INI CET Nov 2023 Recall Session (Part-1).pdf

DERMATOLOGY Recall
INI-CET November 2023

Q. 1 60 year old male presented with ulcer near medial canthus :-
(a) Basal cell carcinoma
(b) Squamous cell carcinoma
(c)Melanoma
(d) Discoid lupus erythematosus
E O
f

Q.2 A 25 year young male patient, has with
asymptomatic scaly skin lesions on his back,
symmetrically distributed. The provided images
showcase the lesions. Can you identify the pattern
of these skin lesions & the specific disease?
(a) Woronoff ring - Seborrheic dermatitis
(b) Wickham’s striae-Lichen planus
(c) Collarette scale - Christmas tree pattern - pityriasis
rosea
(d) Christmas tree pattern psoriasis
É
Y
D
ELIE

Q.3 Which type of image is given here?
(a) Direct immunofluorescent
(b) Indirect immunofluorescent
(c) Fish net pattern
(d) Tomb stone appearance
O O O
ye

Q.4 A person presents with flaccid blister’s and oral mucosal lesions as shown in the
image, along with histological finding shown below
(a) Pemphigus vulgaris
(b) Pemphigus foliaceus
(c) Bullous pemphigoid
(d) IgA disease
Iep
If
IN

Q.5 All are features of non-scarring alopecia except ?
(a) Tenogen effluvium
(b) Androgenic alopecia
(c) Alopecia areata
(d) Frontal fibrozing
8 I.my

Q.6 Case I: A patient having flaccid bullae with painful erosions, will show
suprabasal split and inflammatory infiltrate in the blister cleft on HPE.
Case 2: Row of tombstones appearance is diagnostic of Pemphigus vulgaris
(a) Case 1 is false and Case 2 is true
(b) Case 1 is false and Case 2 is false
(c) Both the Case are true
(d) Both the case are false
EE

Q.7 A 48 year old obese lady presents with velvety appearance over neck as shown
image in the below?
(a) Acanthosis nigricans
(b) Insulin resistance
(c)
(d)
ÉF
1
HE
MAKATI

Q 8 Apocrine gland commonly present in which part of the body ?
(a) Face
(b) Scalp
(c) Axilla
(d) Palm & Soles
CELIA

ENT Recall
Dr Sarvejeet Singh

Q1. Identify the type of joint marked in the given image?
(a) Ball and Socket Joint
(b) Saddle Joint
(c) Pivot Joint
(d) Gliding Joint

Q2. A 33 years old male patient presented with URTI with
pus in his left nasal cavity and orbital pain along with
blurring of vision. CT Scan was done and following
findings were seen. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a. sinusitis
b. sinusitis plus orbital cellulitis
c. sinusitis plus septal cellulitis
d. sinusitis plus sub periosteal cellulitis

Q3. Apocrine Glands are seen in?
a. Face
b. Scalp
c. Palm and Sole
d. Axilla

Q4. A 60 years old patient presented with following lesion
which is slowly progressively increasing in size. What is
the most likely diagnosis?
a. Squamous Cell Carcinoma
b. Basal Cell Carcinoma
c. Melanoma
d. Nevus

Q5. A child was playing alone and is found to be drooling
and choking. X-Ray was done and is shown below. What is
the likely foreign body ingested?
a. Coin
b. Mettalic Ball
c. Cold drink bottle cap
d. Button Battery

Q6. A lady presented with bilateral hearing loss, more on
right side. It was decided to do stapedectomy after
examination. What is the likely Rinne’s and weber’s test
findings in this patient?
a. Bilateral Rinne’s Negative, Weber’s Centralized
b. Bilateral Rinne’s Positive, Weber’s to Right
c. Bilateral Rinne’s Positive, Weber’s to Left
d. Bilateral Rinne’s Negative, Weber’s to Right

Q7. All of the following statements are true except
a. One layer cells in inner hair cells, 3 layer cells in outer hair
cells
b. Maximum nerve fibres supply inner cells
c. outer hair cells sense movement are

Q8. A HIV positive patient presented with white non
scrapable lesion on lateral border of tongue as shown
below. Which of the following is the most likely
responsible for this lesion?
a. EBV
b. HHV- 8
c. Candida
d. HSV-1

Q9. A patient presented presented to ENT OPD with
unilateral Nasal mass causing obstruction and occasional
bleeding. The mass was removed and histopathology
shows the following. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a. Rhinoscleroma
b. Rhinosporidosis
c.
d.

