2. Adult nursing II
Section # 1 Urology disorders
Circle the right answer in the following MCQs:
1. The client with urolithiasis has a history of chronic urinary tract infections.
The nurse plans teaching the client to avoid which of the following?
1. Long-term use of antibiotics.
2. Wearing synthetic underwear and pantyhose.
3. High--phosphate foods, such as dairy products.
4. Foods that make the urine more acidic, such as cranberries.
3. Adult nursing II
2. The client who has a history of gout also is
diagnosed with urolithiasis and the stones are
determined to be of uric acid type. The nurse gives the
client instructions in which foods to limit, including:
1. Milk
2. Liver
3. Apples
4. Carrots
4. Adult nursing II
3. The client arrives at the emergency department with
complaints of low abdominal pain and hematuria. The client is
afebrile. The nurse next assesses the client to determine a
history of:
1. Pyelonephritits
2. Glomerulonephritis
3. Trauma to the bladder or abdomen
4. Renal cancer in the client's family
5. Adult nursing II
4. The nurse is reviewing the client's record and notes that the
physician has documented that the client has a renal disorder. On
review of the lab results, the nurse most likely would expect to
note which of the following?
1. Decreased hemoglobin level.
2. Elevated BUN
3. Decreased red blood cell count.
4. Decreased white blood cell count.
6. Adult nursing II
5. A client diagnosed with polycystic kidney disease has been
taught about the treatment plan for this disease. The nurse
determines that the client needs additional teaching if the client
states that the treatment plan includes:
1. Genetic counseling.
2. Sodium restriction.
3. Increased water intake.
4. Antihypertensive medications.
7. Adult nursing II
6. The nurse is caring for the client who has undergone renal
angiography using the left femoral artery for access. The nurse
determines that the client is experiencing a complication of the
procedure if which of the following is observed?
1. Urine output, 50 mL/hr
2. Blood pressure, 110/74 mm Hg
3. Pallor and coolness of the left leg.
4. Absence of hematoma in the left groin.
8. Adult nursing II
7. The nurse has taught the client with polycistic kidney disease
about management of the disorder and prevention and
recognition of complications. The nurse determines that the client
understands the instructions if the client states that there is no
reason to be concerned about:
1. Burning on urination.
2. A temperature of 100.6F
3. New-onset shortness of breath.
4. A blood pressure of 105/68 mmHg
9. Adult nursing II
8. A client is undergoing diagnostic tests to rule out a diagnosis of
renal disease. The lab results indicate a ratio of BUN to creatinine
of 15:1. The nurse determines that this result indicates:
1. A fluid volume deficit
2. Liver failure
3. A fluid volume excess
4. A normal ratio
10. Adult nursing II
9. A client is schedule for a excretory urogram. Which
of the following would the nurse expect to be
prescribed as a component of preparation for this test?
1. NPO status after midnight.
2. Administration of a sedative before the test.
3. Administration of intravenous fluids.
4. Bowel preparation to remove fecal contents
11. Adult nursing II
10. A client is complaining of severe flank and abdominal pain. A
flat plate of the abdomen shows urolithiasis. Which of the
following interventions is important?
1-Strain all urine
2-Limit fluid intake
3-Enforce strict bed rest
4-Encourage a high calcium diet
12. Adult nursing II
Section #2 ophthalmologic disorders
1. A male client has just had a cataract operation without a
lens implant. In discharge teaching, the nurse will instruct the
client’s wife to:
a. Feed him soft foods for several days to prevent facial movement
b. Keep the eye dressing on for one week
c. Have her husband remain in bed for 3 days
d. Allow him to walk upstairs only with assistance
13. Adult nursing II
2. After the nurse instills atropine drops into both eyes for a client
undergoing ophthalmic examination, which of the following instructions
would be given to the client?
a. “Be careful because the blink reflex is paralyzed.”
b. “Avoid wearing your regular glasses when driving.”
c. “Be aware that the pupils may be unusually small.”
d. “Wear dark glasses in bright light because the pupils are dilated.”
14. Adult nursing II
3. Which of the following symptoms would occur in a client with a
detached retina?
a. Flashing lights and floaters
b. Homonymous hemianopia
c. Loss of central vision
d. Ptosis
15. Adult nursing II
4. The client arrives in the emergency room after sustaining a chemical
eye injury from a splash of battery acid. The initial nursing action is to:
a. Begin visual acuity testing
b. Irrigate the eye with sterile normal saline
c. Swab the eye with antibiotic ointment
d. Cover the eye with a pressure patch.
16. Adult nursing II
5. Which of the following procedures or assessments must the
nurse perform when preparing a client for eye surgery?
a. Clipping the client’s eyelashes
b. Verifying the affected eye has been patched 24 hours before
surgery
c. Verifying the client has been NPO since midnight, or at least 8
hours before surgery.
d. Obtaining informed consent with the client’s signature and
placing the forms on the chart.
17. Adult nursing II
6. The nurse is performing an admission assessment on a client
with a diagnosis of detached retina. Which of the following is
associated with this eye disorder?
a. Pain in the affected eye
b. Total loss of vision
c. A sense of a curtain falling across the field of vision
d. A yellow discoloration of the sclera.
18. Adult nursing II
7. The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of Corneal ulcer.
Which assessment sign would indicate that bleeding has occurred as a
result of the Corneal ulcer?
a. Complaints of a burst of black spots or floaters
b. White spot on cornea
c. Total loss of vision
d. A reddened conjunctiva
19. Adult nursing II
8. When developing a teaching session on Corneal ulcer for the
community, which of the following statements would the nurse
stress?
a. To avoid the following: wearing contact lenses, wearing
makeup, taking other medications and touching own eye
unnecessarily.
b. Yearly screening for people ages 20-40 years is recommended.
c. Glaucoma can be painless and vision may be lost before the
person is aware of a problem.
d. Need to avoid activities that increase intraocular pressure such
as straining with coughing, bowel movements, or lifting
20. Adult nursing II
9. When developing a teaching session on glaucoma for the community,
which of the following statements would the nurse stress?
a. Glaucoma is easily corrected with eyeglasses
b. White and Asian individuals are at the highest risk for glaucoma.
c. Yearly screening for people ages 20-40 years is recommended.
d. Glaucoma can be painless and vision may be lost before the person is
aware of a problem.
21. Adult nursing II
10. Which of the following procedures or assessments must the nurse
perform when preparing a client for eye surgery?
a. Clipping the client’s eyelashes
b. Verifying the affected eye has been patched 24 hours before surgery
c. Verifying the client has been NPO since midnight, or at least 8 hours
before surgery.
d. Obtaining informed consent with the client’s signature and placing
the forms on the chart.