions
1. This question booklet contains five sections. Each section carries 50 marks.
2. Section 1 is the General section. Sections 2 to 5 are for the subjects Biology, Chemistry,
Mathematics and Physics, respectively. Attempt the General section and any three of
the four subject sections.
3. Read the instructions given at the beginning of each section carefully.
4. Calculator, cell phone, log table, etc. are NOT permitted in the examination
hall.
5. Answers to the questions are to be marked on the OMR sheet provided.
6. Please make sure that the question booklet code (A or B) matches with
the OMR sheet code (A or B). In case of any discrepancy, inform the invigilator
immediately.
7. Return the OMR sheet to the invigilator at the end of the examination.
Instructions for writing on OMR sheet
1. Read and follow the instructions given on the OMR sheet.
2. As far as possible, fill in the answers only after you are sure that you do not need to
change them. In case you do have to change the answer after filling, erase the mark
completely so that no black spot is left inside the bubble.
3. Check that you are filling the correct answers for the correct section on the
OMR sheet.
4. Your examination number (as given in the admit card) MUST BE ENTERED
CORRECTLY. If entered incorrectly or not entered at all, the OMR sheet
shall be treated as invalid and shall not be assessed.
Some useful constants
Planck constant h 6.63 × 10−34 Js
Universal gas constant R 8.31 Jmol−1K−1
Permittivity of free space ǫ0 8.85 × 10−12 C2N−1m−2
Magnitude of charge of an electron e 1.60 × 10−19 C
Mass of the electron me 9.11 × 10−31 kg
Speed of light in vacuum c 3.00 × 108 ms−1
Rydberg constant R∞ 1.10 × 107 m−1
Refractive index of water w.r.t. air aµw
4
3
3. Section 1: GENERAL
Marks for Section 1: 50
This section contains 15 questions.
For each question, only one of the four options is a correct answer. For questions, 1.1 to 1.10, a
correct answer will earn 3 marks. For questions, 1.11 to 1.15, a correct answer will earn 4 marks.
For this GENERAL section, a wrong answer or an unattempted question will earn 0 marks.
1.1 The lengths of all sides of triangle ABC are in integral units. If l(AB) = 10 units and
l(BC) = 15 units, the number of distinct possible values for l(AC) are
(A) 5 (B) 19 (C) 21 (D) 25
1.2 Which of the following figures cannot be made from the pieces in figure I by arranging
them side-by-side?
I (A) (B) (C) (D)
1.3 The recently published results of the LIGO experiment are related to
(A) sequencing of the human genome. (B) discovery of gravitational waves.
(C) comprehensive model of geomagnetism. (D) identification of greenhouse gasses.
1.4 To which human activity is the poet, John Milton, referring in the lines below:
... By him first
Men also, and by his suggestion taught,
Ransacked the centre, and with impious hands
Rifled the bowels of their mother Earth
For treasures better hid. Soon had his crew
Opened into the hill a spacious wound
And digged out ribs of gold
(A) Laying railway tracks. (B) Clearing forests.
(C) Guerilla warfare. (D) Mining.
Page 3
4. 1.5 In the product of two two-digit numbers ( 7) × (7 ), there is same digit at both the
blank spaces. A possible answer to this multiplication can be
(A) 807 (B) 1844 (C) 2701 (D) 6686
1.6 A glass of water at 50 ◦
C is placed in a refrigerator (maintained at 0 ◦
C) for half an hour
and then brought out and kept in a room at 25 ◦
C. Which of the panels in the figure
below best describes the temperature variation of the water as a function of time (in
minutes)? Note that the rate of change of temperature of a body is proportional to the
difference between the temperature of the body and temperature of the surroundings.
T
t30
25
0
50
T
t30
25
0
50
T
t30
25
0
50
T
t30
25
0
50
(B)
(C) (D)
(A)
1.7 There was a depository of gold bars at the centre of a bank vault, which was protected
by seven concentric, concrete walls with exactly one door in each wall. Each door was
protected by a guard. One day a man made a deal with the first guard, which allowed
him to pass on the condition that he would give the guard half of the gold bars that he
was carrying back with him. However, the guard was required to return one gold bar to
him. He made the same deal with the remaining guards at each door. How many gold
bars should he have originally taken if he ended up getting two for himself?
(A) 2 (B) 6 (C) 66 (D) 130
1.8 A protective protein that is produced in humans in response to a bacterial infection is
called
(A) Haemoglobin. (B) Antigen. (C) Antibody. (D) Serum albumin.
Page 4
5. 1.9 Suppose you wanted to design your own temperature scale based on methyl alcohol
(methanol). On the Celsius scale, methanol has a melting point of −96 ◦
C and a boiling
point of 64 ◦
C, but on your new scale calibrated in units of degrees methanol, ◦
M, you
define methanol to melt at 0◦
M and boil at 200◦
M. On the methanol scale, the melting
and boiling points of water are
(A) 0◦
M and 200◦
M (B) 60◦
M and 222.5◦
M
(C) 76.8◦
M and 228.8◦
M (D) 120◦
M and 245◦
M
1.10 The Chicxulub meteor impact event, believed to have caused the mass-extinction of
the Cretaceous dinosaurs, is estimated to have occurred
(A) 100 million years ago. (B) 78 million years ago.
