This document contains a past paper for the MAT exam from May 2008. It includes 47 multiple choice questions across various topics including mathematics, logical reasoning, and general knowledge. The questions cover areas like time, dates, percentages, ratios, geometry, probability, and current events.

1. MAT–PAST PAPERS
MAT- UNSOLVED PAPER –MAY- 2008

2. 01 Problem
1
In 2 hours the hour hand of a Clock rotates through an angle of
2
a. 90°
b. 140°
c. 120o
d. 75°

3. 02 Problem
27 March 1995 was a Monday, then what day of the Week was 1 November
1994?
a. Monday
b. Sunday
c. Tuesday
d. Wednesday

4. 03 Problem
The last day of a century cannot be either
i. Tuesday
ii. Thursday
iii. Saturday
iv. Sunday
a. i + iv
b. i + ii
c. i.ii&iii
d. i. iii & iv

5. 04 Problem
A Father's age is three times the sum of the ages of his two children, but 20 years
hence his age will be equal to the sum of their ages. Then the father's age is
a. 30 years
b. 40 years
c. 35 years
d. 45 years

6. 05 Problem
If the radius of circle is increased by 50%, then the area of the circle is increased
by
a. 125%
b. 100%
c. 75%
d. 50%

7. 06 Problem
The area of the largest circle, that can be drawn inside a rectangle with side 18 m
by 14 cm, is
a. 49 cm2
b. 154 cm2
c. 378 cm2
d. 1078 cm2

8. 07 Problem
The mean of five observations is 1 and their variance is 5.2. If three of these
observations are 1.2 and 6, then the other two are
a. 2 and 9
b. 3 and 8
c. 4 and 7
d. 5 and 6

9. 08 Problem
Sarita is standing facing north, she walks 10 km straight, turns left and walk
another 10 km and turns right and walk 5 km and finally turns left and walk 15
km to reach a park. Which direction is she facing now?
a. East
b. West
c. North
d. South

10. Directions (Questions 9-12):
Refer to the diagram below to answer these questions.
The Percentage Break-up of the Total Income of four Salesmen

11. 09 Problem
If the total income of O is Rs. 6,000 and of N is Rs. 7,000, the difference in their
salaries is
a. Rs. 1.750
b. Rs. 1,500
c. Rs. 2,000
d. Rs. 2,250

12. 10 Problem
If the total income of P is Rs. 8,000, the interest he earns from his savings is
a. Rs. 1,000
b. Rs. 1,500
c. Rs. 3,000
d. Rs. 2,000

13. 11 Problem
If the incentives of M are Rs. 3,000, his salary is of his total income
a. 1/2
b. 1/4
c. 2/3
d. ¾

14. 12 Problem
Which of the following is true?
I. The salary of M is more than that of P.
II. The salary of N is equal to his incentive?
III. The salary of M is equal to interest earned by N from his savings
a. Only II
b. Only I
c. Only III
d. II and III

15. Directions (Questions 13 – 18):
Each of these consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II.
Decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer
the question. Mark answer as:
1. if the data in statement 11 alone are sufficient to answer the question, while
the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the questions.
2. if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while
the data in statement 11 alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
3. if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to
answer the question.
4. if the data even in both statements 1 and II together are not sufficient to
answer the question

16. 13 Problem
What is the average daily wages of a worker who works five days if he made Rs.
80 on the first day?
I. The worker made a total of Rs. 400 for the first four days of work.
II. The worker made 20% more each day than he did on the previous day.

17. 14 Problem
What is the difference between the shares of profits of Ramesh and Rahul out of
a profit of Rs. 6,000 at the end of the year?
I. Ramesh invested Rs. 50.000 and withdrew Rs. 1,000 after 4 months.
II. For the last 8 months, Rahul's capital was 125%ofRameshs.

18. 15 Problem
What will be the compound interest on a sum after 3 years?
I. The compound interest on the sum at 5% per annum for 2 years is Rs. 12.50
more than the simple interest.
II. The difference between compound interest and simple interest on the sum
for 3 years at 5% per annum is Rs. 38.125.

19. 16 Problem
What is the height of a right-angled triangle?
I. The area of the right-angled triangle is equal to the area of a rectangle
whose breadth is 15 m.
II. The length of the rectangle is 12 m.

20. 17 Problem
The area of a square is equal to that of a circle. What is the circumference of the
circle?
I. The diagonal of the square is X inches.
II. The side of the square is Y inches.

21. 18 Problem
What is the cost of laying the carpet in a rectangular hall?
I. Cost of carpet is Rs. 450 per square meter.
II. Perimeter of the hall is 50 meters.

22. Directions (Questions 19-21):
In each of these questions, two quantities are given in Columns A and B.
Compare the two quantities. Mark answer as
1. if the quantity in Column B is greater.
2. if the quantity in Column A is greater.
3. if the two quantities are equal.
4. if the relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

23. 19 Problem
Column A Column B
6% of 42 7% of 36

24. 20 Problem
Column A Column B
(16/4 + 8x2-8) (3x4 + 1 / 5-3)

25. 21 Problem
Column A Column B
0.01 divided by 0.1 0.01 times 0.1

26. 22 Problem
Column A Column B
The number of 10 sections a circle 10
can be divided into by 4 chords

27. 23 Problem
Column A Column B
The area of a circle The area of an equilateral
whose radius is triangle whose side is
7 cm ,7 cm

28. 24 Problem
Column A Column B
(Base 4 number) 12 3 3 (Base 5 number)4 3 2

29. 25 Problem
The highest score in an innings was 2/9 of the total score and the next highest
was 2/9 of the remainder. These scores differ by 8 runs. What was the total score
in the innings?
a. 152
b. 162
c. 142
d. 132

30. 26 Problem
In a family, the father took of the cake and he had 3 times as much as others had.
The total number of family members is
a. 7
b. 3
c. 10
d. 12

31. 27 Problem
Three men start together, to travel the same way around a circle track of 11 km
1
Circumference. Their speeds are 4, 5 and 8 km/hr, respectively. They will meet
2
at the Starting point after
a. 12 hrs
b. 11hrs
c. 22 hrs
d. 20 hrs

32. 28 Problem
2 3
The circumferences of the fore and hind-wheels of a carriage are 2 5 and 3
7
respectively. A chalk mark is put on the point of contact of each wheel with the
ground at any given moment. How far will the carriage have travelled so that its
chalk marks may be again on the ground at the same time?
a. 26 m
b. 16 m
c. 24 m
d. 42 m

33. 29 Problem
Five painters can paint a wall 100 m long in 10 days of 8 hours each. How many
days of 6 hours each will it take for 8 men to paint a wall 30 m long?
a. 2 1
2
b. 1
c. 3
3
d. 1 4

34. 30 Problem
The average of 11 results is 50. If the average of first six results is 49 and that of
last six 452; the sixth result is
a. 60
b. 56
c. 64
d. 70

35. 31 Problem
1,087 is divided among A, B. and C such that if Rs. 10, Rs. 12 and Rs. 15 are
diminished from the share of A. B and C respectively, the remainders will be in
the ratio of 5. 7 and 9. What is the share of B ?
a. Rs. 355
b. Rs.362
c. Rs. 465
d. Rs. 260

36. 32 Problem
Three equal jugs are filled with a mixture of milk and water. The proportion of
milk to water in each glass is in the ratio 1 : 2, 2 : 3 and 3 : 4. The contents of the
three jugs are emptied into a single vessel. What is the proportion of milk and
water in it?
a. 125: 195
b. 125:193
c. 130:200
d. 135:215

37. 33 Problem
A Chartered Accountant, applies is for a job in two firms X and Y. The ability of his.
being selected in firm X is 0.7, and being rejected at Y is 0.5 and the probability of
at least one of his applications being rejected is 0.6. What is the probability that
he will be selected in one of the firms?
a. 0.8
b. 0.2
c. 0.4
d. 0.7

38. 34 Problem
The probability that a contractor will get a plumbing contract is 2/3 and the
probability that he will not get an electric contract is 5/9. If the probability of
getting at least one contract is 4/5, what is the probability that he will get both?
a. 31/45
b. 8/45
c. 14/45
d. None of these

39. 35 Problem
How many bricks are required to build a wall of 15 meters length. 12 meters
height and 20 cm thickness, if one brick is 36 cm long, 25 cm wide and 10 cm
thick?
a. 1000
b. 2000
c. 12000
d. None of these

40. 36 Problem
A rectangular piece of cardboard 18 cm x 24 cm is made into an open box by
cutting square of 5 cm side from each corner and building up the side. Find the
volume of the box in cubic centimeters.
a. 432
b. 560
c. 216
d. None of these

41. 37 Problem
The number of bricks, each measuring 25 cm x 12.5 cm x 7.5 cm, required to
construct a wall 6 m long, 5 m high and 0.5 m thick, while the mortar occupies 5%
of the volume of the wall, is
a. 5740
b. 6080
c. 3040
d. 8120

42. 38 Problem
Which of the following states has emerged as the top state in terms of per capital
income in 2007?
a. Maharashtra
b. Punjab
c. Andhra Pradesh
d. Haryana

43. 39 Problem
Excise duty on a commodity is payable with reference to its
a. production and sale
b. production
c. production and transportation
d. production, transportation and sale

44. 40 Problem
Which of the following has sought permission from the government to serve an
arbitration notice on a sister public sector concern GAIL (India) Ltd. on the issue
of gas sales from the Panna- Mukta-Tapti (PMT) field?
a. OXGC
b. ONGC- Videsh
c. NTRC Ltd.
d. Oil India Limited

45. 41 Problem
Which is the UN agency which launched a new scheme, Maternal and Perinatal
Death Inquiry (MAPED) to conduct probe in maternal deaths?
a. 1LO
b. UXDP
c. UNESCO
d. UN1CEP

46. 42 Problem
The Human Development Index (HDI) ranking of India as per Human
Development Report 2007 is
a. 122nd
b. 116th
c. 128th
d. 117th

47. 43 Problem
As per the survey of the World Economic Forum, which among the following
countries has been ranked as the world's most competitive economy?
a. India
b. China
c. United Sates
d. Russia

48. 44 Problem
Dola Banerjee is related with which of the following games?
a. Badminton
b. Archery
c. Tennis
d. Table Tennis

49. 45 Problem
The e-paper launched by the former Indian President Dr. Abdul Kalam is
a. Mission India
b. Billion Beats
c. Success Stories
d. Islands of Success

50. 46 Problem
Tecsar, Israel's technology satellite was placed into intended orbit in January 2008
by
a. PSLVC-7
b. PSLVC-8
c. PSLVC-9
d. PSLVC-10

51. 47 Problem
United Nations Day for Women's Rights and International Peace is observed on
a. March 8
b. March 7
c. March 9
d. March 10

52. Directions (Questions 48-51):
In each question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action
numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true,
then decide which of the two given suggested courses of action logically
follows for pursuing. Mark answer as
1. if only II follows
2. if only I follows
3. if neither I nor 11 follows
4. if both I and II follows

53. 48 Problem
Statement: Most of the development plans develop in papers only.
Courses of action:
The officials should be instructed to supervise the field.
The supply of paper to such departments should be cut short.