Q11. A person recently recovered from Covid-19 who was
treated with steroids. After 3 weeks, he complains of
nasal discharge. Swab collected and the following image
is seen. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a. Mucor
b. Aspergillus
c. Candida

Q10. Upsloping Audiometry is seen in?
a. Endolymphatic hydrops
b.
c.
d.

INI-CET RECALL
Nov 2023
Dr Siraj Ahmad

Q. In a patient with history of dementia, which of the following
acetylcholine esterase inhibitor is used if patient is not able to tolerate
the oral drugs:
a. Donepezil
b. Memantine
c. Gallantamine
d. Rivastigmine
Gallant arrive
Rivastignine
T D patch
Doheperil

Q. A 26 year old patient with history of MTB was started on anti
tubercular agent. 6 months later, patient presented with neck swelling
and increased TSH level. This is possibly associated with which drug:
a. Rifampicin
b. Pyrazinamide
c. Cycloserine
d. Ethionamide
Hypothyroidism
Psych serine 4 Ethionamide
4 PAS

Q. A patient was started on doxorubicin. Cardiotoxicity of this agent can
be reduced by:
a. Aprepitant
b. Dexrazoxane
c. Amifostine
d. Leucovorin
Fe t chelation

Q. A patient is on mood stabilizer, now presented with raised hepatic
enzymes and hyperammonaemia. Possible offending agent:
a. Lamotrigine
b. Topiramate
c. Carbamazepine
d. Sodium valproate
G AED
Rapid cycler DE

Q. In a female patient with history of bleeding manifestation, petechial
rashes, heavy menstrual bleeding and easy bruising, which of the
following TK inhibitor can be used:
a. Fostamatinib
b. Bosutinib
c. Oprelvekin
d. Romiplstim
Isolated Thrombocytopenia
__
III
Ts andgentk O CML
I I n n
d
Thrombopoetin

Q. Which of the following anti diabetic agent is approved for heart
failure patient with reduced ejection fraction:
a. Liraglutide
b. Degludec
c. Canagliflozin
d. Dapagliflozin
LI RAGLUTI DE
E anti DMTHF
REMPAGLi Florin
DPPu Safer
innit'itt in
unattain d
LINAGLiptin
SGT 2
Empagliflozin fu CHFpls

Q. Which of the following is NOT seen with TCA toxicity:
a. Confusion
b. Hypothermia
c. Pupil dilation
d. Arrhythmia
Metalacidosis
Ach BOV
antidote forced alk dinner's
NaHW5

Q. Which of the following protease inhibitors can maximally produce
hepatotoxicity:
a. Tipranavir
b. Saquinavir
c. Atazanavir
d. Nelfinavir
Navin
Gl Mc He MID
Bleed Bleeding
mile araxitipranavirdRito
lopinavir
H Hepatotoxicity
C cardiac conduction of Matt
SAQUI
Aitonavir L lipodystrophy synd

Q. A patient on MDR TB therapy presented with multiple joint pain and
increased uric acid level with AST/ALT 55-65. next line of management:
a. Stop all and monitor uric acid and start when level become normal
b. Stop only pyrazinamide and monitor uric acid and AST ALT
c. Stop all hepatotoxic and monitor liver enzymes
d. Continue all and add uric acid lowering drug
PYRAZINAMIDE

