Gu mcq

GU module MCQ Alex Medical Student Union, Scientific Committee
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Content
1-Histology ……………………………………………………..… 2-9
2-Microbiology……………………………………………..…. 10- 13
3-Collection pathology and microbiology…………13- 15
4- physiology …………………………………….………….… 15-18
5- pharmacology…………………………………………….. 19-23

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1- Histology
Choose the correct answer
1. The renal medulla contains:
a. straight tubules and collecting ducts.
b. interlobar blood vessels.
c. loops of Henle, collecting ducts and
vasa
recta.
d. renal corpuscles and convoluted
tubules.
2. The renal cortex contains:
vasa
recta.
tubules.
3. The renal columns contain:
vasa
recta.
tubules.
4. The medullary rays contain:
vasa
recta.
tubules.
5. The uriniferous tubule is formed
of:
a. nephron and collecting duct.
b. nephron and collecting tubule.
c. proximal and distal convoluted
tubules.
d. collecting tubule and collecting
duct.
6. The nephron is formed of:
a. renal corpuscle.
b. proximal convoluted tubule.
c. loop of Henle.
d. distal convoluted tubule.
e. all of the above.
7. The renal corpuscle consists of:
a. Bowman’s capsule and glomerulus.
b. Bowman’s capsule, glomerulus and
extramesangial cells.
c. Bowman’s capsule, glomerulus and
mesangial cells.
d. Bowman’s capsule, glomerulus and
mesangium.
8. A narrow subpodocytic space
exists
between:
a. visceral and parietal layers of
Bowman’s
capsule.
b. major and minor processes of
podocytes.
c. major processes of podocytes and
glomerular capillaries.
d. minor processes of podocytes and
glomerular capillaries.
9. A diaphragm is present in:
a. filtration slits.
b. fenestrations of glomerular
capillaries.
c. both a and b.
d. none ofthe above.
10. The fenestrations of glomerular
capillaries differ from being:
a. large, regular and have diaphragm.

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b. numerous, irregular and have
diaphragm.
c. small, numerous and don’t have
diaphragm.
d. large, numerous and don’t have
diaphragm.
11. Mesangial cells originate from:
a. smooth muscle fibers.
b. pericytes.
c. macrophages.
d. secretory cells.
12. Mesangial cells are:
a. intraglomerular only.
b. extraglomerular only.
c. both a and b.
d. none of the above.
13. Mesangial cells are involved in:
a. decreasing glomerular filtration rate.
b. increasing glomerular filtration rate.
c. both a and b.
d. none of the above.
14. The principal component of the
filtration barrier is:
a. the fenestrated endothelium of
glomerular
capillaries.
b. the thick basal lamina.
c. the filtration slits between the foot
processes of podocytes.
15. The discontinuous layer(s) of
the
filtration barrier is (are):
glomerular
capillaries.
b. the thick basal lamina.
c. the filtration slits between the foot
processes of podocytes.
d. a and b.
e. a and c.
16. The layer which prevent
passage of
negatively charged molecules across
the
barrier is:
glomerular
capillaries.
b. lamina densa of basal lamina.
c. lamina rara of basal lamina.
d. the filtration slit diaphragm.
17. Most reabsorption occurs in:
a. renal corpuscle.
c. loop of Henle.
e. collecting tubule.
18. Glomerular filtration occurs in:
a. renal corpuscle.
c. loop of Henle.
19. concentration of urine occurs
in:
a. renal corpuscle.
c. loop of Henle.
20. A gradient of hypertonicity in
the
medullary interstitium is created
by:
a. renal corpuscle.
c. loop of Henle.
e. collecting tubule. -

