1
Marks: 2
A person can be prosecuted for both an attempt and the completed crime.
Choose one answer.
a. False
b. True
Question 2
Marks: 2
According to Hicks v. U.S.,150 U.S. 442 (1893)one can be held criminally liable by “merely speaking words of encouragement.”
Choose one answer.
a. True
b. False
Question 3
Marks: 2
According to MPC §1.07, conspirators in a completed crime may be punished for the conspiracy, as well as the completed crime.
Choose one answer.
a. True
b. False
Question 4
Marks: 2
According to your reading, in some states it is a more serious offense to break into a car and steal a tape player than it is to steal the entire car.
Choose one answer.
a. false
b. true
Question 5
Marks: 2
According to your reading, the charge of forgery includes each of the following elements except
Choose one answer.
a. the false making or altering
b. of a legally significant instrument
c. with intent to defraud
d. a court of law or financial institution
Question 6
Marks: 2
According to your reading, the legal term of art most often employed to distinguish murder from manslaughter is
Choose one answer.
a. causation
b. vicarious liability
c. burden of proof
d. malice aforethought
Question 7
Marks: 2
According to your reading, the Model Penal Code considers the solicitor to be as dangerous as the perpetrator of the completed crime.
Choose one answer.
a. false
b. true
Question 8
Marks: 2
According to your reading, the problems with corporate criminal liability include
Choose one answer.
a. Determining who to charge
b. determining punishment
c. the wording of criminal statutes
d. all of the above
Question 9
Marks: 2
Although they are similar, embezzlement differs from larceny in which of the following ways?
Choose one answer.
a. embezzlement requires asportation
b. the claim of right defense is generally not applicable to larceny
c. embezzlement does not require intent
d. none of the above
Question 10
Marks: 2
An aider and abettor or accessory before the fact must
Choose one answer.
a. be a principal of the crime
b. discourage the commission of the crime
c. solicit the commission of the crime
d. aid or encourage the commission of a crime
11
Marks: 2
An effective abandonment defense to aiding and abetting, or to accessory before the fact, will
Choose one answer.
a. vary with aid
b. depend on the type of solicitation made
c. all of the above
d. none of the above
Question 12
Marks: 2
Assault and battery are
Choose one answer.
a. civil torts, not crimes
b. handled the same in all jurisdictions
c. handled the same in civil and criminal proceedings
d. handled differently from jurisdiction to jurisdiction
Question 13
Marks: 2
At Common Law, which of the following elements is not accurate regarding the crime of Burglary?
Choose one answer.
a. Trespassory breaking and entering
b. Of the dwelling of anoth ...
Resolved Question 1 Marks 2 According to the New York Ju.docxdebishakespeare
Resolved Question:
1
Marks: 2
According to the New York Jury Instructions, the law requires the People to prove a defendant guilty beyond all possible doubt
Choose one answer.
a. true
b. false
Question 2
Marks: 2
Actus Reus is a term that means
Choose one answer.
a. Intent
b. Negligence
c. Trespatory Taking
d. Guilty Act
Question 3
Marks: 2
Ala. Code §12-15-34(d) lists 6 factors in assessing transferability of a juvenile case to an adult case. Which of the following is not a factor?
Choose one answer.
a. nature of the present offense
b. child’s prior record
c. demeanor
d. location of the offense
Question 4
Marks: 2
All criminal laws have been codified
Choose one answer.
a. False
b. True
Question 5
Marks: 2
An inference is
Choose one answer.
a. always unconstitutional
b. a permissive presumption
c. a mandatory presumption
d. a conclusive presumption
Question 6
Marks: 2
Boswell is charged with a misdemeanor. He may be sentenced for his crime with incarceration for a length of up to
Choose one answer.
a. 5 – 15 years
b. 3 years
c. 1 year
d. 15 years
Question 7
Marks: 2
Cage v. Louisiana was a United State Supreme Court case examining instructions on which of the following
Choose one answer.
a. a definition for reasonable doubt
b. Ex Post Facto
c. A and B
d. None of the above
Question 8
Marks: 2
Changes in the law favoring the Defendant can be applied retroactively.
Choose one answer.
a. True
b. False
Question 9
Marks: 2
Ex Post Facto laws are
Choose one answer.
a. forbidden
b. encouraged
c. formed in anticipation of an upcoming event
d. aimed at repeat traffic violators
Question 10
Marks: 2
Generally, an omission or failure to act is not a basis for criminal liability.
Choose one answer.
a. True
b. False
11
Marks: 2
If a jury is required to find Fact B if it found Fact A, it is considered an example of which of the following
Choose one answer.
a. conclusive presumption
b. unconstitutional
c. inference
d. permissive presumption
Question 12
Marks: 2
If a person is unable to ascertain that his conduct is forbidden by law, that law is considered unconstitutional due to
Choose one answer.
a. ex Post Facto
b. vagueness
c. contradiction
d. abandonment
Question 13
Marks: 2
If the government initiates the crime and the defendant was not predisposed to commit said crime, the defense would be
Choose one answer.
a. entrapment
b. duress
c. insanity
d. infancy
Question 14
Marks: 2
In a criminal case, most issues relevant to the criminal liability must be established, by the State by which of the following
Choose one answer.
a. beyond a reasonable doubt
b. by a preponderance of the evidence
c. more likely than not
d. clear and convincing
Question 15
Marks: 2
In a criminal case, the Burden of Proof lies with the Defendant.
Choose one answer.
a. false
b. true
Question 16
Marks: 2
In Patterson v. New York, 432 U.S. 19 ...
PART ONE – Case Scenarios – 6 points eachHarris wakes up i.docxLacieKlineeb
PART ONE – Case Scenarios – 6 points each
Harris wakes up in the middle of the night when he hears a noise downstairs. He grabs his handgun, goes downstairs, and sees two people in his living room. Without speaking, he begins firing and kills two teenagers. The teenagers, who were found to be unarmed, were apparently trying to steal a large screen television from Harris’ house. Argue for or against Harris’ self-defense claim at his trial for murder.
Anne is sitting on a bench in Farragut Square one spring day, drinking from a clearly marked bottle of Coca Cola. Some months later, Anne is surprised to see herself in a Super Bowl Coke commercial, depicting her sitting on the bench in the park. No one from Coca Cola had ever sought her permission, but Coke argues that it is permissible to take the picture of anyone in a public place. Does Anne have a valid intentional tort claim? Why or why not?
Valerie enters a Safeway store in Alexandria to shop. Fifteen minutes before she arrived, a store employee dropped a carton of eggs on the floor while stocking a shelf. The employee continued to stock the shelf, intending to mop up the broken eggs after he finished stocking. Valerie approaches the display where eggs are sold, and not seeing the broken eggs on the floor, slips and falls, and sustains a severe back injury. Analyze the chances of Valerie’s claim against Safeway using the process discussed in class and in your text. If she were to prevail, how would Valerie’s damages be calculated by the jury?
In a television interview, a politician calls a rival candidate a “loser”, a “slimy bribe taker”, and “an unqualified candidate because he was born in Canada”. Suppose there is no proof that the candidate ever lost an election, ever took a bribe, and was born in Canada to an American citizen mother. Evaluate EACH statement by the politician as to whether the statement constitutes slander. Please use the proper method of evaluating each element of a defamation claim.
Part Two – Multiple Choice – 2.5 points each
1. The following is a term describing the wrongful state of mind needed for a criminal action?
a. Actus reus.b. stare decisis c. carpe diem d. mens rea.
2. The term _______ or “guilty act” is used to describe the wrongful behavior in a criminal action.
a. mens rea b. locos actus c. actus reus d. criminal actus
A crime can be a felony, misdemeanor, or petty offense. How is this determination usually made?
a.. The statute defining the crime usually establishes whether the judge or jury decides if the crime is a felony, misdemeanor, or petty offense.
b. The judge decides.
c. The prosecutor decides how the charges will read.
d. The jury decides.
Trevor goes door-to-door selling magazine subscriptions. Trevor knows, however, that he is simply taking money for subscriptions and has absolutely no intention of ever arranging for the provision of magazines. Which of the following .
Resolved Question 1 Marks 2 According to the New York Ju.docxdebishakespeare
Resolved Question:
1
Marks: 2
According to the New York Jury Instructions, the law requires the People to prove a defendant guilty beyond all possible doubt
Choose one answer.
a. true
b. false
Question 2
Marks: 2
Actus Reus is a term that means
Choose one answer.
a. Intent
b. Negligence
c. Trespatory Taking
d. Guilty Act
Question 3
Marks: 2
Ala. Code §12-15-34(d) lists 6 factors in assessing transferability of a juvenile case to an adult case. Which of the following is not a factor?
Choose one answer.
a. nature of the present offense
b. child’s prior record
c. demeanor
d. location of the offense
Question 4
Marks: 2
All criminal laws have been codified
Choose one answer.
a. False
b. True
Question 5
Marks: 2
An inference is
Choose one answer.
a. always unconstitutional
b. a permissive presumption
c. a mandatory presumption
d. a conclusive presumption
Question 6
Marks: 2
Boswell is charged with a misdemeanor. He may be sentenced for his crime with incarceration for a length of up to
Choose one answer.
a. 5 – 15 years
b. 3 years
c. 1 year
d. 15 years
Question 7
Marks: 2
Cage v. Louisiana was a United State Supreme Court case examining instructions on which of the following
Choose one answer.
a. a definition for reasonable doubt
b. Ex Post Facto
c. A and B
d. None of the above
Question 8
Marks: 2
Changes in the law favoring the Defendant can be applied retroactively.
Choose one answer.
a. True
b. False
Question 9
Marks: 2
Ex Post Facto laws are
Choose one answer.
a. forbidden
b. encouraged
c. formed in anticipation of an upcoming event
d. aimed at repeat traffic violators
Question 10
Marks: 2
Generally, an omission or failure to act is not a basis for criminal liability.
Choose one answer.
a. True
b. False
11
Marks: 2
If a jury is required to find Fact B if it found Fact A, it is considered an example of which of the following
Choose one answer.
a. conclusive presumption
b. unconstitutional
c. inference
d. permissive presumption
Question 12
Marks: 2
If a person is unable to ascertain that his conduct is forbidden by law, that law is considered unconstitutional due to
Choose one answer.
a. ex Post Facto
b. vagueness
c. contradiction
d. abandonment
Question 13
Marks: 2
If the government initiates the crime and the defendant was not predisposed to commit said crime, the defense would be
Choose one answer.
a. entrapment
b. duress
c. insanity
d. infancy
Question 14
Marks: 2
In a criminal case, most issues relevant to the criminal liability must be established, by the State by which of the following
Choose one answer.
a. beyond a reasonable doubt
b. by a preponderance of the evidence
c. more likely than not
d. clear and convincing
Question 15
Marks: 2
In a criminal case, the Burden of Proof lies with the Defendant.
Choose one answer.
a. false
b. true
Question 16
Marks: 2
In Patterson v. New York, 432 U.S. 19 ...
PART ONE – Case Scenarios – 6 points eachHarris wakes up i.docxLacieKlineeb
PART ONE – Case Scenarios – 6 points each
Harris wakes up in the middle of the night when he hears a noise downstairs. He grabs his handgun, goes downstairs, and sees two people in his living room. Without speaking, he begins firing and kills two teenagers. The teenagers, who were found to be unarmed, were apparently trying to steal a large screen television from Harris’ house. Argue for or against Harris’ self-defense claim at his trial for murder.
Anne is sitting on a bench in Farragut Square one spring day, drinking from a clearly marked bottle of Coca Cola. Some months later, Anne is surprised to see herself in a Super Bowl Coke commercial, depicting her sitting on the bench in the park. No one from Coca Cola had ever sought her permission, but Coke argues that it is permissible to take the picture of anyone in a public place. Does Anne have a valid intentional tort claim? Why or why not?
Valerie enters a Safeway store in Alexandria to shop. Fifteen minutes before she arrived, a store employee dropped a carton of eggs on the floor while stocking a shelf. The employee continued to stock the shelf, intending to mop up the broken eggs after he finished stocking. Valerie approaches the display where eggs are sold, and not seeing the broken eggs on the floor, slips and falls, and sustains a severe back injury. Analyze the chances of Valerie’s claim against Safeway using the process discussed in class and in your text. If she were to prevail, how would Valerie’s damages be calculated by the jury?
In a television interview, a politician calls a rival candidate a “loser”, a “slimy bribe taker”, and “an unqualified candidate because he was born in Canada”. Suppose there is no proof that the candidate ever lost an election, ever took a bribe, and was born in Canada to an American citizen mother. Evaluate EACH statement by the politician as to whether the statement constitutes slander. Please use the proper method of evaluating each element of a defamation claim.
Part Two – Multiple Choice – 2.5 points each
1. The following is a term describing the wrongful state of mind needed for a criminal action?
a. Actus reus.b. stare decisis c. carpe diem d. mens rea.
2. The term _______ or “guilty act” is used to describe the wrongful behavior in a criminal action.
a. mens rea b. locos actus c. actus reus d. criminal actus
A crime can be a felony, misdemeanor, or petty offense. How is this determination usually made?
a.. The statute defining the crime usually establishes whether the judge or jury decides if the crime is a felony, misdemeanor, or petty offense.
b. The judge decides.
c. The prosecutor decides how the charges will read.
d. The jury decides.
Trevor goes door-to-door selling magazine subscriptions. Trevor knows, however, that he is simply taking money for subscriptions and has absolutely no intention of ever arranging for the provision of magazines. Which of the following .
1 Marks 1 Post Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)Choose one .docxmercysuttle
1
Marks: 1
Post Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD):
Choose one answer.
a. is exclusive to Vietnam Veterans
b. is a psychological illness characterized by panic attacks, nightmares, depression, guilt and flashbacks
c. can be caused by any highly emotional event
d. both b and c above
Question 2
Marks: 1
Which of the following is not a role of a crisis interventionist?
Choose one answer.
a. To encourage and allow the client to "make the decisions".
b. To tell the client exactly what he/she should do, when he/she should do it, and how he/she should do it.
c. To enable the client to become aware of possible solutions to the crisis.
d. To allow the client to vent emotions.
Question 3
Marks: 1
A victim's pain:
Choose one answer.
a. may often last weeks, months, or even years after the incident
b. usually goes away after the court process is completed
c. usually goes away after an advocate explains the legal system
d. usually goes away after receipt of financial reimbursement for personal and property losses
Question 4
Marks: 1
Which of the following does NOT create law:
Choose one answer.
a. U.S. Congress
b. National Association for the Advancement of Colored People
c. U.S. Environmental Protection Agency
d. Colorado Supreme Court
Question 5
Marks: 1
Which of the following is not considered to be a responsibility of a victim advocate?
Choose one answer.
a. To consider the job a serious commitment.
b. To litigate the victim's case.
c. To maintain confidentiality in all issues pertaining to clients.
d. To keep informed on relevant issues through ongoing training.
Question 6
Marks: 1
Which of the following is a goal of perpetrator counseling?
Choose one answer.
a. Counseling done in hopes to keep perpetrators from committing further crimes.
b. To encourage the perpetrator to commit more crimes
c. To meet the urgent physical and emotional needs of a victim.
d. To provide support and reassurance at the scene of the crime or shortly thereafter.
Question 7
Marks: 1
What court-related service involves monitoring court activity to make sure victims are being treated fairly by judges and attorneys?
Choose one answer.
a. Witness Alert
b. Court Watch
c. Restitution Assistance
d. Legislative Advocacy
Question 8
Marks: 1
Which of the following puts the statutes in the correct chronological order (earliest to most recent) by their date of enactment?
Choose one answer.
a. Violence Against Women Act; Victims of Crime Act; Victims & Witness Protection Act; Victims Rights & Restitution Act
b. The Victims of Crime Act; Victims Right & Restitution Act; Violence Against Women Act; Victims & Witness Protection Act
c. The Victim & Witness Protection Act; Violence Against Women Act; The Victims of Crime Act; Victims Rights & Restitution Act
d. The Victim & Witness Protection Act; The Victims of Crime Act; Victims Rights & Restitution Act; Violence Against Wome ...
Question 11. Answering the following case study requires reading.docxmakdul
Question 1
1. Answering the following case study requires reading the information in this link:
Case Study: The Dumonts
What type of testamentary trust has Walter created for Judy in his will?
a.
A charitable remainder unitrust
b.
A charitable remainder annuity trust
c.
A grantor retained annuity trust
d.
A charitable lead unitrust
2 points
Question 2
1. Answering the following case study requires reading the information in this link:
Case Study: The Dumonts
The Dumonts would like to help the Nature Conservancy this year by contributing some of Walter's company stock. Walter would also like to maintain Judy's life style by providing her with income for life. In addition, Walter would like to minimize taxes and transfer costs to accomplish these objectives. Given these objectives and constraints, which of the following lifetime gifts would be most appropriate?
a.
A bargain sale of stock to the Nature Conservancy.
b.
A gift of stock to a charitable pooled income fund for the Nature Conservancy.
c.
A gift of stock to a charitable remainder unitrust trust for the Nature Conservancy.
d.
A gift of stock to a charitable lead trust for the Nature Conservancy.
2 points
Question 3
1. Answering the following case study requires reading the information in this link:
Case Study: The Dumonts
Judy's will establishes a trust that distributes all income from the motel to Lee annually. Judy was concerned that this income could be subject to Lee's creditors, so she included a spendthrift clause in the trust. All of the following statements about trusts with spendthrift provisions are correct, except:
a.