Q. A 55 year old male patient with history of hypertension and
occasional spikes of blood glucose also. Which of the following is most
preferred agent for this patient:
a. Advise for exercise and Prazosin
b. Exercise and Amlodipine
c. Exercise and Metoprolol
d. Advise for only life style modification
qq.IEp
CCB Thianides
B I 2ndline

Q. All of the following side effect are more common with
carbamazepine than oxcarbazepine except:
a. Hepatotoxicity
b. Rash
c. Thrombocytopenia
d. Dilutional hyponatremia
PHI
F
Yee ox or

Q. A farmer aged 60 years presented with fever, body ache and cough.
Upon examination there was a black spot seen on chest as shown in
image. there is positive evidence of IgM for scrub typhus. Preferred
treatment:
a. Doxycycline alone
b. Doxycycline + Azithromycin
c. Ceftriaxone + Doxycycline
d. Ceftriaxone alone
Bert dry
Doc Doxycycline
Yr

Q. A 28 year old male patient presented with altered sensorium and
Pinpoint pupil. Which of the following poisoning is suspected:
a. Morphine poisoning
b. Cocaine poisoning
c. Amphetamine poisoning
d. Dhatura poisoining
Pontine H99
Jp poisony Cb poisoning
Morphine n
phenol U

Q. Site of action of valproate:
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
Va Nat
PGABA lend

Q. A child was brought with history of iron tablet intake. Treatment with
deferoxamine is started at this level of iron:
a. > 350 mcg/dL
b. > 400 mcg/dL
c. > 450 mcg/dL
d. > 500 mcg/dL
oral Deferi prone
Deferasinx

Q. Diabetic neuropathy and spinal cord injury
a. Pregabalin
b. Benzodiazepine
c. X
d. X
Ntype cat
Doc Neuropathic pain
Amityptilline
post herpetic neuralgia
DM Neuropathy
Sciatica
focal 52 RLS
10 Migraine

Q. Which of the following pathogen is not sensitive to shown drug
a. Aspergillus niger – Voriconazole
b. Candida Krusei – Fluconazole
c. Candida Glabrata – Amphotericin B
d. Itraconazole – Sporothrix
pyo
Doe
E
CINI
t
Histoplar me
Sporothirix
Blastomy ces

Q. A 75 year old patient with CHF and cardiac enlargement. Which of
the following will decrease mortality and reduce further enlargement:
a. Digoxin
b. Furosemide
c. Captopril
d. Carvedilol
Ss gallop
Khales
Drugs 1 Mortality
FACE PRic Ramipril
Prototype
ARB SARTA
u
g
Ald
ARNI ARB NI
p Telmisalantsacubitril
i d
UD
P lowdose
anti
oxidant
property Dilalin HYDRAAzine Nitrate
Saltz Empagliflozin

Q. Drug binding to ATP binding cassette:
a. Verapamil
b. Amlodipine
c. Tacrolimus
cyclosporine Kaffa
calcineurin Leydosporin

PGp inhibitor
• Amiodarone
• Clarithromycin
• Verpamil, Diltiazem
• Quinidine
• Ketoconazole

Q. Which of the following is avoided in thyroid storm:
a. Propranolol
b. Lugol’s iodine
c. PTU
d. Aspirin
Doc Thyroid storm
PII
1stDms
Thyroid
hormone
PCM
secret
d
d
Dissociation Gfw ED
I

Q. A patient was on ampicillin therapy developed PMC. Drug preferred
for clostridium difficile:
a. Fidaxomicin
wghalosporingafw PIC
most prett Other agent
Macrolides Po vancomycin
b Novobiocin
Mild Metronidazole
c
MAI BEZIOTIXUMAB
b MAB againstCt Difficile
toxin B

