Dear Students/Parents
APEX INSTITUTE has been established with sincere and positive resolve to do something rewarding for ENGG. / PRE-MEDICAL aspirants. For this the APEX INSTITUTE has been instituted to provide a relentlessly motivating and competitive atmosphere.
We at 'Apex Institute' are committed to provide our students best quality education with ethics. Moving in this direction, we have decided that unlike other expensive and 5star facility type institutes who are huge investors and advertisers, we shall not invest huge amount of money in advertisements. It shall rather be invested on the betterment, enhancement of quality and resources at our center.
We are just looking forward to have 'word-of-mouth' publicity instead. Because, there is only a satisfied student and his/her parents can judge an institute's quality and it's faculty members coaching.
Those coaching institutes, who are investing highly on advertisements, are actually, wasting their money on it, in a sense. Rather, the money should be invested on highly experienced faculty members and on teaching gears.
We all at 'Apex' are taking this initiative to improve the quality of education along-with each student's development and growth.
Committed to excellence...
With best wishes.
S . Iqbal
( Motivator & Mentor)
This document contains a 47 question multiple choice test for recruitment at the Indian Space Research Organisation. The test covers topics in mechanical engineering, mathematics, thermodynamics and other STEM fields. Each question is followed by 4 possible answer choices. The test is assessing knowledge of concepts related to statics, heat transfer, materials properties, fluid mechanics, gears, thermodynamics and more.
(1) The document discusses physics concepts related to magnetic fields, sound waves, orbital motion, heat transfer, electrostatics, and nuclear reactions.
(2) Multiple choice questions with one or more correct answers assess concepts like magnetic fields from current-carrying conductors and solenoids, Doppler effect of sound waves, orbital angular momentum and wavelength transitions in hydrogen-like atoms, heat absorption rates as a function of temperature, and electrostatic fields between overlapping charged spheres.
(3) Paragraph questions provide contexts for circular motion down an inclined plane with friction, step-up and step-down power transmission using transformers, and nuclear binding energy and the conditions for nuclear fusion and fission reactions.
1. The document contains two model question papers for an Engineering Chemistry exam with questions covering various topics in five modules: batteries and fuels, corrosion and electrochemistry, fuels and solar energy, environmental pollution and instrumentation.
2. The questions include definitions, explanations of concepts, derivations of equations, numerical problems, and diagrams requiring calculation of forces, reactions, stresses and other parameters.
3. The questions assess students' understanding of fundamental chemical and engineering concepts as well as their ability to apply these concepts to solve practical problems.
This model question paper contains questions from 5 modules on Calculus and Linear Algebra. The questions are of varying marks ranging from 4 to 8 marks each. They test a variety of concepts like derivatives, integrals, limits, Taylor series, maxima and minima of functions, matrices and determinants. Students are required to answer any 5 full questions with at least 1 question from each module. The questions can be solved using concepts of differentiation, integration, Taylor's series, maxima and minima, matrices and determinants.
This model question paper is for the first semester Basic Electronics course. It contains 10 questions divided across 5 modules. Students must answer 5 full questions, selecting one from each module. Questions can include definitions, derivations, circuit explanations, and calculations. The paper tests knowledge of diodes, transistors, operational amplifiers, feedback amplifiers, oscillators, digital circuits, and communication systems. Calculators and steam tables are permitted. Students must show working diagonally crossed out on blank pages.
Ies 2013 civil engineering objective paper i solved question paperThomas Britto
1) The document provides instructions for a civil engineering exam with two parts containing 120 multiple choice questions.
2) Test takers must fill in personal details on the answer sheet according to the instructions and hand only the answer sheet to the invigilator after completing the exam.
3) There will be a penalty of 1/3 marks deducted for each wrong answer selected, and selecting more than one answer for a question will be considered wrong. No penalty for leaving a question blank.
Theory of Machine and Material science questions ESE 2020deepa sahu
in this Presentation i have discussed about previous year engineering services exam 2020 questions.
theory of machine and material science related 20 questions.
definitely i am quite sure it will help you in your competitive exams preparation.
This document contains questions for an examination on various topics related to air pollution and control, highway geometric design, pre-stressed concrete structures, and other civil engineering subjects. It includes multiple choice and long-form questions requiring calculations and explanations. Some key topics covered include methods for air pollution control, factors influencing highway design, prestressing systems, load balancing in pre-stressed concrete, shear and flexural failures, and end block design of post-tensioned beams. The document is formatted as a test for a 7th semester civil engineering degree examination.
This document contains a 47 question multiple choice test for recruitment at the Indian Space Research Organisation. The test covers topics in mechanical engineering, mathematics, thermodynamics and other STEM fields. Each question is followed by 4 possible answer choices. The test is assessing knowledge of concepts related to statics, heat transfer, materials properties, fluid mechanics, gears, thermodynamics and more.
(1) The document discusses physics concepts related to magnetic fields, sound waves, orbital motion, heat transfer, electrostatics, and nuclear reactions.
(2) Multiple choice questions with one or more correct answers assess concepts like magnetic fields from current-carrying conductors and solenoids, Doppler effect of sound waves, orbital angular momentum and wavelength transitions in hydrogen-like atoms, heat absorption rates as a function of temperature, and electrostatic fields between overlapping charged spheres.
(3) Paragraph questions provide contexts for circular motion down an inclined plane with friction, step-up and step-down power transmission using transformers, and nuclear binding energy and the conditions for nuclear fusion and fission reactions.
1. The document contains two model question papers for an Engineering Chemistry exam with questions covering various topics in five modules: batteries and fuels, corrosion and electrochemistry, fuels and solar energy, environmental pollution and instrumentation.
2. The questions include definitions, explanations of concepts, derivations of equations, numerical problems, and diagrams requiring calculation of forces, reactions, stresses and other parameters.
3. The questions assess students' understanding of fundamental chemical and engineering concepts as well as their ability to apply these concepts to solve practical problems.
This model question paper contains questions from 5 modules on Calculus and Linear Algebra. The questions are of varying marks ranging from 4 to 8 marks each. They test a variety of concepts like derivatives, integrals, limits, Taylor series, maxima and minima of functions, matrices and determinants. Students are required to answer any 5 full questions with at least 1 question from each module. The questions can be solved using concepts of differentiation, integration, Taylor's series, maxima and minima, matrices and determinants.
This model question paper is for the first semester Basic Electronics course. It contains 10 questions divided across 5 modules. Students must answer 5 full questions, selecting one from each module. Questions can include definitions, derivations, circuit explanations, and calculations. The paper tests knowledge of diodes, transistors, operational amplifiers, feedback amplifiers, oscillators, digital circuits, and communication systems. Calculators and steam tables are permitted. Students must show working diagonally crossed out on blank pages.
Ies 2013 civil engineering objective paper i solved question paperThomas Britto
1) The document provides instructions for a civil engineering exam with two parts containing 120 multiple choice questions.
2) Test takers must fill in personal details on the answer sheet according to the instructions and hand only the answer sheet to the invigilator after completing the exam.
3) There will be a penalty of 1/3 marks deducted for each wrong answer selected, and selecting more than one answer for a question will be considered wrong. No penalty for leaving a question blank.
Theory of Machine and Material science questions ESE 2020deepa sahu
in this Presentation i have discussed about previous year engineering services exam 2020 questions.
theory of machine and material science related 20 questions.
definitely i am quite sure it will help you in your competitive exams preparation.
This document contains questions for an examination on various topics related to air pollution and control, highway geometric design, pre-stressed concrete structures, and other civil engineering subjects. It includes multiple choice and long-form questions requiring calculations and explanations. Some key topics covered include methods for air pollution control, factors influencing highway design, prestressing systems, load balancing in pre-stressed concrete, shear and flexural failures, and end block design of post-tensioned beams. The document is formatted as a test for a 7th semester civil engineering degree examination.
This document contains 50 multiple choice questions about physics concepts like force, motion, energy, electricity, optics and more. The questions test fundamental understandings like:
- Definitions of physical quantities like pressure, stress and Young's modulus
- Relationships between distance, time, speed and displacement from graphs
- Principles that balances, circuits, transformers and dynamos operate on
- Behavior of light, sound waves and electromagnetic fields
- Characteristics of states of matter, heat transfer and phase changes
It was presented at the Dept. Of Atmospheric Sciences for the award of M.Tech degree. It is all about the research in high resolution ARW model for tropical cyclones simulations.
Aiims previous year sample paper set 2Prabha Gupta
Find here previous year AIIMS question papers and solved sample question bank with answer keys at Aglasem. Visit @ https://admission.aglasem.com/aiims-mbbs-2019/
This document contains information related to a design examination for pre-stressed concrete structures. It includes 20 questions across two parts (A and B). Part A focuses on concepts like pre-stressing systems, tendon profiles, creep and shrinkage of concrete. Part B involves calculations related to design of pre-stressed beams including determining thrust line profiles, stresses in tendons and concrete. The questions cover a range of pre-stressing and design concepts tested through calculations.
This document presents a comparative study of the dynamic optical filtering and temperature sensing capabilities of one-dimensional binary and ternary photonic crystals (PHCs). The study finds that:
1) The binary PHC shows four optical bandgaps compared to seven bandgaps in the ternary PHC.
2) For temperatures between 100-700K, both PHCs show improved temperature sensing effectiveness as temperature increases, except for the first bandgap of the binary and the first two bandgaps of the ternary.
3) The binary PHC performs better as a temperature sensor between 840-1100nm, but the ternary PHC outperforms at longer wavelengths.
4)
In this tutorial, I will give an overview of hybrid quantum systems and their applications in quantum technologies. I will start by reviewing their individual components, focusing primarily on the theory of superconducting circuits, cavity optomechanics, and electromechanics. Afterwards, I will discuss a few applications of hybrid systems composed of these components. In particular, I will explain how opto-electro-mechanical systems can be used to achieve frequency conversion between microwaves and light and how electromechanical systems can be used to couple mechanical motion to superconducting quantum bits.
This document appears to be an exam for an engineering physics course, outlining questions that will be on the test. It is divided into two parts: Part A contains 10 multiple choice questions worth 4 marks each, and Part B contains 4 long-form questions worth 10 marks each that students can choose between. The questions cover topics like dimensional analysis, vectors, projectile motion, harmonic motion, gases, sound, electricity and more. The document provides the framework and content areas that will be assessed on the upcoming exam.