A beneficiary may not assign, pledge or promise to give distributions from the trust to others.
b.
A beneficiary should not be given a general power of appointment over trust corpus.
c.
Spendthrift provisions apply only to self-settled trusts.
d.
Trustees can make distributions to beneficiaries solely on a discretionary basis.
2 points
Question 4
1. Answering the following case study requires reading the information in this link:
Case Study: The Dumonts
Assume that Walter dies today. What statement concerning the universal life insurance policy he owns on Judy's life is correct?
a.
The cash value will be included in his gross estate.
b.
If Walter had transferred ownership of the policy to Lee four months ago, the policy would not be included in Walter's gross estate.
c.
The policy will not be included in Walter's probate estate.
d.
The full death benefit amount will be included in Walter's estate.
2 points
Question 5
1. Answering the following case study requires reading the information in this link:
Case Study: The Lindsays
Which of the following statements regarding property held as tenancy in common, the form under which Jim and Todd own their fishing boat, are correct?
a.
There is no right of survivorship between Jim and Todd.
b.
All of the property is included in the probate estate of the first co-owner to die.
c.
The entire v ...
PART ONE – Case Scenarios – 6 points each1. Harris wakes up in.docxLacieKlineeb
PART ONE – Case Scenarios – 6 points each
1. Harris wakes up in the middle of the night when he hears a noise downstairs. He grabs his handgun, goes downstairs, and sees two people in his living room. Without speaking, he begins firing and kills two teenagers. The teenagers, who were found to be unarmed, were apparently trying to steal a large screen television from Harris’ house. Argue for or against Harris’ self-defense claim at his trial for murder.
2. Anne is sitting on a bench in Farragut Square one spring day, drinking from a clearly marked bottle of Coca Cola. Some months later, Anne is surprised to see herself in a Super Bowl Coke commercial, depicting her sitting on the bench in the park. No one from Coca Cola had ever sought her permission, but Coke argues that it is permissible to take the picture of anyone in a public place. Does Anne have a valid intentional tort claim? Why or why not?
3. Valerie enters a Safeway store in Alexandria to shop. Fifteen minutes before she arrived, a store employee dropped a carton of eggs on the floor while stocking a shelf. The employee continued to stock the shelf, intending to mop up the broken eggs after he finished stocking. Valerie approaches the display where eggs are sold, and not seeing the broken eggs on the floor, slips and falls, and sustains a severe back injury. Analyze the chances of Valerie’s claim against Safeway using the process discussed in class and in your text. If she were to prevail, how would Valerie’s damages be calculated by the jury?
4. In a television interview, a politician calls a rival candidate a “loser”, a “slimy bribe taker”, and “an unqualified candidate because he was born in Canada”. Suppose there is no proof that the candidate ever lost an election, ever took a bribe, and was born in Canada to an American citizen mother. Evaluate EACH statement by the politician as to whether the statement constitutes slander. Please use the proper method
of evaluating each
element of a defamation claim.
Part Two – Multiple Choice – 2.5 points each
1. The following is a term describing the wrongful state of mind needed for a criminal action?
a. Actus reus.b. stare decisis c. carpe diem d. mens rea.
2. The term _______ or “guilty act” is used to describe the wrongful behavior in a criminal action.
a. mens rea b. locos actus c. actus reus d. criminal actus
3. A crime can be a felony, misdemeanor, or petty offense. How is this determination usually made?
a.. The statute defining the crime usually establishes whether the judge or jury decides if the crime is a felony, misdemeanor, or petty offense.
b. The judge decides.
c. The prosecutor decides how the charges will read.
d. The jury decides.
4. Trevor goes door-to-door selling magazine subscriptions. Trevor knows, however, that he is simply taking money for subscriptions and has absolutely no intention of ever arranging for the provisi.
Multiple Choice 1
1. Which of the following correctly describes the relationship between victimology and criminology?
A) Victimology encompasses several sub-disciplines, including criminology.
B) Victimology can be considered an area of specialization within criminology.
C) Victimologists only study the victims of crimes, and criminologists only study the offenders.
D) The two disciplines are similar but there are clearly-defined boundaries between them.
2.The essential inquiry involved when M’Naughten Rule is applied is:
A) Was the act the result or the product of a mental defect
B) Was the person able to distinguish between right and wrong at the time of the offense
C) Was the act the result of an “irresistible impulse”
D) Was the act the result of an addiction
3. According to the tenets of _____, neither the offender nor the victim is the real culprit.
A) the just world outlook
B) system blaming
C) victim blaming
D) offender blaming
4.The lower rate in violent crime, especially murder, is explained by which of the following contributing factors?
A) The U.S. economy
B) The victim’s movement
C) Three Strikes law and harsher punishments
D) A dramatic increase in the number of police officers on duty
E) All of the above
5.The most common argument made by opponents in Stage 3 of the rediscovery process is which of the following?
A) We have not gone far enough in protecting victims.
B) We have gone too far in protecting victims.
C) Victims are not defined correctly.
D) The Victims’ Movement has been exaggerated by advocate groups.
6. Arguments that the victims of a crime might share responsibility with their offenders for what happened due to facilitation, precipitation, and provocation have been characterized as:
A) just world outlook.
B) victim defending.
C) victim blaming
D) offender blaming.
7. Victimology is an interdisciplinary field that benefits from the contributions of:
A) sociologists.
B) criminologists.
C) psychologists.
D) all of the above
8. _____ refers to the practice of charging a defendant with every applicable crime committed during a single criminal incident.
A) Bedsheeting
B) Overcharging
C) Misprision of a felony
D) Perjury
9. Which of the following is a false statement about serial killers?
A) The majority appear to have experienced gradual or traumatic breaks with one or both parents while in their youth
B) They have a pervasive lack of commitment to conventional values
C) They usually do not have meaningful, close relationships with peers
D) They tend to involve themselves in drugs, alcohol and “marginal behaviors”
E) All of the above statements are true
10. According to Eysenck the foundation for criminality is:
A) The over reactive RAS.
B) Personality differences in conditionability.
C) Financial gain
D) Instrumental conditioning.
11. Which of the following behavioral characteristics is NOT typical of the psychopath?
A) Inability to give love or true affection to others
B) Unable to demonstrate gen.
Which of the following is one of the more rational sentencing goal.docxalanfhall8953
Which of the following is one of the more rational sentencing goals?
A. deterrence
B. rehabilitation
C. retribution
D. incapacitance
Question 2 of 40
2.5 Points
The U.S. Supreme Court case Gideon v. Wainwright established the right to counsel for indigent defendants in which felony court proceedings?
A. misdemeanor
B. federal
C. state
D. first degree
Question 3 of 40
2.5 Points
What type of deterrence seeks to reduce the likelihood of recidivism by convicted offenders?
A. focused
B. preventive
C. general
D. specific
Question 4 of 40
2.5 Points
In what kind of trials is the federal court system responsible for the enforcement of federal codes?
A. civil trials
B. criminal trials
C. administrative trials
D. all of the above
Question 5 of 40
2.5 Points
An arraignment, a bail hearing, and a trial for a felony offense are all conducted at which tier of a state court system?
A. trial court of limited jurisdiction
B. trial court of general jurisdiction
C. intermediate appellate court
D. court of last resort
Question 6 of 40
2.5 Points
In which court would a felony trial be held in the federal court system?
A. District Court
B. Court of Appeals
C. United States Supreme Court
D. United States Magistrates Court
Question 7 of 40
2.5 Points
Courts that have the authority to review a decision made by a lower court are said to have what type of jurisdiction?
A. mandatory jurisdiction
B. oversight jurisdiction
C. appellate jurisdiction
D. original jurisdiction
Question 8 of 40
2.5 Points
What is trying someone twice for the same offense known as?
A. double jeopardy
B. dual jurisdiction
C. Constitutional jeopardy
D. double liability
Question 9 of 40
2.5 Points
The U.S. Supreme Court case United States v. Bagley compels the prosecution to disclose any evidence requested by whom?
A. police
B. judge
C. press
D. defense
Question 10 of 40
2.5 Points
Which work group member has the responsibility of demonstrating to a jury that a defendant is guilty beyond a reasonable doubt?
A. the judge
B. the prosecutor
C. the defense attorney
D. the bailiff
Question 11 of 40
2.5 Points
Who is responsible for summoning members of the public for jury duty and subpoenaing witnesses for the prosecution and the defense?
A. the bailiff
B. a local court administrator
C. the court recorder
D. the clerk of court
Question 12 of 40
2.5 Points
Which of the following represents the order of the steps in a criminal trial?
A. trial initiation, the judge’s charge to the jury, jury selection, opening statements, presentation of evidence, closing arguments, jury deliberations, the verdict
B. trial initiation, opening statements, jury selection, presentation of evidence, closing arguments, the judge’s charge to the jury, jury deliberation, the verdict
C. trial initiation, jury selection, opening statements, presentation of evidence, closing arguments, the judge’s ch.
SECTION IIntroduction to Law Final Exam Instructions Instructor A.docxzenobiakeeney
SECTION I
Introduction to Law Final Exam Instructions Instructor: A. Jarmon
The following True/False and Multiple Choice questions cover the material introduced in Chapters 1-2; 4, 6, and 7-8. Each question is worth two (2) points. Please indicate (T) for True or (F) for False for the True/False Statements. For Multiple Choice, please select the letter that corresponds to the best response. There are 50 questions in this section. This section is worth 50 points.
A. LEGAL SYTSTEM, COURTS, AND LEGISLATION
All but which of the following are examples of special courts in the federal system:
a. U.S.TaxCourt
b. U.S. Bankruptcy Court
c. U.S.CourtofFederalClaims
d. Pierce County Superior Court
e. U.S.CourtofAppealsfortheArmedForces
Which of the following statements IS NOT true as it relates to the authority of the U.S. Supreme Court?
TheU.S.SupremeCourtisthefinalauthorityonallmattersoffederal jurisdiction.
The primary function of the Supreme Court is one of review.
The key element in the Supreme Court’s authority is that a federal issue must be at stake, either in the form of the parties (diversity
jurisdiction) or in the constitutionality of a state or federal law.
Every case may be submitted to the United States Supreme Court for
review.
Alloftheabovestatementsaretrue.
Judicial review refers to the system by which each branch of government can use its specially designated powers to make sure the other branches act within their constitutionally prescribed limits.
The principle of stare decisis precludes the court from correcting erroneous decisions that were previously issued.
Final Exam Page 2
Introduction to Law Final Exam Instructions Instructor: A. Jarmon
B. INTRODUCTION TO CIVIL PROCEDURE (LECTURE)
The party responding to a civil action has the initial burden of proof.
Equity law is the body of law developed by the courts that serves as precedent for the determination of later controversies.
Quasi-in-rem jurisdiction refers to the ability of a court to exercise jurisdiction over a person involved in litigation in the state in which the court is situated.
Subject matter jurisdiction refers to the authority of a particular court to hear a matter. If the court does not have proper subject matter jurisdiction, the judgment rendered is void.
Where there is diversity of the parties and the amount in controversy exceeds $75,000, the plaintiff may file his action in state court and only upon agreement of the other party, can it be removed to federal court.
10.Under the due process clause, a Washington court may not assert personal jurisdiction over a person unless:
a. Thepersonisgivenadequatenotice
b. The person is given an opportunity to be heard
c. Thepersonhashad“minimumcontacts”withtheforumstate d. A,B,&C
e. A&B
11.The doctrine of preemption precludes states from making laws on matters for which another state has already created regulations.
12.Which of the following is a remedy that can be obtained from a court of
equity?a. Amaxim
b. Speci.
Quiz QuestionsQuizTop of FormQuestion 1 (2 points).docxaudeleypearl
Quiz Questions
Quiz
Top of Form
Question 1 (2 points)
__________ war is a war over control of the entire world order, whereas __________ war is warfare by one state waged to conquer and occupy another.
Question 1 options:
A)
Total; limited
B)
Limited; civil
C)
Civil; hegemonic
D)
Hegemonic; total
Question 2 (2 points)
Included in limited war are military actions carried out to gain __________ the enemy.
Question 2 options:
A)
some objective short of the surrender and occupation of
B)
complete and unambiguous surrender and occupation of
C)
some influence over
D)
cultural dominance over
Question 3 (2 points)
War between factions within a state trying to create, or prevent, a new government for the entire state or some part of it is __________ war.
Question 3 options:
A)
global
B)
civil
C)
general
D)
systemic
Question 4 (2 points)
Warfare without front lines that involves irregular forces is called __________.
Question 4 options:
A)
low-intensity conflict
B)
a raid
C)
guerrilla war
D)
hegemonic war
Question 5 (2 points)
The most crucial aspect of __________ is demobilizing and disarming militias.
Question 5 options:
A)
postwar transition
B)
representing factions
C)
economic reconstruction
D)
international organizations
Question 6 (2 points)
The purpose of __________ is to help the postwar society to heal by bringing to light what really happened during the war by offering asylum from punishment to the participants.
Question 6 options:
A)
peacekeeping forces
B)
the United Nations Security Council
C)
the Human Rights Watch
D)
truth commissions
Question 7 (2 points)
On the individual level of analysis, __________.
Question 7 options:
A)
wars may be the result of rational decisions of national leaders
B)
wars may be the result of decisions by government bureaucracies
C)
wars may be the result of how power is distributed between two countries
D)
the totalitarian nature of communist states makes them prone to using violence
Question 8 (2 points)
Which group has been found to be more prone to warfare than contemporary society?
Question 8 options:
A)
interstate actors
B)
preagricultural hunter-gatherer societies
C)
East Asian medieval societies
D)
domestic political leaders
Question 9 (2 points)
Which statement is characteristic of guerrilla war?
Question 9 options:
A)
Civilians often expose the guerrillas to opposing forces.
B)
Civilians are often punished along with guerrilla forces.
C)
Guerrilla fighters directly confront the enemy army.
D)
Guerrilla fighters do not control any specific territory.
Question 10 (2 points)
Theories of the causes of war at the systemic level of analysis __________.
Question 10 options:
A)
are not as contradictory as at the individual or domestic levels of analysis
B)
provide a more accurate basis for predicting future wars than any of the other levels of anal ...
1 Question Information refinement means taking the system requi.docxmercysuttle
1
Question: Information refinement means taking the system requirements you find during requirements determination and ordering them into tables, diagrams, and other formats that make them easier to translate into technical system specifications.
A
True
B
False
2
Question: Agile Methodologies focus on the roles that people perform.
A
True
B
False
3
Question: In the ____, like that shown in the accompanying figure, the result of each phase, which is called a deliverable or end product, flows sequentially into the next phase in the SDLC.
A
Interactive model
B
Requirements model
C
Waterfall model
D
Object model
4
Question: The goal of operational feasibility is to understand the degree to which a proposed system will likely solve the business problems or take advantage of opportunities.
A
True
B
False
5
Question: Which of the following focuses on the frequent production of working versions of a system that have a subset of the total number of required features?
A
Use-case modeling
B
Limited production
C
Structured analysis
D
Structured programming
E
Iterative development
6
Question: Component focusing allows the systems analyst to break a system into small, manageable, and understandable subsystems.
A
True
B
False
7
Question: Greater user involvement in the system development process usually results in ____.
A
Poorer communication
B
More satisfied users
C
Slower development times
D
Both b and c
8
Question: Agile approaches work best when the system being developed operates in a stable environment.
A
True
B
False
9
Question: Dependence of one part of the system on one or more other system parts best describes
A
Interrelated components
B
Component
C
Dependency
D
Cohesion
E
Boundary
10
Question: A systems development technique is the series of steps used to mark the phases of development for an information system.
A
True
B
False
11
Question: Analyzing an organization's activities to determine where value is added to products and/or services and the costs incurred best describes
A
Affinity clustering
B
Value chain analysis
C
Resource availability
D
Business process reengineering
E
Technical difficulty
12
Question: A ____ path includes all tasks that are vital to the project schedule.
A
Vital
B
Baseline
C
Critical
D
Foundational
13
Question: Referencing enterprise solutions, the difference between the modules and traditional approaches is that the modules are integrated to focus on the business functional areas, rather than on business processes.
A
True
B
False
14
Question: The document sent to vendors asking them to propose hardware and software that will meet the requirements of your new system is called a
A
Requirements statement
B
Systems service request
C
Baseline Project Plan
D
Business case
E
Request for proposal (RFP)
15
Question: The first step in creating a WBS is to ____.
A
Mark all recognizable events
B
Determine ...
1 pageApaSourcesDiscuss how an organization’s marketing i.docxmercysuttle
1 page
Apa
Sources:
Discuss how an organization’s marketing information skills and resources contribute to its distinctive capabilities
Refereence
Cravens, D., & Piercy, N. (2013). Strategic marketing (10th ed.). New York: McGraw-Hill.
1 page
A
pa
S
ources:
Discuss how an organization’s marketing information skills and resources contribute to its distinctive
capabilitie
s
Refereence
Cravens, D., & Piercy, N. (2013). Strategic marketing (10th ed.). New York: McGraw
-
Hill
.
...
1
R1
20
V1
1Vac
0Vdc R2
100
V
C1
3m
ECE2280 Homework #1
1. (a) Find 𝑉!/𝑉!
(b) Find the Thevenin equivalent between terminals a-b.
Assume that Vg is the input signal. Find the Thevenin equivalent between terminals a-b.