Q. Carrageenan causes this type of pain
I
Inflammation caringagent
Paw Edema
Peripheral pain Deep

Roo
FTPIR
antig
sday
i.tn
Iy X
His

Nasal tissue
Biopsy
lofty
Aseptate n
a

D
Diphtheria E
ExinC t E
ABcD
shigeldpseudomonas
Cinhil
synthesis of

m
f primary
amoebic
me n
ing o
en ce pha h't s
E

ngEÉ II
am wigs
via prog Teratogenic
cont rubella Syphilis
vanIahertens

zongocendet
Yhofrae ortigationay
Bs
Bs Ebot

Nepa
IgM Anthbe IgE
Window
Gartin

OPHTHALMOLOGY Recall
Dr Sashwat Ray ,MS

Q. THE following investigation is used for measurement of
(a) Proptosis
(b) Diplopia
(c) Squint
(d) Stereopsis
c

Q. The following image shows?
(a) Lissamine green - corneal ulcer
(b) Rose Bengal stain -corneal opacity
(c) Fluorescein stain -corneal ulcer
d Rhodamine stain- corneal scar
ish
aight
Essie

Q. Prescription of glasses shows - 1.0 DS /-2.0 DCX 180 .What kind of astigmatism ?
(a) Mixed astigmatism
(b) Simple hypermetropic astigmatism
(c) compound myopic with the rule astigmatism
(d) Compound Myopic against the rule astigmatism
Vt
wit t 90 180
AT_aol

Q. 21 year boxer wants to get rid of spectacles. Which refractive procedure should
be AVOIDED ?
(a) SMILE
(b) LASIK
(c) PRK
(d) RK

Q. A 50 year old diabetic patient with history of diabetic since 20 year. Fundus
examination shows NPDR . Which of the following would NOT be observed?
(a) Disc neovascularization
(b) Retinal haemorrhage
(c)Soft exudates
(d) Venous beading
THE
RyÉ
m

É A 2 OSTEONEMSH BODY OFTAWS
121 3 manor
HAWKINISILL

M
mechof
TALUS NODDWcanon
up
Summar swewyamon
Disco
canon
y
that TBiothead
Taw War WAR INSTABURY
LI
SUBTALARTIBIOFAAR
DISLOCATION

y
TIBIAUSANI
DORSIFLEXCON
OF ANKE
d
IfootDroI
Hatesteppint

PAEDIATRICS Recall
DR DEEPALI GUPTA

Q.A baby vaccinated at 14 weeks. Which vaccine to be given next, route
and site
(a) MR vaccine at 8 months, subcutaneous, left arm
(b) MR vaccine at 9 months, subcutaneous, left arm
(c) MR vaccine at 9 months, subcutaneous, right arm
(d) MR vaccine at 8 months, subcutaneous, right arm

Site of administration
• All injectable vaccines are given on the anteromedial part of thigh except
BCG- left shoulder
MMR/fIPV – right upper arm
JE- left upper arm
PCV- right anterolateral thigh

Q.How do you assess perinatal asphyxia
(a) Apgar score of 4-7 after 5 mins
(b) Cord ph <7.2
(c) Hypotonia
(d) Hypocalcemia

Perinatal asphyxia
Definition:
Presence of either of the following is suggestive of birth asphyxia
• Persistence of Apgar score of 0-3 for >5 minutes
• Scalp or cord blood pH < 7.0
• Evidence of multi-organ system dysfunction in
immediate neonatal period
• Neurological manifestations

• Acc to NNF & WHO
o AS = 0-3 at 1 min = severe BA
o AS = 4-7 at 1 min = moderate BA
• For the community settings ( NNF)
o Absence of cry at 1 min is asphyxia
o Absent or inadequate breathing
o At 5 min - severe asphyxia

Qs. Nephrotic syndrome which of the following marker increased in
Serum electrophoresis:-
(a) Albumin
(b) Beta globulin
(c) Gamma globulin
(d) Alpha 2 globulin

Q. Child with acute respiratory distress what we should not do
(a) increase in PEEP pressure
(b) bag and mask ventilation
(c) oxygen through nasal tube
(d)