This document contains questions from a 7th semester civil engineering examination on environmental engineering and design of sewer systems. It asks students to calculate runoff coefficients and stormwater quantities based on land use data. It also asks questions on sewer design principles like hydraulic formulas, velocity calculations, sewer appurtenances, and house drainage design. Additional questions cover wastewater characterization through BOD tests and conventional wastewater treatment plant processes and units.
The document contains guidelines for marking a Physics SPM paper. It includes the marking scheme with various assessment criteria and allocated marks for Section A questions. The criteria cover topics like stating variables, recording values from diagrams, tabulating results, drawing graphs, and stating relationships. Examples of expected answers are also provided for Section B, C and D questions involving concepts like npn transistors, force and acceleration experiments, and induced current experiments.
Four experiments were conducted using a paint can hanging from a spring. In the first experiment, the paint can oscillated purely vertically, and PCA isolated this behavior in a single principal component, capturing 95% of the variance. When noise was added by shaking the cameras in the second experiment, PCA was still able to isolate the oscillatory behavior but with less accuracy. In experiments three and four where the paint can moved in both vertical and horizontal directions, PCA extracted the multidimensional behavior with the expected rank and reasonable accuracy.
Novel approaches to optomechanical transductionOndrej Cernotik
Optomechanical systems offer a promising route towards frequency conversion between microwaves and light. Current theoretical and experimental efforts focus on approaches based on either optomechanically induced transparency (suffering from limited conversion bandwidth) or adiabatic passage (requiring time-dependent control). In my talk, I will present two alternative strategies for optomechanical transduction that avoid these limitations. In the first one, entanglement between two superconducting qubits is generated by using transducers as force sensors; jointly measuring the force with which the qubits act on the transducers leads to conditional generation of entanglement between the qubits. The other device uses spatially adiabatic frequency conversion in an array of optomechanical transducers, allowing for large conversion bandwidth with time-independent control.
The document appears to be an exam question paper for a design of prestressed concrete structures course. It contains 8 questions split into two parts (A and B). Part A questions focus on fundamentals of prestressed concrete like distinguishing between RCC and PSC, different prestressing systems, losses in prestress, and stress distributions. Part B questions involve design aspects like flexural strength calculation, shear design, anchorage zones, and limiting zones for cables. The questions require calculations as well as explanations of prestressing concepts. Diagrams and sketches are referenced in some questions. Design codes and assumptions about missing data are also mentioned.
Calibrating a CFD canopy model with the EC1 vertical profiles of mean wind sp...Stephane Meteodyn
For some projects, applying the basic rules of EC1 is not sufficient, and it is required to get a more accurate estimation of the wind speed on the construction site. This can be done by using computational fluid dynamics codes which have the advantage, both to take into account of the terrain inhomogeneity and to calculate 3D orographic effects. In this way, the orography and roughness effects are coupled as they are in the real world. However, applying CFD computations must be in coherence with EC1 code. Then it is necessary to calibrate the ground friction for low roughness terrains as well as the drag force and turbulence production in case of high roughness lengths due to the presence of a canopy (forests or built areas). That is the condition for such methods to be commonly used and agreed by Building Control Officers. In this mind, TopoWind has been developed especially for wind design applications and can be a very useful, practical and objective tool for wind design engineers. The canopy model implemented in TopoWind has been calibrated in order to get the mean wind and turbulence profiles as defined in the EC1 for standard terrains. In this way, TopoWind computations satisfy the continuity between the EC1 values for homogeneous terrains and the more complex cases involving inhomogeneous roughness or orographic effects
This presentation is related to previous year questions of Renewable source of Energy and Mechatronics of Mechanical engineering ESE2020 Examination.
I hope this will be beneficial for competitive exams aspirants.
Research paper on indoor drone application with acoustic localization. Paper was accepted to the ISEEE 2019 conference (International Symposium on Electrical and Electronics Engineering).
Structural Analysis of a Bungalow Reportdouglasloon
Taylor's University Lakeside Campus
School of Architecture, Building & Design
Bachelor of Science (Hons) in Architecture
Building Structures (ARC 2523 / BLD 60103)
Project 2: Structural Analysis of a Bungalow
The document provides information about the B. Pharmacy Entrance Test being conducted by Jaypee University of Information Technology in April 2013. It details the programs being offered, fees, eligibility criteria, exam format, syllabus, test centers and important dates. The university offers 4-year B.Pharmacy, M.Pharmacy and PhD programs. The entrance exam will have 75 multiple choice questions testing Mathematics/Biology, Physics and Chemistry. The exam will be held on April 14th at various centers and the results will be declared on May 1st. Admission will be based on the entrance exam score and minimum eligibility criteria.
Este resumen contiene 3 oraciones:
El documento presenta 10 ejercicios y problemas relacionados con el campo eléctrico. Los ejercicios incluyen cálculos de carga eléctrica, constante dieléctrica, intensidad de campo eléctrico y fuerza eléctrica. Los problemas tratan temas como trayectorias de partículas cargadas en campos eléctricos uniformes y cálculo de potencial eléctrico y flujo eléctrico.
Este documento presenta el concepto de campo eléctrico producido por cargas estáticas. Introduce la noción de campo como una función que asocia una magnitud física a cada punto en el espacio. Explica que el campo eléctrico es una magnitud vectorial definida como la fuerza eléctrica sobre una carga de prueba dividida por su magnitud, y que su unidad es el newton por coulomb. También describe cómo calcular la intensidad del campo eléctrico producido por una carga puntual en cualquier punto del espacio usando la ley
This document contains 50 multiple choice questions about physics concepts like force, motion, energy, electricity, optics and more. The questions test fundamental understandings like:
- Definitions of physical quantities like pressure, stress and Young's modulus
- Relationships between distance, time, speed and displacement from graphs
- Principles that balances, circuits, transformers and dynamos operate on
- Behavior of light, sound waves and electromagnetic fields
- Characteristics of states of matter, heat transfer and phase changes
It was presented at the Dept. Of Atmospheric Sciences for the award of M.Tech degree. It is all about the research in high resolution ARW model for tropical cyclones simulations.
Aiims previous year sample paper set 2Prabha Gupta
Find here previous year AIIMS question papers and solved sample question bank with answer keys at Aglasem. Visit @ https://admission.aglasem.com/aiims-mbbs-2019/
This document contains information related to a design examination for pre-stressed concrete structures. It includes 20 questions across two parts (A and B). Part A focuses on concepts like pre-stressing systems, tendon profiles, creep and shrinkage of concrete. Part B involves calculations related to design of pre-stressed beams including determining thrust line profiles, stresses in tendons and concrete. The questions cover a range of pre-stressing and design concepts tested through calculations.
This document presents a comparative study of the dynamic optical filtering and temperature sensing capabilities of one-dimensional binary and ternary photonic crystals (PHCs). The study finds that:
1) The binary PHC shows four optical bandgaps compared to seven bandgaps in the ternary PHC.
2) For temperatures between 100-700K, both PHCs show improved temperature sensing effectiveness as temperature increases, except for the first bandgap of the binary and the first two bandgaps of the ternary.
3) The binary PHC performs better as a temperature sensor between 840-1100nm, but the ternary PHC outperforms at longer wavelengths.
4)
In this tutorial, I will give an overview of hybrid quantum systems and their applications in quantum technologies. I will start by reviewing their individual components, focusing primarily on the theory of superconducting circuits, cavity optomechanics, and electromechanics. Afterwards, I will discuss a few applications of hybrid systems composed of these components. In particular, I will explain how opto-electro-mechanical systems can be used to achieve frequency conversion between microwaves and light and how electromechanical systems can be used to couple mechanical motion to superconducting quantum bits.
This document appears to be an exam for an engineering physics course, outlining questions that will be on the test. It is divided into two parts: Part A contains 10 multiple choice questions worth 4 marks each, and Part B contains 4 long-form questions worth 10 marks each that students can choose between. The questions cover topics like dimensional analysis, vectors, projectile motion, harmonic motion, gases, sound, electricity and more. The document provides the framework and content areas that will be assessed on the upcoming exam.
This document contains questions from a 7th semester civil engineering examination on environmental engineering and design of sewer systems. It asks students to calculate runoff coefficients and stormwater quantities based on land use data. It also asks questions on sewer design principles like hydraulic formulas, velocity calculations, sewer appurtenances, and house drainage design. Additional questions cover wastewater characterization through BOD tests and conventional wastewater treatment plant processes and units.
The document contains guidelines for marking a Physics SPM paper. It includes the marking scheme with various assessment criteria and allocated marks for Section A questions. The criteria cover topics like stating variables, recording values from diagrams, tabulating results, drawing graphs, and stating relationships. Examples of expected answers are also provided for Section B, C and D questions involving concepts like npn transistors, force and acceleration experiments, and induced current experiments.
Four experiments were conducted using a paint can hanging from a spring. In the first experiment, the paint can oscillated purely vertically, and PCA isolated this behavior in a single principal component, capturing 95% of the variance. When noise was added by shaking the cameras in the second experiment, PCA was still able to isolate the oscillatory behavior but with less accuracy. In experiments three and four where the paint can moved in both vertical and horizontal directions, PCA extracted the multidimensional behavior with the expected rank and reasonable accuracy.
Novel approaches to optomechanical transductionOndrej Cernotik
Optomechanical systems offer a promising route towards frequency conversion between microwaves and light. Current theoretical and experimental efforts focus on approaches based on either optomechanically induced transparency (suffering from limited conversion bandwidth) or adiabatic passage (requiring time-dependent control). In my talk, I will present two alternative strategies for optomechanical transduction that avoid these limitations. In the first one, entanglement between two superconducting qubits is generated by using transducers as force sensors; jointly measuring the force with which the qubits act on the transducers leads to conditional generation of entanglement between the qubits. The other device uses spatially adiabatic frequency conversion in an array of optomechanical transducers, allowing for large conversion bandwidth with time-independent control.
The document appears to be an exam question paper for a design of prestressed concrete structures course. It contains 8 questions split into two parts (A and B). Part A questions focus on fundamentals of prestressed concrete like distinguishing between RCC and PSC, different prestressing systems, losses in prestress, and stress distributions. Part B questions involve design aspects like flexural strength calculation, shear design, anchorage zones, and limiting zones for cables. The questions require calculations as well as explanations of prestressing concepts. Diagrams and sketches are referenced in some questions. Design codes and assumptions about missing data are also mentioned.
