AIAPGET 2020 (Unani) (1).pdf

[Document title]
2020
AIAPGET-2020 (Unani)
Solved Questions with Explanation
Dr. Shabistan Fatma Taiyabi
Dr. Sana Kauser Ateeque Ahmed uniCure UHCC Publication
www.unicurepatna.com

Dr. Shabistan & Dr. Sana 1
This book is the compilation of Solved
Questions with Explanation of AIAPGET-
2020 (Unani). This is the rule that
previously asked questions guide the
aspirants in preparation of an examination.
We hope this effort will be helpful for
students preparing for PG (Unani) entrance
test. Compilation of this book was very
tedious work, our near and dear one help
us, we express our gratitude to all of them.
We are extremely grateful to our family
members.
Wishing great success to all the AIAPGET
aspirants.
Dr. Sana Kauser Ateeque Ahmed
DECEMBER 4
Preface

Solved Questions with Explanation
Authors:
Publication:
Unicure UHCC Publication
Amruddi Gali, Nala Road, Patna
Year of Publication: December 2021
Edition: First
: All right reserve for uniCure uhcc publication, Patna
BUMS (Patna), PG Scholar (GTCH, Patna)
Medical Officer, Government of Bihar
Dr. Sana Kauser Ateeque Ahmed
BUMS (Pune), MD (NIUM, Bangalore)

1. Match list I with list II
List I List II
A. Superior epigastric vessels I. Oesophageal opening of diaphragm
B. Left vagus nerve II. Aortic opening of diaphragm
C. Azygose vein III. Vena-caval opening of diaphragm
D. Right phrenic nerve IV. Lary’s space
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Options:-
a. (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
b. (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
c. (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
d. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
Correct Answer: a. (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
Explanation:
 Oesophageal opening of diaphragm transmits Oesophagus, Gastric or Vagus nerves, and
Oesophageal branch of the left gastric artery.
 Aortic opening of diaphragm transmits Aorta, Thoracic duct, and Azygos vein.
 Vena caval opening of diaphragm transmits inferior vena cava and branches of the right phrenic
nerve.
 Lary’s space or foramen of Morgagni is the small opening of the diaphragm. It transmits superior
epigastric vessels and some lymphatics.
B D Chaurasia, Human Anatomy; 4th edition, vol 2; chapter 26, page 310-11
2. Match List I with List II
List I List II
A. Vomerovaginal canal I. Internal carotid artery
B. Carotid canal II. Mandibular nerve
C. Foramen ovale III. Spinal accessory nerve
D. Foramen magnum IV. Pharyngeal vessels and nerves
Options:
a. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
b. (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
c. (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
d. (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
Correct Answer: b. (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
Explanation:
 Vomerovaginal canal (if patent) transmits branches of the Pharyngeal nerve from pterygo palatine
ganglion and vessels.
 Carotid canal transmits the internal carotid artery and the venous and sympathetic plexuses around
the artery.

 Foramen ovale transmits the mandibular nerve, the lesser petrosal nerve, the accessory meningeal
artery, an emissary vein.
 The foramen magnum transmits the Spinal accessory nerve, vertebral arteries, sympathetic plexus,
posterior spinal arteries, anterior spinal arteries, through the subarachnoid space. The lower part of
the medulla oblongata and three meninges passes through the wider posterior part of the Foramen
magnum. The narrow anterior part of the Foramen magnum transmits Apical ligament of dens,
vertical brand of cruciate ligament, and membrane tectoria.
B D Chaurasia, Human Anatomy; 4th edition, vol 3; section 1, chapter 1, page 18-19
3. Following structure passes through the superior orbital fissure except:
a. Nasociliary nerve
b. Abducent nerve
c. Optic nerve
d. Inferior ophthalmic vein
Correct Answer: c. Optic nerve
Explanation:
The three parts of the superior orbital fissure transmit the following structures:
 The lateral part transmits the Lacrimal nerve, Frontal nerve, Trochlear nerve, superior ophthalmic
vein, the meningeal branch of the lacrimal artery, and anastomoses branch of the middle meningeal
artery.
 The middle part transmits the Upper and lower division of the oculomotor nerve, nasociliary nerve,
abducent nerve.
 The medial part transmits the Inferior ophthalmic vein and sympathetic nerve.
B D Chaurasia, Human Anatomy; 4th edition, vol 3; section 1, chapter 1, page 25-26
4. Given below are two statements
Statements I: The ethmoidal sinuses are located within the lateral part of the ethmoidal bone. It is
divided into anterior, middle and posterior groups. All sinuses open into the middle meatus of the nose,
except the posterior which opens into the superior meatus.
Statements II: the middle group of ethmoidal air sinuses opens into the ethmoidal bulla. Each group
has one large and 4 – 6 small sinuses. The anterior group opens into sphenoethmoidal recess.
In the light of the above statement, choose the correct answer from the option given below:
a. Both statement I and statement II are true
b. Both statement I and statement II are false
c. statement I is correct but statement II is false
d. statement I is incorrect but statement II is true
Correct Answer: c. statement I is correct but statement II is false
Explanation:
The ethmoidal sinuses are numerous small intercommunicating spaces that lie within the labyrinth of the
ethmoid bone. The sinuses are divided into anterior, middle and posterior groups. The anterior ethmoidal

