The document provides an excerpt from a comprehension passage about the short story "Fair's Fair". It tests the reader's ability to identify and correct grammatical errors in sentences from the story. It asks the reader to identify one word to correct each underlined error in 10 sentences from the passage. It then provides multiple choice and short answer comprehension questions about the details and events in the story.
The document is a past year exam paper for the Year 1 English language assessment in Malaysia. It contains multiple choice and short answer questions testing comprehension of passages about trips to Sarawak and a mall opening, as well as grammar, vocabulary and writing skills. The paper has sections on reading comprehension, grammar, writing a summary and letter. It provides the questions and space for answers.
The document is an exam paper for a Year 1 assessment in a Malaysian school. It contains instructions for students on how to complete the exam, which will be a 2 hour written test divided into sections. The first section has 10 comprehension questions. The second section has longer answer questions worth 30 marks total, to be completed in 40 minutes. The third section contains an article and related questions worth 15 marks to be done in 20 minutes. The paper contains a total of 100 marks. Student names, examiner details and page numbers are provided for record keeping purposes.
The document provides instructions and details for an examination paper. It includes the examiner's name, questions and marks, student details, start and end times, and instructions such as writing the answers in the provided spaces. The reading passage is about chocolate and includes grammatical errors to correct. Subsequent sections include multiple choice, short answer and long answer questions about passages on passionfruit and movie reviews.
The document provides information about an exam, including:
1) A marking scheme with various questions worth different point values totaling 100 points.
2) Instructions for the exam, which will take place over 2 hours and requires writing one's name and exam number in the provided spaces.
3) A writing section with text containing grammatical errors to correct and comprehension questions to answer.
50 đề thi + đáp án học sinh giỏi tiếng anh 9 Jackson Linh
This document contains an English exam for 9th grade students consisting of multiple choice questions testing vocabulary and grammar. The exam has four sections: Vocabulary, Grammar, Reading Comprehension, and Writing. The vocabulary section contains questions about word definitions, completing sentences with appropriate words, and matching phrasal verbs to definitions. The grammar section contains exercises on using correct verb tenses and prepositions. The reading comprehension section includes fill-in-the-blank, true/false, and multiple choice questions about passages. The writing section asks students to rewrite sentences, combine sentences, and write a letter responding to a friend's request for travel advice. The exam provides a scoring breakdown and total possible points for each section.
This document contains an exam for a class that assesses students' English skills. It is divided into multiple sections testing grammar, reading comprehension, writing abilities, and literature analysis. The exam tests students on correcting grammatical errors, answering questions about a passage on a village project, writing an email to a friend, analyzing a speech on promoting moral values, and discussing a character quality from one of three novels while providing evidence from the text. The exam contains various short answer and extended response questions to evaluate different dimensions of students' English language proficiency.
This document contains an English language exam for Year 1 students. It consists of 4 sections - Reading and Writing (Sections A and B), Comprehension (Section C), and Writing (Section D). Section A contains grammar questions, Section B contains comprehension questions, Section C contains additional comprehension questions, and Section D contains two writing prompts. The exam tests students' English language skills in areas such as grammar, reading comprehension, and writing.
The document is a past year exam paper for the Year 1 English language assessment in Malaysia. It contains multiple choice and short answer questions testing comprehension of passages about trips to Sarawak and a mall opening, as well as grammar, vocabulary and writing skills. The paper has sections on reading comprehension, grammar, writing a summary and letter. It provides the questions and space for answers.
The document is an exam paper for a Year 1 assessment in a Malaysian school. It contains instructions for students on how to complete the exam, which will be a 2 hour written test divided into sections. The first section has 10 comprehension questions. The second section has longer answer questions worth 30 marks total, to be completed in 40 minutes. The third section contains an article and related questions worth 15 marks to be done in 20 minutes. The paper contains a total of 100 marks. Student names, examiner details and page numbers are provided for record keeping purposes.
The document provides instructions and details for an examination paper. It includes the examiner's name, questions and marks, student details, start and end times, and instructions such as writing the answers in the provided spaces. The reading passage is about chocolate and includes grammatical errors to correct. Subsequent sections include multiple choice, short answer and long answer questions about passages on passionfruit and movie reviews.
The document provides information about an exam, including:
1) A marking scheme with various questions worth different point values totaling 100 points.
2) Instructions for the exam, which will take place over 2 hours and requires writing one's name and exam number in the provided spaces.
3) A writing section with text containing grammatical errors to correct and comprehension questions to answer.
50 đề thi + đáp án học sinh giỏi tiếng anh 9 Jackson Linh
This document contains an English exam for 9th grade students consisting of multiple choice questions testing vocabulary and grammar. The exam has four sections: Vocabulary, Grammar, Reading Comprehension, and Writing. The vocabulary section contains questions about word definitions, completing sentences with appropriate words, and matching phrasal verbs to definitions. The grammar section contains exercises on using correct verb tenses and prepositions. The reading comprehension section includes fill-in-the-blank, true/false, and multiple choice questions about passages. The writing section asks students to rewrite sentences, combine sentences, and write a letter responding to a friend's request for travel advice. The exam provides a scoring breakdown and total possible points for each section.
