The document provides the results of a test titled "Developer Open" that was taken on January 2nd, 2017 and finished in 13 minutes and 21 seconds, with a score of 28 out of 30 (93.3%). It includes feedback on several multiple choice questions about Scrum and software development best practices.
Cyber Security Trends
Business Concerns
Cyber Threats
The Solutions
Security Operation Center
requirement
SOC Architecture model
SOC Implementation
SOC & NOC
SOC & CSIRT
SIEM & Correlation
-----------------------------------------------------------
Definition
Gartner defines a SOC as both a team, often operating in shifts around the clock, and a facility dedicated to and organized to prevent, detect, assess and respond to cybersecurity threats and incidents, and to fulfill and assess regulatory compliance. The term "cybersecurity operation center "is often used synonymously for SOC.
A network operations center (NOC) is not a SOC, which focuses on network device management rather than detecting and responding to cybersecurity incidents. Coordination between the two is common, however.
A managed security service is not the same as having a SOC — although a service provider may offer services from a SOC. A managed service is a shared resource and not solely dedicated to a single organization or entity. Similarly, there is no such thing as a managed SOC.
Most of the technologies, processes and best practices that are used in a SOC are not specific to a SOC. Incident response or vulnerability management remain the same, whether delivered from a SOC or not. It is a meta-topic, involving many security domains and disciplines, and depending on the services and functions that are delivered by the SOC.
Services that often reside in a SOC are:
• Cyber security incident response
• Malware analysis
• Forensic analysis
• Threat intelligence analysis
• Risk analytics and attack path modeling
• Countermeasure implementation
• Vulnerability assessment
• Vulnerability analysis
• Penetration testing
• Remediation prioritization and coordination
• Security intelligence collection and fusion
• Security architecture design
• Security consulting
• Security awareness training
• Security audit data collection and distribution
Alternative names for SOC :
Security defense center (SDC)
Security intelligence center
Cyber security center
Threat defense center
security intelligence and operations center (SIOC)
Infrastructure Protection Centre (IPC)
مرکز عملیات امنیت
Summarize the design and build approach for SOC (Security Operation Center) for both end user company and service providers. Defines the approach flow for SOC building and various components and phases involved. Defines design thumb rules and parameters for SOC Design.
Cyber Security Trends
Business Concerns
Cyber Threats
The Solutions
Security Operation Center
requirement
SOC Architecture model
SOC Implementation
SOC & NOC
SOC & CSIRT
SIEM & Correlation
-----------------------------------------------------------
Definition
Gartner defines a SOC as both a team, often operating in shifts around the clock, and a facility dedicated to and organized to prevent, detect, assess and respond to cybersecurity threats and incidents, and to fulfill and assess regulatory compliance. The term "cybersecurity operation center "is often used synonymously for SOC.
A network operations center (NOC) is not a SOC, which focuses on network device management rather than detecting and responding to cybersecurity incidents. Coordination between the two is common, however.
A managed security service is not the same as having a SOC — although a service provider may offer services from a SOC. A managed service is a shared resource and not solely dedicated to a single organization or entity. Similarly, there is no such thing as a managed SOC.
Most of the technologies, processes and best practices that are used in a SOC are not specific to a SOC. Incident response or vulnerability management remain the same, whether delivered from a SOC or not. It is a meta-topic, involving many security domains and disciplines, and depending on the services and functions that are delivered by the SOC.
Services that often reside in a SOC are:
• Cyber security incident response
• Malware analysis
• Forensic analysis
• Threat intelligence analysis
• Risk analytics and attack path modeling
• Countermeasure implementation
• Vulnerability assessment
• Vulnerability analysis
• Penetration testing
• Remediation prioritization and coordination
• Security intelligence collection and fusion
• Security architecture design
• Security consulting
• Security awareness training
• Security audit data collection and distribution
Alternative names for SOC :
Security defense center (SDC)
Security intelligence center
Cyber security center
Threat defense center
security intelligence and operations center (SIOC)
Infrastructure Protection Centre (IPC)
مرکز عملیات امنیت
Summarize the design and build approach for SOC (Security Operation Center) for both end user company and service providers. Defines the approach flow for SOC building and various components and phases involved. Defines design thumb rules and parameters for SOC Design.
Beyond the Pentest: How C2, Internal Pivoting, and Data Exfiltration Show Tru...Beau Bullock
Your vulnerability scanner reports that there are no issues on your network. A pentester has spent the last week trying to exploit every system your organization owns with no luck. The check box for this year's compliance audit has been checked. While it is good that these things occurred, they do not complete the picture in regards to true risk.
Real attackers do not solely rely on software exploits to compromise an environment. In almost every breach you hear about the root of the compromise came from a phishing attack. This is why additional tests, post-infection, should be performed to assess just how far an attacker can go after gaining a foothold into your environment.
What command and control channels are available for an attacker to utilize to communicate with your internal systems? How easy is it for an attacker to move laterally within your environment and gain access to other systems? What are your detection capabilities when it comes to sensitive data being exfiltrated out of your environment? How do you test these attacker techniques using open-source tools?
This lecture will address these questions and more, including a showcase of attacker methodologies.