Calibrating a CFD canopy model with the EC1 vertical profiles of mean wind sp...Stephane Meteodyn
For some projects, applying the basic rules of EC1 is not sufficient, and it is required to get a more accurate estimation of the wind speed on the construction site. This can be done by using computational fluid dynamics codes which have the advantage, both to take into account of the terrain inhomogeneity and to calculate 3D orographic effects. In this way, the orography and roughness effects are coupled as they are in the real world. However, applying CFD computations must be in coherence with EC1 code. Then it is necessary to calibrate the ground friction for low roughness terrains as well as the drag force and turbulence production in case of high roughness lengths due to the presence of a canopy (forests or built areas). That is the condition for such methods to be commonly used and agreed by Building Control Officers. In this mind, TopoWind has been developed especially for wind design applications and can be a very useful, practical and objective tool for wind design engineers. The canopy model implemented in TopoWind has been calibrated in order to get the mean wind and turbulence profiles as defined in the EC1 for standard terrains. In this way, TopoWind computations satisfy the continuity between the EC1 values for homogeneous terrains and the more complex cases involving inhomogeneous roughness or orographic effects
This presentation is related to previous year questions of Renewable source of Energy and Mechatronics of Mechanical engineering ESE2020 Examination.
I hope this will be beneficial for competitive exams aspirants.
Research paper on indoor drone application with acoustic localization. Paper was accepted to the ISEEE 2019 conference (International Symposium on Electrical and Electronics Engineering).
Structural Analysis of a Bungalow Reportdouglasloon
Taylor's University Lakeside Campus
School of Architecture, Building & Design
Bachelor of Science (Hons) in Architecture
Building Structures (ARC 2523 / BLD 60103)
Project 2: Structural Analysis of a Bungalow
The document provides information about the B. Pharmacy Entrance Test being conducted by Jaypee University of Information Technology in April 2013. It details the programs being offered, fees, eligibility criteria, exam format, syllabus, test centers and important dates. The university offers 4-year B.Pharmacy, M.Pharmacy and PhD programs. The entrance exam will have 75 multiple choice questions testing Mathematics/Biology, Physics and Chemistry. The exam will be held on April 14th at various centers and the results will be declared on May 1st. Admission will be based on the entrance exam score and minimum eligibility criteria.
Este resumen contiene 3 oraciones:
El documento presenta 10 ejercicios y problemas relacionados con el campo eléctrico. Los ejercicios incluyen cálculos de carga eléctrica, constante dieléctrica, intensidad de campo eléctrico y fuerza eléctrica. Los problemas tratan temas como trayectorias de partículas cargadas en campos eléctricos uniformes y cálculo de potencial eléctrico y flujo eléctrico.
Este documento presenta el concepto de campo eléctrico producido por cargas estáticas. Introduce la noción de campo como una función que asocia una magnitud física a cada punto en el espacio. Explica que el campo eléctrico es una magnitud vectorial definida como la fuerza eléctrica sobre una carga de prueba dividida por su magnitud, y que su unidad es el newton por coulomb. También describe cómo calcular la intensidad del campo eléctrico producido por una carga puntual en cualquier punto del espacio usando la ley
Este documento habla sobre la importancia de resumir textos de forma concisa para captar la idea principal. Explica que un buen resumen debe identificar la idea central y los detalles más relevantes del documento original en una o dos oraciones como máximo.
Neet full syllabus test paper physics chemistry biologypravallikadodda
This document describes a 35 question physics exam with the following details:
- Section 1 is mandatory and contains 35 questions worth 4 marks each for correct answers and a 1 mark deduction for incorrect answers.
- Section 2 also contains physics questions, with 10 of 15 questions being mandatory with the same scoring scheme as Section 1.
- The questions cover various topics in physics including mechanics, waves, optics, thermodynamics and electromagnetism. Sample questions on momentum, simple harmonic motion, wave interference and gas laws are provided.
- Students must select the correct answer from the multiple choice options provided for each question.
(1) Section I of the exam paper tests candidates on their knowledge of core physics concepts through multiple choice and extended response questions. It is out of 75 marks and split into two parts. (2) Part A consists of 20 multiple choice questions to be completed in around 35 minutes. Part B contains longer answer questions worth 55 marks to be completed in around 100 minutes. (3) The paper tests topics across the HSC physics course including mechanics, electromagnetism, modern physics and astrophysics through theoretical and practical application questions requiring calculations and diagrams.
This document contains physics examination papers from 2008-2012 administered by the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) in Delhi, India. It lists the contents which include CBSE examination papers from Delhi and All India in those years, as well as foreign papers. A sample paper from the 2008 Delhi exam is then provided, consisting of 30 multiple choice questions testing concepts in physics.
The document provides information about a physics exam, including sample multiple choice questions and their explanations. Some key details:
- The exam contains two sections - one with single answer multiple choice questions, and one with multiple answer multiple choice questions.
- Sample questions cover topics like optics, mechanics, electromagnetism, and thermodynamics. The explanations show the conceptual steps and mathematical calculations used to arrive at the correct answers.
- Questions involve concepts like reflection, interference, momentum, work, harmonic motion, magnetic fields, electrostatics, and more. Diagrams are provided to illustrate some questions.
The document provides information about a crash course for IIT-JEE, BITS, UPTU and AIPMT exams, including details about the course structure, faculty, study material, practice problems, and test series. It mentions that the course provides over 240 hours of training by experienced faculty, concise chapter-wise theory, 3000 practice problems, expert time management tips, and 10 full-length tests on the IIT-Main exam pattern. It also provides information about course features, registration fees and dates.
This document appears to be a sample test for the MCAT exam containing 220 multiple choice questions testing physics and chemistry knowledge. The physics section includes questions about electric fields, forces, fluids, waves, optics, mechanics, and magnetism. The chemistry section includes questions about polymers, gases, atomic structure, bonding, thermodynamics, and organic chemistry. The document provides context for understanding the content and scope of the MCAT exam for students in a medical program entrance test.
The document contains a 40 question physics exam with multiple choice answers for each question. The questions cover topics including projectile motion, waves, optics, electricity and magnetism, thermodynamics, and modern physics. The exam tests conceptual understanding of fundamental physics principles as well as the ability to set up and solve quantitative problems.
Electrical Engineering Objective Type Questions.pdfgulie
This document contains a list of objective type questions for the Electrical Engineering department at Government College of Engineering in Bargur, prepared by assistant professor V. Arivumani. It includes 875 total questions organized under various topics related to electrical engineering, such as DC generators, DC motors, transformers, induction motors, synchronous motors, transmission and distribution, and cables. The questions cover concepts like generator construction, winding types, armature reaction, commutation, and parallel operation of generators. Sample questions and answers are provided for the topic of DC generators.
Electrical engineering objective type questionsDebasis Paul
This document contains a list of objective type questions prepared by Mr. V. Arivumani for the Electrical Engineering department at Government College of Engineering, Bargur. It includes 875 questions organized under various topics related to electrical machines like DC generators, DC motors, transformers, induction motors, synchronous motors, transmission and distribution, and cables. The questions cover concepts related to these topics and are multiple choice questions with one correct answer option. An example question is provided to illustrate the question format.
This document contains a sample MCAT exam with 220 multiple choice questions covering physics, chemistry and biology. Some example questions are provided on topics like logic diagrams, stress-strain graphs, gas laws, radioactivity, optics and chemical reactions. The exam is designed for students completing their F.Sc. or non-F.Sc. degrees, with a maximum time of 150 minutes and total marks of 1100.
This document contains instructions and questions for a Physics preparatory exam being administered in Karnataka, India. It is divided into 6 parts (A-F) covering multiple choice, short answer, and long answer questions. The exam is 3 hours and 15 minutes long and has a maximum score of 70 marks. Instructions specify that all parts are compulsory, Part A questions must be answered in the first two pages, and diagrams are required for full marks on some answers. Questions cover topics in Physics including electromagnetism, optics, nuclear physics, and semiconductors.
1) The document is about a full length MCAT paper with 220 multiple choice questions covering physics and chemistry.
2) Sample physics questions include momentum, dimensions, torque, terminal velocity, strain, and waves/oscillations.
3) Sample chemistry questions cover topics like gases, thermodynamics, equilibrium, kinetics, periodic trends, and organic/inorganic reactions.
1. The fundamental forces of nature are arranged in increasing strength as: gravitational force < weak nuclear forces < electromagnetic forces < strong nuclear forces.
2. The coefficient of friction does not change with weight of the body, as it depends on the nature of the surfaces, not the weight.
3. The gravitational field inside a solid sphere varies directly as the distance (x) from the centre if x < R, and inversely as x if x > R, where R is the radius of the sphere.
This document provides a sample question paper for Class XII Physics with instructions and questions. It contains 5 sections (A-E) with a total of 26 multiple choice and numerical questions worth 70 marks. Section A has 5 one-mark questions, Section B has 5 two-mark questions, Section C has 12 three-mark questions, Section D has 1 four-mark question and Section E has 3 five-mark questions. The document also provides important physical constants and formulas required to solve the questions.
This document provides a sample question paper for Class XII Physics with instructions and questions. It contains 5 sections (A-E) with a total of 26 questions of varying marks. Section A contains 5 one-mark questions, Section B contains 5 two-mark questions, Section C contains 12 three-mark questions, Section D contains 1 four-mark question and Section E contains 3 five-mark questions. The document also provides physical constants and formulas that may be required to solve the questions.
This document provides the instructions and structure for a CBSE sample question paper for Class XII Physics. It is divided into 5 sections (A-E). Section A contains 18 multiple choice questions worth 1 mark each. Section B contains 7 questions worth 2 marks each. Section C contains 5 questions worth 3 marks each. Section D contains 3 long questions worth 5 marks each. Section E contains 2 case study based questions worth 4 marks each. There is a total of 35 questions worth 70 marks. Calculators are not allowed. The document provides detailed instructions on the format and expectations for the paper.
1. This section contains 9 multiple choice questions about physics concepts. The questions cover topics like gravitational force, wind force on an advertising board, capacitance of coaxial cylinders, and photon collisions with hydrogen atoms.
2. The second part contains 2 questions with multiple correct options about torque on a gate submerged in water and collision properties between two spheres.
3. The last part presents assertion-reason questions relating to electric fields near conducting planes, magnetic force fields, adiabatic expansion of gases, and cooling rates of metallic spheres. It also includes comprehension questions about magnetic forces on current carrying wires and the height of liquid flowing out of a cylindrical vessel over time.
