This document is a practice test for the Vietnamese national university entrance exam. It contains 80 multiple choice questions testing English language skills, including vocabulary, grammar, reading comprehension, and sentence structure. The questions cover topics such as word stress, sentence completion, parts of speech, meanings of words in context, and interpreting short passages.

1. ĐỀ THI THỬ SỐ 26
----------------
ĐỀ THI THỬ ĐẠI HỌC NĂM 2012
Môn: TIẾNG ANH; Khối D
Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
ĐỀ THI GỒM 80 CÂU (TỪ QUESTION 1 ĐẾN QUESTION 80)
I. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose main stress is
placed differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions.
Question 1
A. committee
B. referee
C. employee
D. refugee
Question 2
A. alcohol
B. comment
C. chemical
D. proceed
Question 3
A. appetite
B. architect
C. appreciate
D. arable
Question 4
A. deliberate
B. subsequent
C. frequently
D. consequent

2. Question 5
A. insight
B. chemist
C. dependent
D. substance
II. Mark the sentence (A,B,C or D) that is the best way to have a complete sentence with the
words given.
Question 6: imagine/ who/ happen/ run into/ yesterday/ just
A. You imagine just who happened to run into us yesterday!
B. Have you just imagined who happened to run into me yesterday?
C. Could you imagine who just happened to run into us yesterday?
D. Just imagine who I happened to run into yesterday!
Question 7: Jack/ recover/ quickly/ his serious illness
A. Jack was recovered very quickly from his serious illness.
B. Jack has recovered quite quickly from his serious illness.
C. Jack will recover quite quickly after his serious illness.
D. Jack recovered more quickly over his serious illness.
Question 8: be/ clear/ what/ expect/ you
A. Are you clear about your expectation?
B. Are you clear what is expected of you to do?
C. Are your expectations clear?
D. Are you clear what is expected of you?
Question 9:Never/ history/ humanity/ there/ be/ more people/ live/ world.
A. Never in the history of humanity there are more people living in the world.
B. Never in the history of humanity are there more people to live in the world.
C. Never in the history of humanity has there been more people to live in the world.
D. Never in the history of humanity have there been more people living in the world.
Question 10: man/ sentence/ 15 years/ prison/ he/ prove/ guilty
A. The man will get a sentence for himself to 15 years in prison if he proves himself guilty.

3. B. The man was sentenced about 15 years in prison and proved himself guilty.
C. The man was sentenced to 15 years in prison because he had been proved guilty.
D. The man should make his final sentence after 15 years in prison as he proved himself
guilty.
III. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each
of the following questions.
Question 11: ______ English fluently, we should practice speaking it whenever possible.
A. In order to speak
B. In order speak
C. their accepting
D. they accept
Question 12: As a general rule, the standard of living ______ by the average output of each
person in society.
A. fixed
B. has fixed
C. is fixed
D. fixes
Question 13: She's finished the course, ______?
A. isn't she
B. hasn't she
C. doesn't she
D. didn't she
Question 14: Although the weather is not so good, the match will ______.
A. go about
B. go ahead
C. go over
D. go along
Question 15: The greater the demand, ______ the price.
A. the highest
B. the high
C. higher

4. D. the higher
Question 16: I was under_______that you two had already met.
A. the impression
B. the idea
C. notice
D. pressure
Question 17: Are you sure you can do it on_________?
A. yourself
B. secret
C. date
D. your own
Question 18: I don’t think we can_______him to change his mind.
A. insist
B. make
C. persuade
D. suggest
Question 19: Can you help me sort_______these clothes into different sizes?
A. between
B. out
C. with
D. for
Question 20: I just can’t________that noise any longer!
A. sit out
B. stand in for
C. stand up for
D. put up with
Question 21: Last year ABBA made a ________of several million crowns.
A. win
B. gain

5. C. salary
D. profit
Question 22: If you like skiing, there’s a ski ____________under an hour’s driving from
Madrid.
A. resort
B. station
C. place
D. port
Question 23: If you are ‘over the moon’ about something, how do you feel?
A. stressed
B. very
C. very happy
D. bored
Question 24: He’s very ________about his private life. He’s got no secrets.
A. trustworthy
B. direct
C. open
D. sincere
Question 25: You must________these instructions very carefully.
A. carry out
B. bring out
C. carry on
D. get up to
Question 26: If she________rich, she would travel around the world.
A. would be
B. is
C. has been
D. were
Question 27: Mary was the last applicant________.

