The document provides information about the GAT - NTS Graduate Admission Test sample paper. It notes that the sample paper is intended to familiarize test takers with the contents and format of the actual test, though it may not be identical. It also notes that NTS does not endorse the sample paper and test takers should confirm the current test pattern directly with NTS. The document was published by CAT Publications, a subsidiary of the College of Admission Tests, for classroom courses. It provides a copyright notice and details on permissions.
Decision science/ Operations Research MCQ by Prof. Sujeet TambeSUJEET TAMBE
This document contains 70 multiple choice questions related to decision science concepts. Some key concepts covered in the questions include linear programming models, transportation problems, assignment problems, and queuing systems. The questions test understanding of topics like defining decision variables, characteristics and assumptions of linear programming models, solving transportation and assignment problems using different methods, and identifying properties of queuing systems.
The document provides information about the Air Force Common Admission Test (AFCAT) syllabus and sample questions. It outlines the following:
1. The exam will have 100 questions worth 3 marks each. One mark will be deducted for incorrect answers. The exam duration is 2 hours.
2. Questions will assess General Awareness, English Verbal Ability, Numerical Ability, and Reasoning and Military Aptitude.
3. Sample questions include passages to be comprehended, error detection, word meanings, analogies, and spatial reasoning puzzles. The document provides examples of different question types that may appear on the AFCAT.
CRITICAL THINKING Session slide 6 (THE GENIUS BRIGHTBright17
This document summarizes a lecture on distinguishing between normative and empirical statements.
1. The lecture discusses factual/empirical sentences that describe observable facts versus value judgments/normative sentences that prescribe how things should be.
2. Some statements can have both explicit factual meanings and implicit normative meanings. Examples are provided like saying a car provides the "best" mileage, which implicitly judges value.
3. The session goals are to identify factual versus value judgments and understand how statements can be both normative and empirical. The topics contrast facts and values, and explore explicit and implicit meanings in statements.
The document provides guidance on effective preparation for the GMAT exam. It recommends learning about the exam format and structure, building knowledge of the content areas tested, and understanding one's strengths and weaknesses as a test-taker. Specific tips include learning the rules and formulas tested in each section, practicing with strategies tailored for different question types, and developing a study plan that plays to an individual's pacing and strengths. Understanding all aspects of the exam and oneself as a test-taker is key to achieving the best possible score.
This document contains a sample test for assessing English comprehension, quantitative ability, and logical ability. It includes 20 multiple choice questions across these three domains to gauge skills in areas like vocabulary, data interpretation, logical reasoning, and more. The questions are designed to evaluate these abilities for employment screening or educational admissions purposes.
The student shouldn't have to spend time deciphering your test questions. Learn the basics on good question writing skills.
Answers to slides are in the Notes section below.
This document outlines the modules covered in a machine learning course. Module 1 introduces machine learning concepts and algorithms like concept learning, FIND-S, and candidate elimination. Module 2 covers decision tree learning, including ID3, information gain, and inducing decision trees from data. Module 3 discusses artificial neural networks, including perceptrons, gradient descent, backpropagation, and their applications. Module 4 is about Bayesian learning, including the Bayesian theorem, maximum a posteriori, Naive Bayes, and Bayesian belief networks. Module 5 evaluates learning algorithms, discusses instance-based learning like k-nearest neighbors, and introduces reinforcement learning and Q-learning.
The document discusses reasoning and mental aptitude exercises that can help participants prepare for business and aptitude tests. It provides links to additional online resources on topics like reasoning, English improvement, quantitative questions, calculus, permutations and combinations, and general knowledge. The author wishes the participants good luck.
Decision science/ Operations Research MCQ by Prof. Sujeet TambeSUJEET TAMBE
This document contains 70 multiple choice questions related to decision science concepts. Some key concepts covered in the questions include linear programming models, transportation problems, assignment problems, and queuing systems. The questions test understanding of topics like defining decision variables, characteristics and assumptions of linear programming models, solving transportation and assignment problems using different methods, and identifying properties of queuing systems.
The document provides information about the Air Force Common Admission Test (AFCAT) syllabus and sample questions. It outlines the following:
1. The exam will have 100 questions worth 3 marks each. One mark will be deducted for incorrect answers. The exam duration is 2 hours.
2. Questions will assess General Awareness, English Verbal Ability, Numerical Ability, and Reasoning and Military Aptitude.
3. Sample questions include passages to be comprehended, error detection, word meanings, analogies, and spatial reasoning puzzles. The document provides examples of different question types that may appear on the AFCAT.
CRITICAL THINKING Session slide 6 (THE GENIUS BRIGHTBright17
This document summarizes a lecture on distinguishing between normative and empirical statements.
1. The lecture discusses factual/empirical sentences that describe observable facts versus value judgments/normative sentences that prescribe how things should be.
2. Some statements can have both explicit factual meanings and implicit normative meanings. Examples are provided like saying a car provides the "best" mileage, which implicitly judges value.
3. The session goals are to identify factual versus value judgments and understand how statements can be both normative and empirical. The topics contrast facts and values, and explore explicit and implicit meanings in statements.
The document provides guidance on effective preparation for the GMAT exam. It recommends learning about the exam format and structure, building knowledge of the content areas tested, and understanding one's strengths and weaknesses as a test-taker. Specific tips include learning the rules and formulas tested in each section, practicing with strategies tailored for different question types, and developing a study plan that plays to an individual's pacing and strengths. Understanding all aspects of the exam and oneself as a test-taker is key to achieving the best possible score.
This document contains a sample test for assessing English comprehension, quantitative ability, and logical ability. It includes 20 multiple choice questions across these three domains to gauge skills in areas like vocabulary, data interpretation, logical reasoning, and more. The questions are designed to evaluate these abilities for employment screening or educational admissions purposes.
The student shouldn't have to spend time deciphering your test questions. Learn the basics on good question writing skills.
Answers to slides are in the Notes section below.
This document outlines the modules covered in a machine learning course. Module 1 introduces machine learning concepts and algorithms like concept learning, FIND-S, and candidate elimination. Module 2 covers decision tree learning, including ID3, information gain, and inducing decision trees from data. Module 3 discusses artificial neural networks, including perceptrons, gradient descent, backpropagation, and their applications. Module 4 is about Bayesian learning, including the Bayesian theorem, maximum a posteriori, Naive Bayes, and Bayesian belief networks. Module 5 evaluates learning algorithms, discusses instance-based learning like k-nearest neighbors, and introduces reinforcement learning and Q-learning.
The document discusses reasoning and mental aptitude exercises that can help participants prepare for business and aptitude tests. It provides links to additional online resources on topics like reasoning, English improvement, quantitative questions, calculus, permutations and combinations, and general knowledge. The author wishes the participants good luck.
Part 1 Please circle the correct answer.1. Which of t.docxherbertwilson5999
Part 1: Please circle the correct answer.
1. Which of the following is most sensitive to outliers?
a. interquartile range b.standard deviation. c. median
d. mode
2. James and George took a math exam. George’s percentile score on the exam was 80; James’s
percentile score was 40 on the same test. We know that
a) George correctly answered twice as many questions than James. b) They both scored better than 40 of their classmates.
c) George correctly answered more questions than James. d) James did not pass the test.
3. Find the mean and standard deviation for a binomial experiment where n 260,
p 0.675 .
a) 260 , b) 260 ,
7.55
57.04
c) 175.50 ,
7.55
d) 97.50 ,
e) 175.50 ,
13.25
9.19
4. If we were to create a box plot, which of the following statement(s) would be true?
A. The median would be located somewhere within the box.
B. The median value would be larger than the third quartile value (Q3) C. The median would always be centered in the middle of the box.
D. The median would indicate where the 50th percentile would be.
a) A and B
b) All of them. c) A and D
d) C and D.
e) None of them.
5. Which of these statements are false?
a. There is a strong linear relationship between gender and height because we found a correlation of .55.
b. Plant height and leaf height were found to be negatively correlated because the correlation coefficient is -1.41.
c. Since the correlation between X and Y is 0, this means there is no relationship whatsoever between these two variables.
d. All of the above.
e. None of the above.
6. Some methods may be used to make a confidence interval wider or narrower. Circle the two
methods that would decrease the width of a confidence interval for a mean, if all else stays the same.
a. Increase the sample size. b. decrease the sample size.
c. increase the level of confidence. d. decrease the level of confidence.
7. Two researchers are going to take a sample of data from the same population of physics students. Researcher A will select a random sample of students from among all students taking physics. Researcher B's sample will consist only of the students in her class. Both researchers will construct a 95% confidence interval for the mean score on the physics final exam using their own sample data. Which researcher's method has a 95% chance of capturing the true mean of the population of all students taking physics?
a. Both methods have a 95% chance of capturing the true mean b. Researcher A
c. Research B
d. Neither
8. A 98% confidence interval indicates that:
a. 98% of the intervals constructed using this process based on samples from this population will include the population mean
b. 98% of the time the interval will include the sample mean
c. 98% of the possible population means will be included by the interval
9. A one-tailed hypothesis test is performed using a 0.10 level of significance. .
The document provides a sample paper for the NTS Graduate Admission Test (GAT). It begins by stating that the sample paper is intended to familiarize test takers with the format and question types on the actual GAT, though the content is not identical. It then provides 5 questions each on quantitative ability and verbal ability to exemplify the types of questions on the exam. The sample paper concludes by noting it was created by the College of Admission Tests to help prepare test takers, and that readers should confirm the current exam format directly with NTS.
Question 1 of 402.5 PointsA die with 12 sides is rolled. What is.docxteofilapeerless
Question 1 of 40
2.5 Points
A die with 12 sides is rolled. What is the probability of rolling a number less than 11? Is this the same as rolling a total less than 11 with two six-sided dice? Explain.