54. 49 Problem
Statement: A large number of engineering graduates in the country are not in a
position to have gainful employment at present and the number of such
engineers is likely to grow in the future.
Courses of action:
I. The government should launch attractive employment generation schemes
and encourage these graduates to opt for such schemes to use their expertise
and knowledge effectively.
II. This happened due to proliferation of engineering colleges in the country
and thereby lowered the quality of the engineering graduates. Those colleges
which are not equipped to impart quality education should be closed down.

55. 50 Problem
Statement: The police department has come under a cloud with recent
revelations that at least two senior police officials are suspected to have been
involved in the illegal sale of a large quantity of weapons from the state police
armory.
Courses of action:
I. A thorough investigation should be ordered by the State Government to
bring out all those who are involved in the illegal sale of arms.
II. State police armory should be kept under Central Government's controls.

56. 51 Problem
Statement: The Committee has criticized the Institute for its failure to implement
a dozen of regular programmers despite an increase in the staff strength and not
drawing up a firm action plan for studies and research.
Courses of action:
I. The broad objectives of the Institute should be redefined to implement a
practical action plan.
II. The Institute should give a report on reasons for not having implemented the
planned programmers.

57. Directions (Questions 52-55):
In each of these questions a statement is followed by two conclusions numbered
I and II. Assume everything in the statement to be true. Consider Vie two
conclusions together and decide which of them logically follows beyond a
reasonable doubt from the information given in the statement. Mark answer as
1. if only conclusions II follows
2. if only conclusion I follows
3. if neither I nor II follows
4. if both I and II follow

58. 52 Problem
Statement: I know nothing except the fact of my ignorance
Conclusions:
I. Writer's knowledge is very poor.
II. The World of knowledge is too vast to be explored by a single- person.

59. 53 Problem
Statement: Quality has a price tag. India is allocating lots of funds to education.
Conclusions:
I. Quality of education in India would improve soon.
II. Funding alone can enhance quality of education.

60. 54 Problem
Statement: A man must be wise to be a good wrangler. Good wranglers are.
talkative and boring.
Conclusions:
I. All the wise persons are boring.
II. All the wise persons are good wranglers.

61. 55 Problem
Statement: In case of outstanding candidates, the condition of previous
experience of social work may be waived by the admission
committee for M.A. (Social work).
Conclusions:
I. Some of the students for M.A. (Social work) will have previous experience of
social work.
II. Some of the students for M.A. (Social work) will not have previous
experience of social work.

62. Directions (Questions 56-58):
In each of these questions there are given two statement numbered I and II.
These statements may be either independent causes or may be effects of
independent causes. One of these statements may be the effect of the other
statement. Read both the statements and decide which of the following answer
choices correctly depicts the relationship between these two statements. Mark
answer as
1. If ‘I' is the immediate and principal cause and '11' its effect.
2. if ‘I‘ is effect and 'II' is its immediate and principal cause.
3. if ‘I’ is an effect but 'II' is not its immediate and principal cause.
4. If ‘II’ is an effect but T is not its immediate and principal cause.

63. 56 Problem
I. The interview panel has recommended 5 Candidates for 3 vacancies which
are to be filled in immediately in Company Z.
II. The 5 candidates have been asked to contact Company Z next week to know
their result and accordingly to collect appointment letters.

64. 57 Problem
I. The financial position of the Electricity Division of State XYZ has weakened
and it has made demand to the government for more subsidies.
II. While the Electricity Division of State XYZ has revised the pay and perks of its
employees, several subscribers and farmers have refused to pay long pending
dues.

65. 58 Problem
I. Recently the prices of the personal computers (PCs) have come down.
II. Some school children are showing keen interest in learning computers.

66. Directions (Questions 59-62):
Answer these questions independent of each other.
I. Recently the prices of the personal computers (PCs) have come down.
II. Some school children are showing keen interest in learning computers.

67. 59 Problem
A mall-order company recently had a big jump in clothing sales after hiring a
copywriter and a graphic artist to give its clothing catalogue a magazine-like
format designed to appeal to upscale clientele. The company is now planning to
launch a house wares catalogue using the same concept. The company's plan
assumes that
a. an upscale clientele would be interested in a house wares catalogue
b. other house wares catalogues with magazine-like formats do not already
exist.
c. the same copywriter and graphic artist could be employed for both the
clothing and house wares catalogs.
d. customers to whom the old clothing catalog appealed will continue to make
purchase from catalogs with the new format.

68. 60 Problem
Some people have questioned the judges' objectivity in cases of sex discrimination against
women. But the record shows that in sixty percent of such cases, the judges have decided in
favour of the women. This record demonstrates that the judges have not discriminated
against women in cases of sex discrimination against woman.
The argument above is flawed in that it ignores the possibility that
a. many judges find it difficult to be objective in cases of sex discrimination against
women.
b. a large number of the judge's cases arose out of allegations of sex discrimination
against women.
c. the judges arc biased towards women defendants or plaintiffs in cases that do not
involve sex discrimination.
d. the majority of the cases of sex discrimination against women that have reached the
judges' courts have been appealed from a lower court.

69. 61 Problem
A famous singer recently won a lawsuit against an advertising firm for using another singer
in a commercial to evoke the famous singers' well- known rendition of a certain song. As a
result of the lawsuit, advertising firms will stop using imitators in commercials. Therefore,
advertising costs will rise, since famous singers' services cost more than those of their
imitators. The conclusion above is based on which of the following assumptions?
a. Commercials using famous singers are usually more effective than commercials using
imitators of famous singers.
b. Most people are unable to distinguish a_ famous singer's rendition of a song from a
good imitator's rendition of the same song.
c. The original versions of some well-known songs are unavailable for use in commercials.

70. 62 Problem
Whenever a major airplane accident occurs, there is a dramatic increase in the number of airplane
mishaps reported in the media, a phenomenon that may last for as long as a few months after the
accident. Airline officials assert that the publicity given the gruesomeness of major airplane accidents
focuses media attention on the airline industry, and the increase in the number of reported accidents is
caused by an increase in the number of news sources covering airline accidents, not by an increase in the
number of accidents.
Which of the following, if true, would seriously w ken the assertions of the airline officials?
a. Airline accidents tend to occur far more often during certain peak travel months.
b. The publicity surrounding airline accidents is largely limited to the country in which the crash
occurred.
c. News organizations clo not have any guidelines to help them decide how severe an accident is.
d. Airplane accidents receive coverage by news sources only when the news, sources find it
advantageous to do so.

71. Directions (Questions 63-65): Read the following information to answer these
questions.
Eight students A. B. C. D, E. F. C, and H arc planning to enjoy car racing. There are
only two cars and the conditions are as follows:
1. One car can accommodate maximum five and minimum four students.
2. A will sit in the same car in which D is sitting but H is not in the same car.
3. B and C can't sit in the same car in which D is sitting.
4. F will sit in the car of four people only along with A and E but certainly not
with G.

72. 63 Problem
If H and G are sitting in the same car, who are the other two students sitting in
the same car?
a. C and D
b. B and C
c. B and D
d. E and B

73. 64 Problem
If E and A are sitting in the same car, which of the following statements is true?
a. B is sitting in the same car
b. Five students are sitting in the same car
c. F is not sitting in the same car
d. G is not sitting in the same car

74. 65 Problem
Which of the following statements is superfluous for the above sitting
arrangements?
a. Only (ii)
b. Only (i)
c. Only (iii)
d. Only (iv)

75. Directions (Questions 66-67):
Study the information below to answer these questions.
A leading socialite decided to organize a dinner and invited a few of her friends.
Only the host and the hostess were sitting at the opposite ends of a rectangular
table, with three persons along each side. The pre-requisite for the seating
arrangement was that each person must be seated such that at least on one side
it has a person of the opposite sex. Maqbool is opposite Shobha,
who is not the hostess. Ratan has a woman on his right and is sitting opposite a
woman. Monisha is sitting to the hostess's right, next to Dhirubhai. One person is
seated between Madhuri and Urmila, who is not the hostess. The men were
Maqbool, Ratan, Dhrubhai and Jackie, while the women were Madhuri, Urmila,
Shobha and Monisha.