(C) 65 million years ago. (D) 43 million years ago.
For rest of the questions in this section, each correct answer will earn 4 marks.
Analyse the following data table carefully and answer questions 1.11 and 1.12.
In the game of cricket, a test match is played between teams of two countries, where
the home team (H. T.) hosts the matches in its country. The table below gives
the statistics of the teams that won the test matches after winning the toss, for
the period January 2001 to December 2015. The table is grouped into two parts.
Columns 2 and 3 list match won/ match lost record for the home team, when the
home team won the toss. Columns 4 and 5 list match won/ match lost record for
the guest team (G. T.), when the guest team won the toss. Drawn matches are not
included in the win/loss ratio.
Toss Won - H. T. Toss Won - G. T.
Hosts H.T. Won H. T. Lost G. T. Won G. T. Lost
Australia 28 6 4 27
Pakistan 12 3 7 10
India 15 4 5 20
England 28 9 13 24
Sri Lanka 14 5 12 15
South Africa 21 10 8 16
New Zealand 8 6 9 8
West Indies 7 14 14 6
1.11 When playing at home, the teams which performed equally well irrespective of the
outcome of the toss are
(A) India and South Africa. (B) South Africa and Sri Lanka.
(C) India and New Zealand. (D) Australia and West Indies.
Page 5
6. 1.12 The team that seems to lose equally frequently regardless of whether it wins or loses
the toss at home is
(A) West Indies. (B) Australia. (C) India. (D) South Africa.
Read the following passage carefully and answer questions 1.13 to 1.15.
The ‘Milgram experiment’ was a series of psychology experiments conducted by Yale
University psychologist Stanley Milgram. Milgram described results of his experi-
ments in his book, ‘Obedience to Authority: An Experimental View’. In each setup,
three individuals were involved: the researcher who was running the experiment,
a volunteer who was assigned the role of a teacher, and an actor pretending to be
another volunteer, who would assume the role of a learner. The teacher was then
given a list of word pairs that he was to teach the learner, who was sitting in another
room. The teacher would read the first word of each pair and read four possible an-
swers. The learner would press a button to indicate his response. The teacher was
instructed to administer a shock to the learner, if the answer was incorrect. The
level of shock was increased in steps of 15 V with each wrong answer.
The teacher believed that the learner was receiving actual shocks. In reality, no
shocks were given. The ‘learner’ had set up a tape recorder, which played prerecorded
sounds for each shock level. After the voltage was increased beyond 135 V, the
actor would start to bang on the wall that separated him from the teacher and
would complain about his heart condition. After several such high voltage shocks
all responses by the learner would stop.
When the ‘teachers’ heard the screams of pain coming from the learner, many of
them indicated their desire to stop the experiment and check on the learner. Some
‘teachers’ began to question the purpose of the experiment. If at any time the
teacher indicated his desire to halt the experiment, he was ordered by the researcher
to continue. Most teachers continued after being assured that they would not be
held responsible, but they began to exhibit signs of extreme stress like sweating,
stuttering, biting their lips, and even having nervous laughing fits. If after four
orders to continue, the teacher still wished to stop, the experiment was halted.
Otherwise, it was halted after the teacher had given the maximum shock of 450 V
three times in succession.
Before conducting the experiment, Milgram asked many psychology students and
professors to predict the behaviour of 100 teachers. All of the poll respondents
believed that only a very small fraction of teachers (three or less out of 100) would
be prepared to inflict the maximum voltage. In Milgram’s first set of experiments,
26 out of 40 teachers administered the final 450 V shock. Later, Milgram and other
psychologists performed variations of the experiment throughout the world, with
similar results.
Page 6
7. 1.13 In the original experiment, the percentage of teachers administering the maximum
shock was
(A) 3%. (B) 26%. (C) 40%. (D) 65%.
1.14 The primary purpose of Milgram experiment was to test if
(A) electric shocks could help in learning word-pairs.
(B) ordinary people would obey orders to torture others.
(C) human beings could withstand electric shocks of 450 V.
(D) people are psychologically affected by participating in such an experiment.
1.15 After “receiving” increasing levels of high voltage shocks, the initial response of the
learner was to
(A) bang on the wall. (B) laugh nervously.
(C) sweat profusely. (D) stutter and bite his lips.
Page 7
8. Section 2: Biology
Marks for Section 2: 50
This section contains 15 questions.
For questions 2.1 to 2.10, only one of the 4 options is correct. A correct answer will
earn 3 marks, a wrong answer will earn (−1) mark, and an unattempted question will earn
0 marks.
2.1 A pedigree chart of a family with an autosomal recessive disease Z is given. Assume
that inheritance is Mendelian, and that all individuals with
homozygous recessive genotype have the disease. Circles in
the pedigree represent females and squares represent males.