2. Use the solution from Problem 1.
(a)If Vg=2V DC, what is the output at Vo?
(b)If Vg=5V DC, what is the output at Vo?
(c)If Vg=sin(10t), what is the output at Vo? Make a rough sketch of Vo and Vg.
(d) Note that this is an amplifier – the output is linearly related to the input by a gain value. Mathematically, this is
expressed as:
𝑉𝑜𝑢𝑡
𝑉𝑖𝑛
= (𝑔𝑎𝑖𝑛)
For this circuit, what variable is Vout and Vin. What is the numerical gain value?
3. Sketch the following waveforms. Identify the dc component of the waveform and the ac component of the
waveform.
a. Vs=10cos(2πt)
b. Vs=3V+3cos(3t)
c. Vs=5V±0.5V
4. Explain in your own words the procedural steps for plotting Bode Plots. (Note: I would prepare this question for use
during an exam)
Use the following figure for Problems 5-10:
5. Derive the transfer function 𝐻 𝑠 =
!!
!!
by hand.
6 and 7. Use Multisim to draw the circuit and print it out.
8. Simulate the circuit in Mulitsim to obtain the Bode Plots for the circuit.
9. Use MATLAB and the result of the hand derivation to obtain the Bode Plots.
10. Sketch the straight-line approximation of the magnitude Bode plot on the same graph as that printed out in Problem 9.
Note that Multisim plots the results over frequency and the derived transfer function uses 𝜔.
+ _
10Ω
8v1
+
_
a
b
2v2
40Ω
+
v1
-
5Ω 40Ω
20Ω
6Ω
10Ω _
v2
+
Sales and Disposal of Assets
After reviewing the scenario, explain the impact that the adjusted basis has on the calculation of tax liability, and propose at least two (2) tax-planning strategies for reducing, eliminating, or deferring the payment of capital gains taxes. Also, discuss other alternatives aimed at optimizing deductions or reducing taxes, such as selling the property to an unrelated third party which, in turn, allows losses to be deductible expenses.
Imagine that you are a tax consultant and a client needs your advice on how to reduce his tax liability on the sale of depreciable assets that have not been fully depreciated. The client has identified three (3) long-term depreciable assets and assumes that he will be able to pay capital gains taxes on the profit from their sale. It would be to your client’s advantage to treat a taxable gain as long-term capital gain to which lower rates apply and a loss is categorized as an ordinary loss, which can offset ordinary loss, which can offset ordinary income. Discuss the treatment of gains and losses for Section 1231 and Section 1245 of the Internal Revenue Code, and recommend at least three (3) tax-planning strategies that would assist the client in reducing his tax liability. Provide support for you
1
PSYC 499: Senior Capstone
The Impact of the Social on the Individual
Class Syllabus
Spring/2020
Class Cycle: Monday - Sunday
Instructor: Tara West
Contact Information: [email protected]
Office Hours: Mondays, 2pm – 3pm (or by appointment)
NOTE: When emailing, please include your name and class in the subject line
Course Materials:
• Lesko, W.A. (2012). Readings in social psychology: General, classic, and contemporary
selections (8th ed.). New York, NY: Pearson. ISBN: 978-0-205-17967. (Required)
• American Psychological Association (2019). Concise Rules of APA Style (7th ed.).
Washington, DC: American Psychological Association. ISBN: 978-1433832178.
(Recommended)
Type of Course: Required
Field of Study: Psychology
Credits: 3 credits, undergraduate
Pre-requisites:
Completion of all required courses (Level 2 and Level 3) and permission.
Course Description:
All students will complete a senior research project under the direction of a faculty mentor, with a
topic within the track in which the student has completed at least three courses. This capstone
project will build upon work done in previous courses, allowing students to apply methods of
scholarly and/or action research to specific psychological issues. Projects may be completed in
small research groups or individually.
Course Summary:
This capstone project will build upon work completed in previous courses, allowing students to
apply methods of scholarly and/or action research to the field of Social Psychology, specifically the
impact of the social world on individuals.
Course Goals:
The objectives for this course include: gaining a theoretical knowledge base about the interplay
between individuals and their environments, gaining first-hand experience with the many steps
involved with research, the interpretation of research, and the presentation of research, using APA
formatting. Likewise, you will increase your familiarity with reading (and finding) primary sources.
Although only a few of you may pursue careers as researchers, all of you are consumers of research.
As such, a major goal for this course is to develop your capacity to critically think about, evaluate,
and critique the scientific evidence that is often presented in journal articles, newspapers,
magazines, and on television.
2
Learning Objectives/ Outcomes:
o Students should be able to:
• Conduct a review of research in a specific area of Psychology.
• Understand the strengths and weaknesses of scientific research.
• Interpret and generalize appropriately from research results.
• Evaluate the appropriateness of conclusions derived from psychological research.
• Use the concepts, language, and major theories of the discipline to account for
psychological phenomena in the context of social psychology.
• Use reasoning to recognize, develop, defend, and criticize arguments.
• Articulate how psycholo ...
1 Politicking is less likely in organizations that have· adecl.docxmercysuttle
1 Politicking is less likely in organizations that have
·
adeclining resources
·
high role ambiguity
·
clear performance appraisal systems
·
democratic decision making
2 In convergent periods, the role of executive management is to
·
develop new strategies for the problems at hand
·
shift middle managers to promote new views
·
reemphasize the mission and core values
·
challenge middle managers to reinvent their departments
3 Periods of convergence are those in which an organization
·
is in turmoil
·
seeks to improve its situation with relatively minor changes
·
must downsize to conserve resources
·
employs new strategies to advance the organization
4 Transformational change in an organization
·
is always necessary to some degree
·
is best delivered by a top-down plan
·
has no defined formula
·
is best delivered by a bottom-up plan
5 A person likely to participate in political behavior
·
believes he or she has little influence
·
has a desire for power
·
is a social nonconformist
·
is insensitive to social cues
6 To keep a strategy in focus, effective managers employ
·
rigid implementation
·
piecemeal implementation
·
simple goals
·
central themes
7 An influence tactic that relies on rank and enforcement of group goals is
·
legitimacy
·
coalitions
·
pressure
·
personal appeals
8 During organizational change, employee–management interfaces such as workshops and retreats
·
initiate
·
distract the participants from the real issues
·
help employees overcome downsizing issues
·
solve communication problems relatively short-term periods of high-energy action
9 Buck passing and scapegoating when politics is seen as a threat are forms of
·
defensive behaviors
·
offensive behaviors
·
suppression
·
aggression
10 A primary goal of politics in the workplace is to
·
exclude undesirable peers
·
form alliances
·
promote organizational goals
·
secure limited resources
11 Political behavior in the workplace
·
works only in an upward or lateral influence direction
·
attempts to influence decision making
·
is unlikely in a well-run organization
·
works only in a lateral influence direction
12 Impression management sends _____ messages that may be _____ under other circumstances.
·
false, true
·
ethical, unethical
·
true, false
·
convincing, unconvincing
13 The formulation and implementation of a strategy
·
are separate and sequential processes
·
must be completely defined before action is taken
·
are ongoing events within an organization
·
follow strict, unalterable guidelines
14 Surveys of seasoned managers reveal they believe politics in the workplace is
·
always unethical
·
part of some job requirements
·
a major part of organizational life
·
ineffective
15 With downward influence, power tactics preferred by U.S. managers include
·
personal appeals
·
inspirational appeals
·
coalitions
·
influence
16 Hard power tactics best influence those with which following characteristic?
·
High se ...
1 page2 sourcesReflect on the important performance management.docxmercysuttle
1 page
2 sources
Reflect on the important performance management theories and practices covered during the past six weeks. Describe one key point that you will apply to the work environment immediately. Highlight the specific course learning outcome(s) that relate(s) to this important takeaway. Also, mention the specific reading materials and/or theories that you found to be most applicable.
Required Text
Pulakos, E.D. (2009). Performance management: A new approach for driving business results. (1st ed.). West Sussex, United Kingdom: Wiley-Blackwell. ISBN: 9781405177610.
Chapter 9: Conclusion
Required References
de Leeuw, S., van den Berg, P (2011). Improving operational performance by influencing shopfloor behavior via performance management practices. Journal of Operations Management, 29, 3, 224-233. (Retrieved from http://www.isihome.ir/freearticle/ISIHome.ir-21006.pdf)
Fulmer, R.M., Stumpf, S.A. & Bleak, J. (2009). The strategic development of high potential leaders. Strategy & Leadership, 37(3), 17-22. (Retrieved from ProQuest).
Recommended References
Turnbull, H., Greenwood, R., Tworoger, L., & Golden, C. (2009). Diversity and inclusion in organizations: Developing an instrument for identification of skill deficiencies. Allied Academies International Conference. Academy of Organizational Culture, Communications and Conflict. Proceedings, 14(1), 28-33(Retrieved from ProQuest).
PLEASE HAVE THESE PARAGRAPH REWORDED IN YOUR OWN WORDS.
PLEASE DO NOT USE THE SAME WORDS AS IN THE PARAGRAPH.
· 1-According to chapter 8, a team is small number of people with similar skills who are committed to one ambition, performance goals, and pursuit for which they hold themselves accountable. In the other hand, a group is two or more people freely interacting who share norms and goals and have a common identity. The size of a group is limited by the potential for mutual interaction and mutual awareness. I was part of team during my military service, which I agree with the chapter that a team is more than just a group, because all my team members worked together towards a common goal and we all share responsibility for the team's success. The team I was part of was a 'fire team' that is a small military subunit of infantry designed to optimize bounding over watch, and fire and movement tactical within a hostile urban environment
·
· 2-At work, I am currently assigned to a group of customer service. This group or department consists of 12 employees, which all members have a shared knowledge of the group's objectives, but specific responsibilities are assigned to each of us. The purpose or objectives of our group is to troubleshoot technical problems, provide excellent customer support service, and address solutions to customers. The main factor of our group success is due to the manager in control of the group who also coordinate our individuals efforts. I would not change anything in my group, but I would add weekly meetings to see the end result ...
1 of 402.5 PointsUse Cramer’s Rule to solve the following syst.docxmercysuttle
1 of 40
2.5 Points
Use Cramer’s Rule to solve the following system.
x + 2y = 3
3x - 4y = 4
A. {(3, 1/5)}
B. {(5, 1/3)}
C. {(1, 1/2)}
D. {(2, 1/2)}
2 of 40
2.5 Points
Solve the following system of equations using matrices. Use Gaussian elimination with back substitution or Gauss-Jordan elimination.
x + y - z = -2
2x - y + z = 5
-x + 2y + 2z = 1
A. {(0, -1, -2)}
B. {(2, 0, 2)}
C. {(1, -1, 2)}
D. {(4, -1, 3)}
3 of 40
2.5 Points
Use Cramer’s Rule to solve the following system.
2x = 3y + 2
5x = 51 - 4y
A. {(8, 2)}
B. {(3, -4)}
C. {(2, 5)}
D. {(7, 4)}
4 of 40
2.5 Points
Use Cramer’s Rule to solve the following system.
4x - 5y = 17
2x + 3y = 3
A. {(3, -1)}
B. {(2, -1)}
C. {(3, -7)}
D. {(2, 0)}
5 of 40
2.5 Points
Use Cramer’s Rule to solve the following system.
4x - 5y - 6z = -1
x - 2y - 5z = -12
2x - y = 7
A. {(2, -3, 4)}
B. {(5, -7, 4)}
C. {(3, -3, 3)}
D. {(1, -3, 5)}
6 of 40
2.5 Points
Use Cramer’s Rule to solve the following system.
3x - 4y = 4
2x + 2y = 12
A. {(3, 1)}
B. {(4, 2)}
C. {(5, 1)}
D. {(2, 1)}
Reset Selection
7 of 40
2.5 Points
Use Cramer’s Rule to solve the following system.
x + y + z = 0
2x - y + z = -1
-x + 3y - z = -8
A. {(-1, -3, 7)}
B. {(-6, -2, 4)}
C. {(-5, -2, 7)}
D. {(-4, -1, 7)}
8 of 40
2.5 Points
Solve the following system of equations using matrices. Use Gaussian elimination with back substitution or Gauss-Jordan elimination.
3x1 + 5x2 - 8x3 + 5x4 = -8
x1 + 2x2 - 3x3 + x4 = -7
2x1 + 3x2 - 7x3 + 3x4 = -11
4x1 + 8x2 - 10x3+ 7x4 = -10
A. {(1, -5, 3, 4)}
B. {(2, -1, 3, 5)}
C. {(1, 2, 3, 3)}
D. {(2, -2, 3, 4)}
9 of 40
2.5 Points
Solve the following system of equations using matrices. Use Gaussian elimination with back substitution or Gauss-Jordan elimination.
x + y + z = 4
x - y - z = 0
x - y + z = 2
A. {(3, 1, 0)}
B. {(2, 1, 1)}
C. {(4, 2, 1)}
D. {(2, 1, 0)}
10 of 40
2.5 Points
Solve the system using the inverse that is given for the coefficient matrix.
2x + 6y + 6z = 8
2x + 7y + 6z =10
2x + 7y + 7z = 9
The inverse of:
2
2
2
6
7
7
6
6
7
is
7/2
-1
0
0
1
-1
-3
0
1
A. {(1, 2, -1)}
B. {(2, 1, -1)}
C. {(1, 2, 0)}
D. {(1, 3, -1)}
Reset Selection
11 of 40
2.5 Points
Use Gaussian elimination to find the complete solution to the following system of equations, or show that none exists.
2w + x - y = 3
w - 3x + 2y = -4
3w + x - 3y + z = 1
w + 2x - 4y - z = -2
A. {(1, 3, 2, 1)}
B. {(1, 4, 3, -1)}
C. {(1, 5, 1, 1)}
D. {(-1, 2, -2, 1)}
12 of 40
2.5 Points
Use Cramer’s Rule to solve the following system.
x + y = 7
x - y = 3
A. {(7, 2)}
B. {(8, -2)}
C. {(5, 2)}
D. {(9, 3)}
13 of 40
2.5 Points
Use Gaussian elimination to find the complete solution to each system.
x1 + 4x2 + 3x3 - 6x4 = 5
x1 + 3x2 + x3 - 4x4 = 3
2x1 + 8x2 + 7x3 - 5x4 = 11
2x1 + 5x2 - 6x4 = 4
A. {(-47t + 4, 12t, 7t + 1, t)}
B. {(-37t + 2, 16t, -7t + 1, t)}
...
1 of 6 LAB 5 IMAGE FILTERING ECE180 Introduction to.docxmercysuttle
1 of 6
LAB 5: IMAGE FILTERING
ECE180: Introduction to Signal Processing
OVERVIEW
You have recently learned about the convolution sum that serves as the basis of the FIR filter difference equation. The filter
coefficient sequence {𝑏𝑘} – equivalent to the filter’s impulse response ℎ[𝑛] – may be viewed as a one-dimensional moving
window that slides over the input signal 𝑥[𝑛] to compute the output signal 𝑦[𝑛] at each time step. Extending the moving
window concept to a 2-D array that slides over an image pixel array provides a useful and popular way to filter an image.
In this lab project you will implement two types of moving-window image filters, one based on convolution and the other
based on the median value of the pixel grayscale values spanned by the window. You will also gain experience with the
built-in image convolution filter imfilter.
OUTLINE
1. Develop and test a 33 median filter
2. Develop and test a 33 convolution filter
3. Evaluate the median and convolution filters to reduce noise while preserving edges
4. Study the behavior of various 33 convolution filter kernels for smoothing, edge detection, and sharpening
5. Learn how to use imfilter to convolution-filter color images, and study the various mechanisms offered by
imfilter to deal with boundary effects
PREPARATION – TO BE COMPLETED BEFORE LAB
Study these tutorial videos:
1. Nested “for” loops -- http://youtu.be/q2xfz8mOuSI?t=1m8s (review this part)
2. Functions -- http://youtu.be/0zTmMIh6I8A (review as needed)
Ensure that you have added the ECE180 DFS folders to your MATLAB path, especially the “images” and “matlab” subfolders.
Follow along with the tutorial video http://youtu.be/MEqUd0dJNBA, if necessary.
LAB ACTIVITIES
1. Develop and test a 33 median filter function:
1.1. Implement the following algorithm as the function med3x3:
TIP: First implement and debug the algorithm as a script and then convert it to a function as a final step. Use any
of the smaller grayscale images from the ECE180 “images” folder as you develop the function, or use the test
image X described in the Step 1.2.
(a) Create the function template and save it to an .m file with the same name as the function,
(b) Accept a grayscale image x as the function input,
http://youtu.be/q2xfz8mOuSI?t=1m8s
http://youtu.be/0zTmMIh6I8A
http://youtu.be/MEqUd0dJNBA
2 of 6
(c) Copy x to the output image y and then initialize y(:) to zero; this technique creates y as the same size and
data type as x,
(d) Determine the number of image rows and columns (see size),
(e) Loop over all pixels in image x (subject to boundary limits):
Extract a 33 neighborhood (subarray) about the current pixel,
Flatten the 2-D array to a 1-D array,
Sort the 1-D array values (see sort),
Assign the middle value of the sorted array to the current output pixel, and
(f) Return the median-filtered image y.