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21. When examining proximal and
distal
convoluted tubules with the light
microscope, the proximal
convoluted
tubules appear:
a. deep eosinophilic, with wider
lumen and
nuclei nearer to the base.
b. less ‘eosinophilic, with indistinct
boundaries and nuclei more apical.
c. less eosinophilic, with occluded
lumen and
distinct boundaries.
d. deep eosinophilic, with indistinct
boundaries and nuclei nearer to the
base.
22. When examinig proximal and
distal
convoluted tubules with the
electron
microscope, the distal convoluted
tubules
have:
a. numerous long microvilli, more
extensive
lateral interdigitations and more
extensive
basal infoldings.
b. few short microvilli, less extensive
lateral
interdigitations and less extensive
basal
infoldings.
c. few short microvilli, less numerous
cell
organelles and more extensive basal
infoldings.
d. extensive lateral interdigitations,
less
extensive basal infoldings and less
numerous
cell organelles.
23. ……….. are considered as
stretch
receptors:
a. Juxtaglomerular cells.
b. Macula densa cells.
c. Extraglomerular mesangial cells.
d. lntraglomerular mesangial cells.
24. When examining principal cells
and
intercalated cells with the electron
microscope, the principal cells
appear:
a. electron-lucent, with many lateral
and
basal infoldings.
b. electron-lucent, with scanty
organelles and
basal infoldings.
c. having microvilli, abundant
organelles and
basal infoldings.
d. having microplica, scanty
organelles and no
basal infoldings.
25. The main function of
intercalated cells
is:
a. reabsorption of water.
b. reabsorption of sodium.
c. reabsorption of bicarbonate.
d. reabsorption of hydrogen ions.
26. Water absorption is under the
control
of ADH in:
a. the proximal and distal convoluted
tubule.

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b. the first part of distal convoluted
tubules
and collecting ducts.
c. the last part of distal convoluted
tubule and
collecting ducts.
d. the loop of Henle, distal convoluted
tubule
and collecting ducts.
27. Acidity of urine is caused by:
a. Proximal convoluted tubule.
b. Distal convoluted tubule.
c. Collecting duct.
d. a and b. 2
e. b and c.
28. ………… is considered as an
arterial
portal circulation:
a. interlobar artery.
b. interlobular artery.
c. afferent arteriole.
d. efferent arteriole.
29. The second network of
capillaries is
(are):
a. glomerular capillaries.
b. peritubular capillaries.
c. vasa recta.
d. a and b.
e. b and c.
30. The main function of vasa recta
is:
a. traping water and eliminating
solutes.
b. increasingthe gradient of
hypertonicity in
medullary interstitium.
c. maintaining the gradient of
hypertonicity in
d. decreasing the gradient of
hypertonicity in
31. Components of juxtaglomerular
apparatus:
a. juxtaglomerular cells, polar cushion
cells
and Polkissen cells.
b. macula densa cells, extraglomerular
mesangial cells and Lacis cells.
c. extraglomerular mesangial cells,
polar
cushion cells and macula densa cells.
d. juxtaglomerular cells, macula densa
cells
and polar cushion cells.
32. Actin is present in:
a. juxtaglomerular cells and mesangial
cells.
b. cells in inner layer of renal capsule
and
medullary interstitial cells.
c. podocytes
d. all of the above.
33. ………. are derived from
smooth muscle
fibers:
cells.
and
c. podocytes
34. ……… are derived from
connective
tissue cells:
cells.

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and
c. podocytes
35. ……….. are derived from
epithelial cells:
cells.
and
c. podocytes
36. Macula densa cells are:
a. small rounded cells with a pale
staining
cytoplasm.
b. tightly packed columnar cells with
crowded
nuclei.
c. large cells" with central round
nuclei and
granular, basophilic cytoplasm.
d. stellate cells with cytoplasmic
processes.
37. Juxtaglomerular cells are:
staining
cytoplasm.
crowded
nuclei.
c. large cells with central rounded
nuclei and
processes.
38. Extraglomerular mesangial cells
are:
staining
cytoplasm.
crowded
nuclei.
nuclei and
processes. .
39. Mesangial cells are:
staining
cytoplasm.
crowded
nuclei.
nuclei and
processes.
40. Renin is secreted from:
a. juxtaglomerular cells.
b. macula densa cells.
c. extraglomerular mesangial cells.
d. myofibroblasts of renal interstitium.
41. Medullipin I is secreted from:
b. macul,adensa cells.
c. myofibroblasts of renal interstitium.
d. myofibroblasts of renal capsule.
42. Vasoconstriction results from
renal
secretion of:
a. renin.
b. angiotensin l.
c. angiotensin ll.
d. medullipin l.