Filled shapes indicate affected individuals, while unfilled
shapes indicate unaffected individuals. If J does not have
the recessive allele, the probability that I is a ‘carrier of dis-
ease Z’ is
(A) 0.67 (B) 0.5 (C) 0.25 (D) 0
2.2 Which of the following pairs is an incorrect match?
(A) Transcriptional repression — gene regulation
(B) Post-translational modifications — phosphorylation
(C) Cytoplasm — exon splicing of eukaryotic pre-mRNA
(D) Enhancers — increased transcription
2.3 A simplified model of the carbon cycle is depicted below.
X, Y and Z in the figure could represent
(A) X: rice plants, Y: locusts and Z: bacteria.
(B) X: goats, Y: grass and Z: fungi.
(C) X: saprophytic bacteria, Y: horses and Z: shrubs.
(D) X: cows, Y: saprophytic fungi and Z: bacteria.
Page 8
9. 2.4 Changes in certain parameters of the Castor-oil seed during germination in the dark are
graphically represented. The curves I, II and III could indicate
(A) I: Embryo, II: sugar content and III: endosperm.
(B) I: Dry mass of endosperm, II: sugar content and III: lipid content.
(C) I: Total dry mass, II: lipid content and III: sugar content.
(D) I: Embryo, II: lipid content and III: total dry mass.
2.5 Students in a biology laboratory were asked to view certain cells microscopically and
measure the size of a single cell. They were given a compound microscope with an
eyepiece of 15X magnification and an objective lens of 10X magnification. The eyepiece
has a scale with a least count of 10 ñm. When the students focused the cells under the
given microscope, they found that one cell measured 60 divisions on the eyepiece scale.
What is the approximate size of that cell?
(A) 0.47 ñm (B) 2.8 ñm (C) 4.0 ñm (D) 24 ñm
2.6 Three features of nitrogenous excretory products (M, N and O) of animals are tabulated
below.
Features of excretory products M N O
Toxicity High Very low Low
Energy cost to produce Low Moderate High
Water loss to excretion High Moderate Low
The animals that secrete M, N and O as their major excretory product would be
(A) M: human, N: pigeon, O: tadpole.
(B) M: cockroach, N: cat, O: snake.
(C) M: crow, N: lizard, O: dog.
(D) M: goldfish, N: rat, O: lizard.
Page 9
10. 2.7 For the peptide sequence (from N to C terminus) Lys-Arg-Ser-Cys-Tyr-Tyr-Trp-His-
Lys (KRSCYYWHK), which of the following is the correct coding sequence of the gene
encoding this peptide?
(A) 3’-aaa tac ggt tat tat cgt cga cgc aaa-5’
(B) 3’-aaa cgc agc tgc tat tat tgg cat aaa-5’
(C) 3’-ttt gtagta gtc gta gca act gcg ctt-5’
(D) 3’-ttc gcg tca acg ctg ctg att gcg ttc-5’
2.8 A glass plate is coated with a layer of agarose gel. A central well
and four surrounding wells (M, N, O, P) are cut on the
agarose as shown in the figure on the right side. A mixture
of x and y antibodies is added in the central well that react
specifically with antigens X and Y, respectively. Wells M
and N contain the antigen X. Wells P and O contain antigens
of unknown identity. All the antigens and antibodies can
diffuse through the agarose. The plate is then incubated for
48 hours. White lines of precipitates are formed in between
the antigen and antibody wells as shown in the figure. Which
of the following is likely to cause this?
(A) antigen Y in both O and P (B) antigen X in both O and P
(C) antigen X in O and Y in P (D) antigen Y in O and X in P
2.9 Three promising candidate compounds (X, Y and Z) were analysed in a drug-screening
project to identify a novel potent compound against lung cancer. The following graph
shows efficacies of these compounds in killing cancerous and normal cells.
Conditions:
1. Cancer cells + Compound X
2. Cancer cells + Compound Y
3. Cancer cells + Compound Z
4. Normal cells + Compound X
5. Normal cells + Compound Y
6. Normal cells + Compound Z
Based on the above data, which of the following has the best prospect to be a useful
drug?
(A) Compound X (B) Compound Y
(C) Mixture of compounds X and Y (D) Compound Z
Page 10
11. 2.10 Cladograms are branched diagrams representing evolutionary relationships. A clado-
gram with representative animals is shown below.
The traits M, N, O and P would represent:
(A) M: Nails, N: Jaws, O: Fur, P: Opposable thumb
(B) M: Lungs, N: Vertebral column, O: Bipedal locomotion, P: Mammary glands
(C) M: Vertebral column, N: Jaws, O: Mammary glands, P: Nails
(D) M: Lungs, N: Claws, O: Fur, P: Opposable thumb
For questions 2.11 to 2.15, one or more than one of the 4 options may be correct. Your
answer is regarded correct only if you choose all the correct option(s) and no incor-
rect option(s). A correct answer will earn 4 marks, a wrong answer or an unattempted
question will earn 0 marks.