A. 2/6
B. 3/6
C. 4/6
D. 5/6
Question 2 of 40
2.5 Points
Based on meteorological records, the probability that it will snow in a certain town on January 1st is 0.413. Find the probability that in a given year it will not snow on January 1st in that town.
A. 0.345
B. 0.425
C. 0.587
D. 0.592
Question 3 of 40
2.5 Points
A study of 600 college students taking Statistics 101 revealed that 54 students received the grade of A. Typically 10% of the class gets an A. The difference between this group of students and the expected value is not significant at the 0.05 level. What does this mean in this case?
A. The probability that the difference occurred due to chance is less than 0.05.
B. The probability of getting an A is 10% and only 9% got an A in this study. The difference is less than 5% so it is not significant.
C. There is not enough information to make any conclusion.
D. The probability that the difference occurred due to chance is more than 0.05.
Question 4 of 40
2.5 Points
A committee of three people is to be formed. The three people will be selected from a list of five possible committee members. A simple random sample of three people is taken, without replacement, from the group of five people. Using the letters A, B, C, D, E to represent the five people, list the possible samples of size three and use your list to determine the probability that B is included in the sample. (Hint: There are 10 possible samples.)
A. 0.6
B. 0.4
C. 0.7
D. 0.8
Question 5 of 40
2.5 Points
If you flip a coin three times, the possible outcomes are HHH, HHT, HTH,
HTT, THH, THT, TTH, TTT. What is the probability of getting at least one head?
A. 4/9
B. 5/6
C. 7/8
D. 5/8
Question 6 of 40
2.5 Points
In the first series of rolls of a die, the number of odd numbers exceeded the number of even numbers by 5. In the second series of rolls of the same die, the number of odd numbers exceeded the number of even numbers by 11. Determine which series is closer to the 50/50 ratio of odd/even expected of a fairly rolled die.
A. The second series is closer because the difference between odd and even numbers is greater than the difference for the first series.
B. The first series is closer because the difference between odd and even numbers is less than the difference for the second series.
C. Since 1/2 > 1/5 > 1/11, the first series is closer.
D. The series closer to the theoretical 50/50 cannot be determined unless the total number of rolls for both series is given.
Reset Selection
Question 7 of 40
2.5 Points
A study of students taking Statistics 101 was done. Four hundred students who studied for more than 10 hours averaged a B. Two hundred students who studied for less than 10 hours averaged a C. This difference was significant at the 0.01 level. What does this mea.
The PSAT/NMSQT measures academic skills needed for college through questions on critical reading, writing and math. It provides feedback to students on strengths and weaknesses. Preparation includes taking challenging courses, practicing with sample tests and making educated guesses.
The PSAT/NMSQT measures academic skills needed for college through questions on critical reading, writing and math. It provides feedback to students on strengths and weaknesses. Preparation includes taking challenging courses, practicing with sample tests and making educated guesses. On test day, students should read carefully, work steadily and skip questions to return to if time allows.
STAT 200 Introduction to Statistics Final Examination, Sp.docxwhitneyleman54422
STAT 200: Introduction to Statistics Final Examination, Spring 2016 OL4 Page 1 of 7
STAT 200
OL4/US2 Sections
Final Exam
Spring 2016
The final exam will be posted at 12:01 am on May 6, and it is due
at 11:59 pm on May 8, 2016. Eastern Time is our reference time.
This is an open-book exam. You may refer to your text and other course materials
as you work on the exam, and you may use a calculator. You must complete the
exam individually. Neither collaboration nor consultation with others is allowed.
It is a violation of the UMUC Academic Dishonesty and Plagiarism policy to use
unauthorized materials or work from others.
Answer all 20 questions. Make sure your answers are as complete as possible.
Show all of your work and reasoning. In particular, when there are calculations
involved, you must show how you come up with your answers with critical work
and/or necessary tables. Answers that come straight from calculators, programs
or software packages will not be accepted. If you need to use software (for
example, Excel) and /or online or hand-held calculators to aid in your calculation,
you must cite the sources and explain how you get the results.
Record your answers and work on the separate answer sheet provided.
This exam has 200 total points; 10 points for each question.
You must include the Honor Pledge on the title page of your submitted final exam.
Exams submitted without the Honor Pledge will not be accepted.
STAT 200: Introduction to Statistics Final Examination, Spring 2016 OL4 Page 2 of 7
1. True or False. Justify for full credit.
(a) If P(A) = 0.4 , P(B) = 0.5, and A and B are disjoint, then P(A AND B) = 0.2.
(b) If all the observations in a data set are identical, then the variance for this data set is 0.
(c) The mean is always equal to the median for a normal distribution.
(d) It’s easier to reject the null hypothesis at significance level of 0.01 than at significance
level of 0.05.
(e) In a two-tailed test, the value of the test statistic is 2. If we know the test statistic follows a
Student’s t-distribution with P(T >2) = 0.03, then we have sufficient evidence to reject the
null hypothesis at 0.05 level of significance.
2. Identify which of these types of sampling is used: cluster, convenience, simple random,
systematic, or stratified. Justify for full credit.
(a) The quality control department of a semiconductor manufacturing company tests every 100
th
product from the assembly line.
(b) UMUC STAT Club wanted to estimate the study hours of STAT 200 students. Two STAT 200
sections were randomly selected and all students from these two sections were asked to fill out
the questionnaire.
(c) A STAT 200 student is interested in the number of credit cards owned by college students. She
surveyed all of her classmates to collect sample data.
(d) In a career readiness research, 1.
This document contains a review for a statistics and probability exam for senior high school students. It includes 34 multiple choice questions covering topics like random variables, probability distributions, the central limit theorem, hypothesis testing, and sampling. The questions assess understanding of key concepts in statistics such as means, variances, standard deviations, z-scores, t-tests, and the normal distribution.
The document provides past questions from the Federal Government Scholarship exam on various subjects including mathematics, computer science, and current affairs in Nigeria. Some key points:
- It includes 30 practice mathematics questions testing concepts like percentages, ratios, and rate problems.
- It lists various common abbreviations used in information and communication technology (ICT) and computer science, explaining each term.
- It provides 3 possible current affairs questions about Nigeria, testing knowledge about the first political party formed in Nigeria and other historical facts.
The document serves as a study guide, compiling practice questions from prior exams that could help students prepare for the Federal Government Scholarship test. It covers essential topics like math, technology, and Nigerian history through
Statistics
Summer 2019
Name: Cindy Charles
Multiple choice section:
1. A researcher is interested in studying the eating behavior of a rats and selects a group of 25 rats to be tested in a research study. The group of 25 rates is an example of a
a. sample
.
b. statistic
c. population
d. parameter
2. A researcher uses an anonymous survey to investigate the study habits of the American college students. The entire group of American college students is an example of a
a. sample
.
b. statistic
c. population
d. parameter
3. A characteristic, usually a numerical value, that describes a sample is called a
a. sample
.
b. statistic
c. population
d. parameter
4. Determining the class standing for the graduating seniors at a high school would involve measurement on a(n) ____________ scale of measurement.
a. nominal
.
b. ordinal
c. interval
d. ratio
5. A researcher conducts a study to determine whether moderate doses of St. John’s Wort have any effect on memory in college students. For this study, with is the independent variable?
a. the amount of St. John’s Wort given to each participant.
b. the memory score for each participant
c. the group of college students
d. cannot answer without more information.
6. When we are interested in simply looking at the association or relationship between two contiguous variables as they exist naturally , the following research method is likely to be helpful:
a. correlational
b. experimental
c. quasi-experimental
d. non-parametric
7. In an experiment looking at the effect of eating varied levels of multiple portions of ice cream, daily, on blood serum cholesterol levels (HDL)
a. eating ice cream is the independent variable (IV) and HDL is the dependent variable (DV).
b. ice cream, the DV and HDL, the IV
c. neither, this is a correlational study
d. ice cream and HDL are both independent variables
8. “Girl, boy, girl, girl, boy, boy, boy, girl. So, there’s 4 girls and 4 boys.” Our enumerator is employing which of the following scales
a. ratio
b. sex differential
c. interval
d. nominal
9. “I came in first place in the “Best Statistics Professor” category. That clearly shows I am much better at this than most other professors on campus.”
a. This is a reasonable conclusion, since first place in Statistics must be a higher rating than, say, third place in Multicultural Education.
b. The speaker mistakenly attributes arithmetic characteristics to ordinal data.
c. The statement has absolutely no meaning, since we do not know the number of other professors on campus or teaching statistics. It represents an example of the absolute or ratio scale.
d. The interval scale applies here, because voters used a relative standar.
This document provides a practice final exam for a Statistics 311 course. It includes instructions for students taking the exam, an honor pledge, and 36 multiple choice and written response questions covering a range of statistical topics. The exam is intended to help students prepare for the format and level of questions that may appear on the actual final exam. It notes that the practice exam does not contain the exact questions or topics that will be on the real exam.
Question 4 of 400.0 2.5 PointsJoe dealt 20 cards from a stand.docxwraythallchan
Question 4 of 40
0.0/ 2.5 Points
Joe dealt 20 cards from a standard 52-card deck, and the number of red cards exceeded the number of black cards by 8. He reshuffled the cards and dealt 30 cards. This time, the number of red cards exceeded the number of black cards by 10. Determine which deal is closer to the 50/50 ratio of red/black expected of fairly dealt hands from a fair deck and why.
A. The first series is closer because 1/10 is farther from 1/2 than is 1/8.
B. The series closer to the theoretical 50/50 cannot be determined unless the number of red and black cards for each deal is given.