sinus is made up of 1 to 11 air cells, and it opens into the anterior part of the hiatus semilunaris of the
nose. The middle ethmoidal sinus consisting of 1 to 7 air cells, Open into the middle meatus of the nose.
The posterior ethmoidal sinus consisting of 1 to 7 air cells, Open into the superior meatus of the nose.
B D Chaurasia, Human Anatomy; 4th edition, vol 3; section 2, chapter 25, page 235
5. Following nerves are closely related to the Humerus except:
a. Ulnar nerve behind the medial epicondyle
b. Median nerve behind lateral epicondyle
c. Radial nerve in the spinal groove
d. Axillary nerve behind surgical neck
Correct Answer: b. Median nerve behind lateral epicondyle
Explanation:
 The ulnar nerve runs on the medial side of the brachial artery up to the level of insertion of the
coracobrachialis. At the elbow, it passes behind the medial epicondyle, where it can be palpated with
a finger.
 The median nerve is closely related to the brachial artery in the arm.
 The radial nerve enters within the spiral (radial) groove on the back of the arm, where it is
accompanied by the profunda brachii artery.
 The axillary (circumflex) nerve is the branch of the posterior cord of the brachial plexus (C5, C6). It
is behind the surgical neck of Humerus. Hence, it is commonly involved in dislocation of the shoulder
and fracture of the surgical neck of the humerus.
B D Chaurasia, Human Anatomy; 4th edition, vol 1; section 1, chapter 7, 8, page.81, 90
Statements I: The right coronary artery arises from the anterior aortic sinus and the left coronary artery
from the left aortic sinus. The posterior 1/3rd
of the interventricular septum is supplied by the left
coronary artery.
Statements II: The right coronary artery arises from the left posterior aortic sinus and supplies the left
atrium, right ventricle and AV bundle.
In the light of the above statement, choose the correct answer from the option given below –
Correct Answer: b. Both statement I and statement II are false
Explanation:
 The heart is supplied by two coronary arteries, arising from the ascending aorta. Both arteries run in
the coronary sulcus.
 The right coronary artery is smaller than the left coronary artery. It arises from the anterior aortic
sinus. It supplies the Right Atrium, Right Ventricle (except the area adjoining the anterior

interventricular groove), a small part of the left ventricle adjoining the posterior interventricular
groove, posterior part of the interventricular septum, and the whole conducting system of the heart
except a part of the left branch of the AV bundle. The SA node is supplied by the left coronary artery
in about 40% of cases.
 The left coronary artery arises from the left posterior aortic sinus. It supplies the Left Atrium, the
greater part of the left ventricle (except the area adjoining the posterior interventricular groove), a
small part of the right ventricle adjoining the anterior interventricular groove, anterior part of the
interventricular septum and a part of the left branch of the AV bundle.
Statements I: the obturator nerve is a branch of the lumber plexus. It ends by being divided into anterior
and posterior divisions. It supplies pectineus, adductor magnus, aductur brevis and rectus femoris.
Statements II: The obturator arises from ventral rami of L2, L3, and L4 segments of the spinal cord. It
runs in the lateral wall of the pelvis to obturator foramen and supplies the hip joint.
Correct Answer: d. statement I is incorrect but statement II is true
Explanation:
 The Obturator nerve is the chief nerve of the medial compartment of the thigh. It is a branch of the
lumber plexus and formed by the ventral divisions of the anterior primary rami of spinal nerves L2,
L3, L4. The upper part of the nerve lies in the pelvis. It enters the thigh by passing through the
obturator canal. Within the obturator canal, the nerve divides into anterior and posterior divisions.
 The anterior division supplies the Pectineus, Adductor longus, Gracilis and Adductor brevis if it is
not supplied by the posterior division.
 The posterior division of obturator nerve enters the thigh by piercing the upper birder of the obturator
exturnus muscle. It supplies obturator exturnus, adductor magnus and adductor brevis.
8. Acromegaly is caused by:
Options:
a. Excess cortisol
b. Lack of cortisol
c. Excess of growth hormone
d. Lack of growth hormone
Correct Answer: c. Excess of growth hormone