Philippine Edukasyong Pantahanan at Pangkabuhayan (EPP) CurriculumMJDuyan
(𝐓𝐋𝐄 𝟏𝟎𝟎) (𝐋𝐞𝐬𝐬𝐨𝐧 𝟏)-𝐏𝐫𝐞𝐥𝐢𝐦𝐬
𝐃𝐢𝐬𝐜𝐮𝐬𝐬 𝐭𝐡𝐞 𝐄𝐏𝐏 𝐂𝐮𝐫𝐫𝐢𝐜𝐮𝐥𝐮𝐦 𝐢𝐧 𝐭𝐡𝐞 𝐏𝐡𝐢𝐥𝐢𝐩𝐩𝐢𝐧𝐞𝐬:
- Understand the goals and objectives of the Edukasyong Pantahanan at Pangkabuhayan (EPP) curriculum, recognizing its importance in fostering practical life skills and values among students. Students will also be able to identify the key components and subjects covered, such as agriculture, home economics, industrial arts, and information and communication technology.
𝐄𝐱𝐩𝐥𝐚𝐢𝐧 𝐭𝐡𝐞 𝐍𝐚𝐭𝐮𝐫𝐞 𝐚𝐧𝐝 𝐒𝐜𝐨𝐩𝐞 𝐨𝐟 𝐚𝐧 𝐄𝐧𝐭𝐫𝐞𝐩𝐫𝐞𝐧𝐞𝐮𝐫:
-Define entrepreneurship, distinguishing it from general business activities by emphasizing its focus on innovation, risk-taking, and value creation. Students will describe the characteristics and traits of successful entrepreneurs, including their roles and responsibilities, and discuss the broader economic and social impacts of entrepreneurial activities on both local and global scales.
This document provides an overview of wound healing, its functions, stages, mechanisms, factors affecting it, and complications.
A wound is a break in the integrity of the skin or tissues, which may be associated with disruption of the structure and function.
Healing is the body’s response to injury in an attempt to restore normal structure and functions.
Healing can occur in two ways: Regeneration and Repair
There are 4 phases of wound healing: hemostasis, inflammation, proliferation, and remodeling. This document also describes the mechanism of wound healing. Factors that affect healing include infection, uncontrolled diabetes, poor nutrition, age, anemia, the presence of foreign bodies, etc.
Complications of wound healing like infection, hyperpigmentation of scar, contractures, and keloid formation.
🔥🔥🔥🔥🔥🔥🔥🔥🔥
إضغ بين إيديكم من أقوى الملازم التي صممتها
ملزمة تشريح الجهاز الهيكلي (نظري 3)
💀💀💀💀💀💀💀💀💀💀
تتميز هذهِ الملزمة بعِدة مُميزات :
1- مُترجمة ترجمة تُناسب جميع المستويات
2- تحتوي على 78 رسم توضيحي لكل كلمة موجودة بالملزمة (لكل كلمة !!!!)
#فهم_ماكو_درخ
3- دقة الكتابة والصور عالية جداً جداً جداً
4- هُنالك بعض المعلومات تم توضيحها بشكل تفصيلي جداً (تُعتبر لدى الطالب أو الطالبة بإنها معلومات مُبهمة ومع ذلك تم توضيح هذهِ المعلومات المُبهمة بشكل تفصيلي جداً
5- الملزمة تشرح نفسها ب نفسها بس تكلك تعال اقراني
6- تحتوي الملزمة في اول سلايد على خارطة تتضمن جميع تفرُعات معلومات الجهاز الهيكلي المذكورة في هذهِ الملزمة
واخيراً هذهِ الملزمة حلالٌ عليكم وإتمنى منكم إن تدعولي بالخير والصحة والعافية فقط
كل التوفيق زملائي وزميلاتي ، زميلكم محمد الذهبي 💊💊
🔥🔥🔥🔥🔥🔥🔥🔥🔥
Chapter wise All Notes of First year Basic Civil Engineering.pptxDenish Jangid
Chapter wise All Notes of First year Basic Civil Engineering
Syllabus
Chapter-1
Introduction to objective, scope and outcome the subject
Chapter 2
Introduction: Scope and Specialization of Civil Engineering, Role of civil Engineer in Society, Impact of infrastructural development on economy of country.
Chapter 3
Surveying: Object Principles & Types of Surveying; Site Plans, Plans & Maps; Scales & Unit of different Measurements.
Linear Measurements: Instruments used. Linear Measurement by Tape, Ranging out Survey Lines and overcoming Obstructions; Measurements on sloping ground; Tape corrections, conventional symbols. Angular Measurements: Instruments used; Introduction to Compass Surveying, Bearings and Longitude & Latitude of a Line, Introduction to total station.
Levelling: Instrument used Object of levelling, Methods of levelling in brief, and Contour maps.
Chapter 4
Buildings: Selection of site for Buildings, Layout of Building Plan, Types of buildings, Plinth area, carpet area, floor space index, Introduction to building byelaws, concept of sun light & ventilation. Components of Buildings & their functions, Basic concept of R.C.C., Introduction to types of foundation
Chapter 5
Transportation: Introduction to Transportation Engineering; Traffic and Road Safety: Types and Characteristics of Various Modes of Transportation; Various Road Traffic Signs, Causes of Accidents and Road Safety Measures.
Chapter 6
Environmental Engineering: Environmental Pollution, Environmental Acts and Regulations, Functional Concepts of Ecology, Basics of Species, Biodiversity, Ecosystem, Hydrological Cycle; Chemical Cycles: Carbon, Nitrogen & Phosphorus; Energy Flow in Ecosystems.
Water Pollution: Water Quality standards, Introduction to Treatment & Disposal of Waste Water. Reuse and Saving of Water, Rain Water Harvesting. Solid Waste Management: Classification of Solid Waste, Collection, Transportation and Disposal of Solid. Recycling of Solid Waste: Energy Recovery, Sanitary Landfill, On-Site Sanitation. Air & Noise Pollution: Primary and Secondary air pollutants, Harmful effects of Air Pollution, Control of Air Pollution. . Noise Pollution Harmful Effects of noise pollution, control of noise pollution, Global warming & Climate Change, Ozone depletion, Greenhouse effect
Text Books:
1. Palancharmy, Basic Civil Engineering, McGraw Hill publishers.
2. Satheesh Gopi, Basic Civil Engineering, Pearson Publishers.
3. Ketki Rangwala Dalal, Essentials of Civil Engineering, Charotar Publishing House.
4. BCP, Surveying volume 1
THE SACRIFICE HOW PRO-PALESTINE PROTESTS STUDENTS ARE SACRIFICING TO CHANGE T...indexPub
The recent surge in pro-Palestine student activism has prompted significant responses from universities, ranging from negotiations and divestment commitments to increased transparency about investments in companies supporting the war on Gaza. This activism has led to the cessation of student encampments but also highlighted the substantial sacrifices made by students, including academic disruptions and personal risks. The primary drivers of these protests are poor university administration, lack of transparency, and inadequate communication between officials and students. This study examines the profound emotional, psychological, and professional impacts on students engaged in pro-Palestine protests, focusing on Generation Z's (Gen-Z) activism dynamics. This paper explores the significant sacrifices made by these students and even the professors supporting the pro-Palestine movement, with a focus on recent global movements. Through an in-depth analysis of printed and electronic media, the study examines the impacts of these sacrifices on the academic and personal lives of those involved. The paper highlights examples from various universities, demonstrating student activism's long-term and short-term effects, including disciplinary actions, social backlash, and career implications. The researchers also explore the broader implications of student sacrifices. The findings reveal that these sacrifices are driven by a profound commitment to justice and human rights, and are influenced by the increasing availability of information, peer interactions, and personal convictions. The study also discusses the broader implications of this activism, comparing it to historical precedents and assessing its potential to influence policy and public opinion. The emotional and psychological toll on student activists is significant, but their sense of purpose and community support mitigates some of these challenges. However, the researchers call for acknowledging the broader Impact of these sacrifices on the future global movement of FreePalestine.
A Visual Guide to 1 Samuel | A Tale of Two HeartsSteve Thomason
These slides walk through the story of 1 Samuel. Samuel is the last judge of Israel. The people reject God and want a king. Saul is anointed as the first king, but he is not a good king. David, the shepherd boy is anointed and Saul is envious of him. David shows honor while Saul continues to self destruct.
How Barcodes Can Be Leveraged Within Odoo 17Celine George
In this presentation, we will explore how barcodes can be leveraged within Odoo 17 to streamline our manufacturing processes. We will cover the configuration steps, how to utilize barcodes in different manufacturing scenarios, and the overall benefits of implementing this technology.
This presentation was provided by Rebecca Benner, Ph.D., of the American Society of Anesthesiologists, for the second session of NISO's 2024 Training Series "DEIA in the Scholarly Landscape." Session Two: 'Expanding Pathways to Publishing Careers,' was held June 13, 2024.
2. 2
SECTION 1 - PHYSICS
1. Out of the following pair , which one does NOT
have identical dimensions
(a) impulseand momentum
(b) angular momentum and planck’s constant
(c) work and torque
(d) moment of inertia and moment of a force
2. An eye specialist prescribes spectacles having
combination of convex lens of focal length 40
cm in contact with a concave lens offocal length
25 cm. The power of this lens combination in
diopter is
(a) +1.5 (b) –1.5
(c) +6.67 (d) –6.67
3. For the velocity time graph shown in the figure
below the distance covered by the body in the
last two seconds of its motion is what fraction of
the total distance travelled by it in all the seven
seconds?