76. 66 Problem
Which of the following persons is definitely not seated next to a person of the
same sex?
a. Madhuri
b. Maqbool
c. Jackie
d. Shobha

77. 67 Problem
If each person is placed directly opposite his or her spouse, which of the
following pairs must be married?
a. Madhuri and Dhirubhai
b. Ratan and Monisha
c. Urmila and Jackie
d. Ra ta n a nd Mad h uri

78. 68 Problem
A man pointing to a photograph says, "The lady in the photograph is my
nephew's maternal grandmother," How is the lady in the photograph related to
the man's sister who has no other sister?
a. Sister-in-law
b. Cousin
c. Mother
d. Mother-in-law

79. 69 Problem
When Anuj saw Manish, he recalled, "He is the son of the father of my
daughter's mother." Who is Manish to Anuj?
a. Brother
b. Brother-in-law
c. Cousin
d. Uncle

80. 70 Problem
The door of Aditya's house faces the East. From the back side of his house, he
walks straight 50 metres, then turns to the right and walks 50 metres again.
Finally, he turns towards left and 8tops after walking 25 metres. Now, Aditya is in
which direction from the starting point?
a. North-east
b. South-east
c. South-west
d. North-west

81. 71 Problem
Two ladies and two men are playing cards and are seated at North, East, South
and West of a table. No lady is facing East. Persons sitting opposite to each other
are not of the same sex. One man is facing South. Which directions are the ladies
facing?
a. South and East
b. East and West
c. North and East
d. North and West

82. Directions (Questions 72-75):
The following graphs show the distribution of workers of different categories A to
D in Retail Sector and Insurance Sector.

83. 72 Problem
If there are 18000 workers each in both Retail and Insurance Sector, then how
many workers of category A in Insurance Sector are more than those in Retail
Sector?
a. 5000
b. 450
c. 750
d. 500

84. 73 Problem
If the total number of workers of category B in Retail Sector is 2200, how many
workers of category D are in Insurance Sector?
a. 1600
b. 1710
c. 2100
d. Can't be determined

85. 74 Problem
Workers of category D in Retail Sector is what per cent of the workers of category
B in Insurance Sector?
a. 45%
b. 40%
c. 50%
d. Can't be determined

86. 75 Problem
The ratio between the number of workers of Retail Sector and that of Insurance
Sector is 5 : 3, and the total number of category C workers in Retail Sector is
1840. The number of category A workers in Insurance Sector is
a. 2304
b. 2208
c. 2496
d. Data Inadequate

87. Directions (Questions 76-79):
Ramesh spends his remaining amount.. The graphical representation of h is
given below

88. 76 Problem
If regular household expenses as a percentage of salary exceed 50%, then the
living style in that year is said to be lavish. For Ramcsh, the living style has been
lavish in all years except.
a. Year 2
b. Year 1
c. Year 3
d. Year 4

89. 77 Problem
What is the average monthly salary of Ramesh over the four year period?
a. Rs. 12,700
b. Rs. 10,800
c. Rs. 14,800
d. Rs. 16,800

90. 78 Problem
In which year was the savings rate the highest?
a. Year 2
b. Year 1
c. Year 3
d. Year 4

91. 79 Problem
In which year is the percentage increase in total expenses the highest?
a. Year 2
b. Year 1
c. Year 3
d. Year 4

92. Directions (Questions 80-84):
Answer these questions based on the information given below:
M/s MB Corporation (MBC) recently recruited a bright young MBA from a top B-School. This person
called Mr. Akshay Kumar was entrusted the task of finding the costs of products and total cost of
operating the plant. MBC produces two products: Pearls and Bubbles. The cost of producing a product is
the summation of manufacturing cost and advertising cost. Manufacturing cost is a direct function of the
number of items. Advertising cost is budgeted at the beginning of the year and remains the same. If MBC
produces 100 units of Pearls, it incurs a cost of Rs. 1,200 on Pearls and if it produces 200 units of Pearls it
incurs a cost of Rs. 2,000 on Pearls. If MBC produces 100 units of Bubbles, it incurs a cost of Rs. 0,200 on
Bubbles and if it produces 200 units of Bubbles, it incurs a cost of Rs. 10,800' on Bubbles. In addition to
individual costs on Pearls and Bubbles, MBC also incurs some fixed costs on account of administrative
expenses. If 100 units each of Pearls and Bubbles are produced, MBC incurs a total cost of Rs. 11,000.
MBC. has a total capacity of producing 1000 units of Pearls and 2000 units of Bubbles.

93. 80 Problem
What is the total advertising budget of Pearls and Bubbles?
a. Rs. 4,000
b. Rs. 400
c. Rs. 8,000
d. Rs. 12,000

94. 81 Problem
What is the variable cost per unit of Pearls and Bubbles?
a. Pearl = Rs. 4, Bubble = Rs. 6
b. Pearl = Rs. 8, Bubble = Rs. 16
c. Pearl = Rs. 6, Bubble = Rs. 8
d. Pearl = Rs. 8, Bubble = Rs. 20

95. 82 Problem
What is the total cost incurred by MBC on administrative expenses, assuming 100
units each of Pearls and Bubbles are produced?
a. Rs. 600
b. Rs. 400
c. Rs. 800
d. Rs. 1000

96. 83 Problem
What is the total cost incurred by MBC when its plant operates at full capacity?
a. Rs. 39,600
b. Rs. 37,800
c. Rs. 40.000
d. Rs. 48,600

97. 84 Problem
What is the total expenditure on advertisement when 200 units of Pearls and 300
units of Bubbles are produced?
a. Rs. 23,600
b. Rs. 8,000
c. Rs. 22,800
d. Rs. 800

98. 85 Problem
X, Y and Z are the three contestants in a one km race. If X can give Y a start of 50
m and X can give Z a start of 69 m, how many meters start can Y give Z?
a. 15 m
b. 40 m
c. 20 m
d. 25 m

99. 86 Problem
A rectangular plate is of 6 m breadth and 12 m length. Two apertures of 2 m
diameter each and one aperture of 1 m diameter have been made with the help
of a gas cutter. What is the area of the remaining portion of the plate?
a. 68.5 sq. m.
b. 62.5 sq. m.
c. 64.5 sq. m.
d. None of these

100. 87 Problem
The area of a right-angled triangle is two-thirds of the area of a rectangle. The
base of the triangle is 80% of the breadth of the rectangle. If the perimeter of the
rectangle is 200 cm, the height of the triangle is
a. 30 cm
b. 20 cm
c. 15 cm
d. Data inadequate

101. 88 Problem
The number of way’s in which a committee of 5 can be chosen from 10
candidates so as to exclude the youngest if it includes the oldest is
a. 178
b. 196
c. 202
d. None of these

102. 89 Problem
If a flagstaff 6 m high placed on the top o a tower throws a shadow of 2>/3 m long
the ground, then the angle that the sun makes with the ground is
a. 60o
b. 30°
c. 45°
d. None of these

103. 90 Problem
A man observes that when he moves up a distance C meters on a slope, the angle
of depression of a point on the horizontal plane from the base of the slope is 30°.
and when he moves up a further distance of C meters, the angle of depression of
that point is 45°. The angle of inclination of the slope with the horizontal is
a. 45°
b. 60°
c. 75°
d. 30o

104. 91 Problem
An ordinary cube has four blank faces, one face marked 2 and another marked 3,
then, the probability of obtaining 12 in a throws is
a. 5/1944
b. 5/1296
c. 5/2592
d. None of these

105. 92 Problem
A fair win is tossed a fixed number of times. If the probability of getting 4 heads
equals the probability of getting 7 heads, then the probability of getting 2 heads
is—
a. 1/1024
b. 55/2048
c. 3/4096
d. None of these

106. 93 Problem
Four sheets 50 cm x 5 cm are arranged without overlapping to form a square
having side 55 cm. What is the area of inner square so formed?
a. 2500 cm2
b. 2025 cm
c. 1600 cm2
d. None of these

107. 94 Problem
Which of the following is not a trade association?
a. CI1
b. FICCI
c. ASSOCHAM
d. ICWAI

108. Directions (Questions 94-97):
Choose the order of the sentences marked A, B, C, D and E to form a logical paragraph.
A. The economy is moving towards a dangerous situation.
B. The price index and inflation rate are shooting up and the share market has shown a great decline.
C. All this is the result of wrong decisions and advice by bureaucrats. It is surprising that to reduce the
price index, the government is importing essential goods with sparing a thought for the Indian
farmers.
D. A day will come when the nation will have to bow before other nations for food.
E. Food and shelter cannot be substituted by industrialization and share markets.
a. ADECB
b. ABDEC
c. ABODE
d. EDBAC

109. 95 Problem
A. The post-election crisis in Kenya remains unresolved.
B. The damage being done to the country's economy is severe: tourism, horticulture, and other
industries that depend on trade beyond the Kenyan border are reeling.
C. Many countries responsed, providing essential humanitarian assistance and logistical support. For
this, I and many other Kenyans are very grateful.
D. Thousands of livelihoods, along with investments throughout the region, are threatened and
collapsing.
E. As the situation in Kenya escalated with murders, rapes, burning of property, looting and the
displacement of thousands of people throughout the country the international community was
urged to help.
a. ABCED
b. AEDBC
c. ACDEB
d. ABDEC

110. 96 Problem
The United Nations Conference on Climate Change, now on in Bangkok, is expected to produce an
agreement to cut global emissions drastically by 2050.
The C02 emission accounts for 817,023 Gg or about 65 per cent of the CHG. Transportation sector alone
contributes 79,800 Gg and land use change (including forestry) 37,675 Gg of COr
Much attention is paid to clean vehicle technologies and emission standards, while architecture and
urban planning have not been viewed as a means to reduce emissions.
Over the years, countries committed to cutting emissions have submitted their estimates to UNPCCC.
In 2004, India estimated that it emits 1,228,540 Gigagram (Gc) or about 1,228 million tonnes of
anthropogenic greenhouse gases (GHG) every year.
a. DEABC
b. BCDBEA
c. ABCED
d. ADEBC

111. 97 Problem
Studies show that low-density suburbs consume twice as much energy as the dense core areas.
The per capita GHG emission in India is 1-3 tonnes, which is far lower than in the United States and other
developed countries.
In this context, an integrated transport and land use plan becomes important to mitigate climate change.
The Stern Review on the economics of climate change shows that buildings contribute 8 per cent of
world GHGs. Tokyo leads by example: it has made rooftop greening practices mandatory for new
buildings.
Large buildings with more than 10,000 square metres of floor space have to disclose their environmental
plans at the approval stage and businesses classified as energy consuming need to have in place plans to
reduce energy use.
a. ACDED
b. ADEBC
c. BCDEA
d. EDCBA