6. A. to be interviewed
B. to be interviewing
C. to interview
D. to have interviewed
Question 28: Argentina________Mexico by one goal to nil in the match.
A. beat
B. scored
C. won
D. knocked
Question 29: There should be no discrimintion on______________ of sex, race or religion.
A. fields
B. places
C. areas
D. grounds
Question 30: The cat was______________ to wait for the mouse to come out of its hole.
A. patient enough
B. so patient
C. enough patient
D. too patient
Question 31: I can't find my purse anywhere; I must_________ it at the cinema.
A. leave
B. have left
C. be leaving
D. have been leaving
Question 32: I’ll tell John to call you________him tomorrow.
A. as I see
B. if I see
C. if I’ll see
D. when I saw

7. Question 33: It’s about time________care of yourself.
A. you taking
B. you take
C. you took
D. to taking
Question 34: Potential dehydration is ______ that a land animals faces.
A. often the greatest hazard
B. the often greatest hazard
C. the greatest often hazard
D. often the hazard greatest
Question 35: I would appreciate it_________ what I have told you a secret.
A. you can keep
B. that you kept
C. you will keep
D. if you kept
Question 36: My cat would not have bitten the toy fish _________ it was made of rubber.
A. if she has known
B. if she should known
C. had she known
D. if she knew
Question 37: I wish I hadn't said it. If only I could___________.
A. turn the clock round
B. turn the clock down
C. turn the clock back
D. turn the clock forward
Question 38: ___________, the results couldn't be better.
A. No matter what he tried hard
B. No matter how hard he tried
C. Although very hard he tried

8. D. Despite how hard he tried
Question 39: Many people like the slow ________ of life in the countryside.
A. step
B. pace
C. speed
D. space
Question 40: They will stay there for some days if the weather ________ fine.
A. would be
B. was
C. is
D. will be
IV. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest
in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 41: The doctor said, “You really ought to rest for a few days, Jasmine.”
A. Jasmine’s doctor insisted that she should rest for a few days.
B. The doctor suggested that Jasmine should take a short rest.
C. It is the doctor’s recommendation that Jasmine rested shortly.
D. The doctor strongly advised Jasmine to take a few days’ rest.
Question 42: “I will pay back the money, Gloria.” Said Ivan.
A. Ivan apologised to Gloria for borrowing her money.
B. Ivan offered to pay Gloria the money back.
C. Ivan promised to pay back Gloria’s money.
D. Ivan suggested paying back the money to Gloria.
Question 43: The children couldn’t do swimming because the sea was too rough.
A. The children were not calm enough to swim in the sea.
B. The sea was rough enough for the children to swim in.
C. The sea was too rough for the children to go swimming.
D. The sea was too rough to the children’s swimming.
Question 44: “Would you like to come to my birthday party, Sarha?” asked Frederic.

9. A. Frederic invited Sarha to his birthday party.
B. Frederic asked if Sarha was able to come to his birthday party.
C. Frederic asked Sarha if she likes his brithday party or not.
D. Frederic reminded Sarha of his coming birthday party.
Question 45: “If I were you, I would take the job,” said my room-mate.
A. My room-mate was thinking about taking the job.
B. My room-mate advised me to take the job.
C. My room-mate introduced the idea of taking the job to me.
D. My room-mate insisted on taking the job for me.
V. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 46: If you need to keep (A) fit, then why not take(B) on (C) a sport (D) such as
badminton or tennis?
A
B
C
D
Question 47: When her dog died(A), she cried (B) very hardly (C) for half an hour (D) .
A
B
C
D
Question 48: The purpose of the United Nations, broadly speaking (A), is to maintain peace and
security (B) and encourage (C) respect for human rights (D).
A
B
C
D
Question 49: Although caffeine is a moderately (A) habit-forming (B) drug, coffee is not
regarded as harmfully (C) to the average healthy (D) adult.
A