1.2. Enter load lab_5_verify to load the
1 Objectives Genetically transform bacteria with for.docxmercysuttle
1
Objectives
Genetically transform bacteria with
foreign DNA and induce
expression of genes encoded on
DNA to produce novel
Isolate chromosomal DNA from
Introduction
In this portion of the lab, you will perform a
procedure known as genetic
transformation. that a gene is
a piece of DNA that provides the
instructions for making (codes for) a
protein. This gives an organism a
particular trait. Genetic transformation
literally means change caused by genes,
involves the insertion of a gene into an
organism in order to change the organism’s
trait. transformation is used in
many areas of biotechnology. In
agriculture, genes coding for traits such as
pest, or spoilage resistance can be
genetically transformed into plants. In
bioremediation, bacteria can genetically
transformed with genes enabling them to
digest oil spills. In medicine, diseases
caused defective genes are beginning
to be treated by gene therapy; that is, by
genetically transforming a person’s
cells with healthy copies of the defective
gene that causes the
You will use a procedure to transform
bacteria with a gene that codes for Green
Fluorescent (GFP). The real-life
source of this gene is the bioluminescent
jellyfish Aequorea victoria.
Fluorescent Protein causes the jellyfish to
fluoresce and glow in the dark.
LAB TOPIC 10: Nucleic Acids and Genetic Transformation
Following the procedure,
the bacteria express their newly acquired
jellyfish gene and produce the fluorescent
which causes them to glow a
brilliant green color under ultraviolet
In this activity, you will learn about the
process of moving genes from one organism
to another with aid of a plasmid. In
nature, bacteria can transfer plasmids back
and forth allowing them to share
beneficial genes. This natural mechanism
allows bacteria to adapt to new
environments. The occurrence of
bacterial resistance to is due to
the transmission of
Genetic transformation involves
insertion of some new DNA into the E.
cells. In addition to one large
bacteria often contain one or more
circular pieces of DNA called
Plasmid DNA usually contains genes for
than one trait. Scientists can use a
called genetic engineering to insert
coding for new traits into a plasmid.
In case, the pGLO plasmid carries the
GFP that codes for the green
fluorescent protein and a gene (bla) that
codes for a protein that gives the
resistance to an antibiotic. The genetically
engineered plasmid can then be used to
genetically bacteria to give them
this new
Figure 10.1 Bacterial cell undergoing genetic transformation with the pGLO
plasmid
Exercise 10.1
Bacterial Transformation
2
Pre-lab exercises:
Since scientific laboratory investigations
are designed to get information about a
question, our first might be to
formulate some questions for this
Can we genetically transform an organism?
Which organism is
1. To genetically tra ...
1 of 8
Student name: …………….
Student ID: …………….
The Effect of Social Media on the English Language
2 of 8
Table Of Content:
Abstract 3
Introduction 3
Literature review 3
Significance of Research 4
Research Question 4
Methodology 4
Ethical Considerations 4
Limitations of the study 4
Expected results 5
Conclusion 5
References 6
Appendix 7
3 of 8
Abstract:
Giving the popularity of social networking sites lately, it has made an effect on the English
language either in a positive way by adding new words to the dictionary a negative way by misus-
ing the grammar and using incorrect abbreviated words like turning “you’re” to “your’. In this re-
search proposal I would like to investigate what the effect of using social networks has on the Eng-
lish language and see if it was more positive than negative and vice versa. I will be making a survey
page to collect data on the way people use these sites. Furthermore, we will see if people know the
importance of using proper English and try to make social networking sites improve our way of us-
ing the English language.
Introduction:
Technology has changed rapidly in the past five years, we became more reliant on our smart phones
and it completely changed the way we communicate with each other in our everyday life, it made it
easier for us to interact with people across the world with a single touch through social networking
sites, such as Twitter, Facebook and YouTube. Technology is clearly having some impact on the
English language and the words we use. Recently we saw how some Internet words have made it to
the Oxford dictionary this proves the impact it made, for example the word “Tweet” which means
according to the dictionary: “a posting made on the social networking service Twitter”. However,
some people think that it is okay to misuse Grammar or word spelling on social networking sites,
for instance, using “your” instead of “You’re”. So do these sites make a positive or a negative im-
pact on the English language?
Literature review:
A research titled “5 Ways That Social Media Benefits Writing the English language” written by
Mallary Jean Tenore in 2013 mentioned some ways that social media benefits writing and language,
such as how it increases the awareness of mistakes, when people make grammatical or spelling mis-
takes people will point them out via these websites therefore we become more aware of our spelling
and grammar thus improving our language. She also talked about how it creates new words and
meaning, such as “googled”, “tweeted”, “Friended”. She said that it also spotlight short writings
meaning it valued short storytelling with Vine videos where you have just six seconds to give a
message and in twitter you only have 140 characters to use which forces you to make every word
count.
4 of 8
Another research called Social networkin ...
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1 Marks 1 Post Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)Choose one .docxmercysuttle
1
Marks: 1
Post Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD):
Choose one answer.
a. is exclusive to Vietnam Veterans
b. is a psychological illness characterized by panic attacks, nightmares, depression, guilt and flashbacks
c. can be caused by any highly emotional event
d. both b and c above
Question 2
Marks: 1
Which of the following is not a role of a crisis interventionist?
Choose one answer.
a. To encourage and allow the client to "make the decisions".
b. To tell the client exactly what he/she should do, when he/she should do it, and how he/she should do it.
c. To enable the client to become aware of possible solutions to the crisis.
d. To allow the client to vent emotions.
Question 3
Marks: 1
A victim's pain:
Choose one answer.
a. may often last weeks, months, or even years after the incident
b. usually goes away after the court process is completed
c. usually goes away after an advocate explains the legal system
d. usually goes away after receipt of financial reimbursement for personal and property losses
Question 4
Marks: 1
Which of the following does NOT create law:
Choose one answer.
a. U.S. Congress
b. National Association for the Advancement of Colored People
c. U.S. Environmental Protection Agency
d. Colorado Supreme Court
Question 5
Marks: 1
Which of the following is not considered to be a responsibility of a victim advocate?
Choose one answer.
a. To consider the job a serious commitment.
b. To litigate the victim's case.
c. To maintain confidentiality in all issues pertaining to clients.
d. To keep informed on relevant issues through ongoing training.
Question 6
Marks: 1
Which of the following is a goal of perpetrator counseling?
Choose one answer.
a. Counseling done in hopes to keep perpetrators from committing further crimes.
b. To encourage the perpetrator to commit more crimes
c. To meet the urgent physical and emotional needs of a victim.
d. To provide support and reassurance at the scene of the crime or shortly thereafter.
Question 7
Marks: 1
What court-related service involves monitoring court activity to make sure victims are being treated fairly by judges and attorneys?
Choose one answer.
a. Witness Alert
b. Court Watch
c. Restitution Assistance
d. Legislative Advocacy
Question 8
Marks: 1
Which of the following puts the statutes in the correct chronological order (earliest to most recent) by their date of enactment?
Choose one answer.
a. Violence Against Women Act; Victims of Crime Act; Victims & Witness Protection Act; Victims Rights & Restitution Act
b. The Victims of Crime Act; Victims Right & Restitution Act; Violence Against Women Act; Victims & Witness Protection Act
c. The Victim & Witness Protection Act; Violence Against Women Act; The Victims of Crime Act; Victims Rights & Restitution Act
d. The Victim & Witness Protection Act; The Victims of Crime Act; Victims Rights & Restitution Act; Violence Against Wome ...
Question 11. Answering the following case study requires reading.docxmakdul
Question 1
1. Answering the following case study requires reading the information in this link:
Case Study: The Dumonts
What type of testamentary trust has Walter created for Judy in his will?
a.
A charitable remainder unitrust
b.
A charitable remainder annuity trust
c.
A grantor retained annuity trust
d.
A charitable lead unitrust
2 points
Question 2
1. Answering the following case study requires reading the information in this link:
Case Study: The Dumonts
The Dumonts would like to help the Nature Conservancy this year by contributing some of Walter's company stock. Walter would also like to maintain Judy's life style by providing her with income for life. In addition, Walter would like to minimize taxes and transfer costs to accomplish these objectives. Given these objectives and constraints, which of the following lifetime gifts would be most appropriate?
a.
A bargain sale of stock to the Nature Conservancy.
b.
A gift of stock to a charitable pooled income fund for the Nature Conservancy.
c.
A gift of stock to a charitable remainder unitrust trust for the Nature Conservancy.
d.
A gift of stock to a charitable lead trust for the Nature Conservancy.
2 points
Question 3
1. Answering the following case study requires reading the information in this link:
Case Study: The Dumonts
Judy's will establishes a trust that distributes all income from the motel to Lee annually. Judy was concerned that this income could be subject to Lee's creditors, so she included a spendthrift clause in the trust. All of the following statements about trusts with spendthrift provisions are correct, except:
a.
A beneficiary may not assign, pledge or promise to give distributions from the trust to others.
b.
A beneficiary should not be given a general power of appointment over trust corpus.
c.
Spendthrift provisions apply only to self-settled trusts.
d.
Trustees can make distributions to beneficiaries solely on a discretionary basis.
2 points
Question 4
1. Answering the following case study requires reading the information in this link:
Case Study: The Dumonts
Assume that Walter dies today. What statement concerning the universal life insurance policy he owns on Judy's life is correct?
a.
The cash value will be included in his gross estate.
b.
If Walter had transferred ownership of the policy to Lee four months ago, the policy would not be included in Walter's gross estate.
c.
The policy will not be included in Walter's probate estate.
d.
The full death benefit amount will be included in Walter's estate.
2 points
Question 5
1. Answering the following case study requires reading the information in this link:
Case Study: The Lindsays
Which of the following statements regarding property held as tenancy in common, the form under which Jim and Todd own their fishing boat, are correct?
a.
There is no right of survivorship between Jim and Todd.
b.
All of the property is included in the probate estate of the first co-owner to die.
c.
The entire v ...
PART ONE – Case Scenarios – 6 points each1. Harris wakes up in.docxLacieKlineeb
PART ONE – Case Scenarios – 6 points each
1. Harris wakes up in the middle of the night when he hears a noise downstairs. He grabs his handgun, goes downstairs, and sees two people in his living room. Without speaking, he begins firing and kills two teenagers. The teenagers, who were found to be unarmed, were apparently trying to steal a large screen television from Harris’ house. Argue for or against Harris’ self-defense claim at his trial for murder.
2. Anne is sitting on a bench in Farragut Square one spring day, drinking from a clearly marked bottle of Coca Cola. Some months later, Anne is surprised to see herself in a Super Bowl Coke commercial, depicting her sitting on the bench in the park. No one from Coca Cola had ever sought her permission, but Coke argues that it is permissible to take the picture of anyone in a public place. Does Anne have a valid intentional tort claim? Why or why not?
3. Valerie enters a Safeway store in Alexandria to shop. Fifteen minutes before she arrived, a store employee dropped a carton of eggs on the floor while stocking a shelf. The employee continued to stock the shelf, intending to mop up the broken eggs after he finished stocking. Valerie approaches the display where eggs are sold, and not seeing the broken eggs on the floor, slips and falls, and sustains a severe back injury. Analyze the chances of Valerie’s claim against Safeway using the process discussed in class and in your text. If she were to prevail, how would Valerie’s damages be calculated by the jury?
4. In a television interview, a politician calls a rival candidate a “loser”, a “slimy bribe taker”, and “an unqualified candidate because he was born in Canada”. Suppose there is no proof that the candidate ever lost an election, ever took a bribe, and was born in Canada to an American citizen mother. Evaluate EACH statement by the politician as to whether the statement constitutes slander. Please use the proper method
of evaluating each
element of a defamation claim.
Part Two – Multiple Choice – 2.5 points each
1. The following is a term describing the wrongful state of mind needed for a criminal action?
a. Actus reus.b. stare decisis c. carpe diem d. mens rea.
2. The term _______ or “guilty act” is used to describe the wrongful behavior in a criminal action.
a. mens rea b. locos actus c. actus reus d. criminal actus
3. A crime can be a felony, misdemeanor, or petty offense. How is this determination usually made?
a.. The statute defining the crime usually establishes whether the judge or jury decides if the crime is a felony, misdemeanor, or petty offense.
b. The judge decides.
c. The prosecutor decides how the charges will read.
d. The jury decides.
4. Trevor goes door-to-door selling magazine subscriptions. Trevor knows, however, that he is simply taking money for subscriptions and has absolutely no intention of ever arranging for the provisi.
Multiple Choice 1
1. Which of the following correctly describes the relationship between victimology and criminology?
A) Victimology encompasses several sub-disciplines, including criminology.
B) Victimology can be considered an area of specialization within criminology.
C) Victimologists only study the victims of crimes, and criminologists only study the offenders.
D) The two disciplines are similar but there are clearly-defined boundaries between them.
2.The essential inquiry involved when M’Naughten Rule is applied is:
A) Was the act the result or the product of a mental defect
B) Was the person able to distinguish between right and wrong at the time of the offense
C) Was the act the result of an “irresistible impulse”
D) Was the act the result of an addiction
3. According to the tenets of _____, neither the offender nor the victim is the real culprit.
A) the just world outlook
B) system blaming
C) victim blaming
D) offender blaming
4.The lower rate in violent crime, especially murder, is explained by which of the following contributing factors?
A) The U.S. economy
B) The victim’s movement
C) Three Strikes law and harsher punishments
D) A dramatic increase in the number of police officers on duty
E) All of the above
5.The most common argument made by opponents in Stage 3 of the rediscovery process is which of the following?
A) We have not gone far enough in protecting victims.
B) We have gone too far in protecting victims.
C) Victims are not defined correctly.
D) The Victims’ Movement has been exaggerated by advocate groups.
6. Arguments that the victims of a crime might share responsibility with their offenders for what happened due to facilitation, precipitation, and provocation have been characterized as:
A) just world outlook.
B) victim defending.
C) victim blaming
D) offender blaming.
7. Victimology is an interdisciplinary field that benefits from the contributions of:
A) sociologists.
B) criminologists.
C) psychologists.
D) all of the above
8. _____ refers to the practice of charging a defendant with every applicable crime committed during a single criminal incident.
A) Bedsheeting
B) Overcharging
C) Misprision of a felony
D) Perjury
9. Which of the following is a false statement about serial killers?
A) The majority appear to have experienced gradual or traumatic breaks with one or both parents while in their youth
B) They have a pervasive lack of commitment to conventional values
C) They usually do not have meaningful, close relationships with peers
D) They tend to involve themselves in drugs, alcohol and “marginal behaviors”
E) All of the above statements are true
10. According to Eysenck the foundation for criminality is:
A) The over reactive RAS.
B) Personality differences in conditionability.
C) Financial gain
D) Instrumental conditioning.
11. Which of the following behavioral characteristics is NOT typical of the psychopath?
A) Inability to give love or true affection to others
B) Unable to demonstrate gen.
Which of the following is one of the more rational sentencing goal.docxalanfhall8953
Which of the following is one of the more rational sentencing goals?
A. deterrence
B. rehabilitation
C. retribution
D. incapacitance
Question 2 of 40
2.5 Points
The U.S. Supreme Court case Gideon v. Wainwright established the right to counsel for indigent defendants in which felony court proceedings?
A. misdemeanor
B. federal
C. state
D. first degree
Question 3 of 40
2.5 Points
What type of deterrence seeks to reduce the likelihood of recidivism by convicted offenders?
A. focused
B. preventive
C. general
D. specific
Question 4 of 40
2.5 Points
In what kind of trials is the federal court system responsible for the enforcement of federal codes?
A. civil trials
B. criminal trials
C. administrative trials
D. all of the above
Question 5 of 40
2.5 Points
An arraignment, a bail hearing, and a trial for a felony offense are all conducted at which tier of a state court system?
A. trial court of limited jurisdiction
B. trial court of general jurisdiction
C. intermediate appellate court
D. court of last resort
Question 6 of 40
2.5 Points
In which court would a felony trial be held in the federal court system?
A. District Court
B. Court of Appeals
C. United States Supreme Court
D. United States Magistrates Court
Question 7 of 40
2.5 Points
Courts that have the authority to review a decision made by a lower court are said to have what type of jurisdiction?
A. mandatory jurisdiction
B. oversight jurisdiction
C. appellate jurisdiction
D. original jurisdiction
Question 8 of 40
2.5 Points
What is trying someone twice for the same offense known as?
A. double jeopardy
B. dual jurisdiction
C. Constitutional jeopardy
D. double liability
Question 9 of 40
2.5 Points
The U.S. Supreme Court case United States v. Bagley compels the prosecution to disclose any evidence requested by whom?
A. police
B. judge
C. press
D. defense
Question 10 of 40
2.5 Points
Which work group member has the responsibility of demonstrating to a jury that a defendant is guilty beyond a reasonable doubt?
A. the judge
B. the prosecutor
C. the defense attorney
D. the bailiff
Question 11 of 40
2.5 Points
Who is responsible for summoning members of the public for jury duty and subpoenaing witnesses for the prosecution and the defense?
A. the bailiff
B. a local court administrator
C. the court recorder
D. the clerk of court
Question 12 of 40
2.5 Points
Which of the following represents the order of the steps in a criminal trial?