10
8
6
4
2
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
B C
DA
velocity
(in ms )–1
Time (in sec)
(a)
2
1
(b)
4
1
(c)
3
2
(d)
3
1
4. The angles which the vector ˆ ˆ ˆA 3i 6j 2k= + +
r
makes with the co-ordinate axes are
(a)
7
1
cos,
7
4
cos,
7
3
cos 111 ---
(b)
7
2
cos,
7
6
cos,
7
3
cos 111 ---
(c)
7
3
cos,
7
5
cos,
7
4
cos 111 ---
(d) None of these
5. The effective acceleration of a body when
thrown upwards with acceleration a is
(a) (g + a) (b) (a – g)
(c) Ö(g2 + a2) (d) (g – a2/g)
6. Which one of the following statements is false ?
(a) A vector has only magnitude, whereas a
scalar has both magnitude and direction
(b) Distance is a scalar quantity but
displacement is a vector quantity
(c) Momentum, force and torque are vector
quantities
(d) Mass, speed and energyare scalar quantities
7. A motor car is travelling at 30 m/s on a circular
road of radius 500 m. It is increasing in speed at
the rate of 2 m/s2. Then the acceleration of the
car will be
(a) 4 m/s2 (b) 3 m/s2
(c) 2.7m/s2 (d) 8 m/s2
8. If Q, E and W denote respectivelythe heat added,
change in internal energyand the work done in a
closed cyclic process, then
(a) W=0 (b) Q= W= 0
(c) E = 0 (d) Q= 0
9. The moment of inertia of disc about a tangent
axis in its plane is
(a)
4
MR2
(b)
2
MR3 2
(c)
2
MR
4
5
(d)
4
MR7 2
10. A boat is sent across a river with a velocity of
8 km h–1. If the resultant velocity of boat is
10 km h–1 , then the velocityof the river is
(a) 12.8 km h–1 (b) 6 km h–1
(c) 8 km h–1 (d) 10 km h–1
11. Howmanyelectrons make up a charge of20 µC?
(a) 1.25× 1014 (b) 2.23× 1014
(c) 3.25× 1014 (d) 5.25× 1014
12. Two masses A and B each of mass M are fixed
together by a massless spring. A force acts on
the mass B as shown in fig. At the instant the
mass A has acceleration ‘a’. What is the
acceleration of mass B ?
A B F
(a) (F/M) – a (b) a
(c) – a (d) (F/M)
13. When sound waves travel from air to water,
which one of the following remains constant?
(a) Timeperiod (b) Frequency
(c) Velocity (d) Wavelength
14. An ideal gasA and areal gasB havetheir volumes
increased from V to 2V under isothermal
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3. 3
conditions. The increase in internal energy
(a) will be same in both A and B
(b) will be zero in both the gases
(c) of B will be more than that of A
(d) of A will be more than that of B
15. What is the effective capacitance between
points X and Y?
X
A C B D
Y
C F1 = 6µ
C F2 = 6µC F3 = 6µ C F3 = 20µ
C F4 = 6µ
(a) 24mF (b) 18mF
(c) 12mF (d) 6mF
16. Aparticle ofmass m1 is moving with a velocityv1
and another particleof mass m2 is moving with a
velocity v2. Both of them have the same
momentum but different kinetic energies are E1
and E2 respectively. If m1 > m2 then
(a) E1 = E2 (b) E1 < E2
(c)
1 1
2 2
E m
E m
= (d) E1 > E2
17. A force F acting on an object varies with
distance x as shown here. The force is in N and
x in m. The work done by the force in moving
the object from x = 0 to x = 6 m is
3
2
1
0
1 2 3 4 5 6 7
F(N)
x(m)
(a) 18.0J (b) 13.5J
(c) 9.0J (d) 4.5J
18. Ifa spherical ball rollson a tablewithout slipping
the fraction of its total energy associated with
rotational energy is
(a)
5
3
(b)
7
2
(c)
5
2
(d)
7
3
19. Shown below is a distribution of charges. The
flux ofelectric field due tothese charges through
the surfaces S is
+q –q
+q
(a) 3q/e0 (b) 2q/e0
(c) q/e0 (d) zero
20. 10 cm is a wavelength corresponding to the
spectrum of
(a) infrared rays (b) ultraviolet rays
(c) microwaves (d) g-rays
21. The transformer voltage induced in the
secondarycoil of a transformer is mainlydue to
(a) a varying electric field
(b) a varying magnetic field
(c) the vibrations of the primarycoil
(d) the iron core of the transformer
22. The escape velocity for a body projected
vertically upwards from the surface of earth is
11 km/s. If the body is projected at an angle of
45°with the vertical, theescapevelocitywill be
(a) 11 2 km/s (b) 22km/s
(c) 11km/s (d) s/km
2
11
23. An open U-tube contains mercury. When 11.2
cm of water is poured into one ofthe arms ofthe
tube, howhigh does themercuryrise in the other
arm from its initial level?
(a) 0.56cm (b) 1.35 cm
(c) 0.41cm (d) 2.32cm
24. A steel wire of length 20 cm and uniform cross-
section 1 mm2 is tied rigidly at both the ends.
Thetemperature of the wireis altered from 40ºC
to20ºC. Coefficient of linear expansion for steel
a = 1.1 ×10–5/ºCand Yforsteelis2.0×1011N/m2.
The change in tension of the wire is
(a) 2.2 × 106 newton (b) 16 newton
(c) 8 newton (d) 44 newton
25. The fastest mode of transfer of heat is
(a) conduction (b) convection
(c) radiation (d) None of these
26. The B – H curve (i) and (ii) shown in fig
associated with
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4. 4
B
(i)
(ii)
H
(a) (i) diamagnetic and (ii) paramagnetic
substance
(b) (i) paramagnetic and (ii) ferromagnetic
substance
(c) (i) soft iron and (ii) steel
(d) (i) steel and (ii) soft iron
27. The pressure P ofan ideal gas and its mean K.E.
per unit volume are related as
(a)
2
E
P = (b) P = E
(c)
3
2
E
P = (d)
2
3
E
P =
28. A body cools from 50.0°C to 48°C in 5s. How
long will it take to cool from 40.0°C to 39°C?
Assume the temperature of surroundings to be
30.0°C and Newton's law ofcooling to be valid.
(a) 2.5 s (b) 10 s
(c) 20 s (d) 5 s
29. The spatial distribution of the electric field due
totwo charges (A, B) is shown in figure. Which
one of the following statements is correct ?
A
B
(a) A is +ve and B –ve; |A| > |B|
(b) A is –ve and B+ve; |A| = |B| :
(c) Both are +ve but A > B
(d) Both are –ve but A > B
30. The equation of plane wave is given by
x
y 2sin 200t
15
æ ö
= p -ç ÷è ø
wheredisplacement yis given in cm and time t in
second, then the velocity of the wave is
(a) 3000cm/sec (b) 200 cm/sec
(c) 150 cm/sec (d) 2 cm /sec
31. A primary cell has an e.m.f. of 1.5 volt. When
short-circuited it gives a current of 3 ampere.
The internal resistance of the cell is
(a) 4.5ohm (b) 2ohm
(c) 0.5ohm (d) (1/4.5)ohm
32. The magnetic lines of force inside a bar magnet
(a) are from N-pole to S-pole of magnet
(b) do not exist
(c) depend upon the area of cross-section of
bar magnet
(d) are from S-pole to N-pole of magnet
33. Five resistances have been connected as shown
in the figure. The effectiveresistance betweenA
and B is
A B
4W
7W
8W6W
3W
(a) 14/3W (b) 20/3W
(c) 14W (d) 21W
34. Yellow light is used in a single slit diffraction
experiment with slit width of 0.6 mm. If yellow
light is replaced by X– rays, then the observed
pattern will reveal,
(a) that the central maximum is narrower
(b) more number of fringes
(c) less number of fringes
(d) no diffraction pattern
35. Which one is possible?
(a) 19
7 N + 1
0 n
16 1
7 1N H® +
(b) 32
16 S + 1
1H
35 4
17 2Cl He® +
(c) 16 1
8 0O n+ 14 1 0
7 1 13 2N H -® + + b
(d) 1 1
1 1H H+ 4
2He®
36. A conducting square loop of side L and
resistance R moves in its plane with a uniform
velocity v perpendicular to one of its side. A
magnetic induction B constant in
x x x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
Bv
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5. 5
time and space, pointing perpendicular and into
the plane of the loop exists everywhere. The
current induced in the loop is
(a) clockwise
Bl v
R
(b) anti-clockwise
Blv
R
(c)
2
anti clockwise
Blv
R
-
(d) zero
37. When a ray of light enters a glass slab from air,
(a) its wavelength decreases
(b) its wavelength increases
(c) its frequency decreases
(d) neither its wavelength nor its frequency
changes.
38. Main function of the RF amplifiers in a
superheterodyne receiver is to
(a) amplifysignal
(b) reject unwanted signal
(c) discriminate against image frequencysignal
and IF-signal
(d) All the above
39. An electric fan and a heater are marked as 100
W, 220 V and 1000 W, 220 V respectively. The
resistnace of heater is
(a) equal to that of fan
(b) lesser than that of fan
(c) greater than that of fan
(d) zero
40. Astraightwire oflength 0.5metre and carryinga
current of 1.2 ampere is placed in uniform
magnetic field ofinduction 2 tesla. The magnetic
field is perpendicular to the length of the wire.
The force on the wire is
(a) 2.4N (b) 1.2N
(c) 3.0N (d) 2.0N
41. Monochromaticlight offrequency6.0 × 1014 Hz
is produced bya laser. The power emitted is 2 ×
10–3 W. The number of photons emitted, on the
average, by the source per second is
(a) 5 × l 016 (b) 5 × 1017
(c) 5 × 1014 (d) 5 × 1015
42. Of the various series of the hydrogen spectrum,
the onewhich lieswhollyin the ultraviolet region
is
(a) Lyman series (b) Balmer series
(c) Paschen series (d) Bracket series
43. An artificial satellite moving in a circular orbit
around the earth has a total (kinetic + potential)
energy E0. Its potential energy is
(a) –E0 (b) 1.5E0
(c) 2E0 (d) E0
44. Of the diodes shown in the following diagrams,
which one is reverse biased ?
(a)
+5 V
+10 V
R
(b)
–12 V
–5 V
R
(c)
–10 V
R
(d)
+5 V
R
45. Which ofthe following gates will have an output
of 1?
1 0
00
1 1
01
A B
C D
(a) D (b) A
(c) B (d) C
SECTION 2 - CHEMISTRY
46. Which of the following contains maximum
number of atoms?