112. 98 Problem
The International Date Line is located in the
a. Arctic Ocean
b. Pacific Ocean
c. Indian Ocean
d. Atlantic-Ocean

113. 99 Problem
Which is the country's third largest private sector lender whose name has been
officially changed to the Axis Bank Ltd.?
a. HDFC Bank
b. Lord Krishna Bank
c. Centurion Bank
d. UTI Bank

114. 100 Problem
Which of the following is India's indigenous helicopter, the weaponised version
of which made its first flight recently?
a. Cheetah
b. Dhruv
c. Chetak
d. Rajhans

115. 101 Problem
Who has written the book, 'Gifted'?
a. Anita Desai
b. ShobhaDe
c. Nikita Lalvani
d. Indira Sinha

116. 102 Problem
The currency of Bhutan is
a. Rupiah
b. Lote
c. Ngultrum
d. Shekel

117. 103 Problem
'Novartis' a Swiss based firm is operating in India in a big way. Novartis has its
business in which of the fallowing sectors in India?
a. Diamond Mining
b. Textiles
c. Paper Newsprint
d. Steel and Iron

118. 104 Problem
Miss Riyo Mori who was crowed 'Miss Universe- 2007 belongs to which of the
following aunties?
a. N. Korea
b. S. Korea
c. China
d. Japan

119. 105 Problem
Which of the following states is a major rubber producer?
a. Orissa
b. Punjab
c. West Bengal
d. Kerala

120. 106 Problem
Robert Zeoilick has taken over as the President of
a. World Trade Organization
b. World Bank
c. Asian Development Bank
d. UNESCO

121. Directions (Questions 107-110):
Each of these questions consists of a statement, followed by two arguments
numbered I and II. Decide which of the arguments is a 'strong' argument and
which is a 'weak' argument. Mark answer as
1. if only argument II is strong
2. if only argument 1 is strong
3. if neither I nor 11 is strong
4. if both I and II are strong

122. 107 Problem
Statement: Should there be a ceiling on the salary of top executives of
multinationals in our country?
Arguments:
I. Yes, Otherwise it would lead to unhealthy competition and our own industry
would not be able to withstand that.
II. No, With the accent on liberalization of economy, any such move would be
counter-productive. Once the economy picks up, this disparity will be
reduced.

123. 108 Problem
Statement: Should India encourage exports, when most things are insufficient
for internal use itself?
Arguments :
I. Yes, We have to earn foreign exchange to pay for our imports.
II. No, Even selective encouragement would lead to shortages.

124. 109 Problem
Statement: Should government stop spending huge amounts of money on
international sports?
Arguments:
I. Yes, This money can be utilized for up liftmcntof the poor.
II. No, Sports persons will be frustrated and will not get. international
exposure.

125. 110 Problem
Statement : Should all refugees, who make unauthorized entry into a country,
be forced to go back to their homeland?
Arguments :
I. Yes, They make their colonies and occupy a lot of land.
II. No, They leave their homes because of hunger or some terror and on
human grounds, should not be forced to go back.

126. Directions (Questions 111-114):
In each of these questions a statement is followed by two assumptions
numbered I and II. Consider the statement and the following assumptions.
Decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement. Mark answer as:
1. if only assumption II is implicit
2. if only assumption I is implicit
3. if neither I nor II is implicit
4. if both I and II arc implicit.

127. 111 Problem
Statement: All existing inequalities can be reduced, if not utterly eradicated,
by action of governments or by
Assumptions:
I. Inequality is a man-made phenomenon.
II. No person would voluntarily part with what he possesses.

128. 112 Problem
Statement : " You are hereby appointed as a programmer with a probation
period of one year and your performance will be reviewed at the end of the
period for confirmation." - A line in an appointment letter.
Assumptions :
I. The performance of an individual generally is not known at the time of
appointment offer.
II. Generally an individual tries to prove his worth in the probation period.

129. 113 Problem
Statement: The patient’s condition would improve after operation.
Assumptions :
I. The patient can be operated upon in this condition.
II. The patient cannot be operated upon in this condition.

130. 114 Problem
Statement : The government has decided to disinvest large chunk of its equity in
select public sector undertakings for a better fiscal management.
Assumptions:
I. The amount generated out of the disinvestments process may reduce
substantially the mounting fiscal deficits.
II. There will be enough demand in the market for the shares of these
undertakings.

131. Directions (Question 115-117):
Refer to the graph to answer these questions that follow:

132. 115 Problem
In how many months during 2005-06 were the imports more than the imports
during the corresponding months in 2004-2005?
a. 7
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6

133. 116 Problem
What is the approximate growth rate of imports in 2005-06 over that in 2004-
05?
a. 3%
b. 11%
c. -6%
d. 8%

134. 117 Problem
If the exports in 2004-05 and 2005-06 were Rs. 140,000 crore and Rs. 152,000
crore respectively, where SI = RS. 32 in 2004-05 and SI = Rs. 37 in 2005-06, what
was the change in trade balance ?
(Trade balance = Exports - Imports)
a. 32% increase
b. 33% decrease
c. 44% decrease
d. 46% increase

135. 118 Problem
Five engines consume 6 metric tones of coal when each is running 9 hours a day.
How mucosal (in metric tones) will be needed for 8 engines, each running 10
hours a day, it being given that 3 engines of the former type consume as much as
4 engines of the latter type?
a. 6.48
1
b. 3
8
c. 8
5
d. 8
9

136. 119 Problem
The average temperature from Monday to Thursday is 48° and from Thursday to
Friday is 52°. If the temperature on Monday is 42°, what was it on Friday?
a. 55°
b. 52°
c. 58°
d. 51°

137. 120 Problem
The average age of a husband, his wife and son 3 years ago was 27 years and that
of his wife and son 5 years age was 20 years. What is the husband's present age?
a. 35 years
b. 32 years
c. 37 years
d. 40years

138. 121 Problem
Weight of two persons A and B is in the ratio of 3:5. As weight increased by 20%
and the total weight of A and B together becomes 80 kg. with an increase of 25%.
By what percent did the weight of B increase?
a. 25%
b. 20%
c. 28%
d. 30%

139. 122 Problem
A body of 7,300 troops is formed of 4 battalions so that 1/2 of the first, 2/3 of the
second, 3/4 of the third and 4/5 of the fourth are all composed of the same
number of men. How many men are there in each?
a. 53
b. 73
c. 87
d. 33

140. 123 Problem
Two numbers are such that their difference, their sum and their product arc in
the ratio of 1 : 7 : 24. The product of the numbers is
a. 12
b. 6
c. 24
d. 48

141. 124 Problem
If 2 kg of metal of which 1/3 is zinc and the rest copper be mixed with 3 kg of
metal of which 1/4 is zinc and the rest copper, what is the ratio of zinc to copper
in the mixture?
a. 13:35
b. 12:30
c. 15:40
d. 17:43

142. 125 Problem
Five liters are drawn from a vessel full of water and substituted by pure milk.
Again, five liters of mixture are drawn and substituted by pure milk. If the vessel
now contains water and milk in the ratio 9 : 16, the capacity of the vessel is
a. 11.5 liters
b. 11 liters
c. 12 liters
d. 12.5 liters

143. 126 Problem
X and Y start a business. X puts in double of what Y puts. X withdraws 1/3 of his
stock at the end of 3 months but at the end of 7 months puts back 1/3 of what he
had taken out, when Y takes out 1/4 of his stock. If X receives Rs. 300 profit at the
end of the year, what does Y receive?
a. Rs. 192
b. Rs. 108
c. Rs. 208
d. Rs. 272

144. 127 Problem
There are two types of workers — category I and category II. A category 1 worker
can finish a piece of work in 2m/3 hours and a category II worker can finish in m
hours. If one worker of category I and two workers of category II are employed,
the work can be finished in how many hours?
a. 7m/2
b. 9m/2
c. 2m/7
d. 2m/9

145. Directions (Questions 128-131):
Hire purchasing pattern of different vegetables A to E by Mr. X on different
weekdays is given in the table. Study the table to answer these questions.

146. 128 Problem
On which of the following days, does Mr.. X spend the least amongst for buying
all the five vegetables?
a. Saturday
b. Monday
c. Thursday
d. Sunday

147. 129 Problem
Total expense on Thursday for buying vegetable D is approximately what per cent
of the expense for buying vegetable C on Sunday?
a. 110%
b. 115%
c. 105%
d. 100%

148. 130 Problem
The expense on vegetable B on Saturday is equal to that on which type of
vegetables on any day?
a. B
b. A
c. C
d. D

149. 131 Problem
What is the ratio of the rate of the costliest vegetable to that of the cheapest?
a. 8:31
b. 4:63
c. 21:1
d. 4:5

150. 132 Problem
A bath can be filled by the cold water pie in 10 minutes, and by the hot water
pipe in 15 minutes. A person leaves the bathroom after turning on both pipe's
simultaneously and returns at the moment when the bath should be full. Finding,
however, that the waste pipe has been opened, he now closes it. In 4 minutes
more the bath is full. In what time would the waste pipe empty it?
a. 9 minutes
b. 6 minutes
c. 12 minutes
d. 15 minutes

151. 133 Problem
A, B, C are pipes attached to cistern. A and B can fill it in 20 and 30 minutes,
respectively, while C can empty it in 15 minutes. If A, B and C be kept open
successively for 1 minute each, how soon will the cistern be filled?
a. 158 minutes
b. 152 minutes
c. 167 minutes
d. 169 minutes

152. 134 Problem
Train A leaves LudhisCna for Delhi at 11 am, running at the speed of 60 km/hi*.
Train B leaves Ludhiana for Delhi by the same route at 2 pm in the same day,
running at the speed of 72 km/hr. At what time will the two trains meet each
other?
a. 5 am on the next day
b. 2 am on the next day
c. 5 pm on the next day
d. None of these

153. 135 Problem
A train 75 m long overtook a person who was walking at the rate of 6 km/hr and
passes him 7 1 in seconds. Subsequently, it overtook second person and
2 3
passed him in 6 seconds.
4
At what rate was the second person travelling?
a. 4 k/hr
b. 1 km/hr
c. 2 k/hr
d. 5 km/hr

154. 136 Problem
A boat takes 3 hours to travel from place A to B downstream and back from B to A
upstream. If the speed of the boat in still water is 4 km, what is the distance
between the two places?
a. 12 km
b. 8 km
c. 6 km
d. data inadequate

155. 137 Problem
1
A man can row 3/4 of a km against the stream in 11 4 minutes and return in '
minutes. Find the speed of the man in still water.
a. 4 km/hr
b. 3 km/hr
c. 5 km/hr
d. 6 km/hr

156. 138 Problem
Suresh takes 6 hrs 30 min to walk to a certain place and to come back by scooter.
He would have gained 2 hrs 10 min by riding the scooter both ways. How much
time would he have taken if he would have walked both ways?
a. 8 hrs 50 min
b. 8 hrs 40 min
c. 9 hrs.
d. 9 hrs 30 min.