This document contains an exam for a class that assesses students' English skills. It is divided into multiple sections testing grammar, reading comprehension, writing abilities, and literature analysis. The exam tests students on correcting grammatical errors, answering questions about a passage on a village project, writing an email to a friend, analyzing a speech on promoting moral values, and discussing a character quality from one of three novels while providing evidence from the text. The exam contains various short answer and extended response questions to evaluate different dimensions of students' English language proficiency.
This document contains an English language exam for Year 1 students. It consists of 4 sections - Reading and Writing (Sections A and B), Comprehension (Section C), and Writing (Section D). Section A contains grammar questions, Section B contains comprehension questions, Section C contains additional comprehension questions, and Section D contains two writing prompts. The exam tests students' English language skills in areas such as grammar, reading comprehension, and writing.
Pentaksiran Tingkatan 1 Bahasa Inggeris (Answer)Miz Malinz
The document provides a reading comprehension passage and questions about a trip to Sarawak. There are 10 grammatical errors in the passage that need to be corrected. The questions then ask the reader to summarize details about the trip based on the information provided and correct any errors in the passage. Further questions test understanding of vocabulary used and ability to infer implicit details.
This unit will teach students to:
- Read informative texts such as advertisements and comparative texts like biographies.
- Use vocabulary and words related to buildings, parts of buildings, and movies.
- Use words for talking about conditions such as if, unless, whether or not.
A university professor in Singapore gave a two-hour online lecture without realizing his microphone was muted. The professor, who teaches mathematics, did not notice that students could not hear him due to the muted mic. His university had switched classes online to reduce COVID-19 spread. Though students tried contacting the professor, he did not notice the mic was off until the end of the two-hour lecture. The moment he realized has gone viral online. He offered to redo the lecture at another time for his students.
This document contains an exam with questions testing reading comprehension and English language skills. The reading comprehension section contains a passage discussing concerns about the future of the planet due to issues like climate change, population growth, and pollution. The English language questions cover a range of topics and include exercises to test vocabulary, grammar, sentence structure and future tense predictions. The summary provides a high-level overview of the types of questions in the exam without detailing full questions or responses.
Final Exam CMA Complete all three sections (A,B,C) of the .docxssuser454af01
Final Exam CMA
Complete all three sections (A,B,C) of the exam as directed. Number your answers to make it clear which questions your chose. Submit 1 document containing all of your answers from each of the sections.
A) LONG ESSAY Questions
Answer two of the following questions. Be certain to answer each part of the questions. Each answer should be 5 paragraphs long. Answers are worth 30 points each.
1) What events led up to the 100 Years War? Describe each of the participating armies, detailing the differences as well as similarities and changes made during the course of the war. What really caused the war to end and how did this change the face of western civilization?
2) Detail the myriad causes of the fall of the Western Roman Empire in 476 CE as discussed in class. What role did the eastern empire play if any? Was it inevitable? Explain your conclusion.
3) Discuss the Humanist Movement. When and where did it start? Why? How are Humanist changes reflected in the art and society of the Renaissance? Touch upon some of the major events occurring at this time that influence these changes? What role did religion play?
B) SHORT ESSAY Questions
Answer three of the following questions. Each answer should be 2-3 paragraphs long. Answers are worth 15 points each.
1) Detail the only ‘legitimate’ reason for a Crusade in the eyes of the Catholic Church. Which crusade was legitimate? Why? Which Crusade effectively ended the Byzantine Empire?
2) Discuss the main differences in the types of plague raging through the western world in the mid-14th century. Be sure to note locations, death rates, and symptoms.
3) Peter Ableard’s “Story of My Misfortunes” tells of the life of a struggling medieval scholar. Address his misfortunes and how he dealt with them.
4) What role did politics play in the Avignon Papacy and then in the Great Schism? Detail the concerns to the ‘flock’ and what this meant for the future followers. Discuss Raimon de Cornet’s poem and how it expresses the feeling of the flock.
5) Briefly detail the changes in government under Diocletian from previous rulers. What were some of the major reasons he made these modifications?
6) What are the three main principles of any feudal society? Describe each and how they apply to serfs, knights, and lords.
C) Fill in the Blank Questions:
Provide the missing word/phrase for each of the following. Answers are worth 2 points per blank. Yes a few bonus points are possible in this section!
1) __________ was responsible for creating the world’s first public schooling system.
2) 1453 was a significant year as it marked the end of the _____________Empire as well as the end of the ___________ war.
3) ___________ built the __________ to quell opposition to his rule and refined centuries of Roman Law into The ____________.
4) _________ were the Vikings that were responsible for raiding.
5) ___________ infantry often fought without __________ to allow for more mobility during the 100 years wa ...
This document appears to be instructions for a pre-board examination in Nepal. It provides details about the exam such as the time allotted, total marks, and pass marks. It then lists 11 sections containing a variety of question types that students are required to attempt. The questions cover topics such as rearranging words alphabetically, completing sentences, writing descriptions, answering short questions, and changing sentences structure. Students are advised to answer in their own words as much as possible.
This document appears to be an English grammar, vocabulary, and pronunciation worksheet for a student. It contains exercises on reported speech, passive voice, completing sentences with single words, matching vocabulary to definitions, spelling pronunciations, reading comprehension, and writing a book review. The reading passage is about shopping in Hong Kong and mentions various districts and what can be purchased in each one. It recommends exploring the markets and food stalls of Mong Kok to experience more authentic local culture. The writing task asks the student to choose a book and write a short review recommending it to others.