(a) 6.023 × 1021 molecules ofCO2
(b) 0.44 g ofCO2
(c) 22.4 Lof CO2 atSTP
(d) None of these
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6. 6
47. Which of the following statements is true ?
(a) DG may be lesser or greater or equal to DH
(b) DG is always proportional to DH
(c) DG is always greater than DH
(d) DG is always less than DH
48. 1.08 g of pure silver was converted into silver
nitrate and its solution was taken in a beaker. It
was electrolysed using platinum cathode and
silver anode. 0.01 Faraday of electricity was
passed using 0.15 volt above the decomposition
potential of silver. The silver content of the
beaker after the above shall be
(a) 0 g (b) 0.108g
(c) 0.108g (d) 1.08g
49. Number of electrons transfered in each case
when 4KMnO actsasan oxidising agent to give
2
2MnO ,Mn ,+
( )3
Mn OH and 2
4MnO - are
respectively
(a) 3,5,4 and 1 (b) 4,3,1 and 5
(c) 1,3,4 and 5 (d) 5,4,3 and 1
50. Addition ofHI to double bond of propene yields
isopropyl iodide and not n-propyl iodide as the
major product, because addition proceeds
throughs
(a) a more stable carbonium ion
(b) a more stable carbanion
(c) a more stable free radical
(d) homolysis
51. The process involving heating of rubber with
sulphur is called
(a) Galvanisation (b) Vulcanization
(c) Bessemerisaion (d) Sulphonation
52. Which of the following is a redox reaction ?
(a) Reaction of H2SO4 with NaOH
(b) In atomosphere, O3 from O2 bylightning
(c) Nitrogen oxides from nitrogen and oxygen
decomposition by lightning
(d) Evaporation of H2O
53. Standard entropy of X2, Y2 and X Y3 are 60, 40
and 50 J K–1 mol–1, respectively. For thereaction,
2 2 3
1 3
X Y XY , H –30kJ
2 2
+ ® D = , to be at
equilibrium, thetemperature will be
(a) 1250K (b) 500K
(c) 1000K (d) 750K
54. Thecellconstant ofagiven cell is0.47 cm–1. The
resistance of a solution placed in this cell is
measured tobe 31.6 ohm. The conductivityofthe
solution (in Scm–1 where Shasusual meaning)is
(a) 0.15 (b) 1.5
(c) 0.015 (d) 150
55. Consider the following changes
2
2
1 E:eAAandE:eAA -++-+
+®+®
The energyrequired topull out the twoelectrons
are E1 and E2 respectively. The correct
relationship between two energies would be
(a) E1 < E2 (b) E1 = E2
(c) E1 > E2 (d) E1 ³ E2
56. Pure chloroform is prepared by
(a) distilling chloral hydrate with aqueous
sodium hydroxide
(b) heating ethanol with bleaching powder
(c) heating acetone with bleaching powder
(d) reducing carbon tetrachloride
57. The end product (C) in the following sequence
of reactions is
)C(BACHHC
]O[
OH
MgXCH
SOH%20
HgSO%1
2
3
42
4 ¾¾¾®¾¾¾¾¾¾ ®¾¾¾¾¾ ®¾º
(a) Acetic acid (b) Isopropyl alcohol
(c) Acetone (d) Ethanol
58. At 00 C and one atm pressure, a gas occupies
100 cc. If the pressure is increased to one and a
half-time and temperature is increased by one
third of absolutetemperature, then final volume
of the gas will be
(a) 80 cc (b) 88.9 cc
(c) 66.7 cc (d) 100 cc
59. Which one of the following statement is not true
(a) The conjugate base of H2PO4
– is HPO4
2–
(b) pH + pOH = 14 for all aqueous solutions
(c) the pH of 1 × 10–8 M HCl is 8
(d) 96,500 coulombs of electricitywhen passed
through a CuSO4 solution deposits 1 gram
equivalent of copper at the Cathode
60. For a reaction of type productsBA ¾®¾+ , it
is observed that doubling concentration of A
causes the reaction ratetobe four times as great,
but doubling amount of B does not affect the
rate. The rate equation is
(a) Rate= K [A] [B] (b) Rate =
2
]A[
4
K
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7. 7
(c) Rate = K [A]2 [B] (d) Rate = K [A]2 [B]2
61. The electronegativity follows the order
(a) F> O> Cl > Br (b) F> Cl> Br >O
(c) O> F> Cl > Br (d) Cl> F> O >Br
62. Which of the following is not formed when
glycerol reacts with HI?
(a) CH2 = CH – CH2I
(b) CH2OH–CHI–CH2OH
(c) CH3–CH= CH2
(d) CH3–CHI–CH3
63. The amine that does not react with acetyl
chloride is
(a) 23NHCH (b) NH)CH( 23
(c) N)CH( 33 (d) None of these
64. In what manner increase of pressure will affect
the following equation?
C (s) + H2O (g) CO (g) + H2 (g)
(a) Shift in the forward direction
(b) Shift in the reverse direction
(c) Increase in the yield of hydrogen
(d) No effect
65. For preparing a buffer solution ofpH6 bymixing
sodium acetate and acetic acid, the ratio of the
concentration of salt and acid should be
(Ka = 10–5)
(a) 1:10 (b) 10:1
(c) 100:1 (d) 1:100
66. The activation energy for a hypothetical
reaction, A ® Product, is 12.49 kcal/mole. If
temperature is raised from 295 to305, the rate of
reaction increased by
(a) 60% (b) 100%
(c) 50% (d) 20%
67. BCl3 is a planar molecule whereas NCl3 is
pyramidal because
(a) BCl3 has no lone pair of electrons but NCl3
has a lone pair of electrons
(b) B—Cl bond is more polar than N—Cl bond
(c) Nitrogen atom is smaller than boron atom
(d) N—Cl bond is more covalent than B—Cl
bond
68. Indicate the wronglynamed compound
(a) CHO2CH2CHH
CH
|
C3CH
3
----
(4-methyl -1- pentanal)
(b) COOHCCH
CH
|
C3CH
3
-º--
(4- methyl -2- pentyn -1- oic acid)
(c) COOHH
CH
|
C2CH2CH3CH
3
--
(2- methyl -1- pentanoic acid)
(d) 323 CH
O
||
CCHCHCHCH --=--
(3- hexen -5- one)
69. An organic compound, C3H6O does no give a
precipitate with 2, 4 dinitrophenyl-hydrazine
reagent and does not react with metallic sodium.
It could be
(a) CH3–CH2–CHO (b) CH2=CH–CH2OH
(c) CH3–CO–CH3 (d) CH2=CH–O–CH3
70. Which one of the following pairs of molecules
will have permanent dipole moments for both
members?
(a) SiF4 and NO2 (b) NO2 and CO2
(c) NO2 and O3 (d) SiF4 and CO2
71. An element has bcc strucutre having unit cells
12.08×1023. The number ofatoms in these cells
is
(a) 12.08× 1023 (b) 24.16× 1023
(c) 48.38× 1023 (d) 12.08× 1022
72. An unknown metal M displaces nickel from
nickel (II) sulphate solution but does not
displace manganese from manganese sulphate
solution. Which order represents the correct
order of reducing power?
(a) Mn > Ni > M (b) Ni > Mn > M
(c) Mn > M > Ni (d) M > Ni > Mn
73. In which of the following reactions, H2O2 is
acting as a reducing agent
(a) 42222 SOHSOOH ®+
(b) 222 IKOH2OHKI2 +®+
(c) OH4PbSOOH4PbS 2422 +®+
(d) 22222 OOHAg2OHOAg ++®+
74. Beilstein’s test is given bywhich ofthe following
(a) Halogens (b) Thio urea
(c) Pyridine (d) All
75. Glucose molecule reacts with X number of
molecules of phenylhydrazine to yield osazone.
The value of X is
(a) Three (b) Two
(c) One (d) Four
76. At STP, the order of root mean square speed of
molecules H2, N2, O2 and HBr is
(a) H2 > N2 > O2 > HBr
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8. 8
(b) HBr > O2 > N2 > H2
(c) HBr > H2 > O2 > N2
(d) N2 > O2 > H2 > HBr
77. Which of the following is not true ?
(a) Some disinfectants can be used as
antispetics
(b) sulphadiazine is a synthetic antibacterial
(c) aspirin is analgesic as well as antipyretic
(d) polystyrene is used to make non-stick
cookware
78. Vapour pressure of CCl4 at 25°C is 143 mm Hg.
0.5 g of a non-volatile solute (mol. wt. 65) is
dissolved in 100 ml of CCl4. Find the vapour
pressure of the solution.
(Densityof CCl4 = 1.58 g/cm3)
(a) 141.93mm (b) 94.39mm
(c) 199.34mm (d) 143.99mm
79. Match list I with list II and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I List II
I. Cyanide process A. Ultrapure Ge
II. Floatation process B. Pineoil
III. Electrolytic reduction C. Extraction of
Al
IV. Zone refining D. Extraction of
Au
Codes:
(a) I-C,II-A, III-D,IV-B(b) I-D,II-B,III-C,IV-A
(c) I-C,II-B,III-D,IV-A (d) I-D,II-A,III-C,IV-B
80. In which of the following, resonance will be
possible?
(a) CHOCHCHCH 222 ---
(b) OCHCHCH 2 =-=
(c) 33COCHCH
(d) 222 CHCHCHCHCH =--=
81. In Bohr series of lines of hydrogen spectrum
the third line from the red end corresponds to
which one of the following inter-orbit jumps of
the electron for Bohr orbits in an atom of
hydrogen?
(a) 23 ® (b) 25 ®
(c) 14 ® (d) 52 ®
82. Point out the false statement
(a) Brownian movement and Tyndall effect are
shown by colloidal systems.
(b) Gold number is a measure of the protective
power of a lyophillic colloid
(c) The colloidal solution ofa liquid in liquid is
called gel
(d) Hardy - Schulze rule is related with
coagulation.
83. The compound A on heating gives a colourless
gas. and a residue which dissolves in water to
give B. When excess of CO2 is passed into B
and gently heated, A is formed. The compound
A is
(a) CaSO4.2H2O (b) Na2CO3
(c) CaCO3 (d) K2CO3
84. The value of the ‘spin only’ magnetic moment
for one of the following configurations is 2.84
BM. The correct one is
(a) d5 (in strong ligand field)
(b) d3 (in weak as well as in strong fields)
(c) d4 (in weak ligand fields)
(d) d4 (in strong ligand fields)
85. 2N and 2O are converted into monoanions,
–
2N and -
2O respectively. Which of the
following statements is wrong ?