2.11 In order to study the lysine biosynthetic pathway in yeast, lysine auxotrophs (mutants
that are unable to grow without lysine supplementation to the minimal growth medium)
were screened. Four mutants (m1 to m4) were isolated, which were all recessive compared
to the wild-type (WT). To find out the number of genes affected by these mutations,
haploid mutants were mated and the ability of the resultant diploid progeny to grow on
medium lacking lysine was tested. The results are shown in the table below.
m1 m2 m3 m4 WT
m1 - + - + +
m2 - + - +
m3 - + +
m4 - +
(‘+’ indicates growth and ‘-’ indicates no growth) Based on these results, which of the
following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) There are three genes affected by the mutations.
(B) m1 and m3 are mutations on the same gene.
(C) m2 and m4 are likely to display the same phenotypic defect.
(D) m1 and m2 are mutations on different genes.
Page 11
12. 2.12 Two unique reptilian species (P and Q) reproduce in ambient temperature range (31 ◦
C
to 35 ◦
C only). A group of scientists found a strange observation regarding the “male
to female ratio” as obtained from fertilized eggs artificially hatched within laboratory
incubators, as shown in the figure below.
The maximum life span of these reptiles is 5 years. 50 male and 50 female adults each of
species P and Q were used to start a 10 year long study. The eggs were always hatched in
incubators during this study. In the absence of any other factors, which of the following
possible outcome(s) is/are correct?
(A) If the temperature of the incubator is strictly maintained at 33 ◦
C for 10 con-
secutive years, the species P is expected to have more males than in species
Q.
(B) If the temperature of the incubator is strictly maintained at 31 ◦
C for 10 con-
secutive years, there will be more males in species P than in species Q.
(C) If the temperature of the incubator is strictly maintained at 31 ◦
C for 10 con-
secutive years, then both P and Q will not survive in the lab.
(D) If the temperature of the incubator is strictly maintained at 31 ◦
C and 35 ◦
C
for every alternate year (for a total of 10 years), there will be more males in
species P than species Q.
2.13 Over fifty percent of swallows living on cliffs in Nebraska were killed when a cold spell
hit the area in 1996. Scientists collected nearly 2000 dead swallows from the base of the
cliffs and captured about 1000 live ones. By measuring the body mass of these birds,
they found that birds with larger than average body mass survived the cold spell better
than the ones with smaller than average body mass. The data collected suggests that
(A) The population is undergoing natural selection.
(B) The population is undergoing disruptive selection.
(C) There is directional selection acting on the population.
(D) Stabilizing selection is acting on the population.
Page 12
13. 2.14 The diagram below shows the relationships among the midge larvae (Chaoborus ny-
blaei), larval salamander (Ambystoma tigrinum) and two species of the crustacean Daph-
nia (D. rosea and the larger D. pulex) that inhabit certain pond communities. Study
the relationships and deduce which of the following is/are correct.
(A) Presence of high numbers of larval salamander has an indirect effect on D.
rosea and it is a positive effect.
(B) When larval salamanders are present, predation reduces the population growth
rate of the larger Daphnia, facilitating the coexistence of the two species of
Daphnia.
(C) The two species of Daphnia compete for the same resources and hence increase
in resource availability will reduce the number of midge larvae and larval sala-
mander.
(D) Increase in the number of D. pulex would lead to a decrease in the number of
midge larvae.
2.15 Assume that the coat colour in a mammal is dictated by a genetically controlled
biosynthetic pathway as depicted in the diagram below
The pigment gene ‘X’ makes an enzyme ‘X’ that catalyzes the conversion of the precursor
to the grey pigment (P1). The dominant allele ‘X’ produces the enzyme necessary for
this conversion. Similarly a dominant gene ‘Y’ produces an enzyme ‘Y’ that controls the
Page 13
14. conversion of the P1 to a black pigment (P2). On the other hand, the dominant allele ‘Z’
produces an active enzyme ‘Z’ that can completely inhibit the conversion of precursor
to P1. In all cases, the recessive alleles respectively produce defective enzymes with no
activity. All the three genes assort independently with no interference from other genes.
State the colour of a male with the genotype XXyyZZ and a female with the genotype
xxYYzz.
(A) Male is black and female is white.
(B) Both male and female are white.
(C) Male is white and female is black.
(D) Male is grey and female is white.
Page 14
15. Section 3: Chemistry
Marks for Section 3: 50
This section contains 15 questions.
For questions 3.1 to 3.10, only one of the 4 options is correct. A correct answer will
earn 3 marks, a wrong answer will earn (−1) mark, and an unattempted question will earn
0 marks.
3.1 In a base catalyzed elimination reaction the base takes away a proton from the β position
of the leaving group (the group that goes away with the bonding pair of electrons) and a
double bond is formed. When the base is bulky it prefers to take away the proton from
less hindered position.
Br
(CH3)3COK/(CH3)3COH
X
(i) O3
(ii) reduction
Y + Z
Major
In the above process, Y and Z are
(A) two molecules of ethanal.
(B) propanal and ethanol.
(C) propanoic acid and carbon dioxide.
(D) propanal and methanal.