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e. medullipin ll.
43. Vasodilatation results from
renal
secretion of: ‘
a. renin.
b. angiotensin l.
c. angiotensin ll.
medullipin I.
e. medullipin ll.
44. The vasodilator effect is caused
by:
a. renin.
b. angiotensin l.
c. angiotensin ll.
d. medullipin l.
e. medullipin ll.
45. The vasoconstrictor effect is
caused by:
a. renin.
b. angiotensin I.
c. angiotensin ll.
d. medullipin I.
e. medullipin ll.
46. The cells that are considered as
secretory are:
b. myofibroblasts of renal interstitium.
c. mesangial cells.
d. a and b.
e. all of the above. A
47. Juxtaglomerular cells are
present in:
a. the tunica media of afferent
arteriole.
b. the wall of the distal convoluted
tubule.
c. the angle between the afferent and
efferent
arterioles.
48. Extraglomerular mesangial cells
are
present in:
arteriole.
tubule.
efferent
arterioles.
49. Macula densa cells are present
in:
arteriole.
tubule.
efferent
arterioles.
50. bells of renal interstitium are:
a. fibroblasts and myofibroblasts.
b. mesangial cells.
0. mononuclear cells.
d. a and b.
e. a and c.
f. all of the above.
51. When the bladder is full:
a. vesicles increase and membranous
plaques
decrease.
b. vesicles decrease and membranous
plaques
increase.
c. vesicles and membranous plaques
decrease.
d. vesicles and membranous plaques
increase.
52. The fusiform vesicles seen in the
apical

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cytoplasm of superficial cells in
empty
bladder:
a. are detached from plaques of
luminal
membrane.
b. represent in folded plaques.
c. represent reserve segments of
surface
membrane that will be incorporated in
full
bladder.
d.all of the above.
53. The osmotic barrier consists of:
a. plaques in the luminal membrane of
superficial epithelial cells.
b. vesicles in apical cytoplasm of
superficial
epithelial cells.
c. intercellular occluding junctions
between
epithelial cells.
d. a and b.
e. a and c.
54. The site of voluntary control of
micturition in male is:
a. neck of urinary bladder.
b. prostatic urethra.
c. membranous urethra.
d. penile urethra.
55. The site of voluntary
control of
micturition in female is:
a. neck of urinaiy bladder.
b. upper part of urethra.
c. middle part of urethra.
d. lower part of urethra.
56. The external urethral
sphincter is:
a. voluntary and present in the neck of
the
bladder.
b. involuntary and present in the neck
of the
bladder.
c. voluntary and present in the
urogenital
diaphragm.
d. involuntary and present in the
urogenital
diaphragm.
57. The internal urethral sphincter
is:
a. voluntary and present in the neck of
the
bladder.
b. involuntary and present in the neck
of the
bladder.
c. voluntary and present in the
urogenital
diaphragm.
d. involuntary and present in the
urogenital diaphragm

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2- Microbiology
1- None of the following
pathogens can penetrate the
conjunctiva except:
a.Neisseria Gonorrhoeae .
b. Staphylococcus sps.
c.streptococcal sps.
d.Tubercule bacilli
2-The organism is that the most
common cause of urithritis in
female is:
a.Candida albicans.
b. Neisseria Gonorrhoeae.
c.E.Coli
d.Treponema pallidum.
3- grape like odor in culture can
be produced by :
a.Proteus
b. E.coli
C. Kleibsella
d. Pseudomona areginusa
4- All of the following are
indicator for water feacal
pollution except:
a.Streptococcus fecalis
b. E.Col
c.clostridium perfiringes
d.Klebseilla
5- the incubation period of
syphilis is:
a.3 weeks
b. 1 week
c. 6 Months
d. 1 year
6.which is the following is not
true about Chancre :
a. The first sign of syphilis
b.Hard syphilitic primary ulcer
c. not infectious
d. may be produced 2-3 weeks
after infection
7- The pathologic condition which
may give false positive reaction
for syphilis is :
a.Entiric fever
b.Malaria
c. tropical eosinophilic leshmani
d. non of the above
8-VDRL test of syphilis is the
example of :
a. Slide agglutination test
b. Flocculation test
c.Tube flocculation test
d. Complement fixation test