(a) In –
N2 , N – N bond weakens
(b) In –
O2 , O - O bond order increases
(c) In –
O2 , O - O bond order decreases
(d) –
N2 becomes paramagnetic
86. The structure and hybridization of Si(CH3)4 is
(a) bent, sp (b) trigonal, sp2
(c) octahedral, sp3d (d) tetrahedral, sp3
87. In a reaction A + B C + D, the initial
concentrations, ofA and B were 0.9 mol. dm–3
each.At equilibrium the concentration of D was
found to be 0.6 mol dm–3. What is the value of
equilibrium constant for the reaction
(a) 8 (b) 4
(c) 9 (d) 3
88. Lithium crystallizes as body-centred cubic
cyrstals. If the length of the side of unit cell is
350 pm, the atomic radius of lithium is
(a) 303.1pm (b) 606.2pm
(c) 151.5pm (d) 123.7pm
89. An exampleof Perkin’s reaction is
(a) 6 5 3 2C H CHO CH NO+
KOH
6 5 2C H CHCHNO¾¾¾®
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9. 9
(b) O)COCH(CHOHC 2356 +
CHCOOHCHHC 56
COONaCH3 =¾¾¾¾¾¾ ®¾
(c) 6 5 3C H CHO CH CHO+
NaOH
6 5C H CH= CHCHO¾¾¾¾®
(d) 2256 )COOH(CHCHOHC +
HCHCOCHHC 256
NH.Alc 3 =¾¾¾ ®¾
90. The ether that undergoes electrophilic
substitution reactions is
(a) CH3OC2H5 (b) C6H5OCH3
(c) CH3OCH3 (d) C2H5OC2H5
SECTION 3 - BOTANY
91. Classification of organisms based on
evolutionary as well as genetic relationships is
called
(a) Biosystematics
(b) Phenetics
(c) Numerical taxonomy
(d) Cladistics
92. In gymnosperms, the ovule is naked because
(a) ovary wall is absent
(b) integuments are absent
(c) perianth is absent
(d) nucellus is absent
93. Epidermis is absent in
(a) root tip and shoot tip
(b) shoot bud and floral bud
(c) ovule and seed
(d) petiole and pedicel
94. Which pair of structures are usually found in
both plant and animal cells?
(a) Cell membrane and nucleolus
(b) Cell membraneand cell wall
(c) Nucleolus and chloroplast
(d) Nucleus and cell wall
95. How many meiotic division would be required
to produce 101 female gametophytes in an
angiosperm?
(a) 101 (b) 26
(c) 127 (d) None of these
96. Which of the following element is necessaryfor
translocation of sugars in plants ?
(a) Boron (b) Molybdenum
(c) Manganese (d) Iron
97. In C4 plants, agranal chloroplasts are found in
(a) mesophyll cells
(b) epidermal cell chloroplasts of green stem
(c) bundle sheath cells
(d) chloroplasts of guard cells
98. Out of 36 ATP molecules produced per glucose
molecule during respiration
(a) 2 are produced outside glycolysis and 34
during respiratorychain.
(b) 2 are produced outside mitochondria and
34 inside mitochondria.
(c) 2 during glycolysis and 34 during Krebs
cycle.
(d) all are formed inside mitochondria.
99. Which of the following hormone prevents
ripening of fruit?
(a) Gibberellin (b) Ethylene
(c) Cytokinin (d) ABA
100. Which one of the following represents an ovule,
where the embryo sac becomes horse-shoe
shapedand the funiculus andmicropyle are close
to each other?
(a) Amphitropous (b) Circinotropous
(c) Atropous (d) Anotropous
101. When the members of one population do not
breedat thesametimeoftheyear as themembers
of another population it is called
(a) geographic isolation
(b) sexual isolation
(c) seasonal isolation
(d) habitat isolation
102. Diversity of habitat over the total landscape is
called :
(a) b diversity
(b) g diveristy(gamma)
(c) landscape diversity
(d) ecosystem diversity
103. DDT causes egg shell thinning in birds because
it inhibits
(a) Calmodulin
(b) CalciumATPase
(c) Magnesium ATPase
(d) Carbonic anhydrase
104. The first clinical gene therapy was given for
treating
(a) chicken pox
(b) diabetes mellitus
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10. 10
(c) rheumatoid arthritis
(d) adenosine deaminase deficiency
105. Taxonomic hierarchy refers to
(a) Step-wise arrangement of all categories for
classification ofplants and animals
(b) A group of senior taxonomists who decide
the nomenclature of plants and animals
(c) A list of botanists or zoologists who have
worked on taxonomy of a species or group
(d) Classification of a species based on fossil
record
106. A group of fungi with septate mycelium in which
sexual reproduction is either unknown or lacking
are classified under
(a) phycomycetes (b) deuteromycetes
(c) ascomycetes (d) basidiomycetes
107. Oxysomes or F0 – F1 particles occur on
(a) thylakoids
(b) mitochondrial surface
(c) inner mitochondrial membrane
(d) chloroplast surface
108. Which of the following layer is present nearest
ofplasma membrane in plant cell?
(a) Secondarywall (b) Middlelamella
(c) Primarywall (d) Tonoplast
109. Cellulose is a polymer of
(a) a-glucose (b) a-D-glucose
(c) b-D-glucose (d) b-L-glucose
110. The number of chromatids in a chromosome at
anaphase is
(a) 2 in mitosis and 1 in meiosis
(b) 1 in mitosis and 2 in meiosis
(c) 2 each in mitosis and meiosis
(d) 2 in mitosis and 4 in meiosis
111. Plants diefrom prolonged water-loggingbecause
(a) soil nutrients become very dilute.
(b) root respiration stops.
(c) cell sap in the plants becomes too dilute.
(d) nutrients leach down due to excess water.
112. Gibberellin wasfirst extracted from
(a) Gibberella fujikuroi (b) Gelidium
(c) Gracelaria (d) Aspergillus
113. Atropine, an alkaloid, is obtained from
(a) Datura anaroxia (b) Atropa belladona
(c) Hyocyamus niger (d) Withaniasomnifera
114. If an angiospermic male plant is diploid and
female plant tetraploid, the ploidy level of
endosperm will be
(a) haploid (b) triploid
(c) tetraploid (d) pentaploid
115. Species diversityincrease as one proceeeds from
(a) high altitude tolowaltitude and high latitude
to low latitude
(b) low altitude to high altitude and high
latitude to low latitude
(c) lowaltitude tohigh altitude and lowlatitude
to high latitude
(d) high altitude tolowaltitude and lowlatitude
to high latitude
116. Sacred groves are specially useful in
(a) preventing soil erosion.
(b) year-round flow of water in rivers.
(c) generating environmental awareness.
(d) conserving rare and threatened species.
117. Milky water of green coconut is
(a) liquid nucellus
(b) liquid of female gametophyte
(c) liquid endosperm
(d) liquid embryo
118. Which one of the following is the major
difference between mosses and ferns ?
(a) Ferns lack alternation of generation while
mosses show the same.
(b) Mosses are facultative aerobes while ferns
are obligate aerobes.
(c) Vascular bundles of ferns show xylem
vessels while those of mosses lack it.
(d) Sporophytes of ferns live much longer as
compared to the sporophytes of mosses.
119. Red snow causing alga is
(a) Chlamydomonas nivalis
(b) Chlamydomonas reinhardtii
(c) Chlamydomonas debaryanum
(d) Chalmydomonas media
120. Which of the following statement (s) is/are
incorrect?
(i) Calyx and corolla are reproductive organs
ofa flower.
(ii) Zygomorphic flower can bedivided into two
equal radial halves in any radial plane.
(iii) Flowers without bracts are termed as
bracteate.
(iv) Parthenocarpic fruit is formed after
fertilization of the ovary.
(v) In legumes, seed is non-endospermic.
(vi) Radical buds develop on roots.
(a) (i), (ii), (iii) and(iv) (b) (i), (ii) and (v)
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11. 11
(c) (iii), (iv) and (vi) (d) (i), (iv) and (v)
121. How manypair ofnucleotides are present in one
helix of B- DNA?
(a) 10 (b) 12
(c) 5 (d) 6
122. Conversion of ammonia into nitrates through
Nitrosomonas is called
(a) nitrogen fixation (b) nitrification
(c) denitrification (d) ammonification
123. Photorespiration is favoured by
(a) high O2 and lowCO2
(b) lowlight and high O2
(c) lowtemperature and high O2
(d) low O2 and high CO2
124. In the leaves of C4 plants, malic acid formation
during CO2 fixation occurs in the cells of
(a) bundle sheath (b) phloem
(c) epidermis (d) mesophyll
125. A plant completing itslife cycle before the onset
of dry condition is said to be
(a) short day plant (b) long day plant
(c) drought escaping (d) All of these
126. The graph shows the relation between light
intensity and the giving off and taking up of
carbon dioxide by the leaves of a plant. Why is
most carbon dioxide given off when the light
intensity is zero units ?
(a) Becauseit is just thestart of theexperiment.
(b) Only respiration is taking place at this
intensityof light.
(c) Only photosynthesis is taking place at this
intensityof light.
(d) The rate of photosynthesis is equivalent to
the rate ofrespiration.
127. Which one of the following statement is false?
(i) Epidermal cell has small amount of
cytoplasm and a large vacuole.
(ii) Waxy cuticle layer is absent in roots.
(iii) Root hairs are unicellular, while stem hairs /
trichomesare multicellular.
(iv) Trichomes maybe branched or unbranched,
soft or stiff and prevent transpiration.
(v) Guard cells aredumbell shaped in dicotsand
bean-shaped in monocots.
(a) (i) only (b) (iv) only
(c) (iii)only (d) (v) only
128. In photosystem-I the first electron acceptor is
(a) cytochrome
(b) plastocyanin
(c) an iron-sulphur protein
(d) ferredoxin
129. Which one of the following graphs most closely
represents the relationship between the rate of
transpiration of a mesophytic leaf and the
atmospheric humidity ?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
130. The two gases making highest relative
contribution to the greenhouse gases are
(a) CO2 and CH4
(b) CH4 and N2O
(c) CFCs and N2O
(d) CO2 and N2O
131. The upright pyramid of number is absent in
(a) Pond (b) Forest
(c) Lake (d) Grassland
132. Biolistics (gene-gun) is suitable for
(a) DNA finger printing.
(b) Disarming pathogen vectors.
(c) Transformation of plant cells.
(d) Constructing recombinant DNA byjoining
with vectors.
133. Read the following four statements (i - iv).
(i) In transcription, adenosine pairs with uracil.
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12. 12
(ii) Regulation of lac operon by repressor is
referred to as positive regulation.
(iii) The human genome has approximately
50,000genes.