The speech discusses ways for students to help the environment. It encourages recycling paper and plastic to reduce waste. When plastic is recycled, new items like bottles or carpets can be made from it. The speech also recommends conserving energy by taking shorter showers, turning off lights, and using air conditioning only when needed. Students are told to donate old toys and books instead of throwing them away to help the environment and charities. Cycling is suggested as a way to reduce pollution and stay healthy.
1. The document discusses a practice test for high school students in Vietnam. It covers topics like phonics, grammar, vocabulary, reading comprehension, and writing.
2. The test has multiple choice questions to assess students' knowledge of stress patterns, parts of speech, grammar structures, comprehending passages, and completing sentences and paragraphs.
3. It aims to evaluate students' English proficiency in various areas and provide feedback on their strengths and weaknesses to help improve their language skills.
This document appears to be an English language exam consisting of grammar, vocabulary, pronunciation, reading and writing sections. It requests information such as the student's name and class. The reading passage is about shopping in various districts in Hong Kong, including Kowloon, Nathan Road, Mong Kok and mentions bargains that can be found on electrical goods and jewellery. It recommends exploring less popular areas like Mong Kok to experience more traditional Chinese culture and food. The writing section prompts imagining recommending a book to a book club and including details about the book, its setting, plot and characters.
The document appears to be a page from "The Heinle Picture Dictionary, Second Edition" about restaurants. It includes:
1) A brief history of restaurants, noting that the first restaurant opened in Paris in 1765 serving only soup, and how restaurants have since expanded their menus.
2) Information about the largest restaurant in the world, the Royal Dragon in Bangkok, which seats 5,000 diners and has servers that wear roller skates.
3) A picture showing various items found in a restaurant, along with their names in English and Spanish.
The document contains classroom rules for an essential English class including:
- Bring required materials like books and pencils to class daily
- Do not touch things that do not belong to you or complain to the teacher
- Clean up after yourself and push in your chair when leaving
- No students in the classroom without a teacher
- Do not go behind the teacher's desk
It then provides exercises on alphabets, phonics, plurals, positions, numbers, calendar etc. as part of the English learning materials.
The document outlines classroom rules for an essential English class including:
- Bring required materials like books and notebooks to class daily
- Do not touch things that do not belong to you and keep hands to yourself
- Clean up after yourself and push in your chair when leaving
- Do not complain to the teacher about being hungry, thirsty, etc. This is not polite
- No students allowed in the classroom without a teacher
- Do not go behind the teachers' desk
This document appears to be a test for a Vietnamese language class. It contains multiple choice questions, fill-in-the-blank questions, and reading comprehension questions about various topics including pronunciation, prepositions, transforming sentences, and passages about television and the internet. The test is divided into different sections and covers a range of grammar and language skills.
This document contains an English exam for 10th grade students in Khanh Hoa province, Vietnam. It has four sections that test language usage and vocabulary, reading comprehension, and writing skills. The first section contains multiple choice questions about grammar, vocabulary, and pronunciation. The reading comprehension section contains two passages to read and answer true/false and matching questions about. The writing section asks students to do a transformation exercise and write a short paragraph expressing their view on a given topic.
This document appears to be an English language test for third year students. It consists of multiple choice and fill-in-the-blank questions testing vocabulary, grammar, reading comprehension, and matching pictures to activities. The test has 7 sections (A-G) covering topics like parts of speech, parts of a tree, punctuation, passages about coconut trees and a girl named Nina's fish. The test is out of 100 marks and includes spaces for the student and teacher names and signatures.
This document contains a reading comprehension test with multiple choice and short answer questions about a passage on bees. It asks students to identify grammatical errors in sentences, answer true/false questions about details in the passage, fill in blanks with words from the passage, and write a short response to encourage a friend to visit a bee farm. It also includes advertisements for a charity jogathon and blood donation campaign, with related multiple choice and short answer questions. Students are asked to write messages responding to both advertisements.
Kertas Soalan Percubaan PT3 BI 2014 KulaijayaIntan Haryati
Jayden Leigh invites his friend Soubu to visit Malaysia during the summer holidays. In a letter to Soubu, Jayden outlines details of the planned visit, including accommodation arrangements and activities. Jayden will take Soubu around Kuala Lumpur and various local attractions, and plans to introduce Soubu to popular Malaysian foods. Jayden is looking forward to seeing Soubu and hosting him.
Here are the steps in order:
1. The Interlocutor welcomes the candidates and checks their names.
b The Interlocutor introduces Part 2 and gives instructions to Candidate A.
c Candidate A speaks for 1 minute on their topic.
d The Interlocutor introduces Part 3 and gives instructions to the candidates.
e The candidates discuss their topic and answer the decision question.
f The Interlocutor introduces Part 1 and asks questions to the candidates.
g The Interlocutor thanks the candidates and ends the test.
h The Assessor and Interlocutor complete assessment forms.
i The Interlocutor introduces the Speaking test and checks the candidates are ready
Here are the key points about Communicative Achievement:
- It focuses on how appropriate the writing is given the communicative task, including using the correct genre/text type and register.