3.2 Compound X (C4H6OCl2) reacts with cold water to form Y (C4H7O2Cl). X on heating
with aq. KOH, followed by acidification, gives Z (C4H8O3), which can be resolved into
enantiomers. X is-
(A) CH3 CCl2 CH2 CHO (B) ClCH2 CH2 CH2 COCl
(C) Cl CH
CH3
CO CH2Cl (D) CH3 CH2 CHCl COCl
3.3 4-Amino salicylic acid, called PAS, is an anti-tuberculosis drug. The proper method for
its preparation involves a reaction of
(A) 3-aminophenol with chloroform in an alkaline medium.
(B) 3-aminophenol with carbon dioxide in an alkaline medium under pressure.
(C) conc. HNO3 and conc. H2SO4 on salicylic acid followed by catalytic reduction
using H2/Ni.
(D) chlorine (limited amount) with 4-aminobenzoic acid in the presence of FeCl3,
followed by boiling the product in aq. alkali.
Page 15
16. 3.4 Consider the following reaction.
Br F
EtSNa
Solvent
P
The major product (P) of the reaction is
(A)
SEt F
(B)
Br SEt
(C)
SEt F
(D)
SEt SEt
3.5 Consider the equilibrium N2O4(g) ⇋ 2NO2(g), established from pure N2O4(g), at a
suitable temperature T. Keeping the temperature constant, the equilibrium is studied
as a function of the total pressure P of the gas mixture. Let V be the volume of the gas
mixture. For one mole as the initial amount of N2O4(g), the correct plot (among a, b,
c, d) in the given figure, assuming ideal gas behaviour, is
0
1
2
d
c
a
b
P
PV
RT
(A) a (B) b (C) c (D) d
3.6 An aqueous solution containing a nonvolatile solute is heated in an open vessel till the
boiling point is reached. Thereafter, the boiling is continued and the temperature and
the vapour pressure of the solution are recorded at 5 min, 10 min, and 15 min. The cor-
responding temperatures and pressures are T5, T10, T15 and P5, P10, P15, respectively.
The correct relationship among them is:
(A) T5 < T10 < T15 and P5 = P10 = P15
(B) T5 = T10 = T15 and P5 = P10 = P15
(C) T5 = T10 = T15 and P5 < P10 < P15
(D) T5 < T10 < T15 and P5 < P10 < P15
Page 16
17. 3.7 One mole of an ideal mono-atomic gas is subjected to a cyclic process connecting the
states L, M and N as shown in the pressure - temperature diagram given below. The
line LM passes through the origin, while MN and LN are parallel to the pressure and
temperature axes respectively.
300 600
2
L N
M
Temperature (K)
Pressure(atm)
The correct statement is (R is the universal gas constant)
(A) Work done along the path LM is 300R.
(B) Work done along the path NL is 750R.
(C) Work done along the path LM is zero.
(D) Enthalpy change along the path MN is greater than zero.
3.8 Correct order of bond angle, ∠XOX (X = H, O or F) is
(A) H2O > O3 > F2O (B) O3 > H2O > F2O
(C) F2O > H2O > O3 (D) O3 > F2O > H2O
3.9 A metal of density 7.08 g cm−3
at 298 K crystallizes in a body centered cubic lattice
with lattice constant 2.9 ˚A. The metal is (atomic mass is given in parenthesis)
(A) Cr (52.0) (B) Zn (65.4) (C) Sc (45.0) (D) Rh (102.9)
3.10 The ore that can be concentrated by magnetic separation method is
(A) Bauxite (Al2O3.xH2O) (B) Pyrolusite (MnO2)
(C) Cuprite (Cu2O) (D) Zincite (ZnO)
Page 17
18. For questions 3.11 to 3.15, one or more than one of the 4 options may be correct. Your
answer is regarded correct only if you choose all the correct option(s) and no incor-
rect option(s). A correct answer will earn 4 marks, a wrong answer or an unattempted
question will earn 0 marks.
3.11 Several octahedral complexes are possible from combinations of Co3+
, Cl−
and NH3.
The correct statement(s) regarding the octahedral coordination entities having the for-
mulae [Co(NH3)nCl6−n](n−3)+
with n ≥ 3, is/are
(A) At most six octahedral complexes are possible.
(B) One of the complexes is homoleptic.
(C) All the complexes are paramagnetic.
(D) Some of the complexes dissociate in water to give Co3+
and Cl−
ions.
3.12 A carboxylic acid ester is prepared commonly by reacting a carboxylic acid with excess
of an alcohol in the presence of a small quantity of a strong acid such as conc. H2SO4
as a catalyst. The reaction is reversible and generally the equilibrium constant for the
esterification is close to 1. As it is a reversible reaction, different methods are used to
increase the yield of ester. It is established that the mechanism of esterification under
such conditions involves initial protonation of the acid followed by the attack of the
alcohol as a nucleophile.
R
O
O
H + R′
OH
H+
R
O
O
R′ + H2O
acyl alkoxy
The correct statement(s) is/are
(A) When esterification is carried out using molar ratio of acid and alcohol as 1:10,
the yield of the ester with respect to the acid should be close to 90%.
(B) The function of conc. H2SO4 is also to increase the free energy change of the
reaction and thereby increasing the equilibrium constant.
(C) When an ester is heated with acidified water the protonation will be more
favourable at the acyl oxygen atom than at the alkoxy oxygen atom.