C. The second series is closer because 20/30 is closer to 1/2 than is 14/20.
D. The first series is closer because the difference between red and black is smaller than the difference in the second series.
Question 5 of 40
0.0/ 2.5 Points
A study of 600 college students taking Statistics 101 revealed that 54 students received the grade of A. Typically 10% of the class gets an A. The difference between this group of students and the expected value is not significant at the 0.05 level. What does this mean in this case?
A. The probability that the difference occurred due to chance is less than 0.05.
B. The probability of getting an A is 10% and only 9% got an A in this study. The difference is less than 5% so it is not significant.
C. There is not enough information to make any conclusion.
D. The probability that the difference occurred due to chance is more than 0.05.
Question 6 of 40
0.0/ 2.5 Points
Jody checked the temperature 12 times on Monday, and the last digit of the temperature was odd six times more than it was even. On Tuesday, she checked it 18 times and the last digit was odd eight times more than it was even. Determine which series is closer to the 50/50 ratio of odd/even expected of such a series of temperature checks.
A. The Monday series is closer because 1/6 is closer to 1/2 than is 1/8.
B. The Monday series is closer because 6/12 is closer to 0.5 than is 8/18.
C. The Tuesday series is closer because the 13/18 is closer to 0.5 than is 9/12.
D. The series closest to the theoretical 50/50 cannot be determined without knowing the number of odds and evens in each series.
Question 10 of 40
0.0/ 2.5 Points
If you flip a coin three times, the possible outcomes are HHH, HHT, HTH, HTT, THH, THT, TTH, TTT. What is the probability of getting at most one head?
A. 4/9
B. 5/6
C. 7/8
D. 5/8
Question 11 of 40
0.0/ 2.5 Points
A study of two types of weed killers was done on two identical weed plots. One weed killer killed 15% more weeds than the other. This difference was significant at the 0.05 level. What does this mean?
A. The improvement was due to the fact that there were more weeds in one study.
B. The probability that the difference was due to chance alone is greater than 0.05.
C. The probability that one weed killer performed better by chance alone is less than 0.05.
D. There is not enough inform ...
MA260.2.1 Statistical Analysis ILog Out
Online Exam 6_06
Return to Assessment List
Part 1 of 2 -30.0/ 50.0 Points
Question 1 of 400.0/ 2.5 Points
Jody checked the temperature 12 times on Monday, and the last digit of the temperature was odd six times more than it was even. On Tuesday, she checked it 18 times and the last digit was odd eight times more than it was even. Determine which series is closer to the 50/50 ratio of odd/even expected of such a series of temperature checks.
A. The Monday series is closer because 1/6 is closer to 1/2 than is 1/8.
B. The Monday series is closer because 6/12 is closer to 0.5 than is 8/18.
C. The Tuesday series is closer because the 13/18 is closer to 0.5 than is 9/12.
D. The series closest to the theoretical 50/50 cannot be determined without knowing the number of odds and evens in each series.
Question 2 of 402.5/ 2.5 Points
Joe dealt 20 cards from a standard 52-card deck, and the number of red cards exceeded the number of black cards by 8. He reshuffled the cards and dealt 30 cards. This time, the number of red cards exceeded the number of black cards by 10. Determine which deal is closer to the 50/50 ratio of red/black expected of fairly dealt hands from a fair deck and why.
A. The first series is closer because 1/10 is farther from 1/2 than is 1/8.
B. The series closer to the theoretical 50/50 cannot be determined unless the number of red and black cards for each deal is given.
C. The second series is closer because 20/30 is closer to 1/2 than is 14/20.
D. The first series is closer because the difference between red and black is smaller than the difference in the second series.
Question 3 of 402.5/ 2.5 Points
On a multiple choice test, each question has 6 possible answers. If you make a random guess on the first question, what is the probability that you are correct?
A. 1/5
B. 1/6
C. 1/4
D. 2/5
Question 4 of 402.5/ 2.5 Points
Suppose you have an extremely unfair die: The probability of a 6 is 3/8, and the probability of each other number is 1/8. If you toss the die 32 times, how many twos do you expect to see?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 3
D. 5
Question 5 of 402.5/ 2.5 Points
Suppose you buy 1 ticket for $1 out of a lottery of 1000 tickets where the prize for the one winning ticket is to be $500. What is your expected value?
A. $0.00
B. −$0.40
C. −$1.00
D. −$0.50
Question 6 of 400.0/ 2.5 Points
The distribution of B.A. degrees conferred by a local college is listed below, by major.
Major Frequency
English 2073
Mathematics 2164
Chemistry 318
Physics 856
Liberal Arts 1358
Business 1676
Engineering 868
9313
What is the probability that a randomly selected degree is not in Business?
A. 0.7800
B. 0.8200
C. 0.8300
D. 0.9200
Question 7 of 402.5/ 2.5 Points
The probability that Luis wi.
You must not work with another person on this exam Experience Tradition/tutor...pinck336896
FOR MORE CLASSES VISIT
www.tutorialoutlet.com
Show your work. You may use your book, notes, and other resources I have provided. You must not work with another person on this exam. If I have evidence that you worked or copied someone else’s work you may lose all points for that problem or potentially you will receive a zero on the exam; that goes for the other person as well. To avoid this potential problem, do not take this exam with someone else; do not talk about the problems in this exam with someone else. Instead, you can use problems from the homework as a conduit if needed. Do not compare answers with someone else. Write out values to four decimal places if the decimal representation does not terminate after four decimals. For situations you can write the values using fractions you can leave the answer in unreduced fraction form.
The GMAT quantitative section consists of 37 multiple-choice questions to be completed in 75 minutes. It tests math concepts and reasoning skills at the high school level. Questions are either problem solving or data sufficiency format. The section is administered via a computer-adaptive test where question difficulty is adjusted based on performance. While scrap paper is allowed, calculators are prohibited.
This document contains announcements and information for a college preparation program. It includes details about upcoming events like community service hours being due, an ACT training day requiring early arrival, and a junior vs senior kickball game. It also shares inspirational videos and a motivational comic. The second half involves dividing into teams to solve sample math problems within time limits to practice for standardized tests.
This is an open-book exam. You may refer to your text and other .docxchristalgrieg
This is an open-book exam. You may refer to your text and other course materials as you work on the exam, and you may use a calculator. You must complete the exam individually. Neither collaboration nor consultation with others is allowed. It is a violation of the UMUC Academic Dishonesty and Plagiarism policy to use unauthorized materials or work from others.
Answer all 20 questions. Make sure your answers are as complete as possible. Show all of your supporting work and reasoning. Answers that come straight from calculators, programs or software packages without any explanation will not be accepted. If you need to use technology (for example, Excel, online or hand- held calculators, statistical packages) to aid in your calculation, you must cite the sources and explain how you get the results.
Record your answers and work on the separate answer sheet provided.
This exam has 100 total points; 5 points for each question.
You must include the Honor Pledge on the title page of your submitted final exam. Exams submitted without the Honor Pledge will not be accepted.
Page 1 of 8
1. True or False. Justify for full credit.
(a) A is an event, and Ac is the complement of A, then P(A OR Ac ) = 0.
(b) If the variance of a data set is 0, then all the observations in this data set must be identical.
(c) If a 95% confidence interval for a population mean contains 1, then the 99% confidence interval for the same parameter must contain 1
(d) When plotted on the same graph, a distribution with a mean of 60 and a standard deviation of 5 will look more spread out than a distribution with a mean of 40 and standard deviation of 8.
(e) In a right-tailed test, the value of the test statistic is 2. The test statistic follows a distribution with the distribution curve shown below. If we know the shaded area is 0.03, then we have sufficient evidence to reject the null hypothesis at 0.05 level of significance.
2. Choose the best answer. Justify for full credit.
(a) A study was conducted at a local college to analyze the average GPA of students graduated from UMUC in 2015. 100 students graduated from UMUC in 2015 were randomly selected, and the average GPA for the group is 3.5. The value 3.5 is a
(i) statistic
(ii) parameter
(iii) cannot be determined
(b) The hotel ratings are usually on a scale from 0 star to 5 stars. The level of this measurement is
(i) interval
(ii) nominal
(iii) ordinal
(iv) ratio
(c) In a career readiness research, 100 students were randomly selected from the psychology program, 150 students were randomly selected from the communications program, and 120 students were randomly selected from cyber security program. This type of sampling is called:
(i) cluster
(ii) convenience
(iii) systematic
(iv) stratified
3. Choose the best answer. Justify for full credit.
(a) A study of 10 different weight loss programs involved 500 subjects. Each of the 10 programs had 50 subjects in it. The subjects were followed for 12 months. ...
Question 1 of 402.5 2.5 PointsIf you flip a coin three times,.docxIRESH3
Question 1 of 40
2.5/ 2.5 Points
If you flip a coin three times, the possible outcomes are HHH, HHT, HTH,
HTT, THH, THT, TTH, TTT. What is the probability of getting at least one head?
A. 4/9
B. 5/6
C. 7/8
D. 5/8
Question 2 of 40
2.5/ 2.5 Points
Suppose you have an extremely unfair die: The probability of a 6 is 3/8, and the probability of each other number is 1/8. If you toss the die 32 times, how many twos do you expect to see?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 3
D. 5
Question 3 of 40
2.5/ 2.5 Points
The probability that Luis will pass his statistics test is 0.94. Find the probability that he will fail his statistics test.
A. 0.02
B. 0.05
C. 0.94
D. 0.06
Question 4 of 40
2.5/ 2.5 Points
On a multiple choice test, each question has 6 possible answers. If you make a random guess on the first question, what is the probability that you are correct?