How To Handle Cybersecurity Risk PowerPoint Presentation SlidesSlideTeam
Information technology experts can now take advantage of How To Handle Cybersecurity Risk PowerPoint Presentation Slides. This information security PPT theme infuses top-quality design with data obtained by industry experts. Explain the present situation of the target firm’s information security management employing this PowerPoint layout. The data visualizations featured here simplify the elucidation of complex data such as the analysis of the current IT department. Showcase the cybersecurity framework roadmap and risks of the internet using our PPT presentation. Elaborate on the cybersecurity risk management action plan using the tabular format via this PowerPoint slideshow. Demonstrate the cybersecurity contingency plan with appreciable ease. Our information security management system PPT templates deck assists you in assigning risk handling responsibilities to the staff. Explain the duties of the management in successful information security governance. This PowerPoint presentation also addresses the cost of cybersecurity management and staff training. Hit the download icon and start personalization. Our How To Handle Cybersecurity Risk PowerPoint Presentation Slides are explicit and effective. They combine clarity and concise expression. https://bit.ly/3o0xDkR
From SIEM to SOC: Crossing the Cybersecurity ChasmPriyanka Aash
You own a SIEM, but to be secure, you need a Security Operations Center! How do you cross the chasm? Do you hire staff or outsource? And what skills are needed? Mike Ostrowski, a cybersecurity industry veteran, will review common pitfalls experienced through the journey from SIEM to SOC, the pros and cons of an all in-house SOC vs. outsourcing, and the benefits of a hybrid SOC model.
Learning Objectives:
1: You own a SIEM, but to be secure, you need a SOC. How do you cross the chasm?
2: What are the pros and cons of in-house, fully managed and hybrid security?
3: What considerations go into deciding whether to employ a hybrid strategy?
(Source: RSA Conference USA 2018)
CVE-2021-44228 Log4j (and Log4Shell) Executive Explainer by cje@bugcrowdCasey Ellis
This deck goes through what Log4j is from ground-level concepts up, explains how Log4j works, how it is vulnerable, how the Log4shell exploit works, how to mitigate the risk and defend against exploitation, and some current observations through the Bugcrowd platform and predictions about what happens next.
Proactive cyber defence through adversary emulation for improving your securi...idsecconf
Organization using Adversary Emulation plan to develop an attack emulation and/or simulation and execute it against enterprise infrastructure. These activities leverage real-world attacks and TTPs by Threat Actor, so you can identify and finding the gaps in your defense before the real adversary attacking your infrastructure. Adversary Emulation also help security team to get more visibility into their environment. Performing Adversary Emulation continuously to strengthen and improve your defense over the time.
An in-depth look at:
1. Disruptive Technology and its impact on organizations.
2. Need for a Security Operations Center (SOC) for the 21st century businesses
3. Designing and operating an effective SOC - what it takes to run a successful SOC starting from how we should prepare our minds in terms of approach to the actual implementation and operation.
4. Qualities any SOC Analyst should possess
5. Measuring the success of a SOC - We discuss critical factors to consider when determining the success of a SOC.
Insight is one of the best security operation center that influences all the necessary things that reduce the advanced threats and security risk all over your company and protects your network infrastructure across the organization. https://insightmsp.co.in/soc-as-service.php
Threat Hunting Procedures and Measurement MatriceVishal Kumar
This document will provide the basics of Cyber Threat Hunting and answers of some Q such as; What is Threat Hunting?, What is the Importance of Threat Hunting, and How it can be start....Bla..Bla..Bla...
17ª edição da Security BSides São Paulo, uma conferência gratuita sobre segurança da informação e cultura hacker, também conhecida como BSidesSP.
Desta vez, estivemos duplamente representados pelo nosso Head de Produto, Leonardo Pinheiro e pelo nosso Head of Threat and Detection Research, Rodrigo Montoro. Imperdível! ;)
Ambos apresentaram a palestra "Exploit Prediction Scoring System (EPSS) – Aperfeiçoando a priorização de vulnerabilidades de forma efetiva". Confira!
the IBM Security Intelligence Platform, also known as QRadar®, integrates SIEM, log management, anomaly detection, vulnerability management, risk management and incident forensics into a unified, highly scalable, real-time solution that provides superior threat detection, greater ease of use, and low total cost of ownership compared with competitive products
Today’s networks are larger and more complex than ever before, and
protecting them against malicious activity is a never-ending task.
Organizations seeking to safeguard their intellectual property, protect
their customer identities and avoid business disruptions need to do more
than monitor logs and network flow data; they need to leverage advanced
tools to detect these activities in a consumable manner.
Security Strategy and Tactic with Cyber Threat Intelligence (CTI)Priyanka Aash
Targeted attacks need targeted Defense
What protocol should we use for CTI information exchange?
How should we describe our indicators of compromise
Structured threat information expression (STIX)
How we can keep information within our defined trust boundaries?
Where to store IOCs?
Threat Intelligence Feeds Lifecycle
How to measure the CTI process?
In this lightning talk we will explore one approach to getting multi-stakeholder agreement on Enterprise Architecture decisions focused on a defence in depth security model. Corporate enterprise technology environments can be large and complicated. And when it comes to making changes to the internet facing security environment both rigorousness and resistance to change increase. These increased challenges can be overcome with good project / process management, solid end-to-end architecture, and a comprehensive decision making template. In a nutshell, this talk explores the enterprise architecture decision.
Artificial Intelligence Large Language Models (LLM) and Machine Learning (ML) Application Security Threats and Defenses. OWASP Top Tens for LLM and ML along with software development attack preventative best practices.