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9-Microscopes can not be used in
diagnosis of :
a. Gonorrhea
b. Syphillis
c.tuberclosis
d.Brucellosis
10-Irradiated Mccoy cells is
useful in culture of :
a. CLamydia
b.Mycoplasma
c.Rickettsia
d. Non of the above
11- All of the following is
transmitted during delivery
except :
a.HSV-1
b. syphilis
c. Clamydia
d. HSV-
12- The etiological agent that is
the most likely to cause non-
gonococcal urithritis is :
a. Ureaplasma urealyticum
b. Neisseria gonorrheae
c.Mycoplasma Hominis
d.Non of the above
13-Giemsa stain is used to
demonstrate:
a. Mycoplasma
b. Clamydia
c.Mycofilaria
d. Non of the above
14- Which of the following is the
best indicator of Water
Conatmination:
a.E.coli
b.streptoccoci
c.Clostredium perfringes
d.Salmonella sps
15- Urine of Healthy man usually
contains some amount of
microbial commensalls.
If the colony count of urine
exceed ……………….per cc that
person is suffering from UTI:
a.10,000
b. 100,000
c.1,ooo
d. 100,0000
16- E.Coli can be distinguished
from other lactose fermenting
Coliforms by :

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a.Citrate Negative
b.indole positive
c.Vp negative
d. all of the above
17- Non Motile organism that
cause infection in man:
a.Proteus Vuligaris
b.E.coli
c.Pseudomonas
d. Klebsilla
18-The Selective media for E.
coli :
a. Mackoncey Agar
b. Blood agar
c.Nutrient Broth
d. Non of the above
19-Herpetic Whitlow in man is
caused by :
a.HSV-1
b. Klebsiella
c. Candida
d. Non of the above
20-All of the Followinf Infections
are acquired in Hospital Except:
a.Pseudomonas
b.Proteus Vuligaris
c.Klebsiella
d.Salmonella
21-which is the following used in
serotyping of klebsiella :
a.H -antigen
b. O-antigen
c.K-antigen
d. Capsular Swelling Reaction
22-Pyelitis in women is due to
infection with :
a.E.Coli
b.Proteus
c.Klebsiella
d. Pseudomonas
23- Which of the following
bacteria produce green pigment:
a.Pseudomonas
b.N.Gonorrheae
c.Proteus
d.Staph. Aureus
24-Pseudomonas is found as
normal flora of :
a.Skin
b. Intestine
c.Upper respiratory tract
d. All of the above

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25- The etiological agent
responsible for genital condyloma
is:
a.Human papilloma virus
b.Herpes Simplex-1
c.herpes Simplex-2
d. Varicella Virus
answers:
1-a
2-b
3-d
4-d
5-a
6-c
7-b
8-b
9-b
10-a
11-a
12-a
13-b
14-a
15-b
16-d
17-d
18-a
19-a
20-d
21-d
22-a
23-a
24-d
25-a
3- Pathology &Microbiology
statements is true for leiomyoma:
a)It's a benign tumor of skeletal
muscles.
b)It's commonly arise in female after
the menopause.
c)It's commonly changes into
leiomyosarcoma.
d)All of the above.
e)None of the above.
72- Which of the following tumors
arises from embryonic cells:
a) Dermoid cyst
b) Immature teratoma
c) Nephroblastoma
d) All of the above
e) None of the above

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statements is true about teratoma:
a) It's a composite tumor that may
arise from totipotent cells.
b) The most common site is the ovary
c) It may arise in the anterior
mediastinum or retroperitoneum
d) All of the above
statements is true for dermoid cyst :
a) It's a complication of wound
healing.
b) It's termed dermoid because it most
commonly occurs in the skin.
c) It's a malignant embryonic tumor.
d) It's a cystic form of mature
teratoma.
e) None of the above.
80- Which of the following markers
may be positive in breast cancer:
a) Cytokeratin
b) Epithelial membrane antigen
c) Estrogen receptors
d) All of the above
83- Post -mastectomy Irradiation
for treatment of breast cancer may
lead to:
a) Necrosis of residual tumor cells
b) Inhibition of mitotic activity
c) Lymphangiosarcoma
d) All of the above
133- Which of the following is true
about tuberculous epididymitis:
a) It may be due to blood borne
infection.
b) It may lead to a posterior scrotal
sinus.
c) Bilateral cases may lead to
obstructive azoospermia.
d) It may be accompanied by
tuberculous orchitis.
e) All of the above
145- All of the following are
features of chancre except: (micro)
a) It represents the primary stage of
syphilis.
b) I's a painful papule.
c) It may occur in the genitalia.
d) It may occur in extragenital sites.
e) It may be accompanied lymph node
enlargement.
146- which of the following
statements is true about syphilitic
affection of the tongue: (micro)
a) Tongue lesion may develop in all
stages.
b) Syphilitic affection may be in the
form of leukoplakia
c) Syphilitic affection may be in the
form of ulceration.
d) Syphilitic affection may be
Precancerous.
e) All of the above.
statements is not true about
gumma: (micro)
a) This lesion develops in the
secondary stage of syphilis.
b) It can affect the interventricular
septum and cause heart block.
c) It can affect the testis and cause
anterior scrotal ulcer.
d) It can affect the skull and cause
saddle nose.
e) It can occur in the meninges, liver
and lungs.