A. 1/5
B. 1/6
C. 1/4
D. 2/5
Question 5 of 40
0.0/ 2.5 Points
A 28-year-old man pays $125 for a one-year life insurance policy with coverage of $140,000. If the probability that he will live through the year is 0.9994, to the nearest dollar, what is the man’s expected value for the insurance policy?
A. $139,916
B. −$41
C. $84
D. −$124
Question 6 of 40
0.0/ 2.5 Points
A study of two types of weed killers was done on two identical weed plots. One weed killer killed 15% more weeds than the other. This difference was significant at the 0.05 level. What does this mean?
A. The improvement was due to the fact that there were more weeds in one study.
B. The probability that the difference was due to chance alone is greater than 0.05.
C. The probability that one weed killer performed better by chance alone is less than 0.05.
D. There is not enough information to make any conclusion.
Question 7 of 40
2.5/ 2.5 Points
If a person is randomly selected, find the probability that his or her birthday is not in May. Ignore leap years. There are 365 days in a year. Express your answer as a fraction.
A. 335/365
B. 334/365
C. 336/365
D. 30/365
Question 8 of 40
0.0/ 2.5 Points
A study of 600 college students taking Statistics 101 revealed that 54 students received the grade of A. Typically 10% of the class gets an A. The difference between this group of students and the expected value is not significant at the 0.05 level. What does this mean in this case?
A. The probability that the difference occurred due to chance is less than 0.05.
B. The probability of getting an A is 10% and only 9% got an A in this study. The difference is less than 5% so it is not significant.
C. There is not enough information to make any conclusion.
D. The probability that the difference occurred due to chance is more than 0.05.
Question 9 of 40
0.0/ 2.5 Points
A bag contains four chips of which one is red, one is blue, one is green, and one is yellow. A chip is selected at random from the bag and then replaced in the bag. A second ...
IAS CAST 2018 Paper 1 Solution || Indian Administrative Service || Sourav Sir...SOURAV DAS
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Cumulative Final ExamYour response has been submitted successful.docxfaithxdunce63732
Cumulative Final Exam
Your response has been submitted successfully.
Points Awarded
95
Points Missed
5
Percentage
95%
1.
A description of different houses for sale includes the following variables. Which of the variables is categorical?
A.
the square footage of the house
B.
whether or not the house has a finished basement
C.
the monthly electric bill
D.
All of the above
Correct
Points Earned:
1/1
Correct Answer:
B
Your Response:
B
2.
As part of a data base on new births at a hospital, some variables recorded are the age of the mother, marital status of the mother (e.g., single, married, divorced), weight of the baby, and sex of the baby. Of these variables
A.
the individuals described are mothers and babies involved in births at a hospital.
B.
age of mother and weight of baby are quantitative variables.
C.
sex and marital status are categorical variables.
D.
All of the above.
Correct
Points Earned:
1/1
Correct Answer:
D
Your Response:
D
3.
A large university is divided into six colleges, with most students graduating from four of these colleges. The following bar chart gives the distribution of the percent graduating from the four most popular colleges in 2003.
Reference: Ref 1-2
Which of the following is a correct statement?
A.
A timeplot of the 2003 distribution would be more informative.
B.
The bar graph is skewed to the right.
C.
The bar graph is skewed to the left.
D.
It would be correct to make a pie chart if you added an “Other” category.
Correct
Points Earned:
1/1
Correct Answer:
D
Your Response:
D
4.
The histogram below shows the time visitors to a museum spent browsing an exhibit on a Saturday. There were 300 visitors that day. The following histogram is of the data collected.
Reference: Ref 1-3
The histogram
A.
is skewed right.
B.
has an outlier.
C.
is asymmetric.
D.
All of the above
Correct
Points Earned:
1/1
Correct Answer:
D
Your Response:
D
5.
The stemplot below displays midterm exam scores for the 34 students taking a Calculus course. The highest possible test score was 100. The teacher declared that an exam grade of 65 or higher was good enough for a grade of “C” or better.
Reference: Ref 1-5
The percent of students earning a grade of “C” or higher (as declared by the teacher) is closest to
A.
35%.
B.
50%.
C.
65%.
D.
80%.
Correct
Points Earned:
1/1
Correct Answer:
C
Your Response:
C
6.
A stemplot of ages of 18 faculty members in a college math department follows. 4|3 represents 43 years.
Reference: Ref 2-2
The median age (in years) of the faculty members at Wilmington State is
A.
39.
B.
45.
C.
47.5.
D.
49.
Correct
Points Earned:
1/1
Correct Answer:
C
Your Response:
C
7.
The exam scores (out of 100 points) for all students taking an introductory Statistics course are used to construct the following boxplot.
Reference: Ref 2-3
If each person increased his or her score by 5 points then
A.
the third quartile would increase by 5 points.
B.
the median score would increase by 5 points.
C.
the i.
AI Transformation Playbook: Thinking AI-First for Your BusinessArijit Dutta
I dive into how businesses can stay competitive by integrating AI into their core processes. From identifying the right approach to building collaborative teams and recognizing common pitfalls, this guide has got you covered. AI transformation is a journey, and this playbook is here to help you navigate it successfully.
Part 1 Please circle the correct answer.1. Which of t.docxherbertwilson5999
Part 1: Please circle the correct answer.
1. Which of the following is most sensitive to outliers?
a. interquartile range b.standard deviation. c. median
d. mode
2. James and George took a math exam. George’s percentile score on the exam was 80; James’s
percentile score was 40 on the same test. We know that
a) George correctly answered twice as many questions than James. b) They both scored better than 40 of their classmates.
c) George correctly answered more questions than James. d) James did not pass the test.
3. Find the mean and standard deviation for a binomial experiment where n 260,
p 0.675 .
a) 260 , b) 260 ,
7.55
57.04
c) 175.50 ,
7.55
d) 97.50 ,
e) 175.50 ,
13.25
9.19
4. If we were to create a box plot, which of the following statement(s) would be true?
A. The median would be located somewhere within the box.
B. The median value would be larger than the third quartile value (Q3) C. The median would always be centered in the middle of the box.
D. The median would indicate where the 50th percentile would be.
a) A and B
b) All of them. c) A and D
d) C and D.
e) None of them.
5. Which of these statements are false?
a. There is a strong linear relationship between gender and height because we found a correlation of .55.
b. Plant height and leaf height were found to be negatively correlated because the correlation coefficient is -1.41.
c. Since the correlation between X and Y is 0, this means there is no relationship whatsoever between these two variables.
d. All of the above.
e. None of the above.
6. Some methods may be used to make a confidence interval wider or narrower. Circle the two
methods that would decrease the width of a confidence interval for a mean, if all else stays the same.
a. Increase the sample size. b. decrease the sample size.
c. increase the level of confidence. d. decrease the level of confidence.
7. Two researchers are going to take a sample of data from the same population of physics students. Researcher A will select a random sample of students from among all students taking physics. Researcher B's sample will consist only of the students in her class. Both researchers will construct a 95% confidence interval for the mean score on the physics final exam using their own sample data. Which researcher's method has a 95% chance of capturing the true mean of the population of all students taking physics?
a. Both methods have a 95% chance of capturing the true mean b. Researcher A
c. Research B
d. Neither
8. A 98% confidence interval indicates that:
a. 98% of the intervals constructed using this process based on samples from this population will include the population mean
b. 98% of the time the interval will include the sample mean
c. 98% of the possible population means will be included by the interval
9. A one-tailed hypothesis test is performed using a 0.10 level of significance. .
The document provides a sample paper for the NTS Graduate Admission Test (GAT). It begins by stating that the sample paper is intended to familiarize test takers with the format and question types on the actual GAT, though the content is not identical. It then provides 5 questions each on quantitative ability and verbal ability to exemplify the types of questions on the exam. The sample paper concludes by noting it was created by the College of Admission Tests to help prepare test takers, and that readers should confirm the current exam format directly with NTS.
Question 1 of 402.5 PointsA die with 12 sides is rolled. What is.docxteofilapeerless
Question 1 of 40
2.5 Points
A die with 12 sides is rolled. What is the probability of rolling a number less than 11? Is this the same as rolling a total less than 11 with two six-sided dice? Explain.
A. 2/6
B. 3/6
C. 4/6
D. 5/6
Question 2 of 40
2.5 Points
Based on meteorological records, the probability that it will snow in a certain town on January 1st is 0.413. Find the probability that in a given year it will not snow on January 1st in that town.
A. 0.345
B. 0.425
C. 0.587
D. 0.592
Question 3 of 40
2.5 Points
A study of 600 college students taking Statistics 101 revealed that 54 students received the grade of A. Typically 10% of the class gets an A. The difference between this group of students and the expected value is not significant at the 0.05 level. What does this mean in this case?
A. The probability that the difference occurred due to chance is less than 0.05.
B. The probability of getting an A is 10% and only 9% got an A in this study. The difference is less than 5% so it is not significant.
C. There is not enough information to make any conclusion.
D. The probability that the difference occurred due to chance is more than 0.05.
Question 4 of 40
2.5 Points
A committee of three people is to be formed. The three people will be selected from a list of five possible committee members. A simple random sample of three people is taken, without replacement, from the group of five people. Using the letters A, B, C, D, E to represent the five people, list the possible samples of size three and use your list to determine the probability that B is included in the sample. (Hint: There are 10 possible samples.)
A. 0.6
B. 0.4
C. 0.7
D. 0.8
Question 5 of 40
2.5 Points
If you flip a coin three times, the possible outcomes are HHH, HHT, HTH,
HTT, THH, THT, TTH, TTT. What is the probability of getting at least one head?