- It also considers the tone and language selected in terms of being appropriate for the task and holding the target reader's attention.
- The descriptors consider whether ideas are communicated simply, straightforwardly or more complexly.
- Following the conventions of the communicative task, such as genre, format and function, is the primary focus of this subscale.
So in summary, Communicative Achievement evaluates how well the candidate understood and addressed the communicative purpose and conventions required by the specific task.
Pentaksiran Tingkatan 1 Bahasa Inggeris (Answer)Miz Malinz
The document provides a reading comprehension passage and questions about a trip to Sarawak. There are 10 grammatical errors in the passage that need to be corrected. The questions then ask the reader to summarize details about the trip based on the information provided and correct any errors in the passage. Further questions test understanding of vocabulary used and ability to infer implicit details.
This unit will teach students to:
- Read informative texts such as advertisements and comparative texts like biographies.
- Use vocabulary and words related to buildings, parts of buildings, and movies.
- Use words for talking about conditions such as if, unless, whether or not.
A university professor in Singapore gave a two-hour online lecture without realizing his microphone was muted. The professor, who teaches mathematics, did not notice that students could not hear him due to the muted mic. His university had switched classes online to reduce COVID-19 spread. Though students tried contacting the professor, he did not notice the mic was off until the end of the two-hour lecture. The moment he realized has gone viral online. He offered to redo the lecture at another time for his students.
This document contains an exam with questions testing reading comprehension and English language skills. The reading comprehension section contains a passage discussing concerns about the future of the planet due to issues like climate change, population growth, and pollution. The English language questions cover a range of topics and include exercises to test vocabulary, grammar, sentence structure and future tense predictions. The summary provides a high-level overview of the types of questions in the exam without detailing full questions or responses.
Final Exam CMA Complete all three sections (A,B,C) of the .docxssuser454af01
Final Exam CMA
Complete all three sections (A,B,C) of the exam as directed. Number your answers to make it clear which questions your chose. Submit 1 document containing all of your answers from each of the sections.
A) LONG ESSAY Questions
Answer two of the following questions. Be certain to answer each part of the questions. Each answer should be 5 paragraphs long. Answers are worth 30 points each.
1) What events led up to the 100 Years War? Describe each of the participating armies, detailing the differences as well as similarities and changes made during the course of the war. What really caused the war to end and how did this change the face of western civilization?
2) Detail the myriad causes of the fall of the Western Roman Empire in 476 CE as discussed in class. What role did the eastern empire play if any? Was it inevitable? Explain your conclusion.
3) Discuss the Humanist Movement. When and where did it start? Why? How are Humanist changes reflected in the art and society of the Renaissance? Touch upon some of the major events occurring at this time that influence these changes? What role did religion play?
B) SHORT ESSAY Questions
Answer three of the following questions. Each answer should be 2-3 paragraphs long. Answers are worth 15 points each.
1) Detail the only ‘legitimate’ reason for a Crusade in the eyes of the Catholic Church. Which crusade was legitimate? Why? Which Crusade effectively ended the Byzantine Empire?
2) Discuss the main differences in the types of plague raging through the western world in the mid-14th century. Be sure to note locations, death rates, and symptoms.
3) Peter Ableard’s “Story of My Misfortunes” tells of the life of a struggling medieval scholar. Address his misfortunes and how he dealt with them.
4) What role did politics play in the Avignon Papacy and then in the Great Schism? Detail the concerns to the ‘flock’ and what this meant for the future followers. Discuss Raimon de Cornet’s poem and how it expresses the feeling of the flock.
5) Briefly detail the changes in government under Diocletian from previous rulers. What were some of the major reasons he made these modifications?
6) What are the three main principles of any feudal society? Describe each and how they apply to serfs, knights, and lords.
C) Fill in the Blank Questions:
Provide the missing word/phrase for each of the following. Answers are worth 2 points per blank. Yes a few bonus points are possible in this section!
1) __________ was responsible for creating the world’s first public schooling system.
2) 1453 was a significant year as it marked the end of the _____________Empire as well as the end of the ___________ war.
3) ___________ built the __________ to quell opposition to his rule and refined centuries of Roman Law into The ____________.
4) _________ were the Vikings that were responsible for raiding.
5) ___________ infantry often fought without __________ to allow for more mobility during the 100 years wa ...
This document appears to be instructions for a pre-board examination in Nepal. It provides details about the exam such as the time allotted, total marks, and pass marks. It then lists 11 sections containing a variety of question types that students are required to attempt. The questions cover topics such as rearranging words alphabetically, completing sentences, writing descriptions, answering short questions, and changing sentences structure. Students are advised to answer in their own words as much as possible.
This document appears to be an English grammar, vocabulary, and pronunciation worksheet for a student. It contains exercises on reported speech, passive voice, completing sentences with single words, matching vocabulary to definitions, spelling pronunciations, reading comprehension, and writing a book review. The reading passage is about shopping in Hong Kong and mentions various districts and what can be purchased in each one. It recommends exploring the markets and food stalls of Mong Kok to experience more authentic local culture. The writing task asks the student to choose a book and write a short review recommending it to others.