This is an update to the Cyber Defense Matrix briefing given at the 2019 RSA Conference. Cybersecurity practitioners can use this to organize vendors, find gaps in security portfolios, understand how to organize security measurements, prioritize investments, minimize business impact, visualize attack surfaces, align other existing frameworks, and gain a fuller understanding of the entire space of cybersecurity.
QuizTop of FormNote It is recommended that you save your resp.docxmakdul
Quiz
Top of Form
Note: It is recommended that you save your response as you complete each question.
Question 1 (1 point)
The 4 basic phases of a project life cycle as taught in this course include
Question 1 options:
a)
Concept/define, plan, work, end
b)
Plan, work, evaluate, close
c)
Concept/define, plan, execute/implement, close
d)
Concept/define, re-define, execute/implement, evaluate
Save
Question 2 (1 point)
A project is defined as a specific job with a defined beginning, but NO specific end.
Question 2 options:
a) True
b) False
Save
Question 3 (1 point)
A project sponsor provides
Question 3 options:
a)
Team building training
b)
Funding or budget
c)
Work assignments
d)
Merit reviews
Save
Question 4 (1 point)
Project scope defines what a project will and will not accomplish.
Question 4 options:
a) True
b) False
Save
Question 5 (1 point)
Risk is greatest during the early phases of a project life, but the amount at stake is greatest during the later phases of a project.
Question 5 options:
a) True
b) False
Save
Question 6 (1 point)
Identify the example in the list below that would not usually be considered a project.
Question 6 options:
a)
Hosting a wedding reception.
b)
Manufacturing automobiles.
c)
Developing a computer software application program.
d)
Building a house.
Save
Question 7 (1 point)
An effective project leader typically spends a minimal amount of their time communicating.
Question 7 options:
a) True
b) False
Save
Question 8 (1 point)
The contemporary/interactionist view of conflict is that
Question 8 options:
a)
Conflict is often beneficial
b)
Conflict is bad
c)
Conflict should be avoided
d)
Conflict is caused by trouble makers
Save
Question 9 (1 point)
The output from a project is referred to as
Question 9 options:
a) Focus
b) Deliverables
c) Phases
d) Tasks
Save
Question 10 (1 point)
A behavior that serves to equalize participation by increasing quiet member participation and decreasing overly active member participation is
Question 10 options:
a)
Information Seeking
b)
Gatekeeping
c)
Clarifying
d)
Harmonizing
Save
Question 11 (1 point)
Consensus requires 100% team member agreement.
Question 11 options:
a) True
b) False
Save
Question 12 (1 point)
Each team must define the rules of decision-making and consensus for themselves.
Question 12 options:
a) True
b) False
Save
Question 13 (1 point)
Two truths and a lie is an example of a
Question 13 options:
a)
Trust test
b)
Customer service opportunity
c)
Warm-up activity
d)
Ethics
Save
Question 14 (1 point)
Facilitators protect people, ideas, and the process.
Question 14 options:
a) True
b) False
Save
Question 15 (1 point)
It is important that scribes do not take the power of the pen and rephrase statements based on their own views.
Question 15 options:
a) True
b) False
Save
Question 16 (1 point)
The rules of brainstorming indicate there can be no positive comments as well a ...
Beyond the Pentest: How C2, Internal Pivoting, and Data Exfiltration Show Tru...Beau Bullock
Your vulnerability scanner reports that there are no issues on your network. A pentester has spent the last week trying to exploit every system your organization owns with no luck. The check box for this year's compliance audit has been checked. While it is good that these things occurred, they do not complete the picture in regards to true risk.
Real attackers do not solely rely on software exploits to compromise an environment. In almost every breach you hear about the root of the compromise came from a phishing attack. This is why additional tests, post-infection, should be performed to assess just how far an attacker can go after gaining a foothold into your environment.
What command and control channels are available for an attacker to utilize to communicate with your internal systems? How easy is it for an attacker to move laterally within your environment and gain access to other systems? What are your detection capabilities when it comes to sensitive data being exfiltrated out of your environment? How do you test these attacker techniques using open-source tools?
This lecture will address these questions and more, including a showcase of attacker methodologies.
How To Handle Cybersecurity Risk PowerPoint Presentation SlidesSlideTeam
Information technology experts can now take advantage of How To Handle Cybersecurity Risk PowerPoint Presentation Slides. This information security PPT theme infuses top-quality design with data obtained by industry experts. Explain the present situation of the target firm’s information security management employing this PowerPoint layout. The data visualizations featured here simplify the elucidation of complex data such as the analysis of the current IT department. Showcase the cybersecurity framework roadmap and risks of the internet using our PPT presentation. Elaborate on the cybersecurity risk management action plan using the tabular format via this PowerPoint slideshow. Demonstrate the cybersecurity contingency plan with appreciable ease. Our information security management system PPT templates deck assists you in assigning risk handling responsibilities to the staff. Explain the duties of the management in successful information security governance. This PowerPoint presentation also addresses the cost of cybersecurity management and staff training. Hit the download icon and start personalization. Our How To Handle Cybersecurity Risk PowerPoint Presentation Slides are explicit and effective. They combine clarity and concise expression. https://bit.ly/3o0xDkR
From SIEM to SOC: Crossing the Cybersecurity ChasmPriyanka Aash
You own a SIEM, but to be secure, you need a Security Operations Center! How do you cross the chasm? Do you hire staff or outsource? And what skills are needed? Mike Ostrowski, a cybersecurity industry veteran, will review common pitfalls experienced through the journey from SIEM to SOC, the pros and cons of an all in-house SOC vs. outsourcing, and the benefits of a hybrid SOC model.