Explanation: Causes of Acromegaly
 Excess Growth Hormone Secretion
 Densely or sparsely granulated GH cell adenoma
 Mixed GH cell and PRL cell adenoma
 Mammosomatrope cell adenoma
 Plurihormonal adenoma
 GH cell carcinoma or metastases
 Multiple endocrine neoplasia-1 (GH cell adenoma)
 McCune-Albright syndrome
 Ectopic sphenoid or parapharyngeal sinus pituitary adenoma
 Extrapituitary tumour (Pancreatic islet cell tumour; Lymphoma)
 Excess Growth Hormone–Releasing Hormone Secretion
 Hypothalamic hamartoma, choristoma, ganglioneuroma, Bronchial carcinoid, pancreatic islet cell
tumour, small cell lung cancer, adrenal adenoma, medullary thyroid carcinoma, pheochromocytoma
Harrison’s, Principal of internal medicine, 17th edition; part 15, section 1, chapter 333; page
2210.
9. What is the normal intraocular pressure in mmHg?
Options:
a. 8 mmHg
b. 15 mmHg
c. 25 mmHg
d. 30 mmHg
Correct Answer: b. 15 mmHg
Explanation: Intraocular pressure is the measure of fluid pressure in the eye, exerted by aqueous
humour. The normal intraocular pressure varies between 12 and 20 mmHg. It is measured by tonometer.
When intraocular pressure increases to 60 to 70 mmHg, glaucoma occurs.
Sembulingam & Sembulingam, Essential of Medical Physiology, 6th edition, section 11, page 972.
10. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R.
Assertion A: Liver disease can decrease the concentration of circulating fibrinogen in the blood.
Reason R: Fibrinogen is formed in the liver.
Options:
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Correct Options: (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation: Liver cells synthesise albumin, fibrinogen (factor I), prothrombin, alpha-1-antitrypsin,
hapto globin, ceruloplasmin, transferrin, alpha fetoproteins and acute phase reactant proteins. The blood
levels of these plasma proteins are decreased in extensive liver damage. Routinely estimated are total
concentration of serum proteins (normal 6.7 to 8.6 gm/ dl), serum albumin (normal 3.5 to 5.5 gm/dl),
serum globulin (normal 2 to 3.5 gm/dl) and albumin/globulin (A/G) ratio (normal 1.5-3:1).
Electrophoresis is used to determine the proportions of 1, 2,  and  globulins.
Harsh Mohan, The text book of pathology; 7th edition, section III, chapter19; page 580
List I List II
A. Perimetry I. Hearing Abnormalities
B. Ishihara charts II. Field of vision
C. Tonometry III. Colour blindness
D. Audiogram IV. Intraocular pressure
Options:-
a. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
b. (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
c. (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
d. (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
Correct Answer: b. (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
Explanation:
 Perimetry: Field of vision
 Ishihara charts: Test for Colour blindness are by using Ishihara colour chart, Holmgren coloured
wool and Edridge-Green lantern.
 Tonometry: Intraocular pressure is measured by Tonometer.
 Audiogram: Audiometry is the technique used to determine the nature and severity of the auditory
defect. The graph obtained by it is called an Audiogram.
Sembulingam & Sembulingam, Essential of Medical Physiology, 6th edition, section 11, page 972,
1003, 1023
12. Arrange the following changes in sequence from beginning to end of the pro:
(A) Muscle contraction
(B) Release of calcium ions by sarcoplasmic reticulum
(C) Depolarization of Muscle fibres
(D) Release of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction
(E) Binding of calcium with troponin C
Options:
a. (E), (D), (C), (B), (A)
b. (B), (C), (D), (E), (A)
c. (C), (B), (D), (E), (A)