10. B
C
D
Question 50: Televisions are now an everyday (A) feature of most households (B) in the United
States, and television viewing (C) is the number-one activity leisure (D).
A
B
C
D
VI. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word for each of the blanks from 51 to 60 .
Mobile phones ____(51)____ microwave radio emissions. Researchers are questioning
whether exposure to these radio waves might ____(52)____ to brain cancer.
So far, the data are not conclusive. The scientific evidence does not ____(53)____ us to say
with certainly that mobile phones are categorically ____(54)____. On the other hand, current
research has not yet ____(55)____clear adverse effects associated with the prolonged use of
mobile phones.
Numerous studies are now going ____(56)____in various countries. Some of the results are
contradictory but others have shown an association between moblie phone use and cancer.
____(57)____, these studies are preliminary and the issue needs further, long-term investigation.
____(58)____the scientific data are more definite, it is prudent for people to try not to use
mobile phones for long ____(59)____of time. Don’t think that hands-free phones are any safer
either. At the moment, research is in fact showing the ____(60)____ and they may be just as
dangerous.
It is also thought that young people whose bodies are still growing may be at particular risk.
Question 51:
A. emit
B. sent
C. give
D. charge
Question 52:
A. cause
B. bring
C. produce

11. D. lead
Question 53:
A. enable
B. make
C. able
D. let
Question 54:
A. safe
B. risky
C. unhealthy
D. secure
Question 55:
A. proved
B. demonstrated
C. caused
D. produced
Question 56:
A. by
B. on
C. through
D. about
Question 57:
A. Though
B. Additionally
C. However
D. While
Question 58:
A. Provide
B. As

12. C. When
D. Until
Question 59:
A. amounts
B. quantities
C. periods
D. intervals
Question 60:
A. fact
B. opposite
C. way
D. truth
VII. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer for each of the questions from 61 to 70.
Scientists do not yet thoroughly understand just how the body of an individual becomes
sensitive to a substance that is harmless or even wholesome for the average person. Milk, wheat,
and egg, for example, rank among the most healthful and widely used foods. Yet these foods can
cause persons sensitive to them to suffer greatly. At first, the body of the individual is not
harmed by coming into contact with the substance. After a varying interval of time, usually
longer than a few weeks, the body becomes sensitive to it, and an allergy has begun to develop.
Sometimes it's hard to figure out if you have a food allergy, since it can show up so many
different ways. Your symptoms could be caused by many other problems. You may have rashes,
hives, joint pains mimicking arthritis, headaches, irritability, or depression. The most common
food allergies are to milk, eggs, seafood, wheat, nuts, seeds, chocolate, oranges, and tomatoes.
Many of these allergies will not develop if these foods are not fed to an infant until her or his
intestines mature at around seven months. Breast milk also tends to be protective. Migraines can
be set off by foods containing tyramine, phenathylamine, monosodium glutamate, or sodium
nitrate. Common foods which contain these are chocolate, aged cheeses, sour cream, red wine,
pickled herring, chicken livers, avocados, ripe bananas, cured meats, many Oriental and prepared
foods (read the labels!). Some people have been successful in treating their migraines with
supplements of B-vitamins, particularly B6 and niacin. Children who are hyperactive may
benefit from eliminating food additives, especially colorings, and foods high in salicylates from
their diets. A few of these are almonds, green peppers, peaches, tea, grapes. This is the diet made
popular by Benjamin Feingold, who has written the book “Why your Child is Hyperactive”.
Other researchers have had mixed results when testing whether the diet is effective.
Question 61: The topic of this passage is ____________.
A. reactions to foods
B. food and nutrition
C. infants and allergies