Learning Objectives:
1: You own a SIEM, but to be secure, you need a SOC. How do you cross the chasm?
2: What are the pros and cons of in-house, fully managed and hybrid security?
3: What considerations go into deciding whether to employ a hybrid strategy?
(Source: RSA Conference USA 2018)
CVE-2021-44228 Log4j (and Log4Shell) Executive Explainer by cje@bugcrowdCasey Ellis
This deck goes through what Log4j is from ground-level concepts up, explains how Log4j works, how it is vulnerable, how the Log4shell exploit works, how to mitigate the risk and defend against exploitation, and some current observations through the Bugcrowd platform and predictions about what happens next.
Proactive cyber defence through adversary emulation for improving your securi...idsecconf
Organization using Adversary Emulation plan to develop an attack emulation and/or simulation and execute it against enterprise infrastructure. These activities leverage real-world attacks and TTPs by Threat Actor, so you can identify and finding the gaps in your defense before the real adversary attacking your infrastructure. Adversary Emulation also help security team to get more visibility into their environment. Performing Adversary Emulation continuously to strengthen and improve your defense over the time.
An in-depth look at:
1. Disruptive Technology and its impact on organizations.
2. Need for a Security Operations Center (SOC) for the 21st century businesses
3. Designing and operating an effective SOC - what it takes to run a successful SOC starting from how we should prepare our minds in terms of approach to the actual implementation and operation.
4. Qualities any SOC Analyst should possess
5. Measuring the success of a SOC - We discuss critical factors to consider when determining the success of a SOC.
Insight is one of the best security operation center that influences all the necessary things that reduce the advanced threats and security risk all over your company and protects your network infrastructure across the organization. https://insightmsp.co.in/soc-as-service.php
Threat Hunting Procedures and Measurement MatriceVishal Kumar
This document will provide the basics of Cyber Threat Hunting and answers of some Q such as; What is Threat Hunting?, What is the Importance of Threat Hunting, and How it can be start....Bla..Bla..Bla...
17ª edição da Security BSides São Paulo, uma conferência gratuita sobre segurança da informação e cultura hacker, também conhecida como BSidesSP.
Desta vez, estivemos duplamente representados pelo nosso Head de Produto, Leonardo Pinheiro e pelo nosso Head of Threat and Detection Research, Rodrigo Montoro. Imperdível! ;)
Ambos apresentaram a palestra "Exploit Prediction Scoring System (EPSS) – Aperfeiçoando a priorização de vulnerabilidades de forma efetiva". Confira!
the IBM Security Intelligence Platform, also known as QRadar®, integrates SIEM, log management, anomaly detection, vulnerability management, risk management and incident forensics into a unified, highly scalable, real-time solution that provides superior threat detection, greater ease of use, and low total cost of ownership compared with competitive products
Today’s networks are larger and more complex than ever before, and
protecting them against malicious activity is a never-ending task.
Organizations seeking to safeguard their intellectual property, protect
their customer identities and avoid business disruptions need to do more
than monitor logs and network flow data; they need to leverage advanced
tools to detect these activities in a consumable manner.
Security Strategy and Tactic with Cyber Threat Intelligence (CTI)Priyanka Aash
Targeted attacks need targeted Defense
What protocol should we use for CTI information exchange?
How should we describe our indicators of compromise
Structured threat information expression (STIX)
How we can keep information within our defined trust boundaries?
Where to store IOCs?
Threat Intelligence Feeds Lifecycle
How to measure the CTI process?
In this lightning talk we will explore one approach to getting multi-stakeholder agreement on Enterprise Architecture decisions focused on a defence in depth security model. Corporate enterprise technology environments can be large and complicated. And when it comes to making changes to the internet facing security environment both rigorousness and resistance to change increase. These increased challenges can be overcome with good project / process management, solid end-to-end architecture, and a comprehensive decision making template. In a nutshell, this talk explores the enterprise architecture decision.
Artificial Intelligence Large Language Models (LLM) and Machine Learning (ML) Application Security Threats and Defenses. OWASP Top Tens for LLM and ML along with software development attack preventative best practices.
This is an update to the Cyber Defense Matrix briefing given at the 2019 RSA Conference. Cybersecurity practitioners can use this to organize vendors, find gaps in security portfolios, understand how to organize security measurements, prioritize investments, minimize business impact, visualize attack surfaces, align other existing frameworks, and gain a fuller understanding of the entire space of cybersecurity.
QuizTop of FormNote It is recommended that you save your resp.docxmakdul
Quiz
Top of Form
Note: It is recommended that you save your response as you complete each question.
Question 1 (1 point)
The 4 basic phases of a project life cycle as taught in this course include
Question 1 options:
a)
Concept/define, plan, work, end
b)
Plan, work, evaluate, close
c)
Concept/define, plan, execute/implement, close
d)
Concept/define, re-define, execute/implement, evaluate
Save
Question 2 (1 point)
A project is defined as a specific job with a defined beginning, but NO specific end.