157. 139 Problem
A train travelling at 30 km/hr passes in 12 seconds another train half its length,
travelling in the opposite direction at 54 km/hr. If it also passes a railway
1
1 minutes, what is the length of the plat form?
platform in 2
a. 800 m
b. 700 m
c. 900 m
d. 1000 m

158. Directions (Questions 140-143):
Choose the pair of words having similar relationship between the words in
Capitals.

159. 140 Problem
EXTORTION : INTIMIDATING : :
a. non sequitur : vital
b. in extremis : early
c. redundant: useless
d. caveat emptier : trivial

160. 141 Problem
ADMONISHMENT : CASTIGATION ::
a. perjury: corruption
b. anxiety: fear
c. provocation: instigation
d. peccadillo: sin

161. 142 Problem
RUFFLE : EQUANIMITY : :
a. flourish: prosperity
b. flounce: turmoil
c. provoke: discussion
d. disturb: balance

162. 143 Problem
SUAVE : SOPHISTICATED
a. adage: language
b. attitude : conduct
c. calmness : placidity
d. ally: foe

163. Directions (Questions 144-147):
Choose the alternative to replace the underlined part of the sentences.

164. 144 Problem
The students were in the blue when they heard that the examination would not
be postponed after all.
a. violent and angry
b. cheerless and depressed
c. wearing blue badges
d. singing sad songs

165. 145 Problem
He never wanted to keen her under his thumb and so he let her do what she
liked.
a. restricted
b. below his thumb
c. unduly under control
d. in his presence all the time

166. 146 Problem
The cashier wiped the nose of his employer by presenting false bills.
a. cheated
b. abused
c. slapped
d. doomed

167. 147 Problem
It is time that professors came down from their ivory towers and studied the real
needs of students.
a. detachment and seclusion
b. expensive fee
c. dreamlands
d. a tower made of ivory

168. 148 Problem
For the new Rainfed Area Development Programme, the proposed allocation is
a. Rs. 200 crore
b. Rs. lOOcrore
c. Rs. 300 crore
d. Rs. 400 crore

169. 149 Problem
The Bharti Group is all set to enter the mutual fund industry in association with
the French company
a. French
b. De Beers
c. Siociete Generale
d. AXA

171. Directions (Questions 150-160):
Read the passages carefully to answer these questions.

172. PASSAGE I
A high level committee headed by C. Rangarajan has looked at financial inclusions in its entirety. Its
recent report offers a conceptual framework for a subject that is becoming increasingly relevant to the
macro economy. It also makes some important recommendations for making inclusive practices part of
mainstream finance. The committee has approached its task by defining financial inclusion as widely as
possible. Inclusion generally denotes delivery of financial services at an affordable cost to the
disadvantaged and vulnerable sections of the society. Not just access to a bank account and hence to
deposit facilities, access to timely and adequate credit should I also come under financial inclusion.
Going further, the committee would like a range of products and services as may be appropriate,
including micro finance and insurance products (both life and non-life), to be made available. Consumer
education should go hand in hand with the availability of services. Financial inclusion in the broadest
sense, therefore, is to make a available a comprehensive range of financial services to those who need
them. It is customary to concentrate on supply side factors for propagating financial inclusion. Opening
of branches of commercial banks in rural areas is one of them. But along with making available those
services, it is necessary to stimulate the demand for them. In many parts of the country, among different
sections of the population, demand for financial services is weak or limited. Efforts must be taken to
improve their physical and human endowments, enhance productivity, mitigate risks and so on. To
underlie the urgency, the committee has recommended that financial inclusion must be taken up on a

173. mission mode. A National Mission on Financial Inclusion comprising representatives of stakeholders
should be constituted to achieve the objective in a given time frame. Also a National Rural Financial
inclusion Plan should be launched with clear target to provide access to comprehensive financial services
to at least 50 per cent of the financially excluded households (approximately 55-77 million) by 2012
through commercial and regional rural banks. The remaining households are to be covered by 2015.
Extending financial services on such a massive scale will naturally cost money. During the initial years at
least the promotional efforts will require outside funding. Two dedicated funds, with contributions from
the Central Government, NABARD and the Reserve Bank of India, in the forefront of technology
adaptation will bear a part of the costs of development. The thrust of the committee's recommendations
is on improving the delivery systems both conventional and innovative. Among the important measures
recommended here, the role of the business correspondent/facilitator has been re-emphasized. These
function as agents of the banking system and contribute to the delivery of financial services at places
where bank branches arc unviable. Technology is obviously necessary to reach out to customers. In the
committee's view, the business correspondent/ facilitator model supported by suitable technology
should form the core strategy for spreading financial inclusion. Ultimately, banks should Endeavour to
have "a BC touch point" in each of the six lakh villages in the country. This is an ambitious target by any
yardstick. At a practical level, it will be extremely daunting. Although gaining popularity slowly, the

174. business correspondent model will take a while to gain acceptance. Even more basic, for rural banking to
flourish, appropriate methodologies have to be found. Apart from challenges in technology, there are big
issues concerning human resources. Staff will have to be trained and motivated through a system of
suitable incentives. Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) - have a critical role to play. Micro finance, self-help
groups and their linkages with banks are other important channels for spreading inclusion. The
committee would like NABARD to extend micro finance services to the urban poor also. Its charter may
have to be suitably amended.

175. 150 Problem
Financial inclusions means
a. making available all insurance products.
b. opening of branches of commercial bank branches in rural areas.
c. making available a comprehensive range. of financial services to all those
needy.
d. All these

176. 151 Problem
What is the core strategy model for ensuring financial inclusion?
a. Mission mode
b. Improving delivery systems
c. Both (1) and (2)
d. Business correspondent/facilitator

177. 152 Problem
According to the passage which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
a. Appropriate rural banking methodologies are to be identified.
b. BC model should be supported by suitable technology.
c. HR issues are to be tackled.
d. All these.

178. 153 Problem
The main channel(s) for spreading financial inclusion is/are
a. Self Help Group
b. Regional Rural Banks
c. Micro Finance
d. Both (1) and (2)

179. PASSGE-II
The taps are beginning to run dry in the Capital, although summer has scarcely begin. It's symbolic of a
deep-seated problem in the water sector. The plain fact is that India needs a lot more water
infrastructure. As the finance minister P. Chidambaram noted in his Budget speech, "massive
investments are required to be made in irrigation projects." In fact, to better coagulate funds, the FM did
go on to float the idea of an Irrigation and Water Resources Finance Corporation. Side by side, what's
required is large-scale improvement in governance and delivery of water resources and services. There is
indeed a major financial resources gap when it comes to public irrigation and water supply. Budgetary
funding has generally been declining over the secular period, and user-charges are negligible. The result
is that there's an enormous backlog of deferred maintenance of the water machinery, and large
proportions of recurrent budgets in the states arereally spent on staff and personnel. It has meant that
for long years, we have had inadequate investment in water storage, despite the fact that India has a
highly seasonal pattern of rainfall. Hence, the scenario of paucity of water resources and stressed supply.
A recent expert committee report noted that we can store only about 30 days of rainfall. By way of
comparison, the figure can touch 900 days in the major river basins abroad. The policy objective then, for
both the Centre and the states, needs to be too much improve the quality of public irrigation and water
supply senders. The ground reality is that there is ' endemic corruption" in the field. The fact remains
that with insufficient funds for routine operations and maintenance, the value of irrigation and water

180. availability can be relatively high. Which points at much scope for give-and-take, and, generally speaking,
a surfeit of essentially avoidable distortions in the water economy here. For instance, groundwater
drawn from tube wells now make up over 50% of irrigated area. With well over 20 million tubercles
installed, irrigators have either drilled individual tube wells or relied on those of others to access water. It
has led to elaborate and informal water markets. But "working around" poorly governed water systems
implies huge societal costs given the sheer lack of scale economies. It also means rapidly depleting
ground water aquifers and a constantly dipping water table. Meanwhile, over 80% of domestic water
supply now comes from groundwater. The urban middle class has come up with "coping strategies" given
the lack of proactive policy on the water front. These include household storage and pumping systems*
purchase of bottled water and the like. But. the costs are high: several times higher than the average
payment to the water utility in Delhi, for example. For low-income households, the situation can be far
worse. As far industry, there are added costs to bear, as when aquifers are either not. The available or
are exhausted. Often enough, the way ahead is to opt for high-cost "captive" alternatives, such as
reverse osmosis of wastewater or have either drilled individual tube wells or relied on those of others to
access water. It has led to elaborate and informal water markets. But "working around" poorly governed
water systems implies huge societal costs given the sheer lack of scale economies. It also means rapidly
depleting ground water aquifers and a constantly dipping water table. Meanwhile, over 80% of domestic