Qs. Mother brings 9 months old child, RR = 48/min , fever, but no chest
retraction, and the child is diagnosed to have pneumonia. What is next
step in management ?
(a) hospitalization of patient with iv antibiotics
(b) Hospitalise the child and give oral antibiotics
(c) Send back home with oral medication
(d) No treatment needed

Qs. Child with 3 days of watery diarrhoea, vomiting and altered
sensorium presented to Opd. All of the following can be included in
differential diagnosis EXCEPT
(a) Hyponatremia
(b) Severe dehydration
(c) HUS
(d) Cerebral vein occlusion

Q.HEADSS assessment is done for
(a) Neonates
(b) Below 28 days
(c) Under 5 yrs
(d) Adolescent

• This is an interview instrument for finding out about issues in
adolescents' lives.
• It was developed by Cohen and colleagues
• H = Home environment
• E= Education and employment
• A= Activities
• D= Drugs
• S= Sexuality
• S= Suicide/Depression

Qs. Management of DKA- what is followed?
a) Stat dose given f/b regular infusion of insulin 0.1 U/kg with iv
fluids
b) Infusion of regular insulin 0.05 U/kg-0.1 U/kg/hr after 1 hr of iv
fluids
c) Bolus s/c insulin given

Management of DKA -
• Continued i/v infusion of insulin is preferred
• No role of initial insulin bolus
• No role of subcut insulin d/t decreased absorption in the setting of poor
perfusion
• Insulin should be added after initial hydration because
- Drastic fall in plasma osmolality
- Hypokalemia
- Increased risk of cerebral edema
Infusion rate to be reduced only after resolution of acidosis
Dose – 0.1u/kg/hr
- 0.05u/kg/hr in infants & mild DKA

Qs. Which of the following is not seen in Downs syndrome?
a) Hypothyroidism
b) Hearing loss
c) Short stature
d) Caudal regression syndrome

Qs.Sweat chloride and pancreatic levels of chloride in cystic fibrosis
are
a) Cl concentration increase in sweat and increase in pancreatic
secretion
b) Cl concentration decrease in sweat and decrease in pancreatic
secretion
c) Cl concentration increase in sweat and decrease in pancreatic
secretion
d) Cl concentration decrease in sweat and increase in pancreatic
secretion

Genetics and microbiology
• Mutation in the gene encoding the chloride conductance channel, CF
transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) is the underlying cause.
• The failure of chloride conductance by epithelial cells leads to dehydration of
secretions that are too viscid and difficult to clear.
• The defective gene is located at long arm of chromosome 7;
• The most common mutation is a deletion of three base pairs resulting in the absence
of phenylalanine at the 508 position (Phe508del, F508del)

Qs. A child has features of meningitis with following
CSF examination:
protein=63
glucose = 20
Lymphocyte +
Diagnosis?
a) Bacterial meningitis
b) Viral meningitis
c) Tubercular meningitis
d) None of these

Qs. Match the following
Autosomal dominant Cystic fibrosis
Autosomal recessive Leber Hereditary optic neuropathy
Mitochondrial Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy
X linked recessive Myotonic Dystrophy

Qs. Match the following
Autosomal dominant Myotonic Dystrophy
Autosomal recessive Cystic fibrosis
Mitochondrial Leber Hereditary optic neuropathy
X linked recessive Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy

INISpharma
I Ato Length
I I DOABLE
ate Factual
50 Images 1

PATHOLOGY Recall

Q. Match the following
Gene Cancer
JAK 2 Adenocarcinoma lung
ALK Myeloproliferative Neoplasms
C-KIT Pancreas
K- RAS GIST
V 617 F
PD

Q. Transferrin saturation decrease in
(a) Pernicious anemia
(b) Iron deficiency anemia
(c) Anemia of chronic disease
(d) Thalassemia

Q. Sickle cell as compared to normal RBC has ?
(a) High osmotic and high mechanical fragility
(b) Both low mechanical fragility and osmotic fragility
(c) Low mechanical fragility, low osmotic fragility
(d) Low osmotic fragility, high mechanical fragility
S f of A meat Frat
I