Question 2 options:
a) True
b) False
Save
Question 3 (1 point)
A project sponsor provides
Question 3 options:
a)
Team building training
b)
Funding or budget
c)
Work assignments
d)
Merit reviews
Save
Question 4 (1 point)
Project scope defines what a project will and will not accomplish.
Question 4 options:
a) True
b) False
Save
Question 5 (1 point)
Risk is greatest during the early phases of a project life, but the amount at stake is greatest during the later phases of a project.
Question 5 options:
a) True
b) False
Save
Question 6 (1 point)
Identify the example in the list below that would not usually be considered a project.
Question 6 options:
a)
Hosting a wedding reception.
b)
Manufacturing automobiles.
c)
Developing a computer software application program.
d)
Building a house.
Save
Question 7 (1 point)
An effective project leader typically spends a minimal amount of their time communicating.
Question 7 options:
a) True
b) False
Save
Question 8 (1 point)
The contemporary/interactionist view of conflict is that
Question 8 options:
a)
Conflict is often beneficial
b)
Conflict is bad
c)
Conflict should be avoided
d)
Conflict is caused by trouble makers
Save
Question 9 (1 point)
The output from a project is referred to as
Question 9 options:
a) Focus
b) Deliverables
c) Phases
d) Tasks
Save
Question 10 (1 point)
A behavior that serves to equalize participation by increasing quiet member participation and decreasing overly active member participation is
Question 10 options:
a)
Information Seeking
b)
Gatekeeping
c)
Clarifying
d)
Harmonizing
Save
Question 11 (1 point)
Consensus requires 100% team member agreement.
Question 11 options:
a) True
b) False
Save
Question 12 (1 point)
Each team must define the rules of decision-making and consensus for themselves.
Question 12 options:
a) True
b) False
Save
Question 13 (1 point)
Two truths and a lie is an example of a
Question 13 options:
a)
Trust test
b)
Customer service opportunity
c)
Warm-up activity
d)
Ethics
Save
Question 14 (1 point)
Facilitators protect people, ideas, and the process.
Question 14 options:
a) True
b) False
Save
Question 15 (1 point)
It is important that scribes do not take the power of the pen and rephrase statements based on their own views.
Question 15 options:
a) True
b) False
Save
Question 16 (1 point)
The rules of brainstorming indicate there can be no positive comments as well a ...
Model-Driven Optimization: Generating Smart Mutation Operators for Multi-Obj...SEAA 2022
Niels van Harten Radboud University Nijmegen Nijmegen, The Netherlands
CDN (Diego) Damasceno Radboud University Nijmegen Nijmegen, The Netherlands
Daniel Strüber
Chalmers | University of Gothenburg (SE) Radboud University Nijmegen (NL)
Quiz Submissions - Pretest
Subsection
Subsection
Question 1 2 / 2 points
(Unit 1) Project profiling is the process of extracting a characterization from the _______ of a
project.
View Feedback
Question 2 2 / 2 points
(Unit 1) Which project management knowledge area coordinates the work of all the other
knowledge areas?
View Feedback
Question 3 2 / 2 points
Attempt 1
Your quiz has been submitted successfully.
known size
known attributes
unknown resources
unknown attributes
Project integration management
Project procurement management
Project human resources management
Project schedule and time management
javascript://
javascript://
(Unit 1) According to the Project Management Institute, project management ______ describe the
key competencies that project managers must develop.
View Feedback
Question 4 2 / 2 points
(Unit 1) The five process groups of project management, in order, are:
View Feedback
Question 5 2 / 2 points
(Unit 1) In an organization, _______ can be used to improve effectiveness and efficiency
View Feedback
Question 6 2 / 2 points
(Unit 1) Project management has resulted in organizations being able to meet ____ expectations
rather than ____ specifications.
goals
soft skills
knowledge areas
communication skills
initiating, planning, executing, monitoring and controlling, and closing.
initiating, planning, development, monitoring and controlling, and closing.
initiating, planning, development, monitoring and controlling, and operations.
initiating, planning, executing, closing, monitoring and controlling, and closing.
charters
certification
opportunities
project management
javascript://
javascript://
javascript://
View Feedback
Question 7 2 / 2 points
(Unit 1) A project ________ document defines the work required to complete the project
successfully.
View Feedback
Question 8 2 / 2 points
(Unit 1) Project management is the application of everything a project manager does to meet the
following parameters:
View Feedback
Question 9 2 / 2 points
(Unit 1) According to the Project Management Institute (PMI), project management is the
application of knowledge, skills, tools and techniques to meet:
charter, scope
scope, charter
project, client
client, project
schedule
charter
scope
budget
cost, schedule, and scope.
schedule, people and scope.
cost, schedule and quality.
cost, stakeholders and budget.
budget
javascript://
javascript://
javascript://
View Feedback
Question 10 0 / 2 points
(Unit 1) Project profiles can be created based on attributes such as: (Select two.)
View Feedback
Question 11 2 / 2 points
(Unit 1) Organizations that have increased their usage of project management techniques have
benefited from which of the following? (Select two.)
schedule
project requirements
communication management
WBS
Cost
Success
Location
Client satisfaction
Lower costs
Lower quality
Increased costs
Shortened schedules
Increased uncertainty
javascript:/ ...