181. water supply now comes from groundwater. The urban middle class has come up with "coping
strategies" given the lack of proactive policy on the water front. These include household storage and
pumping systems purchase of bottled water and the like. But. the costs are high: several times higher
than the average payment to the water utility in Delhi, for example. For low-income households, the
situation can be far worse. As far industry, there are added costs to bear, as when aquifers are either not.
The available or are exhausted. Often enough, the way ahead is to opt for high-cost "captive"
alternatives, such as reverse osmosis of wastewater or desalination. Given the overall costs of negligent
public policy, we do need to comprehensively modernize the systems for allocating funds and monitoring
surface and groundwater resources. As India picks up economic speed, the demand for water would
invariably rise. Given the investment backlog in irrigation and water supply, it suggests all the more need
for heightened policy attention, in tandem, what's essential is to improve the deteriorating quality of the
water-related environment. Fortunately, international experience shows that as incomes rise,
environmental quality tends to improve hand in hand. But it would be presumptuous not to have
corrective policy in place. For the foreseeable future, there will need to be increased budget support,
read money of taxpayers, for irrigation. The idea of reasonable charges — against the backdrop of
generally poor services provided by corrupt and inefficient agencies - would naturally be resisted. Which
is why any plan for tariffs to better reflect costs, even proper maintenance, must really be the third leg

182. of a triangle in which the first two legs ought to be "improve services first," and "provide those services in
an efficient and accountable manner." Project management will be key. The Central budgetary allocation
under the irrigation head has quite rightly been handsomely hiked to Rs. 20,000 crore. In parallel, what's
required are standardized norms for project management and effective policy implementation. Project
delays and cost overruns are endemic to irrigation projects. Besides, inter-disciplinary team-work. so
essential in the water sector, seems to be absent pan-India. The ground reality is that the links between
academic institutes and water sector practitioners are weak or simply non-existent. The result is that
academics don't get to look at "important practical issues and problems" on an ongoing basis. Back-to-
back, water managers are more likely not to be kept abreast of the latest technologies. It all needs to
change. Fast!

183. 154 Problem
India needs a lot more water infrastructure". What is the proposed current
Central budgetary allocated?
a. Rs. 20 million
b. Rs. 200 billion
c. Data is passage inadequate
d. None of these

184. 155 Problem
The urban middle class has come up with 'coping strategies' to overcome water
shortage. These include:
a. Purchase of bottled water
b. Household pumping and storage
c. Both (1) and (2)
d. None of these

185. 156 Problem
Which of the following statement« is/are true with reference to international
scenario as per the passage?
a. As incomes rise environmental quality improves.
b. Major river basis can store up to 900 days rainfall.
c. Both (1) and (2)
d. None of these

186. 157 Problem
Which of the following statement is/are false according to the passage?
a. In India, the links between academics and practitioners of water sector are
weak.
b. Standardized norms for water project management are necessary.
c. Corruption is endemic in public irrigation and water supply sectors.
d. Significant parts of states budgets are spent on maintenance.

187. PASSAGE III
More than 400 planes belonging to domestic carriers, both private and state-run, planes owned by
corporate honchos, state government aircrafts, cargo planes and international carriers are all
crisscrossing India skies everyday. Despite opening up of the economy, government has failed to upgrade
infrastructure in civil aviation to meet new challenges. Hence, the looming chaos and what could be a
disaster waiting to happen. This crisis could get compounded with fast growing air traffic as more and
more people have begun to prefer air travel rather than rail travel. The warning signals are already there.
And the indications for this come from no less a body than the Airports Authority of India (AAI).
According to AAI's projections passenger air traffic in India will grow by 21.6% in 5 years, fuelled by
increasing number of people taking to wings, thanks to rising incomes levels and growing global interest
among Indians. The earlier projections of AAI we much more conservative butthe writing on the wall
dictated otherwise and the projections were revised. The latest figures of the body managing airports
are twice its earlier expectations. Its earlier figures said Indian passenger traffic would grow to 120
million by the end of 2011-12. But AAI later reversed tis projections more than doubling it to 256- 5
million. Keeping India's current population at one billion plus, this is definitely over 20% of the number
of ever increasing Indians. The other AAI projection is the slower growth of aircraft movement, which is
the number of takeoffs and landings than the passenger volumes. Aircraft movement is projected to rise
by nearly 17% by 2011-12, which could mean higher capacity utilization, estimated at less than 70%. But

188. it could also mean airlines fly bigger aircraft to accommodate increasing number of passengers while
their load factor remained around the same level. But is slower growth of movement any consolation?
That does not help as the number of commercial aircraft is rising by leaps and bounds to cater to the
increasing passenger traffic. Experts warn trouble lies ahead unless something serious was done to
control the situation. Three years ago, there were 130 commercial planes, and the number has now
swelled to 350, and growth is expected to continue apace: the Government estimates that India's fleet
will reach approximately 500-550 aircraft by the end of 2010. 10 Indian carriers have placed orders for
over 100 aircraft worth $15 billion. By the time even 10% of the population begins to fly, India will need a
whopping 5,000 aircraft, light years beyond the capacity of its already beleaguered airports to handle.
Earlier it was just the state-owned Air India and Indian Airlines. That meant fewer flights, not difficult for
the airports to cope with. But economic liberalization brought in large-scale upward mobility resulting in
more and more people opting for planes as a means of transport. Liberalization also saw the civilaviation
policy also rolled out the read carpet for global entrepreneurs to invest in the domestic airline firms.
While there is a cap of 10% ion foreign direct investment (FDI) in Indian carriers, the Reserve Bank of
India has allowed foreign institutional investors (FIIs) to buy stake in domestic carriers beyond the
sartorial cap through secondary market purchases. Non-resident Indians arc allowed 100% stake in
domestic carriers; foreign airlines are barred from buying into Indian aviation companies. Within few

189. years of economic liberalization getting started, there were a host of private airlines giving the state-
owned carriers that have merged to form one entity now, a run for their money. The government has
been fairly liberal in licensing new airlines even though it has been pretty firm that they should be
allowed to operate on international routes only after 5 years of experience in the Indian skies. With so
many airlines, the customer has become the king as each carrier tries tooutdo the rivals with competitive
ticket prices and other goodies to woo the cost-conscious travellers attracting more people to travel by
planes. The advent of no-frills budget airlines whose rates often vied with the prices on the common
man's mode of transport, the train, also contributed to increase in civilian air traffic. And it is not just the
Indian carriers, private and state-owned. International airlines are increasing their flights to India and
new international airlines art; also making a beeline for the country. International budget carriers,
especially Asian low-cost carriers are queuing up for a piece of action in India. Already, Iran's Jazeera
Airways and Sharjah-based A1 Arabia have registered their presence here. Among other airlines toying
with the idea of entering the Indian market are Tiger Air, a joint venture between Temasek Holdings and
Singapore Airlines, Thailand based private carrier Nok Air,
Indonesia's Lion Air, United Arab Emirates' Ras A1 Khaima (RAK) Airlines, Malaysia's Air Asia and Saudi
Arabia's Sama Airway. Asia-Pacific-based airlines increased their passenger carrying capacity by "a
whopping 42%, last year, far higher than European and North American carriers. The rise was driven

190. largely by bhuge growth in Indian and Chinese air traffic that has turned Asia into the world's fastest
growing aviation market. And India, according to an International Air Transport Association (IATA) report,
is the driving force behind global civil aviation business that is expected to grow from $5.1 billion to $5.6
billion this year. With India, attracting international airlines like a magnet and its own air traffic shooting
up, it is time for action to get in shape the country's skies and airports for the expected .deluge. At this
rate, the skies over India could be choc-«i-bloc with flights unless the civil aviation authorities get their
act together. While hailing the growth of the aviation sector in India IATA director general and chief
executive officer Giovanni Bisognani does not mince words: "Infrastructure must catch up. This needs the
urgent attention of the government with consistent and coherent application of policy. We need results
fast or a great start could turn to disaster." And India could well be courting disaster by unbolting the
floodgates of aviation sector without corresponding up gradation of infrastructure and safety norms. And
experts say up gradation could mean virtually redrawing the aviation map of India. The latest AAI data
could lead to airport developers reworking some of their calculations to add more parking bays and
largest terminals. But will all this really help? The upgrading of the airports has to match the burgeoning
traffic. Many experts disagree on whether Indian civil aviation authorities are up to this onerous task.
Aviation experts say with flight safety norms at a discount in Indian airports, increase in air traffic
increases the risk factor. They fear that the dramatically speedy increase in air traffic in a country not

191. particularly famous for its air safety, would increase manifold the risks of flying unless civil aviation
authorities are able to speedily improve safety standards. Indian airports, even the ones in metros are
equipped with outdated safety equipment that are hardly useful when the airports arc enveloped by a
fog or lashed by heavy downpour. Particularly, Delhi airport is a nightmare in winter when fog forces the
entire air traffic to go haywire. The equipment to guide aircraft to take off and land in such circumstances
are absent in many airports and where they exist they are far below international standards, experts say.
Mumbai airport is also often shut during torrential monsoon, leading to the cancellation of flights
throwing schedules out of kilter. Increase in air traffic without improving such conditions would
exacerbate things, experts feel. "In civil aviation parlance, ATM stands for air traffic management but in
India the more appropriate expansion would be air traffic mismanagement" quipped an aviation expert.
And the weakest part of ATM is its backbone, the air traffic control (ATC). The traffic controllers are
hardly prepared for the civil aviation explosion. Their lack of adequate capability for it has been
demonstrated by frequent near-misses when it comes to collisions in the air. Their equipment is also
outdated. This is extremely alarming, as one wrong move by ATC could put the life of hundreds of
passengers in peril. Experts say while government promises every year that the country's airports will get
modern facilities for helping aircraft land in conditions of zero visibility, little has been done.

192. 158 Problem
In another 3-4 years, the Indian air passenger traffic will be about
a. 17% more than the current volume
b. 120 million
c. 200 million
d. Insufficient information in passage.