(D) When butyl hexanoate is heated with a large excess of methanol in the presence
of a small quantity of conc. H2SO4, methyl hexanoate is the major product.
Page 18
19. 3.13 Consider the following sequence of reactions.
OCH3
OCH3
ClCH2COCl
Lewis acid
X
CH3NH2
Base
Y
NaBH4
Z
1 Equivalent
Q
(i) aq. NaOH/I2, (ii) HCl, H2O
The correct statement(s) is / are
(A) X is a mixture of almost equal amounts of two isomers.
(B) Y is a basic compound.
(C) Z is a racemic mixture.
(D) Q is 3,4-dimethoxybenzoic acid.
3.14 The decomposition reaction X(g) → 3Y(g) is studied at constant volume and temper-
ature. For pure X(g) as the starting material, the first few readings of the observed total
pressure P as a function of time are given below:
Time (min) 0 1 2 4
Total Pressure P (atm) 8 16 20 P1
The correct statement(s), assuming ideal gas behaviour, is/are:
(A) P1 is 23 atm.
(B) The total pressure, on completion of reaction, will be 24 atm.
(C) The partial pressure of Y will exceed that of X in less than 1 min.
(D) The partial pressures of X and Y will be equal when the total pressure is 12
atm.
3.15 One mole of an ideal gas is expanded irreversibly from an initial pressure of 2 atm to
a final pressure of 1 atm at a temperature of 300 K. Let qirr, ∆Ssys and ∆Ssurr represent
the magnitude of the heat transfer, the entropy change of the system, and the entropy
change of the surrounding respectively. Assuming that the surrounding does not perform
any work, the correct relation(s) is/are (R is the universal gas constant)
(A) ∆Ssurr = −qirr/300 (B) ∆Ssys = R ln 2
(C) ∆Ssys = qirr/300 (D) qirr < 300 R ln 2
Page 19
20. Section 4: Mathematics
Marks for Section 4: 50
This section contains 15 questions.
For questions 4.1 to 4.10, only one of the 4 options is correct. A correct answer will
earn 3 marks, a wrong answer will earn (−1) mark, and an unattempted question will earn
0 marks.
4.1 Let A be a 3 × 2 matrix with real entries. Let H = A(AT
A)−1
AT
where AT
is the
transpose of A and let I be the identity matrix of order 3 × 3. Then
(A) H2
= I.
(B) H2
= −I.
(C) H2
= H.
(D) H2
= −H.
4.2 The number of terms that are integers in the binomial expansion of (
√
7 + 3
√
5)35
is
(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 7
4.3 Suppose f : [0, π] → R satisfies f(x) + f(π − x) = 1 for all x. Then
π
0
f(x) sin x dx is
(A) 1/4 (B) 1/2 (C) 3/4 (D) 1
4.4 Let an acute-angled triangle ABC be inscribed in a circle whose centre is the origin.
Let B = (3, 4) and C = (−4, 3). Then ∠BAC is
(A) π/5 (B) π/4 (C) π/3 (D) π/2
4.5 Let positive real numbers x and y be such that 3x + 4y = 14. The maximum value of
x3
y4
is
(A) 4 (B) 128 (C) 216 (D) 432
4.6 Let A, G, H be the arithmetic mean, geometric mean and harmonic mean respectively of
two distinct positive real numbers. The roots of the quadratic equation Ax2
−2Gx+H =
0 lie in the interval
(A) (0,1) (B) (1,2) (C) (2,3) (D) (3,4)
4.7 The number of real solutions of ex
= 1 + sin x is
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) not finite
Page 20
21. 4.8 In an office, 30% of the employees have scooters and 25% have cars. Among those who
have scooters, 90% do not have cars. The probability that an employee has a car given
that he does not have a scooter is
(A) 11/35 (B) 33/100 (C) 11/50 (D) 9/10
4.9 Let a function f : [0, ∞) → R be defined as follows.
f(x) =
|x − a| − 1, 0 ≤ x < 2
b(x − 2)2
, x ≥ 2
where a and b are real numbers with a ∈ (0, 2) and b = 0. Then
(A) there is exactly one value of a which makes f a continuous function.
(B) the continuity of f depends on the values of both a and b.
(C) f is continuous if and only if a + b = 1.
(D) f is not differentiable at exactly one point in its domain.
4.10 Among the following equations the one that most accurately describes the graph shown
below is
(A) y = x sin π
x
; 0 < x < 1
(B) y = x cos π
x
; 0 < x < 1
(C) y = 1
x
sin(πx); 0 < x < 1
(D) y = 1
x
cos(πx); 0 < x < 1 0 0.2 0.4 0.6 0.8 1 1.2
x
-1.2
-0.9
-0.6
-0.3
0.0
0.3
0.6
y(x)
For questions 4.11 to 4.15, one or more than one of the 4 options may be correct. Your
answer is regarded correct only if you choose all the correct option(s) and no incor-
rect option(s). A correct answer will earn 4 marks, a wrong answer or an unattempted
question will earn 0 marks.