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Retake Test (toolstest_intro.phptid=6408)Final Score 3.docxronak56
Retake Test (/tools/test_intro.php?tid=6408)
Final Score: 38 / 120 Points
Attempts: 1 out of unlimited 6.01 Practice Exam
1
Your score does not meet the minimum score required for passing this assessment,
which is 70. You should review the questions you answered incorrectly below and
retake this assessment until you pass. Once you pass the assessment, you will be
shown the correct answer for each question, and you will be provided with
feedback for each question, if it is available.
Results by category
The following table lists the topic areas tested by this assessment. When applicable,
questions are tagged to multiple categories.
Analysis and Design 2 of 8 Correct
Communications 1 of 4 Correct
Estimation 1 of 7 Correct
Interpersonal Skills 2 of 5 Correct
Knowledge and Skills 19 of 56 Correct
Level 1 14 of 37 Correct
Level 2 3 of 13 Correct
Level 3 2 of 6 Correct
Metrics 2 of 5 Correct
https://strayer.mindedgeonline.com/tools/test_intro.php?tid=6408
Planning, Monitoring, and Adapting 3 of 8 Correct
Process Improvement 2 of 7 Correct
Product Quality 1 of 5 Correct
Risk Management 3 of 7 Correct
Tools and Techniques 19 of 64 Correct
Valuebased Prioritization 2 of 8 Correct
Question 1
Value stream analysis can be best described as a ________.
a) product quality process
b) project estimating process
c) risk management process
d) continuous improvement process
Question 2
A member of an Agile team has activated an alarm to tell her colleagues that a
problem has been detected. The team then gathers at the site of the problem to
quickly correct them problem and allow work to continue. This problemresolution
activity is known as ________.
a) a premortem
b) fishbone diagram analysis
c) kaizen
d) variance analysis
Question 3
Question 3
Ideal time can be defined as ________.
a) a prediction of work duration that does not compensate for interruptions
that may occur
b) a prediction of work duration that takes into account interruptions that may
occur
c) the amount of time that the team agrees it should take to complete an
average story point given the team's velocity
d) the budgeted amount of time that the team adjusts to reflect updates made
to the story board
Question 4
Diamond Software is conducting an Agile project and wants to use a metric to
determine how many unfinished tasks it has at the end of its iterations. Which metric
would be best to track?
a) cycle time
b) work in progress
c) defect rate
d) velocity
Question 5
When does an Agile project leader not need to hold a final project retrospective to
close out the project?
a) when there has been a retrospective following each iteration
b) when team members have urgent priorities and all project issues have
been previously addressed
c) if senior management prefers to have documented feedback instead
d) None of the above are reasons to skip the project retrospecti ...
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Correctly answered Incorrectly answered Missed correct multiple choice option
A)
B)
C)
D)
Title: Developer Open
Points: 28 out of 30
Percentage: 93.3%
Duration: 00:13:21
Date started: Wed 1st Feb 2017 4:48am
Date finished: Wed 1st Feb 2017 5:02am
Feedback
Congratulations! Your score on the Developer Open assessment demonstrates you know some Scrum developer
basics.
Scrum on,
Ken Schwaber
Question 1 of 30
Which of the following describe an architecture spike?
Correct answer: A)
You chose: A)
A small development activity to learn about technical elements of a proposed solution
The result of an exhaustive architectural planning effort
A decision made by a systems architect to settle disagreement within a Development Team
A fundamental architectural problem found in an existing application
Points: 1 out of 1
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A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Question 2 of 30
What are some shortcomings of code coverage as a measurement for how well a system or product is
tested? (choose 3 answers)
Correct answer: A) B) C)
You chose: C) D) B)
Note: This question displayed answer options in random order when taking this Test.
Code coverage does not ensure that the most important or highest risk areas of the code are
being exercised by tests.
Code coverage does not necessarily provide functional coverage.
Could create incentives to write tests that simply increase code coverage, rather than tests
that find bugs without increasing coverage.
Code coverage metrics vary by development platform (e.g., .NET, Java)
It is too complicated to explain to management.
You did not select all available correct options.
Points: 0 out of 1
Feedback
Code coverage is a useful metric, but not in isolation. It should not be considered a replacement for effective
test design techniques.
Question 3 of 30
What are two (2) ways a Development Team can ensure a good application architecture?
Correct answer: C) E)
You chose: C) E)
Note: This question displayed answer options in random order when taking this Test.
The Development Team plans a Sprint 0 at the beginning of a project with the objective of
developing an architecture model used during the following Sprints.
A Development Team doesn't need an architecture model in Scrum and should focus on
adding functionality. The architecture will come into place without fail as the Development
Team adds functionality.
The Development Team should have a set of guiding architecture principles that every
Development Team member understands and follows when writing code.
The Development Team should assign someone to the role of software architect whose job it
is to make sure a consistent architecture is developed.
The Development Team plans some time each Sprint to discuss the architecture needed for
the features planned in that Sprint.
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A)
B)
C)
D)
A)
B)
Points: 1 out of 1
Feedback
There is no specific "architect" role on a Scrum team, nor is there an architecture planning Sprint. But, a good
architecture doesn't just happen automatically. Guiding principles and frequent conversations on the team help
ensure that the most appropriate architecture is developed as it is needed by features being developed in the
current Sprint.
Question 4 of 30
Which are benefits of Test Driven Development (choose all that apply).
Correct answer: A) B) C) D)
You chose: B) C)
Note: This question displayed answer options in random order when taking this Test.
It promotes good design and separation of concerns.
It improves quality and reduces bugs.