A. trial initiation, the judge’s charge to the jury, jury selection, opening statements, presentation of evidence, closing arguments, jury deliberations, the verdict
B. trial initiation, opening statements, jury selection, presentation of evidence, closing arguments, the judge’s charge to the jury, jury deliberation, the verdict
C. trial initiation, jury selection, opening statements, presentation of evidence, closing arguments, the judge’s ch.
SECTION IIntroduction to Law Final Exam Instructions Instructor A.docxzenobiakeeney
SECTION I
Introduction to Law Final Exam Instructions Instructor: A. Jarmon
The following True/False and Multiple Choice questions cover the material introduced in Chapters 1-2; 4, 6, and 7-8. Each question is worth two (2) points. Please indicate (T) for True or (F) for False for the True/False Statements. For Multiple Choice, please select the letter that corresponds to the best response. There are 50 questions in this section. This section is worth 50 points.
A. LEGAL SYTSTEM, COURTS, AND LEGISLATION
All but which of the following are examples of special courts in the federal system:
a. U.S.TaxCourt
b. U.S. Bankruptcy Court
c. U.S.CourtofFederalClaims
d. Pierce County Superior Court
e. U.S.CourtofAppealsfortheArmedForces
Which of the following statements IS NOT true as it relates to the authority of the U.S. Supreme Court?
TheU.S.SupremeCourtisthefinalauthorityonallmattersoffederal jurisdiction.
The primary function of the Supreme Court is one of review.
The key element in the Supreme Court’s authority is that a federal issue must be at stake, either in the form of the parties (diversity
jurisdiction) or in the constitutionality of a state or federal law.
Every case may be submitted to the United States Supreme Court for
review.
Alloftheabovestatementsaretrue.
Judicial review refers to the system by which each branch of government can use its specially designated powers to make sure the other branches act within their constitutionally prescribed limits.
The principle of stare decisis precludes the court from correcting erroneous decisions that were previously issued.
Final Exam Page 2
Introduction to Law Final Exam Instructions Instructor: A. Jarmon
B. INTRODUCTION TO CIVIL PROCEDURE (LECTURE)
The party responding to a civil action has the initial burden of proof.
Equity law is the body of law developed by the courts that serves as precedent for the determination of later controversies.
Quasi-in-rem jurisdiction refers to the ability of a court to exercise jurisdiction over a person involved in litigation in the state in which the court is situated.
Subject matter jurisdiction refers to the authority of a particular court to hear a matter. If the court does not have proper subject matter jurisdiction, the judgment rendered is void.
Where there is diversity of the parties and the amount in controversy exceeds $75,000, the plaintiff may file his action in state court and only upon agreement of the other party, can it be removed to federal court.
10.Under the due process clause, a Washington court may not assert personal jurisdiction over a person unless:
a. Thepersonisgivenadequatenotice
b. The person is given an opportunity to be heard
c. Thepersonhashad“minimumcontacts”withtheforumstate d. A,B,&C
e. A&B
11.The doctrine of preemption precludes states from making laws on matters for which another state has already created regulations.
12.Which of the following is a remedy that can be obtained from a court of
equity?a. Amaxim
b. Speci.
Quiz QuestionsQuizTop of FormQuestion 1 (2 points).docxaudeleypearl
Quiz Questions
Quiz
Top of Form
Question 1 (2 points)
__________ war is a war over control of the entire world order, whereas __________ war is warfare by one state waged to conquer and occupy another.
Question 1 options:
A)
Total; limited
B)
Limited; civil
C)
Civil; hegemonic
D)
Hegemonic; total
Question 2 (2 points)
Included in limited war are military actions carried out to gain __________ the enemy.
Question 2 options:
A)
some objective short of the surrender and occupation of
B)
complete and unambiguous surrender and occupation of
C)
some influence over
D)
cultural dominance over
Question 3 (2 points)
War between factions within a state trying to create, or prevent, a new government for the entire state or some part of it is __________ war.
Question 3 options:
A)
global
B)
civil
C)
general
D)
systemic
Question 4 (2 points)
Warfare without front lines that involves irregular forces is called __________.
Question 4 options:
A)
low-intensity conflict
B)
a raid
C)
guerrilla war
D)
hegemonic war
Question 5 (2 points)
The most crucial aspect of __________ is demobilizing and disarming militias.
Question 5 options:
A)
postwar transition
B)
representing factions
C)
economic reconstruction
D)
international organizations
Question 6 (2 points)
The purpose of __________ is to help the postwar society to heal by bringing to light what really happened during the war by offering asylum from punishment to the participants.
Question 6 options:
A)
peacekeeping forces
B)
the United Nations Security Council
C)
the Human Rights Watch
D)
truth commissions
Question 7 (2 points)
On the individual level of analysis, __________.
Question 7 options:
A)
wars may be the result of rational decisions of national leaders
B)
wars may be the result of decisions by government bureaucracies
C)
wars may be the result of how power is distributed between two countries
D)
the totalitarian nature of communist states makes them prone to using violence
Question 8 (2 points)
Which group has been found to be more prone to warfare than contemporary society?
Question 8 options:
A)
interstate actors
B)
preagricultural hunter-gatherer societies
C)
East Asian medieval societies
D)
domestic political leaders
Question 9 (2 points)
Which statement is characteristic of guerrilla war?
Question 9 options:
A)
Civilians often expose the guerrillas to opposing forces.
B)
Civilians are often punished along with guerrilla forces.
C)
Guerrilla fighters directly confront the enemy army.
D)
Guerrilla fighters do not control any specific territory.
Question 10 (2 points)
Theories of the causes of war at the systemic level of analysis __________.
Question 10 options:
A)
are not as contradictory as at the individual or domestic levels of analysis
B)
provide a more accurate basis for predicting future wars than any of the other levels of anal ...
Similar to 1 Marks 2 A person can be prosecuted for both an attempt and .docx (12)
1 Question Information refinement means taking the system requi.docxmercysuttle
1
Question: Information refinement means taking the system requirements you find during requirements determination and ordering them into tables, diagrams, and other formats that make them easier to translate into technical system specifications.
A
True
B
False
2
Question: Agile Methodologies focus on the roles that people perform.
A
True
B
False
3
Question: In the ____, like that shown in the accompanying figure, the result of each phase, which is called a deliverable or end product, flows sequentially into the next phase in the SDLC.
A
Interactive model
B
Requirements model
C
Waterfall model
D
Object model
4
Question: The goal of operational feasibility is to understand the degree to which a proposed system will likely solve the business problems or take advantage of opportunities.
A
True
B
False
5
Question: Which of the following focuses on the frequent production of working versions of a system that have a subset of the total number of required features?
A
Use-case modeling
B
Limited production
C
Structured analysis
D
Structured programming
E
Iterative development
6
Question: Component focusing allows the systems analyst to break a system into small, manageable, and understandable subsystems.
A
True
B
False
7
Question: Greater user involvement in the system development process usually results in ____.
A
Poorer communication
B
More satisfied users
C
Slower development times
D
Both b and c
8
Question: Agile approaches work best when the system being developed operates in a stable environment.
A
True
B
False
9
Question: Dependence of one part of the system on one or more other system parts best describes
A
Interrelated components
B
Component
C
Dependency
D
Cohesion
E
Boundary
10
Question: A systems development technique is the series of steps used to mark the phases of development for an information system.
A
True
B
False
11
Question: Analyzing an organization's activities to determine where value is added to products and/or services and the costs incurred best describes
A
Affinity clustering
B
Value chain analysis
C
Resource availability
D
Business process reengineering
E
Technical difficulty
12
Question: A ____ path includes all tasks that are vital to the project schedule.
A
Vital
B
Baseline
C
Critical
D
Foundational
13
Question: Referencing enterprise solutions, the difference between the modules and traditional approaches is that the modules are integrated to focus on the business functional areas, rather than on business processes.
A
True
B
False
14
Question: The document sent to vendors asking them to propose hardware and software that will meet the requirements of your new system is called a
A
Requirements statement
B
Systems service request
C
Baseline Project Plan
D
Business case
E
Request for proposal (RFP)
15
Question: The first step in creating a WBS is to ____.
A
Mark all recognizable events
B
Determine ...
1 pageApaSourcesDiscuss how an organization’s marketing i.docxmercysuttle
1 page
Apa
Sources:
Discuss how an organization’s marketing information skills and resources contribute to its distinctive capabilities
Refereence
Cravens, D., & Piercy, N. (2013). Strategic marketing (10th ed.). New York: McGraw-Hill.
1 page
A
pa
S
ources:
Discuss how an organization’s marketing information skills and resources contribute to its distinctive
capabilitie
s
Refereence
Cravens, D., & Piercy, N. (2013). Strategic marketing (10th ed.). New York: McGraw
-
Hill
.
...
1
R1
20
V1
1Vac
0Vdc R2
100
V
C1
3m
ECE2280 Homework #1
1. (a) Find 𝑉!/𝑉!
(b) Find the Thevenin equivalent between terminals a-b.
Assume that Vg is the input signal. Find the Thevenin equivalent between terminals a-b.
2. Use the solution from Problem 1.
(a)If Vg=2V DC, what is the output at Vo?
(b)If Vg=5V DC, what is the output at Vo?
(c)If Vg=sin(10t), what is the output at Vo? Make a rough sketch of Vo and Vg.
(d) Note that this is an amplifier – the output is linearly related to the input by a gain value. Mathematically, this is
expressed as:
𝑉𝑜𝑢𝑡
𝑉𝑖𝑛
= (𝑔𝑎𝑖𝑛)
For this circuit, what variable is Vout and Vin. What is the numerical gain value?
3. Sketch the following waveforms. Identify the dc component of the waveform and the ac component of the
waveform.
a. Vs=10cos(2πt)
b. Vs=3V+3cos(3t)
c. Vs=5V±0.5V
4. Explain in your own words the procedural steps for plotting Bode Plots. (Note: I would prepare this question for use
during an exam)
Use the following figure for Problems 5-10:
5. Derive the transfer function 𝐻 𝑠 =
!!
!!
by hand.
6 and 7. Use Multisim to draw the circuit and print it out.
8. Simulate the circuit in Mulitsim to obtain the Bode Plots for the circuit.
9. Use MATLAB and the result of the hand derivation to obtain the Bode Plots.
10. Sketch the straight-line approximation of the magnitude Bode plot on the same graph as that printed out in Problem 9.
Note that Multisim plots the results over frequency and the derived transfer function uses 𝜔.
+ _
10Ω
8v1
+
_
a
b
2v2
40Ω
+
v1
-
5Ω 40Ω
20Ω
6Ω
10Ω _
v2
+
Sales and Disposal of Assets
After reviewing the scenario, explain the impact that the adjusted basis has on the calculation of tax liability, and propose at least two (2) tax-planning strategies for reducing, eliminating, or deferring the payment of capital gains taxes. Also, discuss other alternatives aimed at optimizing deductions or reducing taxes, such as selling the property to an unrelated third party which, in turn, allows losses to be deductible expenses.
Imagine that you are a tax consultant and a client needs your advice on how to reduce his tax liability on the sale of depreciable assets that have not been fully depreciated. The client has identified three (3) long-term depreciable assets and assumes that he will be able to pay capital gains taxes on the profit from their sale. It would be to your client’s advantage to treat a taxable gain as long-term capital gain to which lower rates apply and a loss is categorized as an ordinary loss, which can offset ordinary loss, which can offset ordinary income. Discuss the treatment of gains and losses for Section 1231 and Section 1245 of the Internal Revenue Code, and recommend at least three (3) tax-planning strategies that would assist the client in reducing his tax liability. Provide support for you
1
PSYC 499: Senior Capstone
The Impact of the Social on the Individual
Class Syllabus
Spring/2020
Class Cycle: Monday - Sunday
Instructor: Tara West
Contact Information: [email protected]
Office Hours: Mondays, 2pm – 3pm (or by appointment)
NOTE: When emailing, please include your name and class in the subject line
Course Materials:
• Lesko, W.A. (2012). Readings in social psychology: General, classic, and contemporary
selections (8th ed.). New York, NY: Pearson. ISBN: 978-0-205-17967. (Required)
• American Psychological Association (2019). Concise Rules of APA Style (7th ed.).
Washington, DC: American Psychological Association. ISBN: 978-1433832178.
(Recommended)
Type of Course: Required
Field of Study: Psychology
Credits: 3 credits, undergraduate
Pre-requisites:
Completion of all required courses (Level 2 and Level 3) and permission.
Course Description:
All students will complete a senior research project under the direction of a faculty mentor, with a
topic within the track in which the student has completed at least three courses. This capstone
project will build upon work done in previous courses, allowing students to apply methods of
scholarly and/or action research to specific psychological issues. Projects may be completed in
small research groups or individually.
Course Summary:
This capstone project will build upon work completed in previous courses, allowing students to
apply methods of scholarly and/or action research to the field of Social Psychology, specifically the
impact of the social world on individuals.
Course Goals:
The objectives for this course include: gaining a theoretical knowledge base about the interplay
between individuals and their environments, gaining first-hand experience with the many steps
involved with research, the interpretation of research, and the presentation of research, using APA
formatting. Likewise, you will increase your familiarity with reading (and finding) primary sources.
Although only a few of you may pursue careers as researchers, all of you are consumers of research.
As such, a major goal for this course is to develop your capacity to critically think about, evaluate,
and critique the scientific evidence that is often presented in journal articles, newspapers,
magazines, and on television.
2
Learning Objectives/ Outcomes:
o Students should be able to:
• Conduct a review of research in a specific area of Psychology.
• Understand the strengths and weaknesses of scientific research.
• Interpret and generalize appropriately from research results.
• Evaluate the appropriateness of conclusions derived from psychological research.
• Use the concepts, language, and major theories of the discipline to account for
psychological phenomena in the context of social psychology.
• Use reasoning to recognize, develop, defend, and criticize arguments.
• Articulate how psycholo ...
1 Politicking is less likely in organizations that have· adecl.docxmercysuttle
1 Politicking is less likely in organizations that have
·
adeclining resources
·
high role ambiguity
·
clear performance appraisal systems
·
democratic decision making
2 In convergent periods, the role of executive management is to
·
develop new strategies for the problems at hand
·
shift middle managers to promote new views
·
reemphasize the mission and core values
·
challenge middle managers to reinvent their departments
3 Periods of convergence are those in which an organization
·
is in turmoil
·
seeks to improve its situation with relatively minor changes
·
must downsize to conserve resources
·
employs new strategies to advance the organization
4 Transformational change in an organization
·
is always necessary to some degree
·
is best delivered by a top-down plan
·
has no defined formula
·
is best delivered by a bottom-up plan
5 A person likely to participate in political behavior
·
believes he or she has little influence
·
has a desire for power
·
is a social nonconformist
·
is insensitive to social cues
6 To keep a strategy in focus, effective managers employ
·
rigid implementation
·
piecemeal implementation
·
simple goals
·
central themes
7 An influence tactic that relies on rank and enforcement of group goals is
·
legitimacy
·
coalitions
·
pressure
·
personal appeals
8 During organizational change, employee–management interfaces such as workshops and retreats
·
initiate
·
distract the participants from the real issues
·
help employees overcome downsizing issues
·
solve communication problems relatively short-term periods of high-energy action
9 Buck passing and scapegoating when politics is seen as a threat are forms of
·
defensive behaviors
·
offensive behaviors
·
suppression
·
aggression
10 A primary goal of politics in the workplace is to
·
exclude undesirable peers
·
form alliances
·
promote organizational goals
·
secure limited resources
11 Political behavior in the workplace
·
works only in an upward or lateral influence direction
·
attempts to influence decision making
·
is unlikely in a well-run organization
·
works only in a lateral influence direction
12 Impression management sends _____ messages that may be _____ under other circumstances.
·
false, true
·
ethical, unethical
·
true, false
·
convincing, unconvincing
13 The formulation and implementation of a strategy
·
are separate and sequential processes
·
must be completely defined before action is taken
·
are ongoing events within an organization
·
follow strict, unalterable guidelines
14 Surveys of seasoned managers reveal they believe politics in the workplace is
·
always unethical
·
part of some job requirements
·
a major part of organizational life
·
ineffective
15 With downward influence, power tactics preferred by U.S. managers include
·
personal appeals
·
inspirational appeals
·
coalitions
·
influence
16 Hard power tactics best influence those with which following characteristic?
·
High se ...
1 page2 sourcesReflect on the important performance management.docxmercysuttle
1 page
2 sources
Reflect on the important performance management theories and practices covered during the past six weeks. Describe one key point that you will apply to the work environment immediately. Highlight the specific course learning outcome(s) that relate(s) to this important takeaway. Also, mention the specific reading materials and/or theories that you found to be most applicable.
Required Text
Pulakos, E.D. (2009). Performance management: A new approach for driving business results. (1st ed.). West Sussex, United Kingdom: Wiley-Blackwell. ISBN: 9781405177610.
Chapter 9: Conclusion
Required References
de Leeuw, S., van den Berg, P (2011). Improving operational performance by influencing shopfloor behavior via performance management practices. Journal of Operations Management, 29, 3, 224-233. (Retrieved from http://www.isihome.ir/freearticle/ISIHome.ir-21006.pdf)
Fulmer, R.M., Stumpf, S.A. & Bleak, J. (2009). The strategic development of high potential leaders. Strategy & Leadership, 37(3), 17-22. (Retrieved from ProQuest).
Recommended References
Turnbull, H., Greenwood, R., Tworoger, L., & Golden, C. (2009). Diversity and inclusion in organizations: Developing an instrument for identification of skill deficiencies. Allied Academies International Conference. Academy of Organizational Culture, Communications and Conflict. Proceedings, 14(1), 28-33(Retrieved from ProQuest).