4.11 For a positive real number k let Ek be the ellipse with equation
x2
a2 + k
+
y2
b2 + k
= 1
where a > b > 0. All members of the family of ellipses {Ek : k > 0} have the same
(A) foci. (B) eccentricity.
(C) pair of directrices. (D) centre.
Page 21
22. 4.12 Let −→a and
−→
b be two non-collinear vectors and |−→a | = |
−→
b | = 1. If
−→
U = −→a − (−→a .
−→
b )
−→
b
then
−→
U .−→a is
(A) |−→a ×
−→
b | (B) |
−→
U |
(C) |
−→
U × −→a | (D) |
−→
U ×
−→
b |
4.13 The real and imaginary part of the complex number 1 +
√
i where i =
√
−1 are
(A) 1 −
1
√
2
and −
1
√
2
respectively.
(B) 1 −
1
√
2
and
1
√
2
respectively.
(C) 1 +
1
√
2
and
1
√
2
respectively.
(D) 1 +
1
√
2
and −
1
√
2
respectively.
4.14 There are 100 students in a class. It is found that 60 students study Mathematics, 45
students study Physics and 35 students study Chemistry. Moreover, 20 students study
Mathematics and Physics, 15 students study Physics and Chemistry, 25 students study
Chemistry and Mathematics and 10 students study none of these subjects. Then
(A) 95 students study at least one of Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry.
(B) 10 students study each of Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry.
(C) 70 students study either Mathematics or Chemistry.
(D) 35 students study Mathematics along with either Physics or Chemistry.
4.15 For a given positive integer n let f : (0, ∞) → R be defined as
f(x) = xn
ln x.
Then
(A) f(x) is an increasing function on (0, ∞).
(B) f has only one zero in (0, ∞).
(C) f(x) has a minimum at x = 1/ n
√
e.
(D) the line y = x − 1 is a tangent to the graph of f(x) at the point (1, 0) .
Page 22
23. Section 5: Physics
Marks for Section 5: 50
This section contains 15 questions.
For questions 5.1 to 5.10, only one of the 4 options is correct. A correct answer will
earn 3 marks, a wrong answer will earn (−1) mark, and an unattempted question will earn
0 marks.
5.1 A certain quaternary star system consists of a central star of mass M and three smaller
stars, each of mass m. The three smaller stars orbit the central star in the same circular
orbit of radius r and have the same sense of revolution. They are positioned one-third
of a revolution apart from one another in the orbit. The period of revolution of each
smaller star is
(A) 2π
r3
G(m + M)
(B) 2π
r3
G(m + M√
3
)
(C) 2π
r3
G(M − m)
(D) 2π
r3
G(M + m√
3
)
5.2 A uniform block of mass m resting on a rough horizontal plane just starts moving
when pulled by a string with a force of magnitude mg making an angle of 45◦
with the
horizontal. Then the block will move if it is
(A) pulled by a horizontal force of magnitude mg.
(B) pulled by a force of magnitude mg making an angle of 30◦
with the horizontal.
(C) pushed by a force of magnitude mg making an angle of 45◦
with the horizontal.
(D) pulled by a force of magnitude mg making an angle 60◦
with the horizontal.
5.3 A fan of moment of inertia I is set into rotation at time t = 0 with constant power P.
Then
(A) the angular speed of the fan is proportional to t.
(B) the angular acceleration of the fan remains constant.
(C) the magnitude of the angular displacement is proportional to t2
.
(D) the magnitude of the torque is proportional to t−1/2
.
5.4 Two persons are playing shehnai made of the same material. Shehnai I is 1.5 times the
length of shehnai II. Let f
(I)
0 and f
(II)
0 be the fundamental frequencies of shehnai I and
shehnai II respectively. Then,
(A) 3f
(II)
0 = f
(I)
0 (B) 3f
(II)
0 = 2f
(I)
0
(C) 2f
(II)
0 = 3f
(I)
0 (D) f
(II)
0 = 3f
(I)
0
Page 23
24. 5.5 A hole of radius 2.12 cm is drilled in a metal sheet maintained at 30 ◦
C. The coefficient
of linear expansion of the metal is 1.7 × 10−5
K−1
. The sheet is now heated to 230 ◦
C.
Then,
(A) area of the hole decreases to 9.31 × 10−2
cm2
.
(B) the change in the radius of the hole is 7.00 × 10−3
cm.
(C) area of the hole increases by 6.65 × 10−2
cm2
.
(D) the change in the radius of the hole is 5.00 × 10−3
cm.
5.6 A sphere, a cylinder and a very thin disk are made out of the same material. Each one
of them carry the same amount of charge Q, spread uniformly over their surfaces. The
radius of the cylinder is identical to its height. The radii of sphere, cylinder and disk are
in the ratio 1:2:3. I, II and III are points in space, very close to the sphere, curved surface
of the cylinder (away from the edges) and centre of flat surface of the disk, respectively.