d. (D), (C), (B), (E), (A)
Correct Answer: d. (D), (C), (B), (E), (A)
Sembulingam & Sembulingam, Essential of Medical Physiology, 6th edition, section3, chapter 31,
page 195
Statements I: The only means by which impulses ordinarily can pass from the atria into the ventricles
is through the A-V bundle.
Statements II: compression of the A-V bundle by scar tissue can depress or block conduction from the
atria to the ventricles.
a. Both statement I and statement II are correct
b. Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
c. statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
d. statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
Correct Answer: a. Both statement I and statement II are correct
Explanation: Conductive system of the heart is formed by the modified cardiac muscle fibres. These
fibres are the specialized cells, which conduct the impulse rapidly from the SA node to the ventricles.
Conductive tissues of the heart are also called junctional tissue. All these fibres from the SA node
converge on the AV node. From the AV node, the bundle of His arises. It divides into right and left
branches, which run on either side of the interventricular septum. From each branch of the bundle of His,
many Purkinje fibres arise and spread all over the ventricular myocardium.
Sembulingam & Sembulingam, Essential of Medical Physiology, 6th edition, section8, chapter 90,
page 529
14. Which of the following is/are the effect of sympathetic stimulation?
(A) Dilated pupil
(B) Increased heart rate
(C) Decreased peristalsis of gut
(D) Constriction of bronchi
(E) Constricted pupil
a. (A), (B), (C), (D), only
b. (A), (B), (C), only
c. (A), and (B), only
d. (A), only
Correct Answer: b. (A), (B), (C), only
Explanation: Action of the sympathetic and parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous
system

Effector organ Sympathetic division Parasympathetic division
Pupil Dilatation Constriction
Lacrimal gland Decrease in secretion Increase in secretion
Salivary gland Decrease in secretion and vasoconstriction Increase in secretion and
vasodilation
G.I. Tract (peristalsis) Inhibition Acceleration
Gall bladder Relaxation Constriction
Sweet gland Increase in secretion -
Heart rate Increases Decrease
Blood vessels Constriction (except heart & skeletal muscle) Dilatation
Bronchioles Dilatation Constriction
Sembulingam & Sembulingam, Essential of Medical Physiology, 6th edition, section10, chapter
164, page 955
15. The following are oral antidiabetic drug, identify one is not included in Sulfonylurea group?
a. Tolbutamide
b. Glibenclamide
c. Metformin
d. Glipizide
Correct Options: c. Metformin
Explanation:
 Sulfonylureas: the first generation is Sulfonylurea Tolbutamide, Glibenclamide, Glipizide,
gliclazide, Glimepiride are second-generation Sulfonylureas.
 Metformin is a biguanide antidiabetics. Two biguanides, Phenformin and Metformin were introduced
in 1950. Because of the higher risk of lactic acidosis, phenformin was withdrawn and has been
banned in India since 2003.
KD Tripathi, Essential of medical pharmacology, 7th ed. 2013, JAYPEE, Ch.19, page275
16. Definition of the disability is
a. Any loss or abnormality of psychological, physiological or anatomical structure or function.
b. A disadvantage for a given individual resulting from an important or a disability that limits or
prevents the fulfilment of a role.
c. Any description or lack of ability to perform an activity in the manner or within the range
considered normal for a human being.
d. Restoration of family and social relationship
Correct Answer: c. Any description or lack of ability to perform an activity in the manner or
within the range considered normal for a human being.
Explanation:

 Disability: Any description or lack of ability to perform an activity in the manner or within the range
considered normal for a human being.
 Impairment: Any loss or abnormality of a psychological, physiological or anatomical structure or
function. It may be visible or invisible, temporary or permanent, progressive or regressive. Eg. Loss
of foot
 Handicap: A disadvantage for a given individual, resulting from an impairment or a disability, that
limits or prevent the fulfilment of a role that is normal (depending on age, sex and social and cultural
factors) for that individual.
K Park, Preventive and Social Medicine; 24th edition, Chapter 2, Page 48.
17. Which one is the most appropriate definition of surveillance?
a. The limitation of freedom of movement of such well person or domestic animal exposed to
communicable disease.
b. Continuous analysis, interpretation and feedback of systematically collected data.
c. The person, animal or substance from which an infectious agent passes or disseminated to the
host.
d. Termination of all transmission of infection by examination of the infectious agent through
surveillance and containment.
Correct Answer: b. Continuous analysis, interpretation and feedback of systematically collected
data.
Explanation: Surveillance has been defined as “the continuous scrutiny of the factor that determines the
occurrence and distribution of disease and other conditions of ill health. Surveillance is essential for
effective control and prevention, and include the collection, analysis, interpretation and distribution of
relevant data for action. The main purpose of Surveillance is to detect changes in trend or distribution to
initiate investigative or control measures.
18. The Declaration of Alma-Ata states that primary health care includes:
A. To build healthy public policy
B. Develop personal skills
C. Immunization against infectious disease
D. Provision of essential drugs
E. Promotion of food supply and nutrition
a. (C), (D) and (E)
b. (A), (B) and (C)
c. (B), (D) and (E)
d. (A), (C) and (D)
Correct Answer: a. (C), (D) and (E)
Explanation:

The joint WHO – UNICEF international conference was organized in 1978 at Alma-Ata (USSR). India
is a signatory of the Alma Ata declaration of 1978 and the Millennium Development Goal of 2000. The
Alma Ata declaration stated that primary health care includes at least:
 Education about prevailing health problems and methods of preventing and controlling them.
 Promotion of food supply and proper nutrition.
 An adequate supply of safe water and basic sanitation
 Maternal and child health care including family planning
 Immunization against infectious disease.
 Prevention and control of the epidemic disease.
 Appropriate treatment of common disease and injuries, and
 Provision of essential drugs.
19. The clinical features like nausea, vomiting, colicky abdominal pain and backache are related
with:
a. Lead poisoning
b. Cholera
c. Arsenic poisoning
d. Mercury poisoning
Correct Answer: c. Arsenic poisoning
Explanation:
 Symptoms of acute poisoning usually manifest within 15-30 minutes after the dose, but may be
delayed if taken with food. The symptoms are nausea, vomiting, burning pain in the oesophagus and
stomach. The main effect however is diarrhoea accompanied by tenesmus and anal irritation.
 Mercury poisoning: Mercury is also known as quicksilver, is a liquid metal. Mercuric compound is
more poisonous than Mercurous compounds. The fatal dose is 1-2 gm. The fatal period is a few hours
to 3-5days. The symptom is metallic taste, feeling constriction in the throat, burning sensation from
mouth to stomach.
 Lead poisoning: symptom consist of metallic astringent taste, dry throat, thirst, nausea, vomiting,
colic pain abdomen relived by pressure.
Parikh’s Text Book of Medical Jurisprudence and Toxicology, 6th edi. CBS Publication, 1999,
Section IX, Page.9.9-19.
20. Preservative used for the preservation of viscera is
a. Iodine
b. Formalin
c. Saturated solution of common salt
d. Alcohol
Correct Answer: c. Saturated solution of common salt (Answered by AIAPGET)
Note: For medico-legal purposes, any tissue which provides evidence, should be preserved in 10%
formalin for Histo-pathological examination.

Section II, Page.2.44
List I List II
A. Incubation period of chickenpox I. 30 – 180 days
B. Incubation period of Mumps II. 7 – 14 days
C. Incubation period of Poliomyelitis III. 18 – 72 days
D. Incubation period of Hepatitis B IV.14 – 16 days
Options:-
a. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), and (D)-(IV)
b. (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), and (D)-(I)
c. (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), and (D)-(I)
d. (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), and (D)-(IV)
Correct Answer: c. (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), and (D)-(I)
Explanation: Given in the table below (Explanation table question no. 22)
List I List I
A. Agent factor of Cholera I. Salmonella typhi
B. Agent factor of Typhoid II. Lyssa virus type I
C. Agent factor of Diphtheria III. Vibrio cholera
D. Agent factor of Rabies IV. Corynebacterium diptherae
Options:-
a. (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), and (D)-(IV)
b. (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), and (D)-(I)
c. (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), and (D)-(II)
d. (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), and (D)-(II)
Correct Answer: c. (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), and (D)-(II)
Explanation:
Disease Causative agent Incubation period
Small pox (variola) Variola virus 7-19 days
Chicken pox Varicella-zoster 14 – 16 days
Measles (Rubeola) RNA paramyxovirus 10 days
Rubella (German Measles) RNA virus (togavirus family) 2 – 3 weeks (average 18 days)
Mumps Myxovirus parotiditis (RNA virus) 2 – 4 weeks (usually 14-18 days)
Diphtheria Corynebacterium diphtheriae 2 – 6 days
Whooping cough E. pertusis 7 – 14 days
Typhoid Salmonella typhi 10 -14 days