193. 159 Problem
The official estimate of India's commercial fleet size by 2010 is
a. 350
b. 130
c. 550
d. 5000

194. 160 Problem
The usage 'light years' in the passage means
a. much over
b. far away from
c. Both (1) and (2)
d. None of these

195. 161 Problem
ATM in the context of the passage rightly means
a. Air Traffic Management
b. Automatic Teller Machine
c. Air Traffic Management
d. Automatic Traffic Management

196. 162 Problem
Which of the following statements is/are false according to the passage?
a. Airports in Indian metros are equipped with all necessary navigational
equipments.
b. The air traffic controllers are working hard to gear up for increased traffic.
c. Asia is the fastest growing aviation market just because of Chinese air traffic
growth.
d. All these

197. PASSAGE IV
The theory of competence-based competition introduced by Hamel, Heena and Sanchez, and Heence
and Thomas, provides an important deepening and extension of the resource-based perspective. Among
the strengths of the competence-based perspective is its emphasis on an open, holistic and systemic
view of the organization, its focus on the dynamics of competence building and leveraging and its
extension of the concept of core competence from the intra-firm to the competitive and industry levels.
In building on, rather than replacing the resource-based perspective, the theory of competence-based
competition carries with it the three main strengths of the resource- based perspective, by emphasizing
the dynamics of value creation and the role of managers in that process, building on Penrose's seminal
work on firm growth: the heterogeneity of firms, seen as a result both of initial resource endowments
and of managerial decision about which products, markets and critical resources to create and leverage;
firm resources as a bundle of intangibles a well as tangibles, with particular emphasis on the long-
underestimated intangible such as client loyalty, stakeholder relations, recognized brands, reputation
and capabilities. In highlighting the role of competence, the theory of competence-based competition
emphasizes what we consider to be the most important aspects of the management of firm resources, in
particular learning, both at the individual and the collective levels. However, in our view the theory of
competence-based competition is also faced with some of the same challenges as the resource-based
perspective, including the following. First, the notion of a firm's competence needs to be challenged for

198. two reasons: (a) individual capabilities, which constitute a key component of the firm's total competence
base, are nowowned by the firm but rather hired from individuals on a contractual basis. One excellent
and recent example may be the controversy described in the press concerning the acquisition of the
advertising firm Saatchi & Saatchi. and the ownership of the Saatchi name, the reputation, and the client
relations. Could Maurice Saatchi himself be prevented from carrying a large part of these invisible assets
with him upon leaving the firm? Clearly not, as neither seller nor buyer controls the image and
expectations for future services which the clients of the firm hold after the acquisition. It is their opinion
of the expected value added from the firm versus Mr. Saatchi which determines their loyalty. Moreover,
(b) firm value creation depends on both intra-firm and extra-firm resources and competencies, a fact
which is highlighted in both the increasing literature on joint ventures and alliances, and the research on
national or rational cluster, where firms are cross-fertilized from each others' competencies as a result of
interactions facilitated by (S/C-445) meaningful firm boundaries, and the fact that ownership of
resources is not all that is involved in the creation and appropriation of value from the use of resources.
Second, the literature on competence has so far showed only limited interest in the motivational
characteristics of human resources, which are the sources of competencies. As pointed out by Itami,
human resources can be divided into two categories: one is the labour part, where one hour of labour
input to a given process yields a relatively fixed and easily measured yield in forms of output, costs or

199. potential revenues. The other is problem- solving or competence part, where individuals are not
substitutable and hours are highly geterogeneous. A five-person team may, in one hour, generate a
tremendous breakthrough with income potential similar to that of thousands of labour hours in normal
operations, but may also spend weeks together withoutgenerating anything but conflict. A number of
factors affect the value of an hour's input of competence, including but not limited to team composition,
interpersonal 'chemistry', personal health, motivation, culture, physical and structural context. This fact
complicates the importance (S/C-445) tangible resources. The value of Mr. Jones' capabilities when
motivated, for example, can hardly be compared to its value when he only goes by the rules and
performs what is in his job description. Third, the value of a resource or a competence is extremely hard
to measure. One of the main problems in operation alsiation of intangible resources is empirical testing
of the resource-based perspective is the challenge of the flexibility of a competence, and the
impossibility of measuring its value in isolation from the task to be solved or the market which is to buy
its product or solution. For competence-based services in particular, this challenge is substantial.
Similarly, the less routine based the operations of the firm, the harder it is to estimate the value of the
competence in future applications. As Penrose pointed out: one key feature of firms is that their
managers arc not bound by the product and services delivered in previous periods, and hence they are
also free to choose alternative applications of the resources in order to access alternative markets where

200. the value of the resources is more appreciated. The shift in focus at this stage of theory development
from an emphasis on competencies and resources that the firm has, to the competencies and resources
that firm utilizes appears helpful, as suggested by the systematic and dynamic view of competence-
leveraging, and competence- building activities. Accompanying this shift in emphasis is the observation
substantiated in field studies, that only a relatively small portion of the firm's competence is actually
used at any given point in time. The combination of tasks to be accomplished and an organization
structure cementing bundles of tasks into fixed positions limited individuals and their chances of utilizing
their capabilities fully. Hence, there is a surprising slack in the competence of most organizations and an
increased emphasis and possible ways of mobilizing this competence might improve value creation
substantially. This would, however, require both a different mindset among most managers as well as
employees, and a different type of organization structure allowing for a more efficient and flexible
competence. We, therefore, suggest a shift from the firm as the focal unit of analysis. In order to analyze
activities as the source of competencies, we have proposed a framework where the 'unit of activity' is
the central concept. This framework is not, in our opinion, and alternative to the theory of competence-
based competition, but rather and extension and partial application of it, albeit with a different primary
focus. For the purpose of explaining and improving the form of value creation, we suggest that it may be
fruitful to emphasis 'resources in action', rather than resources per se. And. we also suggest that an

201. emphasis on value creation as the result of resource- leveraging and resource-building needs to focus on
the actual activities resulting in value creation, rather than limiting the focus to whatever goes on within
some elusive and hard-to-defmce firm boundaries. The theoretical foundation of the activity framework
is primarily threefold : (a) the current attention to activities of business firms in strategic management,
(b) activity theory, as originally developed by Russian scholar Vytgosky, and (c) theories of collective
action. In strategic management, the focus on activities has primarily been occupied with understanding
firms' activities, as opposed to seeing firms as activity systems. Van de Ven and Poole saw action as
impossible without authority, shared rules and information, arguing that coordinated action requires
common goals. Spender argued that collective tacit knowledge is built through activities, and that this
process is socially constructed. Activities might in turn evolve into routines through the emergence of
collective skill building. The value chain conceptualized the operations of the firms as a chain of
activities, from input to output. Subsequently criticism has pointed out that the value chain might be
well suited for service firms and also for firms in networks. Lowendahl introduced the 'firm as a
collection of projects', also with a focus on how firms actually work more and more through the
coordination of project-driven activities rather than through hierarchical directives and controls.

202. 163 Problem
Which of the following is a true statement?
a. The resource-based perspective is an extension of the theory of competence-
based competition.
b. The theory of competence-based competition improves upon the resource-
based perspective.
c. The resource-based perspective is a rejection of the theory of competence-
based competition
d. The theory of competence-based competition discards the resource-based
perspective.

203. 164 Problem
According to the passage, which of the following is not a true statement ?
a. Individual capabilities have nothing to do with the firm's competence base.
b. The firm's total competence base is primarily constituted by individual
capabilities.
c. The firm does not own its competence base.
d. The individual capabilities are the key components of organizational
competence.

204. 165 Problem
According to the passage
a. at a given point of time a small portion of the firm's competence is unused.
b. at a given point of time a large portion of the firm's competence is not. used
c. at a given point of time a firm uses all its available competence.
d. an organizations’ structure facilitates the individuals to utilize their full
capabilities.

205. PASSAGE V
Organization are made of people. Without people, there can be no organization, Where people are
involved, some learning always takes place. The learning may be good or bad, but it happens all the
same. In other words, organizations can and do learn, since their people can and do learn, since their
people can and do learn. This ability of organizations takes the shape of strategic and competitive
advantage, when you begin to consider that we compete in a world full of knowledge, Not just that,
there is so much of knowledge getting added each day that it is almost impossible to compete on any
other basis. For sure, financial prudence and soundness helps but that is useful only if you can compete
in the first place. It therefore makes eminent sense for organizations to create an environment where
lots and lots of people learn lots and lots of new things all the time. Yes, companies do recognize this,
but the do mighty little about actually getting down to making it happen in bigand continuous doses.
There is another completely different advantage of competing on learning. Organizational knowledge is
the sum of many parts — the sum of many minds working together. This simply cannot be replicated by
the competition. Why? The reason is quite simple. It is not possible to replicate the same set of
circumstances and the same set of people existing in one company into another company. So. even if a
few people leave and join forces with the competition, all is not lost. As a result, when discussions center
around return on investment, there is the; invariable war cry for cost cutting. Such debates are common
in corporate setting and the outcome is invariably one-sided. Since the majority of costs relate to people,

206. let's seize a hatchet and cut the headcount. Few, far too few, senior managers think about the incredible
damage t.hey are doing by taking such an approach. No one pauses to ponder the loss of knowledge,
human capital, and loyalty. This is where the story of the titmouse becomes relevant. Alan Wilson, a
zoologist and biochemist at the University of California at Berkeley, has been studying how animals learn.
His research has established that there is a certain behaviour that enables primates and songbirds to
share the position at the top of the table of evolved species. Wilson's theory for accelerated anatomical
evolution describes three characteristics that enable learning. Innovations: As individuals and as a
community, they have the ability to invent new behaviour. They are capable of developing skills that
enable them to exploit and take advantage of their environment in newer and better ways, Social
propagations: Skills arc propagated and transferred in a proper and established way to the entire
community through direct communication, not genetically. Mobility: Individuals of the species have the
ability to move around. They use this ability to a tremendous extent. They flock and move in herds,
instead of keeping to simply failed to learn. In other words, the knowledge was simply, not passed to all
red rofiins. What was the difference between the two species? Basically, the titmice underwent a
remarkably successful process of institutional learning, while the red robins couldn't do so. This could
not be explained as a difference in communicating ability. Both species possess the same range of ability
to communicate. The difference lies in the process of social propagation — the manner in which timice