(iv) Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive
disease.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Two (b) Three
(c) Four (d) One
134. The interaction is determental to both the
species, in
(a) Predation (b) Commensalism
(c) Ammensalism (d) Competition
135. Which option is true about heart wood/
duramen?
(i) It does not help in water and mineral
conduction.
(ii) It is dark coloured but soft.
(iii) It has trachearyelementsfilled with tannins,
resins, gums, oil, etc.
(iv) It is a peripheral part.
(v) Sensitive to microbes and insects, hence
least durable.
(a) (i)and (iii) (b) (ii)and(iii)
(c) (iv) and (v) (d) (iii) and (iv)
SECTION4 - ZOOLOGY
136. Afeworganisms areknown to growandmultiply
at temperatures of 100–105ºC. They belong to
(a) marine archaebacteria
(b) thermophilic sulphur bacteria
(c) blue-green algae (cyanobacteria)
(d) thermophilic, subaerial fungi
137. Archaeopteryx is connecting link between
(a) Reptiles and birds
(b) Reptilesand mammals
(c) Fishes and reptiles
(d) Chordates and nonchordates
138. The fibres of the following muscles are fusiform
and do not show striations
(a) Skeletal muscles (b) Cardiac muscles
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Smooth muscles
139. The most abundant mineral in human bodyis
(a) Magnesium (b) Sodium
(c) Calcium (d) Potasium
140. Cholecystokinin is secretion of
(a) Duodenum that causes contraction of gall
bladder
(b) Globlet cells of ileum, stimulates secretion
of succus entericus
(c) Liver and controls secondarysex characters
(d) Stomach that stimulates pancreas to release
juice
141. The volume of air breathed in and out during
normal breathing is called
(a) Vital capacity
(b) Inspiratory reserve volume
(c) Explratoryreserve volume
(d) Tidal volume
142. Solenocytes and metanephridia are excretory
organs of
(a) Annelida and Arthropoda
(b) Platyhelminthes and Annelida
(c) Coelenterata and Mollusca
(d) Aschelminthes and Annelida
143. Atrial natriuretic factor (ANF) is released in
response to the increase in blood volume and
blood pressure. Which of the followings is not
the function of ANF?
(a) Stimulates aldosterone secretion
(b) Inhibits the release of renin from JGA
(c) Stimulates salt loss in urine
(d) Inhibitssodium reabsorption from collecting
duct
144. Which of the following diseases is caused by
the under secreation of cortisol?
(a) Anaemia
(b) Addison’s disease
(c) Hyperglycemia
(d) Mental illness or retardation
145. Glycogen is converted to glucose by
(a) Insulin
(b) Glucagon
(c) Galactose
(d) Both glucagons and insulin
146. Which of the following sets represents vestigial
organs?
(a) Vermiform appendix, bodyhair and patella
(b) Wisdom teeth, body hair and atlas vertebra
(c) Ear muscles, cochlea and coccyx
(d) Vermiformappendix,ear musclesandcoccyx.
147. Hepatitis B is transmitted through
(a) Sexual contact
(b) Blood transfusion
(c) Contaminated food and water
(d) All of the above
148. Which one of the following pairs of hormones
are the examples of those that can easily pass
through the cell membrane ofthe target cell and
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13. 13
bind to a receptor inside it (Mostly in the
nucleus)?
(a) Insulin, glucagon
(b) Thyroxin,insulin
(c) Somatostain, oxytocin
(d) Cortisol, testosterone
149. Where do certain symbiotic micro-organisms
normallyoccur in human body?
(a) Caecum
(b) Oral lining and tongue surface
(c) Vermiform appendix and rectum
(d) Duodenum
150. Radial symmetryoccurs in
(a) Porifera and Coelenterata
(b) Coelenterata and Echinodermata
(c) Coelenterata and Platyhelminthes
(d) Arthropoda and Mollusca
151. Which of the following statements is/are not
true?
(i) In Urochordata, notochord is present in
larvaltail.
(ii) In Cephalochordata, notochord extends
from head to tail region.
(iii) Branchiostoma belongs to hemichordata.
(iv) Only one class of living members, class
Cyclostomata represents the super class
agnatha
(a) (ii) and (iv) (b) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (iii)only (d) (i) and (iv)
152. Mycoplasma is pleuromorphic due to
(a) absence of cell wall
(b) presence of three layered cell membrane
(c) the presence of sterol
(d) None of these
153. Lifespan of human RBCs is
(a) 120 days (b) 20 days
(c) 9 days (d) 90 days
154. Newlyborn childis moreresistant tocoldbecause
of the presence of
(a) Thick dermis (b) Blubber
(c) Brown fat (d) White fat
155. Which part of the alimentary canal does not
secrete any enzyme?
(a) Mouth (b) Oesophagus
(c) Stomach (d) Duodenum
156. The protein coated, water soluble fat globules
are called
(a) Chylomicrons (b) Micelles
(c) Chyle (d) Monoglycerides
157. What would happen if human blood becomes
acidic (low pH)
(a) Oxygen carying capacity of haemoglobin
increases
(b) Oxygen carrying capacity of haemoglobin
decreases
(c) RBCs count increases
(d) RBCs count decreases
158. Which one of the following is a matching pair?
(a) Lubb-Sharp closure of AV valves at the
beginning of ventricular systole
(b) Dup-Sudden opening of semilunar valves
at the beginning of ventricular diastole
(c) Pulsation of the radial artery-Valves in the
blood vessels
(d) Initiation of the heart beat -Purkinje fibres
159. Reabsorption of chloride ions from glomerular
filtrate in kidney tubule occurs by
(a) Active transport
(b) Diffusion
(c) Osmosis
(d) Brownian movement
160. Ankle joint is
(a) Pivot Joint (b) Ballandsocketjoint
(c) Hinge joint (d) Gliding joint
161. The major function of the intervertebral disc is
to
(a) Absorb shock
(b) String the vertebrae together
(c) Prevent injuries
(d) Prevent hyperextension
162. A decrease in the level of oestrogen and
progesterone causes
(a) Growth and dilation ofmyometrium
(b) Growth of endometrium
(c) Constriction of uterine blood vessels
leading to sloughing of endometrium or
uterineepithelium
(d) Release of ovum from the ovary.
163. Structure connecting the foetus to placenta is
(a) umbilical cord (b) amnion
(c) yolk sac (d) chorion
164. In India which ofthe following species ofhoney
bee is reared in artificial hives ?
(a) Apis indica (b) Apis dorsata
(c) Apis florae (d) None of these
165. A person entering an emptyroom suddenlyfinds
a snakeright in front on opening thedoor. Which
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14. 14
one of the following is likely to happen in his
neuro-hormonal control system ?
(a) Sympathetic nervous system is activated
releasing epinephrine and norepinephrine
from adrenal medulla.
(b) Neurotransmitters diffuse rapidlyacross the
cleft and transmit a nerve impulse.
(c) Hypothalamus activatesthe parasympathetic
division ofbrain.
(d) Sympathetic nervous system is activated
releasing epinephrine and norepinephrine
from adrenal cortex.
166. Which one of the following pairs of chemical
substances is correctly categorized?
(a) Calcitonin and thymosin - Thyroid
hormones
(b) Pepsin and prolactin - Two digestive
enzymes secreted in stomach
(c) Troponin and myosin - Complex proteins in
striated muscles
(d) Secretin and rhodopsin - Polypeptide
hormones
167. The blind spot is the region where
(a) Image is formed
(b) Cones are numerous
(c) The optic nerve leaves out
(d) Image is formed during the dark
168. The chemical substance found in the surface
layer of cytoplasm of spermatozoa is:
(a) fertilizin (b) agglutinin
(c) antifertilizin (d) hyaluronidase
169. Read the following 4-statements and mark the
option that has both correct statements
(i) MTPwas legalized in 1971
(ii) Inability to conceive or produce children
even after 2 years of unprotected sexual
cohabitation is called infertility
(iii) Surgical method of contraception prevents
gamete formation
(iv) MTPs are relatively safe up to 12 weeks of
pregnancy
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii)and(iii)
(c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i)and (iii)
170. Erythroblastosis foetalis occurs when
(a) Mother is Rh negative and father is Rh
positive
(b) Father is Rh negative and mother is Rh
positive
(c) Both are Rh positive
(d) Both are Rh negative
171. Chromosome complement with 2n – 1 is called
(a) Monosomy (b) Trisomy
(c) Nullisomy (d) Tetrasomy
172. Which of the following is a minerelocorticoid?
(a) Calciferol (b) Progesterone
(c) Adrenalin (d) Aldosterone
173. In myopia or short sightedness
(a) Image is formed slightly in front of retina
because eye ball is longer
(b) Eye ball is normal but image is formed over
blind spot
(c) Eye ball is normal but images is formed
slightly behind the retina due to faulty lens
(d) Curvature of cornea becomes irregular
174. Sequence of meninges from inner to outside is
(a) Duramater –Archnoid – Piamater
(b) Duramater – Piamater –Arachnoid
(c) Arachnoid –Duramater - Piamater
(d) Piamater-Arachnoid - Duramater
175. The functional unit of contractile system of a
striated muscle is
(a) Sarcomere (b) Z-band
(c) Sarcosome (d) Myofibril
176. Joint between bones of human skull is
(a) Hinge joint (b) Synovial joint
(c) Cartilaginous joint (d) Fibrous joint
177. Which one of the following is the correct
description ofa certain part ofthenormal human
skelection ?
(a) Parietal bone and the temporal bone of the
skull are joined by fibrous joint
(b) First vertebra is axis which articulates with
the occipital condyles
(c) The 9th and 10th pairs of ribs are called the
floating ribs
(d) Glenoid cavityis a depression to which the
thigh bone articulates.
178. Metanephric kidneys are found in
(a) Reptiles only (b) Birds only
(c) mammalsonly (d) All of these
179. Which of the following set of animals has an
incomplete double circulation system?
(a) Frog and crocodile (b) Shark and whale
(c) Lizard and pigeon (d) Toad and lizard
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15. 15
180. Study the pedigree chart given below: What does it show?
(a) Inheritance ofa recessive sex-linked disease
likehaemophilia
(b) Inheritance of a sex-linked inborn error of
metabolism like phenylketonuria
(c) Inheritance of a condition like
phenylketonuria as an autosomal recessive
trait
(d) The pedigree chart is wrong as this is not
possible