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151- Which of the following is true
about condyloma latum : (micro)
a) It's a benign tumor of bone.
b) It's a cutaneous inflammatory
swelling seen in 2ry or congenital
syphilis.
c) It's a locally malignant tumor
commonly occurring in the lower part
of the femur.
d) It's an inflammatory disease
affecting the inguinal lymph nodes.
e) None of the above.
statements is not true about
bilharzial cystitis:
a) Bilharzial polyps are the most
common lesions
b) It may be accompanied by bladder
stone formation.
c) It may be complicated by
pulmonary bilharziasis.
d) Hydronephrosis and renal failure
may complicate the disease
e) Colonic type glands may develop
from the urothelium.
Answers:
63 –e 72-c 73-d 74-d
80-d 83-d 133-e 145-b
146-e 147-a 151-b 155-a
‫ملحوظة‬:‫السؤال‬‫رقم‬80‫االختيار‬‫االول‬‫و‬
‫الثاوى‬‫ليسا‬‫فى‬‫الكتاب‬‫و‬‫إن‬‫كاوا‬‫ضمه‬‫اإلجابة‬
True or false:
Malignant placental type
tumor(choriocarcinoma) may arise
in tesis:
True this represents monodermal
teratoma
Give an account on:
and complications
renal tuberculosis
cystitis
the following:nswer A
A female patient; 55 years old had
progressive loss of weight and
recurrent attacks of hematemesis. She
then developed marked abdominal
distension due to ascites and bilateral
ovarian enlargement:
a) If cancer is detected in this patient
what's the most possible 1ry site?
b) How would you explain the
development of ascites and
bilateral ovarian enlargement
4- physiology
For each of the following
multiple choice questions, select
the one most appropriate
answer :
1-Of all the following substances,
one has no transport maximum
as tubules reabsorb any
increasing filtered loads. Such a
substance is :
a. Glucose.
b. Urate.
c. Sodium .
d. Phosphate .

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2-The GFR is :
a. 18 liters per day .
b. Infleunced only by the
factors that affect the
filtration pressure.
c. Determined by the filtration
pressure minus the filtration
coefficient .
d. Totally cleared from
glucose by tubular
reabsorption
3-The glomerular
filtrate :
a. Has an osmolality about
100 mosm per litre .
b. Has the same concentration
of urea as in plasma .
c. Has the same concentration
of urea as in the tubular
fluid .
d. Has sodium concentration
lower than plasma
4-Which of the following
values indicates disease in
man :
a. An inulin clearance of
90 ml per minute.
b. A PAH clearance of 630
ml per minute .
c. A glucose clearance of
zero .
d. A urinary pH of 5.5 .
5-Which of the following
parts of the nephron is
impermeable to water :
a. The ascending limb of the
loop of Henle .
b. The descending limb of the
loop of Henle .
c. The proximal convoluted
tubule .
d. The distal convoluted
tubule
6-Na+ reabsorption is zero in
the :
a. Thin part of the ascending
limb of loop of Henle .
b. Descending limb of loop of
Henle .
c. Collecting duct .
d. Thick ascending limb of
loop of henle

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7-In chronic renal failure , all
the following are reduced
except:
a. blood pH.
b. blood calcium level.
c. urine output.
d. plasma creatinine.
8-Metabolic acidosis is typically
associated with:
a. Rise of plasma
bicarbonate level.
b. Tetany.
c. A blood pH more than
7.4.
d.Hyperventilation and
decreased pco2 in the blood.
9-Under normal conditions :
a. The pressure in the
Bowman capsule equals
approximately 8 mmHg.
b. The net filtration pressure
equals approximately 15
mmHg .
c. The colloid osmotic
pressure of plasma in the
efferent arteriole increases
d. by 20 percent .
e. An increase in the afferent
arteriolar tone increases the
net GF pressure.
10- At which site would
the concentration of
creatinine be expected to
be highest? (Note: assume
the person is normally
hydrated.)
A. glomerular filtrate
B. end of the proximal
tubule
C. end of the loop of Henle
D. urine.
11-The rate of water
reabsorption from the
proximal tubule is
determined primarily by
the :
A. rate of dissolved particle
(solute) reabsorption from
the proximal tubule
B. concentration of ADH
(antidiuretic hormone) in
the blood
C. osmotic pressure
developed by plasma
proteins in the proximal
tubule
D. active transport of water
molecules by the proximal
tubule cells