PLEASE HAVE THESE PARAGRAPH REWORDED IN YOUR OWN WORDS.
PLEASE DO NOT USE THE SAME WORDS AS IN THE PARAGRAPH.
· 1-According to chapter 8, a team is small number of people with similar skills who are committed to one ambition, performance goals, and pursuit for which they hold themselves accountable. In the other hand, a group is two or more people freely interacting who share norms and goals and have a common identity. The size of a group is limited by the potential for mutual interaction and mutual awareness. I was part of team during my military service, which I agree with the chapter that a team is more than just a group, because all my team members worked together towards a common goal and we all share responsibility for the team's success. The team I was part of was a 'fire team' that is a small military subunit of infantry designed to optimize bounding over watch, and fire and movement tactical within a hostile urban environment
·
· 2-At work, I am currently assigned to a group of customer service. This group or department consists of 12 employees, which all members have a shared knowledge of the group's objectives, but specific responsibilities are assigned to each of us. The purpose or objectives of our group is to troubleshoot technical problems, provide excellent customer support service, and address solutions to customers. The main factor of our group success is due to the manager in control of the group who also coordinate our individuals efforts. I would not change anything in my group, but I would add weekly meetings to see the end result ...
1 of 402.5 PointsUse Cramer’s Rule to solve the following syst.docxmercysuttle
1 of 40
2.5 Points
Use Cramer’s Rule to solve the following system.
x + 2y = 3
3x - 4y = 4
A. {(3, 1/5)}
B. {(5, 1/3)}
C. {(1, 1/2)}
D. {(2, 1/2)}
2 of 40
2.5 Points
Solve the following system of equations using matrices. Use Gaussian elimination with back substitution or Gauss-Jordan elimination.
x + y - z = -2
2x - y + z = 5
-x + 2y + 2z = 1
A. {(0, -1, -2)}
B. {(2, 0, 2)}
C. {(1, -1, 2)}
D. {(4, -1, 3)}
3 of 40
2.5 Points
Use Cramer’s Rule to solve the following system.
2x = 3y + 2
5x = 51 - 4y
A. {(8, 2)}
B. {(3, -4)}
C. {(2, 5)}
D. {(7, 4)}
4 of 40
2.5 Points
Use Cramer’s Rule to solve the following system.
4x - 5y = 17
2x + 3y = 3
A. {(3, -1)}
B. {(2, -1)}
C. {(3, -7)}
D. {(2, 0)}
5 of 40
2.5 Points
Use Cramer’s Rule to solve the following system.
4x - 5y - 6z = -1
x - 2y - 5z = -12
2x - y = 7
A. {(2, -3, 4)}
B. {(5, -7, 4)}
C. {(3, -3, 3)}
D. {(1, -3, 5)}
6 of 40
2.5 Points
Use Cramer’s Rule to solve the following system.
3x - 4y = 4
2x + 2y = 12
A. {(3, 1)}
B. {(4, 2)}
C. {(5, 1)}
D. {(2, 1)}
Reset Selection
7 of 40
2.5 Points
Use Cramer’s Rule to solve the following system.
x + y + z = 0
2x - y + z = -1
-x + 3y - z = -8
A. {(-1, -3, 7)}
B. {(-6, -2, 4)}
C. {(-5, -2, 7)}
D. {(-4, -1, 7)}
8 of 40
2.5 Points
Solve the following system of equations using matrices. Use Gaussian elimination with back substitution or Gauss-Jordan elimination.
3x1 + 5x2 - 8x3 + 5x4 = -8
x1 + 2x2 - 3x3 + x4 = -7
2x1 + 3x2 - 7x3 + 3x4 = -11
4x1 + 8x2 - 10x3+ 7x4 = -10
A. {(1, -5, 3, 4)}
B. {(2, -1, 3, 5)}
C. {(1, 2, 3, 3)}
D. {(2, -2, 3, 4)}
9 of 40
2.5 Points
Solve the following system of equations using matrices. Use Gaussian elimination with back substitution or Gauss-Jordan elimination.
x + y + z = 4
x - y - z = 0
x - y + z = 2
A. {(3, 1, 0)}
B. {(2, 1, 1)}
C. {(4, 2, 1)}
D. {(2, 1, 0)}
10 of 40
2.5 Points
Solve the system using the inverse that is given for the coefficient matrix.
2x + 6y + 6z = 8
2x + 7y + 6z =10
2x + 7y + 7z = 9
The inverse of:
2
2
2
6
7
7
6
6
7
is
7/2
-1
0
0
1
-1
-3
0
1
A. {(1, 2, -1)}
B. {(2, 1, -1)}
C. {(1, 2, 0)}
D. {(1, 3, -1)}
Reset Selection
11 of 40
2.5 Points
Use Gaussian elimination to find the complete solution to the following system of equations, or show that none exists.
2w + x - y = 3
w - 3x + 2y = -4
3w + x - 3y + z = 1
w + 2x - 4y - z = -2
A. {(1, 3, 2, 1)}
B. {(1, 4, 3, -1)}
C. {(1, 5, 1, 1)}
D. {(-1, 2, -2, 1)}
12 of 40
2.5 Points
Use Cramer’s Rule to solve the following system.
x + y = 7
x - y = 3
A. {(7, 2)}
B. {(8, -2)}
C. {(5, 2)}
D. {(9, 3)}
13 of 40
2.5 Points
Use Gaussian elimination to find the complete solution to each system.
x1 + 4x2 + 3x3 - 6x4 = 5
x1 + 3x2 + x3 - 4x4 = 3
2x1 + 8x2 + 7x3 - 5x4 = 11
2x1 + 5x2 - 6x4 = 4
A. {(-47t + 4, 12t, 7t + 1, t)}
B. {(-37t + 2, 16t, -7t + 1, t)}
...
1 of 6 LAB 5 IMAGE FILTERING ECE180 Introduction to.docxmercysuttle
1 of 6
LAB 5: IMAGE FILTERING
ECE180: Introduction to Signal Processing
OVERVIEW
You have recently learned about the convolution sum that serves as the basis of the FIR filter difference equation. The filter
coefficient sequence {𝑏𝑘} – equivalent to the filter’s impulse response ℎ[𝑛] – may be viewed as a one-dimensional moving
window that slides over the input signal 𝑥[𝑛] to compute the output signal 𝑦[𝑛] at each time step. Extending the moving
window concept to a 2-D array that slides over an image pixel array provides a useful and popular way to filter an image.
In this lab project you will implement two types of moving-window image filters, one based on convolution and the other
based on the median value of the pixel grayscale values spanned by the window. You will also gain experience with the
built-in image convolution filter imfilter.
OUTLINE
1. Develop and test a 33 median filter
2. Develop and test a 33 convolution filter
3. Evaluate the median and convolution filters to reduce noise while preserving edges
4. Study the behavior of various 33 convolution filter kernels for smoothing, edge detection, and sharpening
5. Learn how to use imfilter to convolution-filter color images, and study the various mechanisms offered by
imfilter to deal with boundary effects
PREPARATION – TO BE COMPLETED BEFORE LAB
Study these tutorial videos:
1. Nested “for” loops -- http://youtu.be/q2xfz8mOuSI?t=1m8s (review this part)
2. Functions -- http://youtu.be/0zTmMIh6I8A (review as needed)
Ensure that you have added the ECE180 DFS folders to your MATLAB path, especially the “images” and “matlab” subfolders.
Follow along with the tutorial video http://youtu.be/MEqUd0dJNBA, if necessary.
LAB ACTIVITIES
1. Develop and test a 33 median filter function:
1.1. Implement the following algorithm as the function med3x3:
TIP: First implement and debug the algorithm as a script and then convert it to a function as a final step. Use any
of the smaller grayscale images from the ECE180 “images” folder as you develop the function, or use the test
image X described in the Step 1.2.
(a) Create the function template and save it to an .m file with the same name as the function,
(b) Accept a grayscale image x as the function input,
http://youtu.be/q2xfz8mOuSI?t=1m8s
http://youtu.be/0zTmMIh6I8A
http://youtu.be/MEqUd0dJNBA
2 of 6
(c) Copy x to the output image y and then initialize y(:) to zero; this technique creates y as the same size and
data type as x,
(d) Determine the number of image rows and columns (see size),
(e) Loop over all pixels in image x (subject to boundary limits):
Extract a 33 neighborhood (subarray) about the current pixel,
Flatten the 2-D array to a 1-D array,
Sort the 1-D array values (see sort),
Assign the middle value of the sorted array to the current output pixel, and
(f) Return the median-filtered image y.
1.2. Enter load lab_5_verify to load the
1 Objectives Genetically transform bacteria with for.docxmercysuttle
1
Objectives
Genetically transform bacteria with
foreign DNA and induce
expression of genes encoded on
DNA to produce novel
Isolate chromosomal DNA from
Introduction
In this portion of the lab, you will perform a
procedure known as genetic
transformation. that a gene is
a piece of DNA that provides the
instructions for making (codes for) a
protein. This gives an organism a
particular trait. Genetic transformation
literally means change caused by genes,
involves the insertion of a gene into an
organism in order to change the organism’s
trait. transformation is used in
many areas of biotechnology. In
agriculture, genes coding for traits such as
pest, or spoilage resistance can be
genetically transformed into plants. In
bioremediation, bacteria can genetically
transformed with genes enabling them to
digest oil spills. In medicine, diseases
caused defective genes are beginning
to be treated by gene therapy; that is, by
genetically transforming a person’s
cells with healthy copies of the defective
gene that causes the
You will use a procedure to transform
bacteria with a gene that codes for Green
Fluorescent (GFP). The real-life
source of this gene is the bioluminescent
jellyfish Aequorea victoria.
Fluorescent Protein causes the jellyfish to
fluoresce and glow in the dark.
LAB TOPIC 10: Nucleic Acids and Genetic Transformation
Following the procedure,
the bacteria express their newly acquired
jellyfish gene and produce the fluorescent
which causes them to glow a
brilliant green color under ultraviolet
In this activity, you will learn about the
process of moving genes from one organism
to another with aid of a plasmid. In
nature, bacteria can transfer plasmids back
and forth allowing them to share
beneficial genes. This natural mechanism
allows bacteria to adapt to new
environments. The occurrence of
bacterial resistance to is due to
the transmission of
Genetic transformation involves
insertion of some new DNA into the E.
cells. In addition to one large
bacteria often contain one or more
circular pieces of DNA called
Plasmid DNA usually contains genes for
than one trait. Scientists can use a
called genetic engineering to insert
coding for new traits into a plasmid.
In case, the pGLO plasmid carries the
GFP that codes for the green
fluorescent protein and a gene (bla) that
codes for a protein that gives the
resistance to an antibiotic. The genetically
engineered plasmid can then be used to
genetically bacteria to give them
this new
Figure 10.1 Bacterial cell undergoing genetic transformation with the pGLO
plasmid
Exercise 10.1
Bacterial Transformation
2
Pre-lab exercises:
Since scientific laboratory investigations
are designed to get information about a
question, our first might be to
formulate some questions for this
Can we genetically transform an organism?
Which organism is
1. To genetically tra ...
1 of 8
Student name: …………….
Student ID: …………….
The Effect of Social Media on the English Language
2 of 8
Table Of Content:
Abstract 3
Introduction 3
Literature review 3
Significance of Research 4
Research Question 4
Methodology 4
Ethical Considerations 4
Limitations of the study 4
Expected results 5
Conclusion 5
References 6
Appendix 7
3 of 8
Abstract:
Giving the popularity of social networking sites lately, it has made an effect on the English
language either in a positive way by adding new words to the dictionary a negative way by misus-
ing the grammar and using incorrect abbreviated words like turning “you’re” to “your’. In this re-
search proposal I would like to investigate what the effect of using social networks has on the Eng-
lish language and see if it was more positive than negative and vice versa. I will be making a survey
page to collect data on the way people use these sites. Furthermore, we will see if people know the
importance of using proper English and try to make social networking sites improve our way of us-
ing the English language.
Introduction:
Technology has changed rapidly in the past five years, we became more reliant on our smart phones
and it completely changed the way we communicate with each other in our everyday life, it made it
easier for us to interact with people across the world with a single touch through social networking
sites, such as Twitter, Facebook and YouTube. Technology is clearly having some impact on the
English language and the words we use. Recently we saw how some Internet words have made it to
the Oxford dictionary this proves the impact it made, for example the word “Tweet” which means
according to the dictionary: “a posting made on the social networking service Twitter”. However,
some people think that it is okay to misuse Grammar or word spelling on social networking sites,
for instance, using “your” instead of “You’re”. So do these sites make a positive or a negative im-
pact on the English language?
Literature review:
A research titled “5 Ways That Social Media Benefits Writing the English language” written by
Mallary Jean Tenore in 2013 mentioned some ways that social media benefits writing and language,
such as how it increases the awareness of mistakes, when people make grammatical or spelling mis-
takes people will point them out via these websites therefore we become more aware of our spelling
and grammar thus improving our language. She also talked about how it creates new words and
meaning, such as “googled”, “tweeted”, “Friended”. She said that it also spotlight short writings
meaning it valued short storytelling with Vine videos where you have just six seconds to give a
message and in twitter you only have 140 characters to use which forces you to make every word
count.
4 of 8
Another research called Social networkin ...
1
MATH 106 QUIZ 4 Due: by 11:59 PM, Sunday, September 22, 2013,
(take-home part) via the Assignment Folder
NAME: _______________________________
I have completed this assignment myself, working independently and not consulting anyone except the
instructor.
INSTRUCTIONS
The take-home part of Quiz 4 is worth 75 points. There are 10 problems (5 pages), some with multiple parts.
This quiz is open book and open notes. This means that you may refer to your textbook, notes, and online
classroom materials, but you must work independently and may not consult anyone (and confirm this with
your submission). You may take as much time as you wish, provided you turn in your quiz no later than
Sunday, September 22, 2013.
Show work/explanation where indicated. Answers without any work may earn little, if any, credit. You
may type or write your work in your copy of the quiz, or if you prefer, create a document containing your work.
Scanned work is acceptable also. In your document, be sure to include your name and the assertion of
independence of work.
General quiz tips and instructions for submitting work are posted in the Quizzes conference.
If you have any questions, please contact me via Private Message in WebTycho.
1. (4 pts) Determine how many six-character codes can be formed if the first, second, third, and
fourth characters are letters, the fifth character is a nonzero digit, the sixth character is an odd
digit, and repetition of letters and digits are allowed. (A digit is 0, 1, 2, .., or 9.) Show your
work . 1. ______
A. 720
B. 175,760
C. 790,920
D. 20,563,920
2. (4 pts) Suppose that a multiple choice exam has seven questions and each question has five
choices. In how many ways can the exam be completed? Show your work. 2. ______
A. 35
B. 4,096
C. 16,807
D. 78,125
2
3. (4 pts) Given the feasible region shown to
the right, find the values of x and y that
minimize the objective function 8x + 7y.
Show your Work. 3. _______
A. There is no minimum.
B. (x, y) = (6, 0)
C. (x, y) = (3, 2)
D. (x, y) = (1, 4)
E. (x, y) = (0, 7)
4. (4 pts) Six customers in a grocery store are lining up at the check-out. In how many different
orders can the customers line up? Show your work. 4. _______
A. 6
B. 36
C. 720
D. 46,656
5. (4 pts) A restaurant’s menu has six appetizers, four entrees, and five beverages. To order dinner, a
customer must choose one entrée and one beverage, and may choose one appetizer. (That is, a dinner
must include one entrée and one beverage, but not necessarily an appetizer. An appetizer is optional.)
How many different dinners can be ordered? Show your work. ...
1 MN6003 Levis Strauss Case Adapted from Does Levi St.docxmercysuttle
1
MN6003 Levis Strauss Case:
Adapted from: “Does Levi Strauss still fit
America?” by Caroline Fairchild October 6, 2014,
Fortune Magazine and “Levi Strauss - The Boss
and the yogi” Jul 12th 2014 from the Economist
It used to be the only name in denim. Today the
161-year-old family owned company is just one
name among hundreds. Can anyone bring the
blue jeans pioneer back to its old glory? Enter
Chip Bergh—a former P&G brand whiz who once
made razorblades cool. Chip Bergh is not an
“apparel guy,” he says, while walking through
Levi’s Stadium in Santa Clara, California, the new
home of the San Francisco 49ers. Levi’s 20-year,
$220 million investment in the naming rights for
the 49ers stadium is part of a larger push to tap
into the nostalgia Bergh believes everyone has
for the brand. Despite the setting, Bergh isn’t
really a “sports guy” either. He is much more of a
company man. “I still bleed Procter & Gamble
blue,” he says about his former employer.
A crowd full of fans wearing your clothing is the
fantasy of anyone heading an apparel company.
But at Levi—the largest jeans company in the
world and the undisputed founder of the
category—the fantasy has been far from reality
for a long time. The creator of the 501 has
struggled to keep its brand relevant for what
Bergh calls Levi’s “Lost Generation.” For 120
years the term “Levi’s” was synonymous with
“blue jeans.” Then came the turn of the 21st
century, when a fashion explosion in denim
suddenly gave shoppers a range of high-end
choices—including brands like 7 For All Mankind
(founded in 2000) and True Religion (2002),
whose labels sounded more like cults than pants.