A. 4/9
B. 5/6
C. 7/8
D. 5/8
Question 6 of 40
2.5 Points
In the first series of rolls of a die, the number of odd numbers exceeded the number of even numbers by 5. In the second series of rolls of the same die, the number of odd numbers exceeded the number of even numbers by 11. Determine which series is closer to the 50/50 ratio of odd/even expected of a fairly rolled die.
A. The second series is closer because the difference between odd and even numbers is greater than the difference for the first series.
B. The first series is closer because the difference between odd and even numbers is less than the difference for the second series.
C. Since 1/2 > 1/5 > 1/11, the first series is closer.
D. The series closer to the theoretical 50/50 cannot be determined unless the total number of rolls for both series is given.
Reset Selection
Question 7 of 40
2.5 Points
A study of students taking Statistics 101 was done. Four hundred students who studied for more than 10 hours averaged a B. Two hundred students who studied for less than 10 hours averaged a C. This difference was significant at the 0.01 level. What does this mea.
The PSAT/NMSQT measures academic skills needed for college through questions on critical reading, writing and math. It provides feedback to students on strengths and weaknesses. Preparation includes taking challenging courses, practicing with sample tests and making educated guesses.
The PSAT/NMSQT measures academic skills needed for college through questions on critical reading, writing and math. It provides feedback to students on strengths and weaknesses. Preparation includes taking challenging courses, practicing with sample tests and making educated guesses. On test day, students should read carefully, work steadily and skip questions to return to if time allows.
STAT 200 Introduction to Statistics Final Examination, Sp.docxwhitneyleman54422
STAT 200: Introduction to Statistics Final Examination, Spring 2016 OL4 Page 1 of 7
STAT 200
OL4/US2 Sections
Final Exam
Spring 2016
The final exam will be posted at 12:01 am on May 6, and it is due
at 11:59 pm on May 8, 2016. Eastern Time is our reference time.
This is an open-book exam. You may refer to your text and other course materials
as you work on the exam, and you may use a calculator. You must complete the
exam individually. Neither collaboration nor consultation with others is allowed.
It is a violation of the UMUC Academic Dishonesty and Plagiarism policy to use
unauthorized materials or work from others.
Answer all 20 questions. Make sure your answers are as complete as possible.
Show all of your work and reasoning. In particular, when there are calculations
involved, you must show how you come up with your answers with critical work
and/or necessary tables. Answers that come straight from calculators, programs
or software packages will not be accepted. If you need to use software (for
example, Excel) and /or online or hand-held calculators to aid in your calculation,
you must cite the sources and explain how you get the results.
Record your answers and work on the separate answer sheet provided.
This exam has 200 total points; 10 points for each question.
You must include the Honor Pledge on the title page of your submitted final exam.
Exams submitted without the Honor Pledge will not be accepted.
STAT 200: Introduction to Statistics Final Examination, Spring 2016 OL4 Page 2 of 7
1. True or False. Justify for full credit.
(a) If P(A) = 0.4 , P(B) = 0.5, and A and B are disjoint, then P(A AND B) = 0.2.
(b) If all the observations in a data set are identical, then the variance for this data set is 0.
(c) The mean is always equal to the median for a normal distribution.
(d) It’s easier to reject the null hypothesis at significance level of 0.01 than at significance
level of 0.05.
(e) In a two-tailed test, the value of the test statistic is 2. If we know the test statistic follows a
Student’s t-distribution with P(T >2) = 0.03, then we have sufficient evidence to reject the
null hypothesis at 0.05 level of significance.
2. Identify which of these types of sampling is used: cluster, convenience, simple random,
systematic, or stratified. Justify for full credit.
(a) The quality control department of a semiconductor manufacturing company tests every 100
th
product from the assembly line.
(b) UMUC STAT Club wanted to estimate the study hours of STAT 200 students. Two STAT 200
sections were randomly selected and all students from these two sections were asked to fill out
the questionnaire.
(c) A STAT 200 student is interested in the number of credit cards owned by college students. She
surveyed all of her classmates to collect sample data.
(d) In a career readiness research, 1.
This document contains a review for a statistics and probability exam for senior high school students. It includes 34 multiple choice questions covering topics like random variables, probability distributions, the central limit theorem, hypothesis testing, and sampling. The questions assess understanding of key concepts in statistics such as means, variances, standard deviations, z-scores, t-tests, and the normal distribution.
The document provides past questions from the Federal Government Scholarship exam on various subjects including mathematics, computer science, and current affairs in Nigeria. Some key points:
- It includes 30 practice mathematics questions testing concepts like percentages, ratios, and rate problems.
- It lists various common abbreviations used in information and communication technology (ICT) and computer science, explaining each term.
- It provides 3 possible current affairs questions about Nigeria, testing knowledge about the first political party formed in Nigeria and other historical facts.
The document serves as a study guide, compiling practice questions from prior exams that could help students prepare for the Federal Government Scholarship test. It covers essential topics like math, technology, and Nigerian history through
Statistics
Summer 2019
Name: Cindy Charles
Multiple choice section:
1. A researcher is interested in studying the eating behavior of a rats and selects a group of 25 rats to be tested in a research study. The group of 25 rates is an example of a
a. sample
.
b. statistic
c. population
d. parameter
2. A researcher uses an anonymous survey to investigate the study habits of the American college students. The entire group of American college students is an example of a
a. sample
.
b. statistic
c. population
d. parameter
3. A characteristic, usually a numerical value, that describes a sample is called a
a. sample
.
b. statistic
c. population
d. parameter
4. Determining the class standing for the graduating seniors at a high school would involve measurement on a(n) ____________ scale of measurement.
a. nominal
.
b. ordinal
c. interval
d. ratio
5. A researcher conducts a study to determine whether moderate doses of St. John’s Wort have any effect on memory in college students. For this study, with is the independent variable?
a. the amount of St. John’s Wort given to each participant.
b. the memory score for each participant
c. the group of college students
d. cannot answer without more information.
6. When we are interested in simply looking at the association or relationship between two contiguous variables as they exist naturally , the following research method is likely to be helpful:
a. correlational
b. experimental
c. quasi-experimental
d. non-parametric
7. In an experiment looking at the effect of eating varied levels of multiple portions of ice cream, daily, on blood serum cholesterol levels (HDL)
a. eating ice cream is the independent variable (IV) and HDL is the dependent variable (DV).
b. ice cream, the DV and HDL, the IV
c. neither, this is a correlational study
d. ice cream and HDL are both independent variables
8. “Girl, boy, girl, girl, boy, boy, boy, girl. So, there’s 4 girls and 4 boys.” Our enumerator is employing which of the following scales
a. ratio
b. sex differential
c. interval
d. nominal
9. “I came in first place in the “Best Statistics Professor” category. That clearly shows I am much better at this than most other professors on campus.”
a. This is a reasonable conclusion, since first place in Statistics must be a higher rating than, say, third place in Multicultural Education.
b. The speaker mistakenly attributes arithmetic characteristics to ordinal data.
c. The statement has absolutely no meaning, since we do not know the number of other professors on campus or teaching statistics. It represents an example of the absolute or ratio scale.
d. The interval scale applies here, because voters used a relative standar.
This document provides a practice final exam for a Statistics 311 course. It includes instructions for students taking the exam, an honor pledge, and 36 multiple choice and written response questions covering a range of statistical topics. The exam is intended to help students prepare for the format and level of questions that may appear on the actual final exam. It notes that the practice exam does not contain the exact questions or topics that will be on the real exam.
Question 4 of 400.0 2.5 PointsJoe dealt 20 cards from a stand.docxwraythallchan
Question 4 of 40
0.0/ 2.5 Points
Joe dealt 20 cards from a standard 52-card deck, and the number of red cards exceeded the number of black cards by 8. He reshuffled the cards and dealt 30 cards. This time, the number of red cards exceeded the number of black cards by 10. Determine which deal is closer to the 50/50 ratio of red/black expected of fairly dealt hands from a fair deck and why.
A. The first series is closer because 1/10 is farther from 1/2 than is 1/8.
B. The series closer to the theoretical 50/50 cannot be determined unless the number of red and black cards for each deal is given.
C. The second series is closer because 20/30 is closer to 1/2 than is 14/20.
D. The first series is closer because the difference between red and black is smaller than the difference in the second series.
Question 5 of 40
0.0/ 2.5 Points
A study of 600 college students taking Statistics 101 revealed that 54 students received the grade of A. Typically 10% of the class gets an A. The difference between this group of students and the expected value is not significant at the 0.05 level. What does this mean in this case?
A. The probability that the difference occurred due to chance is less than 0.05.
B. The probability of getting an A is 10% and only 9% got an A in this study. The difference is less than 5% so it is not significant.
C. There is not enough information to make any conclusion.
D. The probability that the difference occurred due to chance is more than 0.05.
Question 6 of 40
0.0/ 2.5 Points
Jody checked the temperature 12 times on Monday, and the last digit of the temperature was odd six times more than it was even. On Tuesday, she checked it 18 times and the last digit was odd eight times more than it was even. Determine which series is closer to the 50/50 ratio of odd/even expected of such a series of temperature checks.
A. The Monday series is closer because 1/6 is closer to 1/2 than is 1/8.
B. The Monday series is closer because 6/12 is closer to 0.5 than is 8/18.
C. The Tuesday series is closer because the 13/18 is closer to 0.5 than is 9/12.
D. The series closest to the theoretical 50/50 cannot be determined without knowing the number of odds and evens in each series.
Question 10 of 40
0.0/ 2.5 Points
If you flip a coin three times, the possible outcomes are HHH, HHT, HTH, HTT, THH, THT, TTH, TTT. What is the probability of getting at most one head?