It causes you to construct a test harness that can be automated.
It speeds the overall development process.
You did not select all available correct options.
Points: 0 out of 1
Question 5 of 30
Programmers and testers should not be included in refining Product Backlog items.
Correct answer: B)
You chose: B)
True
False
Points: 1 out of 1
Question 6 of 30
Who should be present during Product Backlog refinement?
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A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
F)
A)
B)
C)
D)
Correct answer: C) D)
You chose: C) D)
Note: This question displayed answer options in random order when taking this Test.
Only the most senior people from the Development Team.
The external business analysts that have prepared the functional details.
The Development Team.
The Product Owner.
The integration architects from the release department.
The stakeholders.
Points: 1 out of 1
Question 7 of 30
While changing software, you find a bug in a previously delivered piece of functionality. What should
you do?
Correct answer: A)
You chose: A)
Note: This question displayed answer options in random order when taking this Test.
Fix the bug if it is critical or easily fixed. Otherwise, put the new bug into the Product Backlog
to be prioritized and fixed in an upcoming Sprint.
Stub out the code that caused the bug so it no longer occurs.
Revise the tests so that the bug no longer appears on the bug report.
Fix the bug.
Points: 1 out of 1
Feedback
Unless your company has specific guidance on fixing bugs, they represent work to be done and should be
ordered on the Product Backlog by the PO.
Two exceptions are if the work to fix the bug is less than the work to actually log it, or if the bug is so critical
that it would be negligent to leave it unfixed.
Question 8 of 30
What is the value of refactoring code?
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A)
B)
C)
D)
A)
B)
C)
D)
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Correct answer: B)
You chose: B)
Note: This question displayed answer options in random order when taking this Test.
To have all code in a single file for easy printing and code reviews.
To improve readability and maintainability.
To keep the code moving.
To make the software faster at runtime.
Points: 1 out of 1
Question 9 of 30
What is test first development?
Correct answer: C)
You chose: C)
Note: This question displayed answer options in random order when taking this Test.
Testing existing code before adding more code to it.
The continuous restructuring of software to retain flexibility.
Designing tests before satisfying them.
Having the tester in the Development Team write the test plans before coding.
Points: 1 out of 1
Question 10 of 30
Which of the following are NOT metrics of code quality? (choose all that apply)
Correct answer: D) E)
You chose: D) E)
Note: This question displayed answer options in random order when taking this Test.
Class coupling
Depth of inheritance
Cyclomatic complexity
Lines of Code
Cycle time per feature
Points: 1 out of 1
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A)
B)
C)
D)
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
F)
Question 11 of 30
Which of the following best describes Continuous Integration?
Correct answer: A)
You chose: A)
Note: This question displayed answer options in random order when taking this Test.
A software development practice where members of a development team integrate and verify
their work frequently, often multiple times each day, to detect integration errors as quickly as
possible.
A software development practice where members of a development team all work on the
same computer to ensure a common code base.
A software development practice that continuously integrates feedback from users into
software design.
A software development practice used by Integration Teams to create best practice branching
and merging strategies.
Points: 1 out of 1
Question 12 of 30
Which are attributes of a good bug report (choose all that apply)?
Correct answer: A) B) C) D) E) F)
You chose: C) A) D) B) F) E)
Note: This question displayed answer options in random order when taking this Test.
Clear title and proper grammar in report.
One bug per report.
Simple and repeatable reproduction steps.
Expected results and observed results.
Build/version where bug was found.
Screenshots or other pictures of bug in action when user interfaces are involved.
Points: 1 out of 1
Question 13 of 30
Which is a benefit of establishing naming standards for code?
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A)
B)
C)
D)
A)
B)
C)
D)
A)
B)
Correct answer: A)
You chose: A)
Note: This question displayed answer options in random order when taking this Test.
To make the code more readable.
To communicate the name of the developer that worked on the code.
To make it easy to distinguish between different software products.
To ensure that "orphan functions" are not created.
Points: 1 out of 1
Question 14 of 30
Which describes the practice of expressing requirements as acceptance tests?
Correct answer: B)
You chose: B)
Note: This question displayed answer options in random order when taking this Test.
Regression Testing
Acceptance Test Driven Development
Quality Oriented Requirements Definition.
Object Driven Requirements Definition.
Points: 1 out of 1
Feedback
Advanced practices of testdriven development can lead to Acceptance Testdriven development (ATDD) where
the criteria specified by the customer are automated into acceptance tests, which then drive the traditional unit
testdriven development (UTDD) process.
Question 15 of 30
Select two (2) benefits of Continuous Integration.
Correct answer: C) D)
You chose: C) D)
Note: This question displayed answer options in random order when taking this Test.
It eliminates bugs completely.
The build is executed once every night and at least once each weekend.
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C)
D)
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Causes team members to consider each other's work and context.
It leads to higher transparency and rapid feedback to the team.
Points: 1 out of 1
Question 16 of 30
Which are three attributes of a bad bug report?
Correct answer: A) D) E)
You chose: E) A) D)
Note: This question displayed answer options in random order when taking this Test.
Generic titles.
One bug per report.
Simple and repeatable reproduction steps.
Vague statements or untested assumptions.
Assigning blame.
Points: 1 out of 1
Question 17 of 30
To refine Product Backlog items, the following activities will occur implicitly or explicitly: (Select all that
apply)
Correct answer: A) D) E)
You chose: A) E) D)
Note: This question displayed answer options in random order when taking this Test.