At the same time, lower-end rivals that had been
kicking around for a while (Lee and Wrangler)
began nibbling away at market share and
consumers defected to cheaper jeans, sold by
“fast-fashion” retailers like Zara and H&M. Levi
got lost in the middle. With $7.1 billion in 1996
sales, the company used to be bigger than Nike.
By 2003, Levi’s revenues had bell-bottomed out
to $4.2 billion. Over the next decade, sales rose
only barely as the company failed to translate
affection for the brand into actual purchases.
Levi’s design team was late to key trends, like
colored denim for women and more tailored jeans
for men. Once in the top quintile of
the Fortune 500, Levi dropped off the list in 2012.
That kind of decline would be a challenge for any
new CEO, yet Bergh, a 57-year-old vegan and
former U.S. Army captain, is bringing a discipline
to the company that had been missing for nearly
20 years. He has taken an axe to the company’s
inflated cost structure and is convinced that he
can make Levi grow again. While still relying
heavily on the classic pieces of clothing that are
the seam of the denim giant’s business (think the
button-fly jean, the white pocket tee, the trucker
jacket), Bergh is now investing i ...
1
NAME__________________
EXAM 1
Directions: Answer the following questions on the attached sheets of paper. Please adhere
to the following guidelines to reduce any suspicions of cheating:
1. KEEP YOUR EYES ON YOUR OWN EXAM AT ALL TIMES.
2. KEEP YOUR ANSWERS COVERED AT ALL TIMES.
3. Do not communicate with any other student during the exam.
4. Do not use any unauthorized prepared material during the exam.
5. Only acceptable calculators may be used on the exams.
6. Do not leave the room at any time before handing in your exam.
7. SHOW ALL OF YOUR WORK (answers may not be accepted without work
shown)
EQUATIONS
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1. A stone is thrown straight up with a speed of 25.0 m/s from the top of a building 55.0 m
tall.
a. How far above the ground will the stone go?
b. How long until the stone hits the ground?
c. What is the speed of the stone just before it hits the ground?
d. If a ball is thrown downward from the top of the same building with a speed of
25.0 m/s, will its speed just before hitting the ground be greater than, less than, or
equal to the speed of the stone just before it hits the ground? Explain. (Hint:
What is the speed of the stone when it returns to the height it was thrown?)
3
2. A ball is thrown from the top of a building of height 40m at an angle of 20˚ above the
horizontal and with an initial speed of 15m/s. Use the assumptions of projectile motion
to answer the following questions.
a. How high above the ground will the ball travel?
b. What speed will the ball have at the maximum height?
c. What is the direction of the velocity of the ball at the maximum height?
d. How far has the ball traveled horizontally when it hits the ground?
e. What will be the speed of the ball when it hits the ground?
4
3. Consider the frictionless system below. The pulley is massless and frictionless, and the
string is massless. The mass of each block is ma = 2.0 kg, mb = 1.0 kg, mc = 2.0 kg, and
md = 1.0 kg.
a. What is the acceleration of the system?
b. What is the tension in the string between block a and block b?
c. What is the tension in the string between block b and block c?
d. What is the tension in the string between block c and block d?
e. If the system is initially at rest, how long will it take block d to fall 3.0 m?
5
4. Two equal mass ...
1
Name: Chem 9, Section:
Lab Partner: Experiment Date:
Synthetic Polymers and Plastics
Part A: Physical Characteristics
Find or choose one type of each of the following plastic polymers, and report the following
characteristics:
Plastic
number
Short Name
(HDPE,
LDPE, etc)
Clear
(yes or no)
Opaque
(yes or no)
Flexibility
(can be
bent?)
Durability
(hard or
soft)
Breakability
(can be
cracked?)
Recyclable
(yes or no)
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
Part B: Density Tests
Report for plastic samples in each liquid: sinks rapidly, sinks slowly, floats on top, floats below surface
Plastic
number
1:1 ethanol/water
density = 0.94 g/cm
3
Water
density = 1.0 g/cm
3
10% NaCl solution
density = 1.08 g/cm
3
1
2
3
4
5
6
Relative Plastic Densities:
Less than 0.94 g/cm
3
Less than 1.0 g/cm
3
Less than 1.08 g/cm
3
More than 1.08 g/cm
3
Ranking of densities:
(lowest) _______ _______ _______ _______ _______ _______ (highest)
2
Part C: Polymer Bouncy Balls
Polymer Ball composition Approximate height bounced Physical characteristics
Ball #1:
Ball #2
Ball #3
Questions
1. Which of the Big Six plastics was the most flexible?
2. Which of the Big Six plastics would be the best material for each of the following examples?
Use short names to identify each plastic (e.g. HDPE).
a replacement for a glass window ?
a take-out container for food?
a flexible, expandable bag for carrying items?
a lightweight bottle cap?
3. An unknown plastic floats in a 10% NaCl solution but sinks in water. What is the range of
possible density values this plastic may have? Suggest the composition of this plastic.
3
4. Why is it important to dislodge any adhering bubbles in the density tests?
5. PET plastic (number 1) is the most valuable waste plastic at the present time. Suggest a way
to separate it commercially from other waste plastics.
6. Sometimes plastic containers are made from two polymers and not just one. What would
happen to the water density test if HDPE and PVC were mixed?
7. Why are plastic recyclers very concerned about identifying the different polymers and not
mixing them together?
8. The figure below depicts polymerization of polystyrene (PS). Circle the original monomers
and determine how many monomers are present.
4
9. Polyvinylchloride (PVC) is composed of the vinyl chloride monomer. The monomer
structure and general reaction are shown at right.
Draw a polyvinyl chloride polymer composed of five
monomers arrange ...
1 pageapasources2Third Party LogisticsBriefly describe .docxmercysuttle
1 page
apa
sources:2
Third Party Logistics
Briefly describe the basic types of third party logistics (3PL) organizations.
• Identify some of the best practices that leading companies using 3PLs have embraced.
• What value-added considerations would you take into account when considering the use of a 3PL?
• Which 3PL would provide the most suitable service to your organization? (Forwarder and Warehousing are the ones my company use.)
• What 3PLs does your organization currently use? (My company uses a freight forwarder)
What other 3PLs could you recommend to your management? Domestic Transportation.
WAVfiles/behave.wav
WAVfiles/cat_meow_x.wav
WAVfiles/cow3.wav
WAVfiles/goat2.wav
WAVfiles/gold.wav
WAVfiles/imamog.wav
WAVfiles/reach.wav
WAVfiles/README.txt
Title Artist
===== ======
behave Austin Powers
cat_meow_x Kitty
cow3 Miss Cow
goat2 Goaty
gold Snowman
imamog Mog
reach Woody
rudolph Rudolph
theme Archie and Edith
warning_alien Robot
wizoz5 Munchkins
WAVfiles/rudolph.wav
WAVfiles/theme.wav
WAVfiles/warning_alien.wav
WAVfiles/wizoz5.wav
...
1 Pageapasources2Review the Food Environment Atlas maps for.docxmercysuttle
1 Page
apa
sources:2
Review the Food Environment Atlas maps for variables that seem to affect your selected state the most.
Select a state and variables you consider relevant to represent the food environment in you chosen state.
1) Include at least two food categories from the following list:
? ACCESS
? STORES
? RESTAURANTS
? ASSISTANCE
? INSECURITY
? PRICES_TAXES
? LOCAL
2) Include at least two health variables in each of the selected food categories. Find the name and descriptions of variables in the Food Environment Atlas Resources: Excel Data and Documentation Download.
Write a 200- to 300-word plan that includes
? your selected state (Texas);
? selected food categories and health variables; and
? reasons for selection. Are your variables expressed in numbers or percentages?
Optional: Discuss choices in discussion with classmates and instructor. Write a summary of your discussion to include with this assignment.
...
1 Lab 3 Newton’s Second Law of Motion Introducti.docxmercysuttle
1
Lab 3: Newton’s Second Law of Motion
Introduction
Newton’s Second law of motion can be summarized by the following equation:
Σ F = m a (1)
where Σ F represents a net force acting on an object, m is the mass of the object moving
under the influence of Σ F, and a is the acceleration of that object. The bold letters in
the equation represent vector quantities.
In this lab you will try to validate this law by applying Eq. 1 to the almost frictionless
motion of a car moving along a horizontal aluminum track when a constant force T
(tension in the string) acts upon it. This motion (to be exact the velocity of the moving
object) will be recorded automatically by a motion sensor. The experimental set up
for a car moving away from the motion sensor is depicted below.
If we consider the frictionless motion of the cart in the positive x-direction chosen in
the diagram, then Newton’s Second Law can be written for each of the objects as
follows:
T Ma (2)
and
– gT F ma (3)
From this system of equations we can get the acceleration of the system:
2
gF
a
m M
(4)
Because the motion of the car is not frictionless, to get better results it is necessary to
include the force of kinetic friction fk experienced by the moving car in the analysis.
When the cart is moving away from the motion detector (positive x-direction in the
diagram) Newton’s Second Law is written as follows for each of the moving objects
m and M:
1 1– kT f Ma (5)
and
1 1– gT F ma (6)
Since it is quite difficult to assess quantitatively the magnitude of kinetic friction
involved in our experiment we will solve the problem by putting the object in two
different situations in which the friction acts in opposite directions respectively while
the tension in the string remains the same.
When the cart M is forced to move towards the motion detector (negative x-direction
in the diagram), the corresponding Newton’s Second Law equations will change as
follows:
2 2kT f Ma (7)
and
2 2gT F ma (8)
Note that in equations 5, 6, 7, and 8 the direction of acceleration represented by vector
a has been chosen in the same direction as the direction of motion.
We are able to eliminate the force of kinetic friction on the final result, by calculating
the mean acceleration from these two runs:
1 2
2
ave
slope slope
a
(9)
Combing the equations (5) – (8) we derive the equation to calculate the value of
gravitational acceleration:
avea M mg
m
(10)
3
Equipment
Horizontal dynamics track with smart pulley and safety stopper on one end; collision
cart with reflector connected to a variable mass hanging over the pulley; motion
detector connected to the Science Workshop interface recording the velocity of the
moving cart.
Procedure:
a) Weigh the cart (M) and the small mass (m) hanger.
b) Open the experiment file “New ...
1 List of Acceptable Primary Resources for the Week 3 .docxmercysuttle
1
List of Acceptable Primary Resources for the Week 3 and Week 5
Assignments
These are the primary resources that you can cite when explaining a moral theory in order to fulfill the
relevant portion of the resources requirement. Readings included in the “Required Readings” list are
indicated with a *.
Utilitarianism:
*Mill, J. S. Utilitarianism, in the original version in the textbook, or in the version by Jonathan
Bennett retrieved from www.earlymoderntexts.com.
Haines, W. (n.d.). Consequentialism. Internet Encyclopedia of Philosophy. Retrieved from
http://www.iep.utm.edu/conseque/
Singer, P. (2003). Voluntary euthanasia: A utilitarian perspective. Bioethics, 17(5/6), 526-541.
Retrieved from the EBSCOhost database.
Deontology:
* Kant, I. (2008). Groundwork for the metaphysic of morals. In J. Bennett (Ed. & Trans.), Early
Modern Philosophy. Retrieved from http://www.earlymoderntexts.com/pdfs/kant1785.pdf
(Original work published in 1785).
Virtue Ethics:
* Aristotle. (350 B.C.E.). Nicomachean ethics (W. D. Ross, Trans.). Retrieved from
http://classics.mit.edu/Aristotle/nicomachaen.html
Annas, J. (2006). Virtue ethics. In D. Copp (Ed.), The Oxford Handbook of Ethical Theory (pp. 515–
36). Oxford: Oxford University Press. Retrieved from
https://www.sesync.org/sites/default/files/resources/case_studies/10-kenyaecotourism-
handbook.pdf
Hursthouse, R. (2012). Virtue ethics. In E. Zalta (Ed.), The Stanford Encyclopedia of Philosophy.
Retrieved from http://plato.stanford.edu/entries/ethics-virtue/
MacIntyre, A. (1984). After virtue. Notre Dame, IN: University of Notre Dame Press. Chapters 14-15
are included in the Chapter 6 readings of the textbook.
Feminist/Care Ethics:
*Held, V. Feminist transformations of moral theory. Included in the Chapter 6 readings of the
textbook.
*Gilligan, C. (1982). In a different voice: Psychological theory and women’s development.
Cambridge, MA: Harvard University Press. Retrieved from
https://lms.manhattan.edu/pluginfile.php/26517/mod_resource/content/1/Gilligan%20In%20
a%20Different%20Voice.pdf
http://insite.bridgepoint.local/dept/ops/pni/Navigator Images/Ashford Logo New.jpg
http://www.earlymoderntexts.com/
http://www.iep.utm.edu/conseque/
https://www.sesync.org/sites/default/files/resources/case_studies/10-kenyaecotourism-handbook.pdf
http://plato.stanford.edu/entries/ethics-virtue/
https://lms.manhattan.edu/pluginfile.php/26517/mod_resource/content/1/Gilligan%20In%20a%20Different%20Voice.pdf
2
* Noddings, N. (2010). Maternal factor: Two paths to morality. Berkeley, CA: University of
California Press. Retrieved from the ebrary database.
http://insite.bridgepoint.local/dept/ops/pni/Navigator Images/Ashford Logo New.jpg
...
1 of 1 DOCUMENTSouth China Morning PostJune 11, 2007 M.docxmercysuttle
1 of 1 DOCUMENT
South China Morning Post
June 11, 2007 Monday
Who are we?
BYLINE: An evolving sense of identity is changing the socio-political scene, writes Clarence Tsui
SECTION: NEWS; Behind the News; Pg. 12
LENGTH: 1478 words
Having appeared at the forefront of ill-fated campaigns to save Queen's Pier and Wan Chai's Wedding Card Street - not
to mention the fame he attained four years ago as the youngest-ever candidate in district council elections - Chan
King-fai is a veteran in fielding media questions these days. However polished as he might be, he recalls one
particular question that really annoyed him a month ago.
"It was this television journalist who was interviewing me for, well, one of those handover anniversary specials," he
said. "And after all the deliberate questions, he said he had one final question he had to ask me: whether I feel I'm
Chinese now. So after all the discussion that went on about our work, it boils down, again, to such a simplified view of
things."
It's easy to see the source of his ire: for someone who fronts a group called Local Action - comprising activists whose
major objective is to salvage Hong Kong's heritage from the relentless claws of urban renewal - the old chestnut of
taking sides on the Sino-British divide is akin to a swipe at his efforts in cultivate an organic cultural identity for Hong
Kong.
"It's always been such a rigid framework - either you choose to be an Anglophile, or you consider yourself Chinese.
But it's so ridiculous: it's like when somebody said to me that since I admired Queen's Pier so much I must have feelings
for the colonial era, and not for China," Mr Chan said.
Fellow Local Action activist, Chow Sze-chung, agreed, saying: "When we talk about Queen's Pier, it's not just about
British monarchs having landed here. What we wanted to remember is how more than 30 local social movements had
begun and happened right here."
Their view embodies a popular sentiment that bubbled among intellectuals before the handover on July 1, 1997, and
has soared to the forefront in the past few years: that beneath all the focus of Hong Kong as an incidental success story
that resulted from the political manoeuvres between two political powers, there's also a Hong Kong story to be written.
In this story a Hong Kong-specific cultural identity - an indigenous mix of the city's history, from its social upheavals
and heritage to its popular culture - plays a central role.
And it's a mass social movement which basically propelled Mr Chan, his fellow activists and probably even more of the
city's residents in acknowledging that there is a society out there and not just a co-existence of cynical, get-rich-quick
individuals. Hackneyed this might sound, but the demonstration on July 1, 2003, instilled into many a Hongkonger a
communal spirit and local consciousness that had been more or less ambivalent, or even absent, in the past.
Page 1
Of course, it's not as if there weren't efforts to gal ...
1 I i I I To the memory of the Maya people .docxmercysuttle
:1
I
'i
I
I
To the memory of the Maya people
whose lives were transformed
or cut short by these events, and
to their living descendants
INTRODUCTION
,: ....
:.:: ..
. ...
On March 13, I697, ' Sp~t1is~trOO~~fromYtl- :
;',¢,atanattacked and occupied N6jpeten, the small jslartdciapitalofth(!
')ylaya people known as Itzas, the last unconquered nativ:e . New . World
~~l~gdom. The capture of this small island in the tropical forests of north-
i~~rn Gu~temala, densely covered with whitewashed temples, royal palaces, .
~:arid thatched houses, turned out' t~ be the decisive mome.nt in the final ·'
:; ~naptet of Spain's conquest of the Mayas. ClimaxiJ.).g more than two years '
'{df intensive preparations and failed negotiations, the moment only inaug-
';~tated several more years of struggle between Spaniards and Mayas for
;:'~oritrol over the vast tropical forests of what is now the central area of the
··. l)epartment of Peten, Guatemala (map I). .
\;.~ The Itzas had dominated much of the lowland tropical forests around
~;i:ag9 Peten Itza sin~e at least the mid-fifteenth century, when their ances:
;;tbtS.,it was said, migrated therefrom Chich'en Itza in northern Yucatan;
<~;rheir immediate neighbors, known as the Kowojs, were said to have
; mignlted from Mayapan to Peten at the time of the SpanIsh conquest of
Yucatan, probably during the 1530S. The remoteness of these groups and
, the physical inhospitality of the land had undoubtedly contributed to
,·Spain's failure to pursue their conquest during the century and a half
:Jollowing the relatively late final conquest of Yucatan in 1544. No less
•• significant had been the Spaniards' fear of the Itzas, whose reputation as .