A. 4/9
B. 5/6
C. 7/8
D. 5/8
Question 11 of 40
0.0/ 2.5 Points
A study of two types of weed killers was done on two identical weed plots. One weed killer killed 15% more weeds than the other. This difference was significant at the 0.05 level. What does this mean?
A. The improvement was due to the fact that there were more weeds in one study.
B. The probability that the difference was due to chance alone is greater than 0.05.
C. The probability that one weed killer performed better by chance alone is less than 0.05.
D. There is not enough inform ...
MA260.2.1 Statistical Analysis ILog Out
Online Exam 6_06
Return to Assessment List
Part 1 of 2 -30.0/ 50.0 Points
Question 1 of 400.0/ 2.5 Points
Jody checked the temperature 12 times on Monday, and the last digit of the temperature was odd six times more than it was even. On Tuesday, she checked it 18 times and the last digit was odd eight times more than it was even. Determine which series is closer to the 50/50 ratio of odd/even expected of such a series of temperature checks.
A. The Monday series is closer because 1/6 is closer to 1/2 than is 1/8.
B. The Monday series is closer because 6/12 is closer to 0.5 than is 8/18.
C. The Tuesday series is closer because the 13/18 is closer to 0.5 than is 9/12.
D. The series closest to the theoretical 50/50 cannot be determined without knowing the number of odds and evens in each series.
Question 2 of 402.5/ 2.5 Points
Joe dealt 20 cards from a standard 52-card deck, and the number of red cards exceeded the number of black cards by 8. He reshuffled the cards and dealt 30 cards. This time, the number of red cards exceeded the number of black cards by 10. Determine which deal is closer to the 50/50 ratio of red/black expected of fairly dealt hands from a fair deck and why.
A. The first series is closer because 1/10 is farther from 1/2 than is 1/8.
B. The series closer to the theoretical 50/50 cannot be determined unless the number of red and black cards for each deal is given.
C. The second series is closer because 20/30 is closer to 1/2 than is 14/20.
D. The first series is closer because the difference between red and black is smaller than the difference in the second series.
Question 3 of 402.5/ 2.5 Points
On a multiple choice test, each question has 6 possible answers. If you make a random guess on the first question, what is the probability that you are correct?
A. 1/5
B. 1/6
C. 1/4
D. 2/5
Question 4 of 402.5/ 2.5 Points
Suppose you have an extremely unfair die: The probability of a 6 is 3/8, and the probability of each other number is 1/8. If you toss the die 32 times, how many twos do you expect to see?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 3
D. 5
Question 5 of 402.5/ 2.5 Points
Suppose you buy 1 ticket for $1 out of a lottery of 1000 tickets where the prize for the one winning ticket is to be $500. What is your expected value?
A. $0.00
B. −$0.40
C. −$1.00
D. −$0.50
Question 6 of 400.0/ 2.5 Points
The distribution of B.A. degrees conferred by a local college is listed below, by major.
Major Frequency
English 2073
Mathematics 2164
Chemistry 318
Physics 856
Liberal Arts 1358
Business 1676
Engineering 868
9313
What is the probability that a randomly selected degree is not in Business?
A. 0.7800
B. 0.8200
C. 0.8300
D. 0.9200
Question 7 of 402.5/ 2.5 Points
The probability that Luis wi.
You must not work with another person on this exam Experience Tradition/tutor...pinck336896
FOR MORE CLASSES VISIT
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Show your work. You may use your book, notes, and other resources I have provided. You must not work with another person on this exam. If I have evidence that you worked or copied someone else’s work you may lose all points for that problem or potentially you will receive a zero on the exam; that goes for the other person as well. To avoid this potential problem, do not take this exam with someone else; do not talk about the problems in this exam with someone else. Instead, you can use problems from the homework as a conduit if needed. Do not compare answers with someone else. Write out values to four decimal places if the decimal representation does not terminate after four decimals. For situations you can write the values using fractions you can leave the answer in unreduced fraction form.
The GMAT quantitative section consists of 37 multiple-choice questions to be completed in 75 minutes. It tests math concepts and reasoning skills at the high school level. Questions are either problem solving or data sufficiency format. The section is administered via a computer-adaptive test where question difficulty is adjusted based on performance. While scrap paper is allowed, calculators are prohibited.
This document contains announcements and information for a college preparation program. It includes details about upcoming events like community service hours being due, an ACT training day requiring early arrival, and a junior vs senior kickball game. It also shares inspirational videos and a motivational comic. The second half involves dividing into teams to solve sample math problems within time limits to practice for standardized tests.
This is an open-book exam. You may refer to your text and other .docxchristalgrieg
This is an open-book exam. You may refer to your text and other course materials as you work on the exam, and you may use a calculator. You must complete the exam individually. Neither collaboration nor consultation with others is allowed. It is a violation of the UMUC Academic Dishonesty and Plagiarism policy to use unauthorized materials or work from others.
Answer all 20 questions. Make sure your answers are as complete as possible. Show all of your supporting work and reasoning. Answers that come straight from calculators, programs or software packages without any explanation will not be accepted. If you need to use technology (for example, Excel, online or hand- held calculators, statistical packages) to aid in your calculation, you must cite the sources and explain how you get the results.
Record your answers and work on the separate answer sheet provided.
This exam has 100 total points; 5 points for each question.
You must include the Honor Pledge on the title page of your submitted final exam. Exams submitted without the Honor Pledge will not be accepted.
Page 1 of 8
1. True or False. Justify for full credit.
(a) A is an event, and Ac is the complement of A, then P(A OR Ac ) = 0.
(b) If the variance of a data set is 0, then all the observations in this data set must be identical.
(c) If a 95% confidence interval for a population mean contains 1, then the 99% confidence interval for the same parameter must contain 1
(d) When plotted on the same graph, a distribution with a mean of 60 and a standard deviation of 5 will look more spread out than a distribution with a mean of 40 and standard deviation of 8.
(e) In a right-tailed test, the value of the test statistic is 2. The test statistic follows a distribution with the distribution curve shown below. If we know the shaded area is 0.03, then we have sufficient evidence to reject the null hypothesis at 0.05 level of significance.
2. Choose the best answer. Justify for full credit.
(a) A study was conducted at a local college to analyze the average GPA of students graduated from UMUC in 2015. 100 students graduated from UMUC in 2015 were randomly selected, and the average GPA for the group is 3.5. The value 3.5 is a
(i) statistic
(ii) parameter
(iii) cannot be determined
(b) The hotel ratings are usually on a scale from 0 star to 5 stars. The level of this measurement is
(i) interval
(ii) nominal
(iii) ordinal
(iv) ratio
(c) In a career readiness research, 100 students were randomly selected from the psychology program, 150 students were randomly selected from the communications program, and 120 students were randomly selected from cyber security program. This type of sampling is called:
(i) cluster
(ii) convenience
(iii) systematic
(iv) stratified
3. Choose the best answer. Justify for full credit.
(a) A study of 10 different weight loss programs involved 500 subjects. Each of the 10 programs had 50 subjects in it. The subjects were followed for 12 months. ...
Question 1 of 402.5 2.5 PointsIf you flip a coin three times,.docxIRESH3
Question 1 of 40
2.5/ 2.5 Points
If you flip a coin three times, the possible outcomes are HHH, HHT, HTH,
HTT, THH, THT, TTH, TTT. What is the probability of getting at least one head?
A. 4/9
B. 5/6
C. 7/8
D. 5/8
Question 2 of 40
2.5/ 2.5 Points
Suppose you have an extremely unfair die: The probability of a 6 is 3/8, and the probability of each other number is 1/8. If you toss the die 32 times, how many twos do you expect to see?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 3
D. 5
Question 3 of 40
2.5/ 2.5 Points
The probability that Luis will pass his statistics test is 0.94. Find the probability that he will fail his statistics test.
A. 0.02
B. 0.05
C. 0.94
D. 0.06
Question 4 of 40
2.5/ 2.5 Points
On a multiple choice test, each question has 6 possible answers. If you make a random guess on the first question, what is the probability that you are correct?
A. 1/5
B. 1/6
C. 1/4
D. 2/5
Question 5 of 40
0.0/ 2.5 Points
A 28-year-old man pays $125 for a one-year life insurance policy with coverage of $140,000. If the probability that he will live through the year is 0.9994, to the nearest dollar, what is the man’s expected value for the insurance policy?
A. $139,916
B. −$41
C. $84
D. −$124
Question 6 of 40
0.0/ 2.5 Points
A study of two types of weed killers was done on two identical weed plots. One weed killer killed 15% more weeds than the other. This difference was significant at the 0.05 level. What does this mean?
A. The improvement was due to the fact that there were more weeds in one study.
B. The probability that the difference was due to chance alone is greater than 0.05.
C. The probability that one weed killer performed better by chance alone is less than 0.05.
D. There is not enough information to make any conclusion.
Question 7 of 40
2.5/ 2.5 Points
If a person is randomly selected, find the probability that his or her birthday is not in May. Ignore leap years. There are 365 days in a year. Express your answer as a fraction.
A. 335/365
B. 334/365
C. 336/365
D. 30/365
Question 8 of 40
0.0/ 2.5 Points
A study of 600 college students taking Statistics 101 revealed that 54 students received the grade of A. Typically 10% of the class gets an A. The difference between this group of students and the expected value is not significant at the 0.05 level. What does this mean in this case?
A. The probability that the difference occurred due to chance is less than 0.05.
B. The probability of getting an A is 10% and only 9% got an A in this study. The difference is less than 5% so it is not significant.