Then magnitudes of electric fields at the points I, II and III are approximately in the
ratio
(A) 1:
1
4
:
2
9
(B) 1:
1
2
:
2
3
(C) 1:2:3 (D) 1:4:9
5.7 A series LCR circuit is built with a variable resistor. The resonant frequency of the
circuit is ω0. The circuit response (Im-R profile, where, Im is peak current and R is
resistance) is recorded for three different values of frequencies (ω) of input signal, and
these are depicted schematically in the accompanying figures, I, II and III. The figures
respectively correspond to
0
R
0
Im
I
0
R
0
Im
II
0
R
0
Im
III
(A) ω = ω0, ω ≈ ω0 and ω ≫ ω0.
(B) ω ≈ ω0, ω = ω0 and ω ≫ ω0.
(C) ω ≈ ω0, ω = ω0 and ω ≪ ω0.
(D) ω = ω0, ω ≪ ω0 and ω ≫ ω0.
5.8 Four ideal diodes are connected to form a
circuit as shown in the figure. An AC sig-
nal Vin = 10 sin (100π t) volt is applied across
points 1 and 2 and the output is measured
across points 5 and 6. The output voltage
(Vout) is
(A) 10 sin (100π t) V (B) 10 V (C) 6.4 V (D) 3.2 V
Page 24
25. 5.9 A fish is 10.0 cm from the front surface of a
spherical fish bowl of radius 20.0 cm, as shown
in the figure. The walls of the bowl are thin,
and their effects can be neglected. As observed
from the point P (see figure), the fish is at a
distance of
(A) 6.7 cm from the surface and appears magnified in size.
(B) 8.6 cm from the surface and appears magnified in size.
(C) 10.3 cm from the surface and appears diminished in size.
(D) 11.4 cm from the surface and appears diminished in size.
5.10 In an experiment on photoelectric effect photons of wavelength 300 nm eject electrons
from a metal of work function 2.25 eV. A photon of energy equal to that of the most
energetic electron corresponds to the following transition in the hydrogen atom:
(A) n = 2 to n = 1 state. (B) n = 3 to n = 1 state.
(C) n = 3 to n = 2 state. (D) n = 4 to n = 3 state.
For questions 5.11 to 5.15, one or more than one of the 4 options may be correct. Your
answer is regarded correct only if you choose all the correct option(s) and no incor-
rect option(s). A correct answer will earn 4 marks, a wrong answer or an unattempted
question will earn 0 marks.
5.11 A particle performs uniform circular motion of radius R and speed v about the origin
O. Then the angular speed of the particle about
(A) O is v/R.
(B) a point close to the circumference and inside the circle exhibits a sharp maxi-
mum.
(C) a point on the circumference is 2v/R.
(D) a point outside the circle is zero at two instants during the motion of the
particle around the circle.
5.12 Two bodies each of mass M and temperature independent specific heat C are initially
at temperatures 100 K and 400 K. A reversible engine is used to extract heat with the
hotter body as the source and cooler body as the sink. Both the bodies attain the same
final temperature. Then,
(A) the final temperature of the two bodies is 250 K.
(B) the work done by the engine is 100 MC
(C) total change in entropy of the system is zero.
(D) the total heat extracted from the hotter body is 150 MC
Page 25
26. 5.13 An electrostatic field line leaves at an an-
gle α from point charge q1, and connects with
point charge −q2 at an angle β (q1 and q2 are
positive), as shown schematically in the figure.
We have q1 = 2q2 and α = 60◦
. Then,
O
1
−q
2
α β
+q
(A) a test charge placed at the midpoint O will be in equilibrium
(B) β = 90◦
(C) the magnitude of the electric field at a distance r far away from O (see figure)
is q2/4πǫor2
.
(D) for a negative test charge, the electrostatic potential energy is lower near q1 as
compared to that near q2.
5.14 A student did an experiment to determine the Young’s modulus (Y ) of a nylon thread,
2.00 m in length, using Searle’s method. A Vernier callipers having a least count of
0.01 mm was used to measure the diameter of the thread. The length and extensions
were measured by using a scale with a least count of 1 mm. The data obtained by the
student are shown in the table below. Assume the uncertainty in force to be 0.01 N.
Length of the thread 1994 mm
Force 0.32 N
Extension of the thread 95 mm
Diameter of the thread 0.04 mm
Choose the correct alternative(s).
(A) The student reports Y to be about 5 GPa.
(B) The reported uncertainty in Y is 54%.
(C) Measuring the extension using a travelling microscope with a least count of
0.1 mm would improve the accuracy of the result by at most 1%.
(D) The stress is 1.8 GPa.
5.15 Two speakers are driven by the same oscillator of frequency f. They are located a
distance d from each other on a vertical pole. An observer far away walks slowly, straight
towards the lower speaker and his ears are at the same level as the lower speaker. Let
v represent the speed of sound and assume that there is no reflection from the ground.
Let nmax be the number of times the observer hears the minimum in sound intensity and
let λ = v/f be wavelength of the sound emitted. Choose the correct alternative(s).
(A) nmax ≤
d
λ
+ 0.5. (B) A minimum occurs at
4d2
+ 9λ2
12λ
.
(C) nmax ≤
d
λ
− 0.5. (D) A minimum occurs at
4d2
− λ2
4λ
.
Page 26