13. D. a good diet
Question 62: According to the passage, the difficulty in diagnosing allergies to foods is due
to____________.
A. the vast number of different foods we eat
B. lack of a proper treatment plan
C. the similarity of symptoms of the allergy to other problems
D. the use of prepared formula to feed babies
Question 63: The word "symptoms" in line 7 is closest in meaning to ____________ .
A. indications
B. diet
C. diagnosis
D. prescriptions
Question 64: The phrase "set off" in lines 11 is closest in meaning to_____ .
A. relieved
B. identified
C. avoided
D. triggered
Question 65: What can be inferred about babies from this passage?
A. They can eat almost anything.
B. They should have a carefully restricted diet as infants.
C. They gain little benefit from being breast fed.
D. They may become hyperactive if fed solid food too early.
Question 66: The word "hyperactive" in line 15 is closest in meaning to _____.
A. overly active
B. unusually low activity
C. excited
D. inquisitive
Question 67: The author states that the reason that infants need to avoid certain foods related to
allergies has to do with the infant's ____________.

14. A. lack of teeth
B. poor metabolism
C. underdeveloped intestinal tract
D. inability to swallow solid foods
Question 68: The word "these" in line 16 refers to_____.
A. food additives
B. food colorings
C. unnutritious foods
D. foods high in sacilates
Question 69: Which of the following was a suggested treatment for migraines in the passage?
A. Eating more ripe bananas
B. Avoiding all Oriental foods
C. Getting plenty of sodium nitrate
D. Using Vitamin B in addition to a good diet
Question 70: According to the article the Feingold diet is NOT _____.
A. verified by researchers as being consistently effective
B. available in book form
C. beneficial for hyperactive children
D. designed to eliminate foods containing certain food additives
VIII. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 71 to 80.
No educational medium better serves as a means of spatial communication than the atlas.
Atlases deal with such invaluable information as population distribution and density. One of the
best, Pennycooke's World Atlas, has been widely accepted as a standard owing to the quality of
its maps and photographs, which not only show various settlements but also portray them in a
variety of scales. In fact, the very first map in the atlas is a cleverly designed population
cartogram that projects the size of each country if geographical size were proportional to
population. Following the proportional layout, a sequence of smaller maps shows the world's
population density, each country's birth and death rates, population increase or decrease,
industrialization, urbanization, gross national product in terms of per capita income, the quality
of medical care, literacy, and language. To give readers a perspective on how their own country
fits in with the global view, additional projections depict the world's patterns in nutrition, calorie
and protein consumption, health care, number of physicians per unit of population, and life
expectancy by region. Population density maps on a subcontinental scale, as well as political
maps, convey the diverse demographic phenomena of the world in a broad array of scales.
Question 71: What is the main topic of this passage?

15. A. The educational benefits of atlases
B. Physical maps in an atlas
C. The ideal in the making of atlases
D. Partial maps and their uses
Question 72: According to the passage, the first map in Pennycooke's World Atlas shows
_______.
A. the population policy in each country
B. the hypothetical sizes of each country
C. geographical proportions of each country
D. national boundaries relative to population
Question 73: Which of the following sentences is TRUE about the atlas?
A. A country's population growth is presented clearly in the very first map in the atlas.
B. The atlas isn't as good as other educational medium in term of spatial communication.
C. The atlas provides readers with not only each country's life expectancy by religion but
also its language and literacy.
D. The atlas deals with such worthless information as population distribution and density.
Question 74: The word "cleverly" in the passage is closest in meaning to _______.
A. clearly
B. immaculately
C. intelligently
D. accurately
Question 75: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Calorie consumption
B. Currency exchange rates
C. A level of educations
D. Population decline
Question 76: The word "layout" in the passage refers to _______.
A. the cartogram
B. the geographical size
C. population

16. D. each country
Question 77: The phrase "in terms of" used in the passage is closest in meaning to _______.
A. for considering aspects
B. in spite of
C. with a view to
D. in regard to
Question 78: It can be inferred from the passage that maps can be used to_______.
A. pinpoint ethnic strife in each country
B. identify a shortage of qualified labour
C. give readers a new perspective in their own country
D. show readers photographs in a new form
Question 79: The author of the passage implies that__________.
A. atlases provide a bird's eye view of countries
B. maps use a variety of scales in each projection
C. maps of countries differ in size
D. atlases can be versatile instrument
Question 80: The word "convey" in the passage is closest meaning to__________.
A. devise
B. conjure up
C. demonstrate
D. indicate
---------- THE END ----------