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18 | P a g e 
14-The following values
are measured for
potassium ion in a human
subject:
Plasma K+ 5 meq/liter
Urine K+ 50 meq/liter
Renal creatinine clearance
80 ml/min
Urine formation rate 1.5
ml/minute
Assuming the subject is a
normal adult, we can
conclude that most likely
potassium is :
A. filtered but not secreted
or reabsorbed.
B. secreted but not filtered
or reabsorbed.
C. reabsorbed but not
secreted or filtered.
D. filtered, reabsorbed and
secreted
15-A patient has PH of 7.2
the pco2 is 40mmHg and
the Hco3- equals
19mEq/L this person
suffers from:
a-metabolic alkalosis.
b-respiratory acidosis.
c-uncompesated metabolic
acidosis.
d-compensated metabolic
acidosis.
19-PAH acid is cleared
from the renal tubules by:
a-Filtration and secretion
by the proximal convoluted
tubules.
b-Filtration and secretion
by the distal convoluted
tubules.
c-Secretion by the distal
convoluted tubules.
d- Filtration from
glomerular capillaries only.

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19 | P a g e 
5- pharmacology
I. Put (T) for true & (F)
for false then
correct the (False)
statements:
1- The following drugs
cause diuresis by the
mechanism indicated:
a) Digitalis: by inhibiting
the release of antidiuretic
hormone.
b) Furosemide: by
inhibiting carbonic
anhydrase enzyme.
c) Chlorothiazide: by
inhibiting Na+/Cl
cotransporter
in the early segment of the
distal
renal tubule.
2- The following statements
about diuretics
are correct:
a) Chlorothiazide is used in
the treatment of
gout.
b) Furosemide has a greater
efficacy than
chlorothiazide.
c) Thiazide diuretics may
be used safely in
patients with diabetes
mellitus.
d) Low doses of
intravenous dopamine can
cause diuresis.
e) Antidiuretic hormone is
used to treat
diabetes insipidus.
about
furosemide are true:
a) It causes potassium
retention
(hyperkalemia).
b) It causes alkalosis.
c) It is useful in the
treatment of congestive
heart failure.
d) It is used for long-term
treatment of
hypertension.
e) It is not effective orally.
4- Loop diuretics can be
used in the
emergency treatment of
hypocalcemia.
5- In an Addisonian patient,
spironolactone
has a diuretic action.
6- Chlorothiazide can alter
electrolyte
balance by causing
hyperkalemia and
hypocalcemia.
about
spironolactoneare true:

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
20 | P a g e 
a) It causes metabolic
alkalosis.
a) It can cause
gynecomastia.
b) Its site of action is the
Na"/Cl‘ co-transporter.
d) Carnenone is its active
metabolite.
II- Choose the right
answer:
1- The right statement(s)
about osmotic
diuretics is/are:
a) They are filtered by the
glomeruli.
b) They exert their effect
mainly in the
ascending limb of loop of
Henle.
c) They are useful in
treating all causes of
edema.
d) They can reduce
intracranial pressure.
e) They can be used in the
treatment of
glaucoma.
2- Undesirable side effects
of thiazide
diuretics include all of the
following
EXCEPT: -
a) Hyperuricemia.
b) Hyperglycemia.
c) Reduced renal blood
flow and glomerular
filtration rate.
d) Potassium retention with
excess water loss.
e) Choiestatic hepatitis.
3- Hyperkalemia is a
contraindication to
the use of which of the
following drugs:
e) Acetazolemide.
b) Chlorothiazide.
c) Ethacrynic acid.
d) Chiorthalidone.
e) Spironoiactone.
4- A reduction in insulin
release may be
caused by the following:
a) Chlorothiazide.
b) Spironolactone.
c) Acetazolamide.
d) Amiloride.
e) Triamterene
5 - Which of the following
diuretics could
be added to the
therapeutic regimen of a
patient who is receiving a
direct
vasodilator for the
treatment of
hypertension?
a) Acetazoiamide.
b) Triamterene.
c) Spironoiactone.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
21 | P a g e 
d) Mannitol.
e) Hydrochlorothiazide.
6- A patient might
develop acute gout
following treatment with
which of the
following drugs?
a) Acetazoiamide.
b) Allopurinol.
c) Triamterene.
d) Spironolactone.
e)Furosemide.
7- The release of anti-
diuretic hormone
is suppressed by which of
the following
drugs to promote
diuresis:
a) Guanethidine.
b) Acetazolamjde.
c) Chlorothiazide.
d) Ethanol.
e) Indomethacin.
8- A 50 years male patient
with edema of
the ankles develops
gynecomastia and
erectile dysfunction while
being treated
with the following
drug(s):
a) Hydrochlorothiazide.
b) Metolazone.
c) Spironolactone.
d) Triamterene.
e) Amiloride.
bind to the
aldosterone receptor?
a) Propranolol.
b) Amiloride.
c) Furosernide.
d) Spironolactone.
e) Acetazolamide.
conditions
can be treated
successfully with osmotic
diuretics:
a) Hypocalcemia.
b) Congestive heart failure.
c) Pulmonary edema.
d) Acute renal failure.
e) Nephrogenic diabetes
insipidus.
11- Furosemide acts by
which one of the
following mechanisms:
a) Inhibition of Na+/Cl"
reabsorption in the
distal convoluted tubules.
b) Inhibition of aldosterone.
c) Inhibition of Na+
absorption in the cortical
collecting tubules.
d) Inhibition of Na+/Cl
reabsorption in the
ascending limb of loop of
Henle.

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
22 | P a g e 
e) Inhibition of carbonic
anhydrase enzyme.
12- In the kidney, which
one of the
following is inhibited by
thiazide
diuretics:
a) Na+/Cl reabsorption in
the early part of the
distal convoluted tubule.
b) Water removal from
intracellular space by
osmosis.
c) Reabsorption of calcium.
d) Aldosterone action on
the nephron.
e) Excretion of chloride.
14- Vasopressin can be
useful in treating
which one of the following
conditions:
a) Congestive heart failure.
b) Hypertension.
c) Some forms of diabetes
insipidus.
d) Glaucoma.
e) Hypocalcemia.
15- All of the following
diuretics maybe
associated with
hypokalemia EXCEPT:
a) Hydrochlorothiazide.
b) Furosemide.
c) Amiloride.
d) Indapamide.
e) Indacrinone.
16- Chlorothiazide can be
useful in the
treatment of all of the
following
disorders EXCEPT:
a) Hypertension.
b) Congestive heart failure.
c) Prevention of renal
calcium stones.
d) Hypokalemia.
e) Edema.
III- Match:
1. Furosemide.
2. Spironolactone.
3. Acetazolamide.
4. Ethacrynic acid.
5. Thiazide diuretics.
6. Mannitol.
a) A patient with
nephrogenic diabetes
insipidus is best treated
with:
b) Glaucoma can be treated
with:
c) Acute pulmonary edema
can be treated with:
d) Its target of action is the
aldosterone
receptor.
e) Its target of action is
Na+/K+/2Cl Cotransporter.
IV- Complete:
9) --------------- are drugs
that can potentiate the

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
23 | P a g e 
ototoxicity of loop diuretics.
11) -----------------, ----------
----- and --------------
are metabolic disturbances
that can result from
the intake of thiazide
diuretics.
I.
1) a) F: improve renal
perfusion b) F: Na/K/Cl co-
transporter c) T
2) a) F: contraindicated in
gout c) cause
hyperglycemia
3) a)F: cause hypokalemia
d) F: not suitable e)
Effective orally
4) F: Fortreatment of
hypercalemia
5) F: acts in presence of
aldosterone
6) F: hypokalemia
7) a) F: metabolic acidosis
b)aldosterone receptor
antagonist .
II.
1) a, d, e
2) c, d, e
3) e
4) a
5) e
6) e
7) d
8) c
9) d
10) d
11) d
12) a
14) c
15) c
16) d
III. Match
a.5 b.3 c.1 d.2 e.4
IV.
9. Aminoglycosides &
vancomycin
11.
Hyperglycemia/hypokalemi
a/metabolic alkalosis

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
24 | P a g e 

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