!.fierce warriors who sacrificed their enemies gave pause to military ,con-
'; q~erors and missionaries alike. "
;. In this book I examine with it critical eye the events that preceded and
'.followed the 1697 conquest of the Itzacapital of Nojpeten and surround-
,jng regions, focusing on the short time between 169 5 and 1704. During
:those years the Spanish Basque military man Martin de :Ursuay Ariz-
:mendi, commanding an army of Yucatecan soldiers, planned and exe-
,c:uted the attack on the Itza capital. ~o.tJ.: d resistance from
II
I
'.
\
Mapr .
.'
G U A -
-,
I H
\ .. Kopan
• .', o'(...-s!;;.i"-.:!:
The Maya lowlands of the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries: '
1,II'IItil/.I/,1II
t~s ds of native inhabitan32?an~.t:~~_~~n!;!!lVoI.£~v.Q..--mn'Ve
i~!nis.§i9.n. to~JP I704tfiese mission inhabitants staged an abortive
[email protected] that threatene~ecapture Nojpeten from its conquerors. Be-
~ ,
cause these, events were deeply complex, this account includes details that
enable us to grasp some of the layers of political intrigue and action that
characterized every aspect of the conquest of the Itzas and its aftermath.
t'.The Spaniards left documentation on the conquest that is staggering in
its 'quantity an ...
June 3, 2024 Anti-Semitism Letter Sent to MIT President Kornbluth and MIT Cor...Levi Shapiro
Letter from the Congress of the United States regarding Anti-Semitism sent June 3rd to MIT President Sally Kornbluth, MIT Corp Chair, Mark Gorenberg
Dear Dr. Kornbluth and Mr. Gorenberg,
The US House of Representatives is deeply concerned by ongoing and pervasive acts of antisemitic
harassment and intimidation at the Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT). Failing to act decisively to ensure a safe learning environment for all students would be a grave dereliction of your responsibilities as President of MIT and Chair of the MIT Corporation.
This Congress will not stand idly by and allow an environment hostile to Jewish students to persist. The House believes that your institution is in violation of Title VI of the Civil Rights Act, and the inability or
unwillingness to rectify this violation through action requires accountability.
Postsecondary education is a unique opportunity for students to learn and have their ideas and beliefs challenged. However, universities receiving hundreds of millions of federal funds annually have denied
students that opportunity and have been hijacked to become venues for the promotion of terrorism, antisemitic harassment and intimidation, unlawful encampments, and in some cases, assaults and riots.
The House of Representatives will not countenance the use of federal funds to indoctrinate students into hateful, antisemitic, anti-American supporters of terrorism. Investigations into campus antisemitism by the Committee on Education and the Workforce and the Committee on Ways and Means have been expanded into a Congress-wide probe across all relevant jurisdictions to address this national crisis. The undersigned Committees will conduct oversight into the use of federal funds at MIT and its learning environment under authorities granted to each Committee.
• The Committee on Education and the Workforce has been investigating your institution since December 7, 2023. The Committee has broad jurisdiction over postsecondary education, including its compliance with Title VI of the Civil Rights Act, campus safety concerns over disruptions to the learning environment, and the awarding of federal student aid under the Higher Education Act.
• The Committee on Oversight and Accountability is investigating the sources of funding and other support flowing to groups espousing pro-Hamas propaganda and engaged in antisemitic harassment and intimidation of students. The Committee on Oversight and Accountability is the principal oversight committee of the US House of Representatives and has broad authority to investigate “any matter” at “any time” under House Rule X.
• The Committee on Ways and Means has been investigating several universities since November 15, 2023, when the Committee held a hearing entitled From Ivory Towers to Dark Corners: Investigating the Nexus Between Antisemitism, Tax-Exempt Universities, and Terror Financing. The Committee followed the hearing with letters to those institutions on January 10, 202
Model Attribute Check Company Auto PropertyCeline George
In Odoo, the multi-company feature allows you to manage multiple companies within a single Odoo database instance. Each company can have its own configurations while still sharing common resources such as products, customers, and suppliers.
Operation “Blue Star” is the only event in the history of Independent India where the state went into war with its own people. Even after about 40 years it is not clear if it was culmination of states anger over people of the region, a political game of power or start of dictatorial chapter in the democratic setup.
The people of Punjab felt alienated from main stream due to denial of their just demands during a long democratic struggle since independence. As it happen all over the word, it led to militant struggle with great loss of lives of military, police and civilian personnel. Killing of Indira Gandhi and massacre of innocent Sikhs in Delhi and other India cities was also associated with this movement.
How to Make a Field invisible in Odoo 17Celine George
It is possible to hide or invisible some fields in odoo. Commonly using “invisible” attribute in the field definition to invisible the fields. This slide will show how to make a field invisible in odoo 17.
Introduction to AI for Nonprofits with Tapp NetworkTechSoup
Dive into the world of AI! Experts Jon Hill and Tareq Monaur will guide you through AI's role in enhancing nonprofit websites and basic marketing strategies, making it easy to understand and apply.
Read| The latest issue of The Challenger is here! We are thrilled to announce that our school paper has qualified for the NATIONAL SCHOOLS PRESS CONFERENCE (NSPC) 2024. Thank you for your unwavering support and trust. Dive into the stories that made us stand out!
The French Revolution, which began in 1789, was a period of radical social and political upheaval in France. It marked the decline of absolute monarchies, the rise of secular and democratic republics, and the eventual rise of Napoleon Bonaparte. This revolutionary period is crucial in understanding the transition from feudalism to modernity in Europe.
For more information, visit-www.vavaclasses.com
Macroeconomics- Movie Location
This will be used as part of your Personal Professional Portfolio once graded.
Objective:
Prepare a presentation or a paper using research, basic comparative analysis, data organization and application of economic information. You will make an informed assessment of an economic climate outside of the United States to accomplish an entertainment industry objective.
Francesca Gottschalk - How can education support child empowerment.pptxEduSkills OECD
Francesca Gottschalk from the OECD’s Centre for Educational Research and Innovation presents at the Ask an Expert Webinar: How can education support child empowerment?
Francesca Gottschalk - How can education support child empowerment.pptx
1 Marks 2 A person can be prosecuted for both an attempt and .docx
1. 1
Marks: 2
A person can be prosecuted for both an attempt and the
completed crime.
Choose one answer.
a. False
b. True
Question 2
Marks: 2
According to Hicks v. U.S.,150 U.S. 442 (1893)one can be held
criminally liable by “merely speaking words of encouragement.”
Choose one answer.
a. True
b. False
Question 3
Marks: 2
According to MPC §1.07, conspirators in a completed crime
may be punished for the conspiracy, as well as the completed
crime.
Choose one answer.
a. True
b. False
2. Question 4
Marks: 2
According to your reading, in some states it is a more serious
offense to break into a car and steal a tape player than it is to
steal the entire car.
Choose one answer.
a. false
b. true
Question 5
Marks: 2
According to your reading, the charge of forgery includes each
of the following elements except
Choose one answer.
a. the false making or altering
b. of a legally significant instrument
c. with intent to defraud
d. a court of law or financial institution
Question 6
Marks: 2
According to your reading, the legal term of art most often
employed to distinguish murder from manslaughter is
Choose one answer.
3. a. causation
b. vicarious liability
c. burden of proof
d. malice aforethought
Question 7
Marks: 2
According to your reading, the Model Penal Code considers the
solicitor to be as dangerous as the perpetrator of the completed
crime.
Choose one answer.
a. false
b. true
Question 8
Marks: 2
According to your reading, the problems with corporate
criminal liability include
Choose one answer.
a. Determining who to charge
b. determining punishment
c. the wording of criminal statutes
4. d. all of the above
Question 9
Marks: 2
Although they are similar, embezzlement differs from larceny in
which of the following ways?
Choose one answer.
a. embezzlement requires asportation
b. the claim of right defense is generally not applicable to
larceny
c. embezzlement does not require intent
d. none of the above
Question 10
Marks: 2
An aider and abettor or accessory before the fact must
Choose one answer.
a. be a principal of the crime
b. discourage the commission of the crime
c. solicit the commission of the crime
5. d. aid or encourage the commission of a crime
11
Marks: 2
An effective abandonment defense to aiding and abetting, or to
accessory before the fact, will
Choose one answer.
a. vary with aid
b. depend on the type of solicitation made
c. all of the above
d. none of the above
Question 12
Marks: 2
Assault and battery are
Choose one answer.
a. civil torts, not crimes
b. handled the same in all jurisdictions
c. handled the same in civil and criminal proceedings
d. handled differently from jurisdiction to jurisdiction
6. Question 13
Marks: 2
At Common Law, which of the following elements is not
accurate regarding the crime of Burglary?
Choose one answer.
a. Trespassory breaking and entering
b. Of the dwelling of another
c. In the nighttime
d. With the intent to commit a misdemeanor
Question 14
Marks: 2
Bill says to John, “Give me $50 right now, or the next time I
see you I’ll slice your nostrils with a razor blade.” Bill is most
likely guilty of
Choose one answer.
a. robbery
b. extortion
c. A and B
d. None of the above
Question 15
7. Marks: 2
Bill sees a $100 bill lying on the front seat of his friend’s car.
He takes the car and the money to the racetrack, intending to
return both. After winning $1,000, on a bet he placed using his
friend’s $100, he returns the car to its original location and, in
gratitude, leaves his friend $200. Bill could be convicted of
Choose one answer.
a. larceny of the money only
b. larceny of the car only
c. larceny of the money and the car
d. nothing
Question 16
Marks: 2
Billy writes a check on his bank account, even though he knows
there are insufficient funds to cover the amount of the check.
He may be guilty of
Choose one answer.
a. forgery
b. obtaining property by false pretenses
c. embezzlement
d. none of the above
8. Question 17
Marks: 2
According to your reading, the Model Penal Code promotes:
Choose one answer.
a. abolition of degrees of murder, in favor of a series of
mitigating circumstances to be employed as factors in assessing
punishment
b. a single sentence for murder, no matter what the degree onal
degrees of murder
c. abolishing the murder charge entirely, in favor of additional
degrees of manslaughter
d. abolition of the manslaughter charge, in favor of additional
degrees of murder
Question 18
Marks: 2
Conspiracy requires which of the following elements?
Choose one answer.
a. actus reus and mens rea
b. mens rea
c. mens rea and completion of the act
9. d. actus reus
Question 19
Marks: 2
Degrees of Robbery usually depend on
Choose one answer.
a. value of property
b. the amount of force used
c. the amount of force threatened
d. a and c
e. b and c
Question 20
Marks: 2
Generally speaking, an attempt is which of the following?
Choose one answer.
a. the unintentional engagement in conduct that, if continued,
would constitute a crime
b. a substantial but unsuccessful effort to commit a crime
c. the preparation toward commission of a crime
10. d. none of the above
21
Marks: 2
If involuntary abandonment occurs prior to the completion of a
crime, the defendant can not be charged with attempt of the
crime.
Choose one answer.
a. True
b. False
Question 22
Marks: 2
If John unintentionally burns down a house while burglarizing
it, he would be charged under the Felony Arson rule.
Choose one answer.
a. false
b. true
Question 23
Marks: 2
In a larceny case, the value of the property may be significant
because
Choose one answer.
a. most states increase the degree of larceny based on the value
of the property
b. most states won’t prosecute for the theft of property valued
11. below $ 25
c. most states won’t prosecute for the theft of property valued
below $ 150
d. most states won’t prosecute for a theft of service
Question 24
Marks: 2
In a murder statute the term “willful” is used to describe a
specific intent to kill.
Choose one answer.
a. true
b. false
Question 25
Marks: 2
In a rape case, “inability to consent” may be based upon which
of the following
Choose one answer.
a. effect of drugs
b. effect of alcohol
c. unconsciousness
d. all of the above
12. Question 26
Marks: 2
In a statutory rape case, which of the following is normally
true?
Choose one answer.
a. the defendant must be underage
b. the victim must have lied about his or her age
c. the defendant must have knowledge that the victim was
underage
d. the defendant need not have knowledge that the victim was
underage
Question 27
Marks: 2
In addition to the “but for” test, the state would also want to
establish that the defendant’s actions were the proximate cause
of death.
Choose one answer.
a. true
b. false
Question 28
Marks: 2
In most jurisdictions, the punishment for an attempt to commit a
crime is normally which of the following?
13. Choose one answer.
a. more severe than that imposed for the commission of the
crime
b. equal to that imposed for the commission of the crime
c. not punishable
d. less severe than that imposed for the commission of the crime
Question 29
Marks: 2
Involuntary manslaughter usually requires
Choose one answer.
a. more than one actor
b. intent to cause the outcome prohibited by law
c. recklessness or gross negligence
d. felony murder
Question 30
Marks: 2
It is possible to be both a principal and an accessory before or
after the fact.
Choose one answer.
14. a. True
b. False
31
Marks: 2
Many states have different degrees of manslaughter. Frequently,
they are divided into which of the following?
Choose one answer.
a. murder and manslaughter
b. 1st degree murder and 2nd degree murder
c. voluntary manslaughter and involuntary manslaughter
d. 2nd degree murder and involuntary manslaughter
Question 32
Marks: 2
Mr Brown throws a torch inside a house at precisely the same
time the house is struck by lightning. The torch flickers and
goes out while the lightning strike results in a fire that burns the
house to the ground. Mr. Brown would most likely be found
Choose one answer.
a. guilty of arson
b. guilty of attempted arson
15. c. guilty of neither charge
d. guilty of both charges
Question 33
Marks: 2
In reaching your conclusion for the scenario above, which of the
following factors is pertinent to the charge?
Choose one answer.
a. causation
b. solicitation
c. intent
d. none of the above
Question 34
Marks: 2
Receiving stolen goods
Choose one answer.
a. is a form of aggravated accessory after the fact to larceny
b. is usually punished as seriously as larceny
c. requires that the receiver knows or believes that the goods are
stolen
16. d. all of the above
Question 35
Marks: 2
Robbery is larceny from a person by force or threat of
immediate force.
Choose one answer.
a. True
b. False
Question 36
Marks: 2
Statutory rape is generally a strict liability offense.
Choose one answer.
a. true
b. false
Question 37
Marks: 2
The act of deliberately encouraging, requesting or advising
another to undertake or join in the commission of a criminal act
is known as:
Choose one answer.
a. solicitation
b. conspiracy
17. c. all of the above
d. none of the above
Question 38
Marks: 2
The elements of attempt include which of the following?
Choose one answer.
a. specific intent
b. an overt act toward commission
c. failure to complete the crime
d. all of the above
Question 39
Marks: 2
The “intent to accomplish the precise act which the law
prohibits” is the definition for which of the following?
Choose one answer.
a. specific intent
b. general intent
c. attempt
18. d. transferred intent
Question 40
Marks: 2
There is no such thing as a crime called “attempt” in and of
itself.
Choose one answer.
a. False
b. True
41
Marks: 2
Which of the following is an example of asportation?
Choose one answer.
a. the movement of a wallet by a pick-pocket
b. the starting of a car engine by a car thief
c. all of the above
d. none of the above
Question 42
Marks: 2
Which of the following is an exception to the “but for” test, as
used by the State to prove causation in charges involving an
intentional killing?
Choose one answer.
19. a. the victim dies 1 year and 1 day after the event
b. an automobile is involved
c. two forces, each capable of causing death, occur
simultaneously and each inflicts injury
d. none of the above
Question 43
Marks: 2
Which of the following is not a necessary element of larceny?
Choose one answer.
a. a trespassory taking and carrying away
b. of the valuable personal property of another
c. through the use of threats or coercion
d. with intent to permanently deprive the person entitled to
possession
Question 44
Marks: 2
Which of the following is not considered an inchoate crime?
Choose one answer.
a. solicitation
20. b. conspiracy
c. abandonment
d. none of the above
Question 45
Marks: 2
Which of the following is not considered an inchoate crime?
Choose one answer.
a. attempted murder
b. solicitation
c. conspiracy
d. none of the above
Question 46
Marks: 2
Which of the following standards is often employed in order to
ascertain whether or not a defendant killed “in the heat of
passion” and whether or not the provocation was adequate from
an objective vantage point?
Choose one answer.
a. unreasonable person
21. b. reasonable person
c. third party induction
d. third party deduction
Question 47
Marks: 2
Which of the following statements is not true?
Choose one answer.
a. larceny by trick requires mere possession
b. larceny by trick leaves the defrauded owner with
“constructive possession”
c. the crime of false pretenses is complete upon obtaining title
d. the crime of false pretenses requires subsequent disposition
of the property
Question 48
Marks: 2
Which of the following states that two parties cannot be charged
with conspiracy to commit a crime which requires a third party?
Choose one answer.
a. Unilateral rule
22. b. Bilateral rule
c. Wharton rule
d. M’Naghton test
Question 49
Marks: 2
Which of the following was a possible common law defense to a
charge of attempting to commit a crime?
Choose one answer.
a. factual impossibility but not legal impossibility
b. legal impossibility but not factual impossibility
c. tort
d. solicitation
Question 50
Marks: 2
“Willful, deliberate and premeditated” are frequently used in
statutes to elevate
Choose one answer.
a. involuntary manslaughter to voluntary manslaughter
b. 2nd degree murder to 1st degree murder
23. c. 1st degree murder to 2nd degree murder
d. murder to manslaughter