The speech discusses ways for students to help the environment. It encourages recycling paper and plastic to reduce waste. When plastic is recycled, new items like bottles or carpets can be made from it. The speech also recommends conserving energy by taking shorter showers, turning off lights, and using air conditioning only when needed. Students are told to donate old toys and books instead of throwing them away to help the environment and charities. Cycling is suggested as a way to reduce pollution and stay healthy.
1. The document discusses a practice test for high school students in Vietnam. It covers topics like phonics, grammar, vocabulary, reading comprehension, and writing.
2. The test has multiple choice questions to assess students' knowledge of stress patterns, parts of speech, grammar structures, comprehending passages, and completing sentences and paragraphs.
3. It aims to evaluate students' English proficiency in various areas and provide feedback on their strengths and weaknesses to help improve their language skills.
This document appears to be an English language exam consisting of grammar, vocabulary, pronunciation, reading and writing sections. It requests information such as the student's name and class. The reading passage is about shopping in various districts in Hong Kong, including Kowloon, Nathan Road, Mong Kok and mentions bargains that can be found on electrical goods and jewellery. It recommends exploring less popular areas like Mong Kok to experience more traditional Chinese culture and food. The writing section prompts imagining recommending a book to a book club and including details about the book, its setting, plot and characters.
The document appears to be a page from "The Heinle Picture Dictionary, Second Edition" about restaurants. It includes:
1) A brief history of restaurants, noting that the first restaurant opened in Paris in 1765 serving only soup, and how restaurants have since expanded their menus.
2) Information about the largest restaurant in the world, the Royal Dragon in Bangkok, which seats 5,000 diners and has servers that wear roller skates.
3) A picture showing various items found in a restaurant, along with their names in English and Spanish.
The document contains classroom rules for an essential English class including:
- Bring required materials like books and pencils to class daily
- Do not touch things that do not belong to you or complain to the teacher
- Clean up after yourself and push in your chair when leaving
- No students in the classroom without a teacher
- Do not go behind the teacher's desk
It then provides exercises on alphabets, phonics, plurals, positions, numbers, calendar etc. as part of the English learning materials.
The document outlines classroom rules for an essential English class including:
- Bring required materials like books and notebooks to class daily
- Do not touch things that do not belong to you and keep hands to yourself
- Clean up after yourself and push in your chair when leaving
- Do not complain to the teacher about being hungry, thirsty, etc. This is not polite
- No students allowed in the classroom without a teacher
- Do not go behind the teachers' desk
This document appears to be a test for a Vietnamese language class. It contains multiple choice questions, fill-in-the-blank questions, and reading comprehension questions about various topics including pronunciation, prepositions, transforming sentences, and passages about television and the internet. The test is divided into different sections and covers a range of grammar and language skills.
This document contains an English exam for 10th grade students in Khanh Hoa province, Vietnam. It has four sections that test language usage and vocabulary, reading comprehension, and writing skills. The first section contains multiple choice questions about grammar, vocabulary, and pronunciation. The reading comprehension section contains two passages to read and answer true/false and matching questions about. The writing section asks students to do a transformation exercise and write a short paragraph expressing their view on a given topic.
This document appears to be an English language test for third year students. It consists of multiple choice and fill-in-the-blank questions testing vocabulary, grammar, reading comprehension, and matching pictures to activities. The test has 7 sections (A-G) covering topics like parts of speech, parts of a tree, punctuation, passages about coconut trees and a girl named Nina's fish. The test is out of 100 marks and includes spaces for the student and teacher names and signatures.
This document contains a reading comprehension test with multiple choice and short answer questions about a passage on bees. It asks students to identify grammatical errors in sentences, answer true/false questions about details in the passage, fill in blanks with words from the passage, and write a short response to encourage a friend to visit a bee farm. It also includes advertisements for a charity jogathon and blood donation campaign, with related multiple choice and short answer questions. Students are asked to write messages responding to both advertisements.
Kertas Soalan Percubaan PT3 BI 2014 KulaijayaIntan Haryati
Jayden Leigh invites his friend Soubu to visit Malaysia during the summer holidays. In a letter to Soubu, Jayden outlines details of the planned visit, including accommodation arrangements and activities. Jayden will take Soubu around Kuala Lumpur and various local attractions, and plans to introduce Soubu to popular Malaysian foods. Jayden is looking forward to seeing Soubu and hosting him.
Here are the steps in order:
1. The Interlocutor welcomes the candidates and checks their names.
b The Interlocutor introduces Part 2 and gives instructions to Candidate A.
c Candidate A speaks for 1 minute on their topic.
d The Interlocutor introduces Part 3 and gives instructions to the candidates.
e The candidates discuss their topic and answer the decision question.
f The Interlocutor introduces Part 1 and asks questions to the candidates.
g The Interlocutor thanks the candidates and ends the test.
h The Assessor and Interlocutor complete assessment forms.
i The Interlocutor introduces the Speaking test and checks the candidates are ready
Here are the key points about Communicative Achievement:
- It focuses on how appropriate the writing is given the communicative task, including using the correct genre/text type and register.
- It also considers the tone and language selected in terms of being appropriate for the task and holding the target reader's attention.
- The descriptors consider whether ideas are communicated simply, straightforwardly or more complexly.