207. disseminate their skills between members of the community. And here is the difference. The titmice live
in pairs (male and female) during spring season. They live thus until their brood grow big enough to fly
and feed on their own. By the time summer arrives, the titmice can be seen hopping from one garden to
another in flocks. Their propensity to flocknis so powerful that the groups remain practically intact,
rioving the countryside. This movement pattern lasts through the summer. On the other hand, red robins
are highly territorial birds. They care for their young ones but have no ability to move as a community.
They guai J their turf jealously, and the only real communication that takes place is antagonistic and
adversarial. Wilson concluded that birds that flock lean much faster. Moreover, everyone is able to learn.
This greatly enhances their chances of survival, and speeds their evolution. The lessons for organizational
' learning from this study are profound, to put it mildly. How many organizations can you find where the
communication is not adversarial? Territorial behaviour and turf guarding are staple diets in corporate
corridors. Most organizational structures, in fact, encourage this behavior, albeit unknowingly. The
results are the same, just think, organizational charts have boxes in which people are placed. They then
have functions and divisions to make things worse. This is the perfect setting for the proliferation of
bureaucracy and empire-building. No wonder Hammer and Campy describe this as "The Humpty Dumpty
School of Organizational Management?' in their book, "He-engineering the Corporation". Mobility comes
from moving people across functions and divisions. That may be the easier of the two criteria, the tough

208. one is social transmission. As long as corporations are organized around functional concepts, social
transmission will take place in antagonistic manner. Here lies the key, then: CEOs who continue to
organize their structures by function are doomed to head unlearning organizations. Hey, even the
humble titmouse has figured that out. What is preventing the lofty man from emulating the titmouse?

209. 166 Problem
The author talks of creating an environment of learning. Why is there a need for
creating this type of environment?
a. The learning ability takes the shape of competitiveness and an environment is
needed to combat this competitiveness.
b. The world in which the organizations exit is full of knowledge, so it is
necessary to imbibe this knowledge.
c. An environment of learning is need because in an organizational set-up, there
are many minds working together.
d. All the above.

210. 167 Problem
Which one of the following is not an advantage of competing on learning in an
organizational set-up?
a. Knowledge is added each day and this knowledge becomes the parameter on
which one competes.
b. The leaving and movement of a few people doesn't create much difference.
c. Competition brings financial prudence and soundness
d. Everyone in the organization is able to learn and thus, exchange his or her
knowledge.

211. 168 Problem
What is "The Humpty Dumpty School of Organizational Management"?
a. It is a remark on the adversarial communication in an organization, which
leads to bureaucracy and empire building.
b. An institute where organizational management is being taken care of.
c. Organizations encourage bureaucratic and empire-building tempers by these
forms of structure of "The Humpty Dumpty School of Organization
Management".
d. "The Humpty Dumpty School" is a hypothetical business school.

212. 169 Problem
What does the passage advise CEO to do?
a. Acquire the ideas of organizational management.
b. Emulate the titmouse and apply its principles.
c. They should learn something about institutional learning.
d. They should become innovative and mobile.

213. Directions (Questions 170-173):
Choose the option to fill the blank.

214. 170 Problem
Being a bit hesitant about ___________ the man as the complete fraud he
suspected him to be, he chose to attack the weaker points of his theory,
__________ them one by one.
a. ridiculing, proving
b. denouncing, debunking
c. castigating, strengthening
d. mocking, destroying

215. 171 Problem
The analysis of the coach's report was anything but __________ , but those of us
who have learned to discount such dismal _______ are optimistic.
a. sanguinary, traps
b. pessimistic, confusion
c. malicious, benefits
d. pleasant, prognostications

216. 172 Problem
Although publicity has been __________ the film itself is intelligent, well-acted,
handsomely produced and altogether ________ .
a. extensive, moderate
b. tasteless, respectable
c. sophisticated, amateur
d. perfect, spectacular

217. 173 Problem
Although the whole team acted in unison, each member was ________ for a/an
_________ of the production process.
a. responsible, element
b. reliable, source
c. appointed, article
d. agreeable, felony

218. Directions (Questions 174-177):
There are four sentences marked A to D against each of these questions.
Identify the incorrect sentence(s).

219. 174 Problem
A. The typeface that you choose for your print project is an important piece of
the foremost overall design process.
B. First, narrow down your choice by selecting the tone you want to present.
C. Typefaces can convey personality.
D. For instance, if you are in the banking industry you might choose a classic
serif font such as Garamond, to convey dependability.
a. B only
b. A only
c. C only
d. No error

220. 175 Problem
A. Those not under the confluence with the mask are much more concerned
with the things at hand.
B. They see reason of building castles in the air and certainly noreason to go live
in them.
C. They will not dare to dream and will like things to be as they appear or seem
to appear.
D. They do not question and certainly do not. venture to know more than what
is let known to them by their predecessors.
a. A, C and D
b. A and B
c. A, Band C
d. None of these

221. 176 Problem
A. A new year is a goodwill time for a reality check on your love life.
B. If we have attached any much importance to specific days, using those days to
take specific decisions is a strategic approach.
C. Let go of memorabilia from old, failed relationships.
D. Bring all problems to the table in a spirit of give and take and thrash things
out.
a. B and C
b. A and B
c. C and A
d. D and B

222. 177 Problem
A. They don't ever care if they end up making spectacle of themselves.
B. They do it because they feel they have to
C. The passion that moves them cannot be diffused by etiquette or politesse or
even lack of opportunity.
D. So, this morning, I want to compliment my late night interlocutor for helping
me appreciate a quality I had not properly think before.
a. C and D
b. A and B
c. A, Band D
d. None of these

223. 178 Problem
Which Indian has been awarded Ramon Magsaysay Award. 2007?
a. G. Madhavan Nair
b. P. Sainath
c. P.A. Sangma
d. Arvind Kejariwal

224. 179 Problem
Which country will host the next SAARC Summit in 2008?
a. Maldives
b. Afghanistan
c. Nepal
d. Bangladesh

225. 180 Problem
Which of the following companies has emerged as the largest tax payer of the
country during 2006-07 ?
a. Reliance Industries
b. Aditya Birla Group
c. hero Honda
d. Tata Group

226. 181 Problem
Which contributes most to the GDP of India?
a. Cotton Textile Industries
b. Iron and Steel Industries
c. Railway
d. Service Sector

227. 182 Problem
Who among the following is known as the guardian of the "Public Purse' in India?
a. The President
b. The Comptroller and Auditor General
c. The Finance Minister
d. The Parliament

228. 183 Problem
Under the National Rural Employment Guarantee Programme the concerned
rural households are to be given job cards by
a. Gram Vikas Adhikari
b. Gram Panchayat
c. Block Development Officer
d. Kshcttra Panchayat.

229. 184 Problem
Videsh Sanchar Nigam Ltd. has been renamed as
a. Tata Sanchar Nigam Ltd.
b. Reliance Sanchar Nigam Ltd.
c. Tata Communication Ltd.
d. Bharti Communication Ltd.

230. 185 Problem
Which of the following corporate houses is developing a port in Mundra
(Gujarat)?
a. Ambani
b. Adani
c. Goenka
d. Birla

231. 186 Problem
Who is the Minister of State holding the portfolio of Communication and
Information Technology?
a. Dayanidhi Maran
b. A raja
c. Jyotiradiya Scindia
d. None of these

232. Directions (Questions 187-190):
Study the graph, to answer these questions. The graph shows the old and new
prices of petrol and diesel in four metropolitan cities of India.

233. 187 Problem
Which city witnessed the lowest increase in diesel prices?
a. Mumbai
b. Delhi
c. Chennai
d. Kolkata

234. 188 Problem
Raje Singh is a new growing businessman of Delhi. He runs his petrol car only in
Delhi. He purchases petrol for his car only from Delhi. Reduction of petrol prices
proved heartening news for him. He increased consumption of petrol to such a
percentage that his total monthly expenditure on petrol remained unaltered.
Increase in his consumption of petrol is
a. 4.58%
b. 4.80%
c. 5.04%
d. None of these

235. 189 Problem
What is the difference between the average per liter old prices and average per
litre new prices of diesel, in the given four metropolitan cities?
a. 7paise
b. 70paise
c. 0.7 paise
d. None of these

236. 190 Problem
Average new price of petrol per liter in the given four metropolitan cities is what
per cent of that in Kolkata?
a. 102.66%
b. 102%
c. 96.48%
d. 103.66%

237. 191 Problem
The Fifteenth SAARC Summit will be held in
a. Islamabad
b. Dhaka
c. Kathmandu
d. Kandy

238. 192 Problem
The newly elected General Secretary of Commonwealth is
a. Roiflen Sen
b. Nirupa Roy
c. ShivShanker
d. Kamlesh Sharma

239. 193 Problem
India is celebrating year 2008 as the year of
a. Tigers
b. Birds
c. Helicopters
d. Lions

240. 194 Problem
Which bank is known to be India's second- largest?
a. SBI
b. PNB
c. ICICI
d. HDFC

241. 195 Problem
Navratan status has been conferred on
a. HAL
b. BEL
c. PFC
d. All of these

242. 196 Problem
Interestingly, which well-known industrialist(s) subscribed in a big way to the
recently launched ICICI's mega equity offer?
a. Mukesh Ambani
b. Azim Premji
c. Rahul Bajaj
d. All of these

243. 197 Problem
India's economic growth rate is the second highest in the world alter.
a. China
b. Japan
c. UK
d. Russia

244. 198 Problem
Which group has stepped into the retailing segment with the launch that will
operate under the brand name 'More'?
a. Tata group
b. Reliance group
c. Aditya Birla group
d. Mahindra & Mahindra group

245. 199 Problem
Dada Saheb Phalke award is given to an achiever in the field of
a. Cinema
b. Literature
c. Art
d. Journalism

246. 200 Problem
The headquarters of International Labor Organization is located at
a. Geneva
b. Vienna
c. Zurich
d. Paris

247. Problem
FOR SOLUTION VISIT WWW.VASISTA.NET/