C. There is not enough information to make any conclusion.
D. The probability that the difference occurred due to chance is more than 0.05.
Question 9 of 40
0.0/ 2.5 Points
A bag contains four chips of which one is red, one is blue, one is green, and one is yellow. A chip is selected at random from the bag and then replaced in the bag. A second ...
IAS CAST 2018 Paper 1 Solution || Indian Administrative Service || Sourav Sir...SOURAV DAS
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CSAT Questions With Solutions
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Cumulative Final ExamYour response has been submitted successful.docxfaithxdunce63732
Cumulative Final Exam
Your response has been submitted successfully.
Points Awarded
95
Points Missed
5
Percentage
95%
1.
A description of different houses for sale includes the following variables. Which of the variables is categorical?
A.
the square footage of the house
B.
whether or not the house has a finished basement
C.
the monthly electric bill
D.
All of the above
Correct
Points Earned:
1/1
Correct Answer:
B
Your Response:
B
2.
As part of a data base on new births at a hospital, some variables recorded are the age of the mother, marital status of the mother (e.g., single, married, divorced), weight of the baby, and sex of the baby. Of these variables
A.
the individuals described are mothers and babies involved in births at a hospital.
B.
age of mother and weight of baby are quantitative variables.
C.
sex and marital status are categorical variables.
D.
All of the above.
Correct
Points Earned:
1/1
Correct Answer:
D
Your Response:
D
3.
A large university is divided into six colleges, with most students graduating from four of these colleges. The following bar chart gives the distribution of the percent graduating from the four most popular colleges in 2003.
Reference: Ref 1-2
Which of the following is a correct statement?
A.
A timeplot of the 2003 distribution would be more informative.
B.
The bar graph is skewed to the right.
C.
The bar graph is skewed to the left.
D.
It would be correct to make a pie chart if you added an “Other” category.
Correct
Points Earned:
1/1
Correct Answer:
D
Your Response:
D
4.
The histogram below shows the time visitors to a museum spent browsing an exhibit on a Saturday. There were 300 visitors that day. The following histogram is of the data collected.
Reference: Ref 1-3
The histogram
A.
is skewed right.
B.
has an outlier.
C.
is asymmetric.
D.
All of the above
Correct
Points Earned:
1/1
Correct Answer:
D
Your Response:
D
5.
The stemplot below displays midterm exam scores for the 34 students taking a Calculus course. The highest possible test score was 100. The teacher declared that an exam grade of 65 or higher was good enough for a grade of “C” or better.
Reference: Ref 1-5
The percent of students earning a grade of “C” or higher (as declared by the teacher) is closest to
A.
35%.
B.
50%.
C.
65%.
D.
80%.
Correct
Points Earned:
1/1
Correct Answer:
C
Your Response:
C
6.
A stemplot of ages of 18 faculty members in a college math department follows. 4|3 represents 43 years.
Reference: Ref 2-2
The median age (in years) of the faculty members at Wilmington State is
A.
39.
B.
45.
C.
47.5.
D.
49.
Correct
Points Earned:
1/1
Correct Answer:
C
Your Response:
C
7.
The exam scores (out of 100 points) for all students taking an introductory Statistics course are used to construct the following boxplot.
Reference: Ref 2-3
If each person increased his or her score by 5 points then
A.
the third quartile would increase by 5 points.
B.
the median score would increase by 5 points.
C.
the i.
AI Transformation Playbook: Thinking AI-First for Your BusinessArijit Dutta
I dive into how businesses can stay competitive by integrating AI into their core processes. From identifying the right approach to building collaborative teams and recognizing common pitfalls, this guide has got you covered. AI transformation is a journey, and this playbook is here to help you navigate it successfully.
During the budget session of 2024-25, the finance minister, Nirmala Sitharaman, introduced the “solar Rooftop scheme,” also known as “PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana.” It is a subsidy offered to those who wish to put up solar panels in their homes using domestic power systems. Additionally, adopting photovoltaic technology at home allows you to lower your monthly electricity expenses. Today in this blog we will talk all about what is the PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana. How does it work? Who is eligible for this yojana and all the other things related to this scheme?
Unveiling the Dynamic Personalities, Key Dates, and Horoscope Insights: Gemin...my Pandit
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The Radar reflects input from APCO’s teams located around the world. It distils a host of interconnected events and trends into insights to inform operational and strategic decisions. Issues covered in this edition include:
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Prescriptive analytics BA4206 Anna University PPTFreelance
Business analysis - Prescriptive analytics Introduction to Prescriptive analytics
Prescriptive Modeling
Non Linear Optimization
Demonstrating Business Performance Improvement
1. College of Admission Tests
Test Taker’s Help Series
CAT
Sample Paper
The Sample Paper is provided to familiarize you with the contents of
GAT – NTS Graduate Admission Test. Note; however, this sample paper is
not intended to be the actual paper but it is similar to the actual.
GAT
NTS does not endorse College of Admission Tests or this sample paper. The sole purpose of this document is to help test
takers familiarize with the GAT pattern. College of Admission test does not bear any responsibility of any change or error
in this document. A test taker or reader must confirm the current pattern from NTS.
3. CAT
GAT Sample Paper
Sample Paper for:
NTS Graduate Admission Test (GAT)
For M. Phil. & PhD
Purpose of this sample paper is to familiarize the test
taker with the question types that appear on the
actual test. The number of questions and the
proportion of the questions do not as the number of
questions on the actual test.
Quantitative Ability
Directions:
Solve each quantitative ability problem and indicate
the best of the answer choices given.
Numbers: All numbers used are real numbers.
Figures: A figure accompanying a quantitative
ability problem solving question is intended to
provide information useful in solving the
problem. Figures are drawn as accurately as
possible EXCEPT when it is stated in a specific
problem that its figure is not drawn to scale.
Straight lines may sometimes appear jagged. All
figures lie on a plane unless otherwise indicated.
1. A rectangle is 14 cm long and 10 cm wide. If
the length is reduced by x cm and its width is
increased also by x cm so as to make it a
square then its area changes by :
A. 4
B. 144
C. 12
D. 2
E. None of the above.
Answer: A
3
2. A motorcycle stunts man belonging to fair
rides over the vertical walls of a circular well
at an average speed of 54 km/h for 5 minutes.
If the radius of the well is 5 meters then the
distance traveled is:
A. 2.5 km
B. 3.5 km
C. 4.5 km
D. 5.5 km
E. None of the above
Answer: C
3. If 1 cm on a map corresponds to an actual
distance of 40 km. And the distance on the
map between Bombay and Calcutta is 37.5
cm., the actual distance between them is :
A. 375 km
B. 3750 km
C. 1500 km
D. 1375 km
E. None of the above
Answer: C
4. A box contains 90 nuts each of 100 gm and
100 bolts each of 150 gm. If the entire box
weighs 35.5 kg., then the weight of the empty
box is :
A. 10 kg
B. 10.5 kg
C. 11 kg
D. 11.5 kg
E. None of the above
Answer: D
5. If the radius of a circle is increased by 20%
then the area is increased by :
A. 44%
B. 120%
C. 144%
D. 40%
College of Admission Tests – Multan. Phone : 061 814 3333 , 061 4550698 | Website: www.cat.edu.pk
4. CAT of the above
E. None
GAT Sample Paper
Answer: A
6. A plot of land is in the shape of a trapezium
whose dimensions are given in the figure
below :
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1/3
2/5
3/10
5/6
None of the above
Answer: C
9. A father is three times as old as his son. After
fifteen years the father will be twice as old as
his son's age at that time. Hence the father's
present age is
Hence the perimeter of the field is
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
50 m
64 m
72 m
84 m
None of the above
Answer: c
7. Four concentric (having the same center)
circles with radii, x, 2x, 3x and 4x are drawn to
form two rings A and B as shown in the figure.
Ratio of the area of inner ring A to the area of
outer ring B is
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1:2
1:4
2:3
3:7
None of the above
Answer: D
4
8. If 3/p = 6 and 3/q = 15 then p - q = ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
36
42
45
48
None of the above
Answer: C
10. Tom, Dick and Harry went for lunch to a
restaurant. Tom had $100 with him, Dick had $60
and Harry had $409. They got a bill for $104 and
decided to give a tip of $16. They further decided
to share the total expenses in the ratio of the
amounts of money each carried. The amount of
money which Tom paid more than what Harry
paid is
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
120
200
60
24
36
Answer: E
Verbal Ability
Sentence Completion
Directions:
Each sentence below has one or two blanks. Each blank
shows that something has been omitted. Under each
sentence five words are given as choice. Choose the
College of Admission Tests – Multan. Phone : 061 814 3333 , 061 4550698 | Website: www.cat.edu.pk
5. CAT
GAT Sample Paper
one correct word for each blank that best fits the
meaning of the sentences as a whole.
1. A child should not be ______ as being either very
shy or over confident.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
categorized
instructed
intoned
distracted
refrained
Answer: A
2. President Anwar el Sadat of Egypt, disregarding
_______ criticism in the Arab world and in his
own Government, ________ accepted Prime
Minister Menahem Begin's invitation to visit
Israel in order to address the Israeli parliament.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
acrimonious - formally
blemished - stiffly
categorical - previously
malignant - plaintively
charismatic - meticulously
Answer: A
3. In his usual _______ manner, he had insured
himself against this type of loss.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
pensive
providential
indifferent
circumspect
caustic
Answer: D
4. We never believed that he would resort to
______ in order to achieve his goal; we always
regarded him as a _______ man.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
5
charm - insincere
necromancy - pietistic
logic - honorable
prestidigitation - articulate
subterfuge - honest
5. The Sociologist responded to the charge that her
new theory was ______ by pointing out that it
did not in fact contradict accepted sociological
principles.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
unproven
banal
superficial
complex
heretical
Answer: E
Reading Comprehension
Directions:
Each reading comprehension passage in this section is
followed by questions based on the content of the
reading passage. Read the passage carefully and
chose the best answer to each question. The
questions are to be answered on the basis of what is
stated or implied in the passage.