- Following the conventions of the communicative task, such as genre, format and function, is the primary focus of this subscale.
So in summary, Communicative Achievement evaluates how well the candidate understood and addressed the communicative purpose and conventions required by the specific task.
The document provides sample lesson materials for Form 2 English Language lessons about recycling paper, glass, and aluminum. It includes passages describing the recycling processes for each material, diagrams illustrating the steps, and worksheets for students to complete. The passages explain that paper is recycled by separating, washing, mixing with water to create slurry, spreading into sheets, drying, and rolling. Glass is recycled by sorting by color, washing, crushing, melting, and reshaping into new products. Aluminum is recycled by collecting, sorting, cleaning, melting to remove coatings, making into ingots and sheets, and transforming into new products like cans.
I have always wanted to try bungee jumping as an extreme activity. It interests me because it allows people to jump off tall structures while being secured by an elastic cord. I find taking risks exciting as it pushes me outside my comfort zone. However, bungee jumping requires proper safety precautions.
This document introduces adjectives and provides exercises to help students identify and use adjectives. It explains that adjectives are describing words that provide additional information about nouns. Several activities are included where students identify adjectives in pictures and sentences. Examples are given of adjectives placed before and after nouns. The document concludes with questions for students to identify adjectives in sample sentences.
The document provides guidance on using context clues to determine the correct meaning of multiple meaning words. It gives 10 examples of sentences with underlined multiple meaning words and 3 answer choices to select the sentence that uses the underlined word with the same meaning as the original sentence. The examples illustrate how to determine the intended meaning of multiple meaning words based on the context of the sentence.
This document provides guidance on writing the SPM English Paper 2 exam. It discusses the 3 parts of the paper and offers advice on each. Part 1 involves writing a short note or email of under 80 words. Part 2 is a directed writing task of 125-150 words. Part 3 gives a choice of descriptive writing types to choose from for a 200-250 word essay. The document provides sample questions and answers, as well as tips on introduction, body paragraphs, vocabulary, grammar and more for writing strong responses to score well on the exam.
This document provides an introduction to parts of speech, articles, pronouns, verbs, tenses, and conjunctions. It includes definitions and examples of each grammatical concept. Practice exercises are also included to help readers identify and apply these language basics.
Assessment and Planning in Educational technology.pptxKavitha Krishnan
In an education system, it is understood that assessment is only for the students, but on the other hand, the Assessment of teachers is also an important aspect of the education system that ensures teachers are providing high-quality instruction to students. The assessment process can be used to provide feedback and support for professional development, to inform decisions about teacher retention or promotion, or to evaluate teacher effectiveness for accountability purposes.
Introduction to AI for Nonprofits with Tapp NetworkTechSoup
Dive into the world of AI! Experts Jon Hill and Tareq Monaur will guide you through AI's role in enhancing nonprofit websites and basic marketing strategies, making it easy to understand and apply.
The simplified electron and muon model, Oscillating Spacetime: The Foundation...RitikBhardwaj56
Discover the Simplified Electron and Muon Model: A New Wave-Based Approach to Understanding Particles delves into a groundbreaking theory that presents electrons and muons as rotating soliton waves within oscillating spacetime. Geared towards students, researchers, and science buffs, this book breaks down complex ideas into simple explanations. It covers topics such as electron waves, temporal dynamics, and the implications of this model on particle physics. With clear illustrations and easy-to-follow explanations, readers will gain a new outlook on the universe's fundamental nature.
Thinking of getting a dog? Be aware that breeds like Pit Bulls, Rottweilers, and German Shepherds can be loyal and dangerous. Proper training and socialization are crucial to preventing aggressive behaviors. Ensure safety by understanding their needs and always supervising interactions. Stay safe, and enjoy your furry friends!
This slide is special for master students (MIBS & MIFB) in UUM. Also useful for readers who are interested in the topic of contemporary Islamic banking.
A review of the growth of the Israel Genealogy Research Association Database Collection for the last 12 months. Our collection is now passed the 3 million mark and still growing. See which archives have contributed the most. See the different types of records we have, and which years have had records added. You can also see what we have for the future.
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How to Build a Module in Odoo 17 Using the Scaffold MethodCeline George
Odoo provides an option for creating a module by using a single line command. By using this command the user can make a whole structure of a module. It is very easy for a beginner to make a module. There is no need to make each file manually. This slide will show how to create a module using the scaffold method.
How to Add Chatter in the odoo 17 ERP ModuleCeline George
In Odoo, the chatter is like a chat tool that helps you work together on records. You can leave notes and track things, making it easier to talk with your team and partners. Inside chatter, all communication history, activity, and changes will be displayed.
1. FORM 2 / SET A
1
SECTION A
[10 marks]
(Time suggested : 15 minutes)
Answer all questions in this paper.
The text below is an extract from the story, Fair’s Fair.
Question 1
Read the text below. The first and last lines are correct. For the remaining lines, there is one
grammatical error in each line.
Correct the underlined words. Then, write one word to correct the error in the space
provided. An example has been given. The correct word must not change the meaning of the
sentence. There are no spelling and punctuation errors in this text.
Lee was not too happy because he still had no money to go to
the fair. He asked his friends what jobs he could doing. Raj and
Sam are very sure their mum and dad would not give them any job.