Q. Which of the following is found in the image given below ?
A. Prostaglandins
B. Interferon gamma
C. Cytochrome 5a
D. Bradykinin
Langhans
I aced
IL 2
It 12
In S

A. Pempighus vulgaris
B. Pempighus folacious
C. Bullus pempighoid
D. IgA mediated
SUPRA Basel

Supra basal bulla:
pemphigus vulgaris
Subcorneal : Pemphigus foliaceus
Subepidermal (as in bullous
pemphigoid or dermatitis
herpetiformis )
O

Which type of image ?
A. Direct immunofloroscene
B. Indirect immunofloroscene
C. Fish-net pattern
1
To

Which type of image ?
A. Direct immunofloroscene
B. Indirect immunofloroscene
C. Fish-net pattern
PEMPHIGUS

Q. 30 years old female on strict vegetarian diet presented with
fatigue, pallor. Hb = 9 gm /dL, MCV = 110 fl. Suggest the
diagnosis.
A. IDA
B. Megaloblastic anemia
C. Sideroblastic anemia
D. Sickle cell anemia
O
Bez Defa

Q. Patient comes with nephrotic syndrome. His creatinine values is
4.25. Which of the following statement is true?
(a) FSGS can’t be diagnosed with biopsy alone
(b) 24 hr observation after renal biopsy
(c) Amyloidosis- Renal biopsy must be done
(d) If hematuria - then suggestive of hematoma
co
f e
X

Q. In Cystic fibrosis ?
A. Increase Cl transport in sweat
B. Increase Cl transport in pancreatic juice
C. Decrease Cl transport in sweat
D.
I Mc salty SWEAT
I e t pane cé
car
Gigi
8
Swear sue
Pancreas

Q. HPV vaccine made from
a. L1
b. E2
c.
Recenter
Casanogenesis
EG P P53
E A Rb

Q. Seminoma marker is?
(a) OCT
(b) PLAP
(c) HCG
(d) NANOG

Q. Preservative for light blue vial, aim is glucose estimation?
A. NaF
B. Na citrate
C. K oxalate
D. EDTA
X
T

Q. Hbs Ag : Negative
Anti Hbs Antibody : Negative
Anti Hbc Antibody : Positive
Anti Hbe : Negative
A. Chronic Hepatitis
B. Acute Hepatitis
C. Vaccinated
D. Window period
X

Q. Mendelian Inheritance match the following
Cystic fibrosis
DMD
LHON
Myotonia dystrophica
mens
AD

Q
• Breast Cancer Molecular Classification Luminal A is?
• ER+ Her2 neu – Low Proliferative
• ER+ Her2 neu – High Proliferative
• Her 2 neu positive
• Triple negative
O
Mfc i Best prog
Luminal B i BRCA 2 gene
met

Q. Protein electrophoresis curve
Nephrotic syndrome
ALBUMin 6
Globulin s f
a
reinnesopaiggIF's
T of test's

BESTEST OF LUCK !
Tischer
picf races Base

FF
T Kt EFFLUX
M
1,92
nine
Narnian
Nat

d
Ifad
O
FYI
0.7 0.8
70 80 r
ÉE I É to

imminent
Y
Ifm Ap STRETCH FIRING RATE
d
II

FI E
E Ex
my Hop
A ANEMIA
ALTITUDE
AMAROGENS

INI CET Nov 2023 Recall Session (Part-1).pdf

INI CET Nov 2023 Recall Session (Part-1).pdf

Recommended

Recommended

More Related Content

Similar to INI CET Nov 2023 Recall Session (Part-1).pdf

Similar to INI CET Nov 2023 Recall Session (Part-1).pdf (20)

Recently uploaded

Recently uploaded (20)

INI CET Nov 2023 Recall Session (Part-1).pdf