Passage
But man is not destined to vanish. He can be killed,
but he cannot be destroyed, because his soul is
deathless and his spirit is irrepressible. Therefore,
though the situation seems dark in the context of the
confrontation between the superpowers, the silver
lining is provided by amazing phenomenon that the
very nations which have spent incalculable resources
and energy for the production of deadly weapons are
desperately trying to find out how they might never
be used. They threaten each other, intimidate each
other and go to the brink, but before the total hour
arrives they withdraw from the brink.
1. The main point from the author's view is that
A. Man's soul and spirit cannot be destroyed by
superpowers.
B. Man's destiny is not fully clear or visible.
C. Man's soul and spirit are immortal.
D. Man's safety is assured by the delicate balance
of power in terms of nuclear weapons.
E. Human society will survive despite the serious
threat of total annihilation.
Answer: E
Answer: E
2. The phrase 'Go to the brink' in the passage
means
College of Admission Tests – Multan. Phone : 061 814 3333 , 061 4550698 | Website: www.cat.edu.pk
6. CAT
GAT Sample Paper
A. Retreating from extreme danger.
B. Declare war on each other.
C. Advancing to the stage of war but not engaging
in it.
D. Negotiate for peace.
E. Commit suicide.
Answer: C
3. In the author's opinion
A. Huge stockpiles of destructive weapons have so
far saved mankind from a catastrophe.
B. Superpowers have at last realized the need for
abandoning the production of lethal weapons.
C. Mankind is heading towards complete
destruction.
D. Nations in possession of huge stockpiles of
lethal weapons are trying hard to avoid actual
conflict.
E. There is a Silver lining over the production of
deadly weapons.
Answer: D
4. 'Irrepressible' in the second line means
A. incompatible
B. strong
C. oppressive
D. un-restrain able
E. inspirited
Answer: D
5. A suitable title for the above passage is
A. Destruction of mankind is in evitable.
B. Man's desire to survive inhibits use of deadly
weapons.
C. Mounting cost of modern weapons.
D. Threats and intimidation between super
powers.
E. Cowardly retreat by man
Answer: B
Analogies
6
Directions:
Each of the GRE sample analogy questions below
consists of two words that have a certain
relationship to each other, followed by five
lettered pairs of related words. Select the
lettered pair of words.
1. ANGLE : DEGREE
A. area : square inch
B. milk : quart
C. society : classes
D. letter : alphabet
E. time : minutes
Answer: A
2. CONFIRMED : INVETERATE
A. knowledge : supposed
B. financial : bankrupt
C. immature : callow
D. credible : incredible
E. careful: punishing
Answer: B
3. LULLABY : BARCAROLE
A. birth : marriage
B. night : morning
C. cradle : gondola
D. song : poem
E. carol : sonneteer
Answer: C
4. ZOOLOGY : ANIMALS
A. ecology : pollution
B. botany : plants
C. chemistry : atoms
D. history : people
E. mathematics : geometry
Answer: A
5. DORY : VAN
A. dairy : cow
B. fish : vehicle
C. freighter : caisson
D. runners : wheels
E. Danish : Dutch
Answer: C
College of Admission Tests – Multan. Phone : 061 814 3333 , 061 4550698 | Website: www.cat.edu.pk
7. CAT
GAT Sample Paper
Antonyms
D. conjoin
E. laud
Directions:
Each of the GRE sample antonyms questions
consists of a word followed by five words or
phrase as choices. Choose the word or phrase
which is most nearly opposite in meaning to the
word in capitals and shade the alphabets marked
in the grid on your answer sheet.
Answer: E
1. ABOMINATE :
A. loathe
B. despise
C. adore
D. abhor
E. attach
Directions:
Answer: C
2. OBSEQUIOUS :
A. servile
B. first
C. fawning
D. supercilious
E. improper
Answer: D
3. OROTUND :
A. not resonant
B. not reddish
C. not eager
D. pompous
E. loud
Answer: A
4. RECANT :
A. entangle
B. rescue
C. fail
D. assert
E. predict
Answer: D
7
5. UPBRAID :
A. defer
B. vacillate
C. sever
Analytical Ability
Logical Reasoning
Each logical reasoning question in this part of the
assessment starts with a reading passage containing
the information to be used to choose between correct
and incorrect logical conclusions. These conclusions
are based on the information in the passage. After
this reading passage, you are given a lead-in phrase
that tells you to choose from among five different
responses. These possible responses are generated by
correctly or incorrectly applying logical thought to the
information in the passage at the beginning of the
question. They can be thought of as different ways of
completing a sentence that begins with the lead-in
phrase.
1. In Los Angeles, a political candidate who buys
saturation radio advertising will get maximum
name recognition.
The statement above logically conveys
which of the following?
A. Radio advertising is the most important factor
in political campaigns in Los Angeles.
B. Maximum name recognition in Los Angeles
will help a candidate to win a higher
percentage of votes cast in the city.
C. Saturation radio advertising reaches every
demographically distinct sector of the voting
population of Los Angeles.
D. For maximum name recognition a candidate
need not spend on media channels other than
radio advertising.
E. A candidate's record of achievement in the
Los Angeles area will do little to affect his or
her name recognition there.
Answer: D
College of Admission Tests – Multan. Phone : 061 814 3333 , 061 4550698 | Website: www.cat.edu.pk
8. CAT
GAT Sample Paper
2. The rate of violent crime in this state is up 30
percent from last year. The fault lies entirely in
our court system: Recently our judges' sentences
have been so lenient that criminals can now do
almost anything without fear of a long prison
term.
The argument above would be weakened
if it were true that
A. 85 percent of the other states in the nation
have lower crime rates than does this state.
B. white collar crime in this state has also
increased by over 25 percent in the last year.
C. 35 percent of the police in this state have
been laid off in the last year due to budget
cuts.
D. polls show that 65 percent of the population
in this state oppose capital punishment.
E. the state has hired 25 new judges in the last
year to compensate for deaths and
retirements.
Answer: C
3. The increase in the number of newspaper articles
exposed as fabrications serves to bolster the
contention that publishers are more interested in
boosting circulation than in printing the truth.
Even minor publications have staffs to check such
obvious fraud.
The argument above assumes that
A. newspaper stories exposed as fabrications are
a recent phenomenon.
B. everything a newspaper prints must be
factually verifiable.
C. fact checking is more comprehensive for
minor publications than for major ones.
D. only recently have newspapers admitted to
publishing intentionally fraudulent stories.
E. the publishers of newspapers are the people
who decide what to print in their newspapers.
be sure they attend a school with a very small
student population.
Which of the following, if true, identifies
the greatest flaw in the reasoning above?
A. A low faculty/student ratio is the effect of a
well-rounded education, not its source.
B. Intelligence should be considered the result of
childhood environment, not advanced
education.
C. A very small student population does not by
itself; ensure a low faculty/student ratio.
D. Parental desires and preferences rarely
determine a child's choice of a college or
university.
E. Students must take advantage of the low
faculty/student ratio by intentionally choosing
small classes.
Answer: C
5. All German philosophers, except for Marx, are
idealists.
From which of the following can the
statement above be most properly
inferred?
A. Except for Marx, if someone is an idealist
philosopher, then he or she is German.
B. Marx is the only non-German philosopher
who is an idealist.
C. If a German is an idealist, then he or she is a
philosopher, as long as he or she is not Marx.
D. Marx is not an idealist German philosopher.
E. Aside from the philosopher Marx, if someone
is a German, then he or she is an idealist.
Answer: E
Analytical reasoning
Directions:
Answer: E
8
4. Time and again it has been shown that students
who attend colleges with low faculty/student
ratios get the best-rounded education. As a result,
when my children are ready to attend college, I'll
All analytical reasoning questions are based on a
passage or set of conditions. While answering a few of
the analytical reasoning questions, you would find it
useful to draw a rough diagram. To answer any
question, choose the answer you think is most
appropriate among the given options.
College of Admission Tests – Multan. Phone : 061 814 3333 , 061 4550698 | Website: www.cat.edu.pk
9. CAT
GAT Sample Paper
Questions 1- 3
Three men (Tom, Peter and Jack) and three women
(Eliza, Anne and Karen) are spending a few months at
a hillside. They are to stay in a row of nine cottages,
each one living in his or her own cottage. There are no
others staying in the same row of houses.
1. Anne, Tom and Jack do not want to stay in any
cottage, which is at the end of the row.
2. How many of them occupy cottages next to a
vacant cottage?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 6
Answer: C
3. Which among these statement(s) are true?
2. Eliza and Anne are unwilling to stay besides any
occupied cottage.
3. Karen is next to Peter and Jack.
4. Between Anne and Jacks cottage there is just one
vacant house.
5. None of the girls occupy adjacent cottages.
6. The house occupied by Tom is next to an end
cottage.
I.
II.
III.
Anne is between Eliza and Jack.
At the most four persons can have occupied
cottages on either side of them.
Tom stays besides Peter.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
I only
II only
I and III only
II and III only
I, II and III
1. Which of the above statements can be said to
have been derived from two other statements?
A. Statement 1
B. Statement 2
C. Statement 3
D. Statement 5
E. Statement 6
Answer: C
Answer: D
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For more practice questions visit:
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College of Admission Tests – Multan. Phone : 061 814 3333 , 061 4550698 | Website: www.cat.edu.pk