A woman with the heavy shopping bag walked by them. Something
fell out of her bag but she does not see and walked on up the street.
Lee saw the purse on the ground and said it must have fall from her
bag. He picked up a purse and saw it had a lot of money. If they
kept the money, they would have a really great time in the fair. Lee
looked at the purse and said he couldn’t kept it as it was not his. He
would go and looked for the woman with the shopping bag. The
woman was standing at the bus stop but Lee told her she had
dropped her purse. He handed them back to her. She thanked and
praised Lee and gave him five pounds for being honest.
e.g. do
(a)_________
(b)_________
(c)_________
(d)________
(e)________
(f)_________
(g)_________
(h)_________
(i)_________
(j)_________
2. FORM 2 / SET A
2
SECTION B
(30 marks)
(Time suggested : 40 minutes)
Question 2
Read the following text. Then, answer questions (a) - (j).
With the tagline “Qu Puteh, Qu Puteh, barulah putih”, Datuk Seri Dr Hasmiza Othman has
certainly carved her name into the Malaysians’ consciousness. More popularly known as Datuk
Seri Vida, she has built her cosmetic and health products empire of Vida Beauty Sdn. Bhd. from
ground up. Her two biggest selling products are the Pamoga health drink and Qu Puteh skin
whitening cream.
Currently living in Ipoh, this Kelantan born entrepreneur and former teacher has been
involved in various activities to promote her products. She had sponsored entertainment
programmes such as the “GegarVaganza” and “Anugerah Juara Lagu”. Now, her latest venture
takes her into the world of sports. She has just inked a two-season sponsorship deal with the
Kelantan football team.
However, it is not all bed of roses for this 44 years old gutsy lady. She had lost two of her four
children in a 2013 fire of her home. Though undoubtedly sadden by this incident, this strong-
willed lady continues to work hard to achieve great success.
3. FORM 2 / SET A
3
Questions (a)-(j)
Using the information from the text, complete the following graphic organiser.
[10 marks]
Best selling products:
(c)………………………………………………
……………………………………………….
(d)………………………………………………
……………………………………………….
Birthplace:
(e)…………………………………………
Name of company:
(b)………………………………………….
Great tragedy in her life:
(i)…………………………………………
……………………………………………
Real name:
(a)…………………………………………….
Sponsorship deals:
(g)……………………………….
…………………………………..
(h)……………………………….
………………………………….
Previous occupation:
(f)………………………
One of her characteristics:
(j)………………………….
4. FORM 2 / SET A
4
Question 3
Read the following advertisements from a newspaper. Then, answer questions (a) – (j)
Pizza King
This restaurant serves
delicious oven-baked pizza.
Piping hot creamy soup and
pasta, all perfectly prepared.
Excellent Italian desserts and
pastries are a must try.
Fragrant and crunchy garlic
bread is served with soup.
Pocketbook
Restaurant
Value-for-money meals are
the main attraction here.
Cheap daily set lunches and
dinners are available. The
atmosphere is cheerful and
friendly and the seating are in
air-conditioned room.
Suitable for budget-
conscious customers. Free
wifi is available.
Ocean Seafood Village
Fresh seafood is available
here. Pick fresh seafood of
your choice and enjoy your
meal. Special seafood
package for groups of more
than ten persons. You can
also enjoy live cultural
Golden Honey BBQ
Crunches
The tastiest golden
honey BBQ ribs at an
unbelievable prices of
RM 8.00 per serving. You
will get free 2.5 litres of
soft drinks for purchases
of more than RM30.00.
Sonata Café
This café is very famous for
Sunday buffet lunches and high
tea. Food is very delicious and
well presented by highly skilled
chef. You will be served with
wide variety of food to suit any
palate. You will also be
entertained by classical
background music. Diners will
be amazed by the stylish decor.
5. FORM 2 / SET A
5
Questions (a) –(d): Based on the brochure, state whether the following statements are TRUE
or FALSE.
(a) One who wishes to eat spaghetti, pizza and thick creamy
soup may go to Pizza King. __________[1 mark]
(b) The best place to take your classmates is Sonata Café. __________[1 mark]
(c) If you have a tight budget, you should go to Golden Honey
BBQ Crunches. __________[1 mark]
(d) Pocketbook restaurant opens every day. __________[1 mark]
Questions (e) – (i) : Read the advertisement carefully and answer the questions below.
(e) Elly enjoys pizza sprinkled with cheese and mushroom soup. Where should she go?
_____________________________________________________________ [1 mark]
(f) Which place provides the customers with free wifi?
______________________________________________________________ [1 mark]
(g) Fill in the table with appropriate words from the advertisement.
Meaning Word
(i) aromatic
(ii) blown away
[2 marks]
(h) Explain what is meant by ‘budget-conscious’.
_______________________________________________________________[1 mark]
(i) Give a reason why someone would dine at Pocketbook Restaurant.
_______________________________________________________________[1 mark]
6. FORM 2 / SET A
6
(j) Your family are gathering for the coming weekend. You plan to take them for dinner. In
about 50 words, write an e-mail to your brother.
In the e-mail:
State the place you have chosen.
Give reasons to support your choice.
Add other relevant information to make your writing interesting.