Analysis
Programming
Testing
Design
Decomposition
Points: 1 out of 1
Question 18 of 30
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A)
B)
C)
D)
A)
B)
A)
B)
C)
D)
You are on a Scrum Team that is enhancing an existing product. Which is the LEAST useful piece of
documentation you want to have at your disposal?
Correct answer: D)
You chose: D)
Note: This question displayed answer options in random order when taking this Test.
Acceptance tests.
Detailed designs.
Wellstructured and named code.
The full history of retrospective plans and lessons learned.
Points: 1 out of 1
Question 19 of 30
Only technical writers can create documentation during a Sprint.
Correct answer: B)
You chose: B)
True
False
Points: 1 out of 1
Question 20 of 30
What is a unit test?
Correct answer: B)
You chose: B)
Note: This question displayed answer options in random order when taking this Test.
A way for the team to ensure that the system satisfies the user requirements.
A test that isolates and verifies individual units of source code.
A way in which units of programmers ensure their code works.
A technique for ensuring that units of codependent or clustered computers perform correctly.
Points: 1 out of 1
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A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Question 21 of 30
Select four (4) desirable characteristics of a unit test.
Correct answer: A) B) C) E)
You chose: E) C) B) A)
Note: This question displayed answer options in random order when taking this Test.
The test executes fast.
Code in each test is as small as possible while maintaining readability of the code.
Each test is independent of other unit tests.
They exercise the persistence layer of a solution.
Each test makes assertions about only one logical concept.
Points: 1 out of 1
Question 22 of 30
The definition of "Done" describes the work that must be completed for every Product Backlog item
before it can be deemed releasable. What should the Development Team do when, during the Sprint,
it finds out that a problem outside of their control blocks them from doing all this work?
Correct answer: A)
You chose: A)
Note: This question displayed answer options in random order when taking this Test.
Immediately raise the issue to the Scrum Master as an impediment.
Complete the work that can be done on as much scope as possible and use the Sprint Review
to plan the rest with the stakeholders.
Complete the work that can be done on as much scope as possible and complete the rest
during the "hardening" sprints at the end of the release.
Cancel the Sprint.
Stop using Scrum.
Points: 1 out of 1
Question 23 of 30
Product Backlog items are refined by:
Correct answer: C)
You chose: C)
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A)
B)
C)
D)
A)
B)
C)
D)
A)
B)
Note: This question displayed answer options in random order when taking this Test.
The Development Team
The Business analyst and the Product Owner
The Development Team and the Product Owner
The Product Owner solely
Points: 1 out of 1
Question 24 of 30
Why are automated builds important?
Correct answer: B)
You chose: B)
Note: This question displayed answer options in random order when taking this Test.
They are part of your "done" criteria.
They provide rapid assurance that defects and configuration management issues have not
been introduced.
Without them you can't tell if your code works.
You are unable to checkin code without one.
Points: 1 out of 1
Feedback
Builds are just an extra level of validation to make sure that you still have a unit of potentially shippable
software. Automating builds makes that process faster.
Question 25 of 30
What is pair programming?
Correct answer: B)
You chose: B)
Note: This question displayed answer options in random order when taking this Test.
The Scrum Team is divided into several twoperson Development Teams that consolidate
work in a Scrum of Scrums.
Two developers writing code together, providing constant peer review.
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C)
D)
E)
A)
B)
C)
D)
A)
B)
C)
D)
A developer and a tester work together to write and test code.
Managers doing performance reviews by comparing one programmer's code to another's.
Two programmers write code separately. A third programmer integrates the work.
Points: 1 out of 1
Question 26 of 30
When are testers and quality experts ideally included in a project?
Correct answer: A)
You chose: A)
From the beginning and throughout all Sprints
After Sprint Review
When the product is feature complete
After developer handoff
Points: 1 out of 1
Question 27 of 30
Who is responsible for the system architecture of a product being developed using Scrum?
Correct answer: C)
You chose: C)
Note: This question displayed answer options in random order when taking this Test.
The corporate architect.
The software architect.
The Development Team.
The architect chosen by the Development Team.
Points: 1 out of 1
Question 28 of 30
What does a test written with Test Driven Development represent?
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A)
B)
C)
D)
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
A)
B)
Correct answer: B)
You chose: B)
Note: This question displayed answer options in random order when taking this Test.
A bug that will be uncovered.
A technical requirement that must be satisfied.
Something that completes the test coverage of a system.
An assignment from the lead quality engineer.
Points: 1 out of 1
Feedback
Since the test exists before the code that makes it pass, the test acts a requirement of the system under test.
Question 29 of 30
Select three reasons why automated builds are important.
Correct answer: A) B) C)
You chose: C) A) B)
Note: This question displayed answer options in random order when taking this Test.
They allow frequent validation of the unit of software being worked on, ensuring it remains in a
potentially shippable state.
They support continuous integration.
The build process is clearly defined and scripted, making it easy consistent and repeatable.
They eliminate the need for Build Engineers.
They ensure your product remains bug free.
Points: 1 out of 1
Question 30 of 30
What are three advantages of Continuous Integration?
Correct answer: A) C) D)
You chose: D) A) C)
Note: This question displayed answer options in random order when taking this Test.
Broken builds are detected quickly.
Readability of code is improved.