To:
From:
Subject:
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
[10 marks]
7. FORM 2 / SET A
7
SECTION C
[ 20 marks ]
( Time suggested : 20 minutes )
Question 4
Read the text below.
Dinosaurs were animals that lived million of years ago. There were lots of different
types of dinosaurs – little ones, big ones, fierce ones and shy ones. All dinosaurs lived on
land – and they died out a long time ago. There are no dinosaurs living today.
It is thought that the first dinosaurs lived around 230 million years ago. They roamed
the Earth for the next 165 million years, before becoming extinct about 65 million years ago.
Dinosaurs lived all over the world. At that time, the weather was much hotter than it is
today. The word ‘dinosaur’ means ‘terrible lizards’, even though dinosaurs weren’t lizards!
Lots of plant-eating dinosaurs swallowed their food without chewing. Instead, they gobbled
stones and pebbles, which stayed in their stomachs. When they swallowed food, the stones
helped to mash the food up, turning it into a pulp.
Early plant-eating dinosaurs did not eat fruit or grass – none had appeared yet!
Instead, they ate plants called horsetails, ferns, cycad and conifer trees. Like reptiles today,
such as crocodiles and alligators, dinosaurs were covered in super-tough scaly skin. The
scales would have protected a dinosaur against the teeth and claws of enemies and the bites
of pests such as mosquitoes and flies.
About 65 million years ago, the dinosaurs became extinct. No one knows for sure
why this happened, but something HUGE must have taken place to affect all life on the
planet. It is thought that more than two-thirds of all living things died at the same time as the
dinosaurs, including sea creatures and plants.
Read the text carefully and answer questions (a) to (i)
( a ) When did dinosaurs live on Earth?
__________________________________________________________________________
[ 1 mark ]
( b ) What does the word ‘dinosaur’ mean?
__________________________________________________________________________
[ 1 mark ]
( c ) Why did the dinosaurs gobble stones and pebbles?
__________________________________________________________________________
[ 1 mark ]
8. FORM 2 / SET A
8
( d ) What were the names of the plants that the dinosaurs ate? Name any two.
(i) ________________________________________________________________[ 1 mark ]
(ii) ________________________________________________________________[ 1 mark ]
( e ) Fill the table with an appropriate word / phrase from the text.
Meaning Word / Phrase
(i) moved about or travelled aimlessly
(ii) crushing food into smaller pieces
(iii) lost or died out
(iv) rough and dry skin
[ 4 marks ]
( f ) What was the function of dinosaurs’ super tough scaly skin?
__________________________________________________________________________
[ 1 mark ]
( g ) When did the dinosaurs become extinct?
__________________________________________________________________________
[ 1 mark ]
( h ) Which of the animals today that you think are similar to the dinosaurs? Give two
examples.
(i)________________________________________________________________ [ 1 mark ]
(ii)________________________________________________________________ [ 1 mark ]
( i ) State two possibilities of what might happen if the dinosaurs still exist today.
(i)_______________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________[ 1 mark ]
(ii)_______________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________[ 1 mark ]
9. FORM 2 / SET A
9
Question 5
Read the poem below carefully. Then, answer questions (a) – (d).
a) What type of movies is shown on the late night television?
_____________________________________________________________________[1 mark]
b) According to the child what would the father do when he meets with ghosts?
_____________________________________________________________________[1 mark]
c) Why do you think the mother, not the father, has to remove the spider?
____________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________[1 mark]
d) Do you think the father has lied to the child about his bravery? Give a reason for your answer.
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________[2 marks]
[5 marks]
My Hero
My dad’s as brave as a dad can be, He’s not afraid of vampires,
I rate him Number One, Or a wolf-man come to get him,
He’s not afraid of the dead of night, If Frankenstein’s monster knocked on our door,
Or anything under the sun. He wouldn’t let that upset him.
He’s not afraid of a late-night film, My dad’s as brave as a dad can be,
Full of horrors on the telly, And he’s always ready to prove it,
And is he afraid of skeletons? So why, when a spider’s in the bath,
Not dad, not on your Nelly! Does Mum have to come and remove it?
He’s not afraid of meeting ghosts,
He’d even smile and greet ‘em,
And things that scare most dads the most,
My dad could just defeat ‘em,
10. FORM 2 / SET A
10
SECTION D
[40 marks]
(Time suggested : 45 minutes)
Question 6
You should spend 30 minutes on this question.
You went on a holiday with your family to a hill resort. Based on the picures and notes below,
write a letter to tell your friend about your holiday.
When writing out your letter:
you may use the notes given
suggest one benefit of going on a holiday with your family
add any other relevant information
write between 120 to 150 words.
_________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________
short walk - green trees -
fresh air - butterflies and birds
thrilling rides - funfair -
games - won prizes
shopping - watched movies -
variety of shops
12. FORM 2 / SET A
12
QUESTION 7
You should spend 15 minutes on this question.
The following are the short stories studied in the Literature Component in English Language.
1. CHEAT! – Allan Baille
2. FAIR’S FAIR – Narinder Dhami
Based on one the short stories above, write about a character that you like most. Provide
evidence from the text to support your answer.
Write :
Not less than 50 words.
In continuous writing ( not in note form )
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
[ 10 marks ]