Cholera V.Cholerae 01 (classical or EI Tor) Few hours to 5 days (commonly
1-2 days)
Rabies Lyssa virus type I 1 -3 month
Poliomyelitis RNA virus Polio viruses 7 -14 days (range 3 to 35days)
Hepatitis A Hepatitis A (RNA virus) 15 – 45 days
Hepatitis B Hepatitis B (DNA virus) 30 – 180 days
Hepatitis C Hepatitis C (RNA virus) 20 – 90 days
Hepatitis D Hepatitis D (RNA virus) 30 – 50 days
Hepatitis E Hepatitis E (RNA virus) 15 – 60 days
Hepatitis G Hepatitis G (Flavivirus)
K Park, Preventive and Social Medicine; 24th edition, Chapter 5, Page 153-361.
23. Burtonian line is seen in the poisoning of:
a. Mercury
b. Arsenic
c. Lead
d. copper
Correct Answer: c. Lead
Explanation: Burtonian line seen in chronic lead poisoning. It was described in 1840 by Henry Burton.
In lead poisoning, a stippled bluish-black line due to subepithelial deposition of lead sulphides granule
on the gum at the junction with teeth (not on teeth). A similar line may be seen in mercury, copper,
bismuth, iron, and silver poisoning.
Section IX, Page.9.21.
24. Incubation period of cholera is commonly of:
a. 5-6 days
b. 3-4 days
c. 1-2 days
d. 2-3 days
Correct Answer: c. 1-2 days
Explanation: Explained in the previous table (Explanation table question no. 22)
25. Germ’s theory of disease is given by
a. Louis Pasteur
b. Mac Mohan
c. Leavell and Clark
d. Leuwenhoek
Correct Answer: a. Louis Pasteur
Explanation: The discovery of the existence of disease-causing microorganisms was made by French
chemist Louis Pasteur (1822– 1895), thus demolishing the prevailing theory of spontaneous generation

of disease and firmly established germ theory of disease. Subsequently, G.H.A. Hansen (1841–1912) in
Germany identified Hansen’s bacillus in 1873 as the first microbe causative for leprosy (Hansen’s
disease).
Harsh Mohan, The text book of pathology; 7th edition, section I, chapter1; page 4
26. Heart failure cells are founds in:
a. Chronic congestive failure of lungs
b. Chronic congestive failure of liver
c. Chronic congestive failure of spleen
d. Acute myocardial infraction
Correct Answer: a. Chronic congestive failure of lungs
Explanation: Chronic venous congestion of the lung occurs in left heart failure (e.g. in rheumatic mitral
stenosis) resulting in a rise in pulmonary venous pressure. In CVC Lung, Rupture of dilated and
congested capillaries may result in minute intra-alveolar haemorrhages. The breakdown of erythrocytes
liberates hemosiderin pigment which is taken up by alveolar macrophages, called as heart failure cells,
seen in the alveolar lumina. Microscopy reveals the presence of ‘heart failure cells’ in the alveoli which
are hemosiderin-laden alveolar macro phages.
Harsh Mohan, The text book of pathology; 7th edition, section I, chapter 4; page 91
27. Gamma- Gandy bodies are seen in:
a. Chronic congestive failure of lungs
b. Chronic congestive failure of liver
c. Chronic congestive failure of spleen
d. Acute myocardial infraction
Correct Answer: d. All of above
Explanation: Chronic venous congestion of the spleen occurs in right heart failure and portal
hypertension from cirrhosis of the liver. Some haemorrhages overlying fibrous tissue get deposits of
hemosiderin pigment and calcium salts; these organized structures are termed as Gamma-Gandy bodies
or siderofibrotic nodules. Gamma-Gandy bodies in chronic venous congestion (CVC) of the spleen is
characterized by calcific deposits admixed with hemosiderin on fibrous tissue.
Ref. Harsh Mohan, The text book of pathology; 7th edition, section I, chapter4; page 93
28. Caseation Necrosis is characteristic of:
a. Acute Myocardial infraction
b. Tuberculosis
c. Cerebral Infraction
d. Acute Pancreatitis
Correct Answer: b. Tuberculosis
Explanation:

Based on aetiology and morphologic appearance, there are 5 types of necrosis: coagulative, liquefaction
(colliquative), caseous, fat, and fibrinoid necrosis. Caseous Necrosis (caseous= cheese-like) necrosis is
found in the centre of foci of tuberculous infections. It combines features of both coagulative and
liquefactive necrosis.
Harsh Mohan, The text book of pathology; 7th edition, section I, chapter2; page 27
29. All events are common to primary and secondary healing except:
a. Formation of blood clot
b. Inflammatory response
c. Wound contraction
d. Epithelial changes
Correct Answer: c. Wound contraction
Explanation: Contraction of a wound is an important feature of secondary healing, not seen in primary
healing. Due to the action of myofibroblasts present in granulation tissue, the wound contracts to one-
third to one-fourth of its original size.
30. Leucocyte count will be decreased in:
a. Appendicitis
b. Meningitis
c. Typhoid
d. Acute Glomerular Nephritis
Correct Answer: c. Typhoid
Explanation: Though enteric fever is an example of acute inflammation; neutrophils are invariably
absent from the cellular infiltrate and this is reflected in the leucopenia with neutropenia and relative
lymphocytosis in the peripheral blood.
Harsh Mohan, The text book of pathology; 7th edition, section III, chapter 18; page 554
31. The most common termination of Pneumonia is:
a. Consolidation
b. Resolution
c. Abscess formation
d. Empyema
Correct Answer: b. Resolution
Explanation: Laennec’s original description divides lobar pneumonia into 4 sequential pathologic
phases: stage of congestion (initial phase), red hepatisation (early consolidation), grey hepatisation (late
consolidation) and resolution. However, these classic stages seen in untreated cases are found much less
often nowadays due to the early institution of antibiotic therapy and improved medical care. The
resolution stage begins by the 8th
to 9th
day if no chemotherapy is administered and is completed in 1 to
3 weeks. However, antibiotic therapy induces resolution on about 3rd day.
Harsh Mohan, The text book of pathology; 7th edition, section III, chapter 15; page 451

32. Characteristic feature of Amoebic ulcer is:
a. Flask shaped
b. Undermined edges
c. Rolled up edge
d. Punched out
Correct Answer: a. Flask shaped
Explanation:
 Amoebic colitis: the most common type of amoebic infection begins as a small area of necrosis of
mucosa which may ulcerate. These ulcerative lesions may enlarge, develop undermining of margins
of the ulcer due to lytic action of the trophozoite and have a necrotic bed. Such chronic amoebic
ulcers are described as flask-shaped ulcers due to their shape.
 Crohn’s disease: commonly affect the terminal ileum. The wall of the affected bowel segment is
thick and hard with uninvolved skip areas resembling a hose pipe. The mucosa shows a serpiginous
ulcer while intervening surviving mucosa is swollen giving a cobblestone appearance.
 Intestinal Tuberculosis: Ulcers are transverse to the long axis of the bowel.
 Typhoid ulcer: Ulcers are parallel to the long axis of the bowel.
Harsh Mohan, The text book of pathology; 8th edition, section III, chapter 20; page 591, 95, 97
33. Inflammatory fluid rich in leucocytes and parenchymal debris is called:
a. Pus
b. Transudate
c. Oedema fluid
d. Exudate
Correct Answer d. Exudate
Explanation: Exudate contains many cells, inflammatory (eg. lymphocytes) as well as parenchymal. It
is inflammatory oedema, High Protein content (2.5-3.5 gm/dl), readily coagulates due to the high content
of fibrinogen and other coagulation factors. Low Glucose content (less than 60 mg/dl) with High Specific
gravity (more than 1.018) and PH < 7.3. eg. Purulent exudate such as pus.
34. In myocardial infarction the type of necrosis is seen:
a. Caseous
b. Gangrenous
c. Coagulative
d. Liquefactive
Correct Answer c. Coagulative
Explanation: Coagulative Necrosis is the most common type of necrosis caused by irreversible focal
injury, mostly from sudden cessation of blood flow (ischaemic necrosis), and less often from bacterial
and chemical agents. The organs commonly affected are the heart, kidney, and spleen. Myocardial
ischaemia induces ischaemic coagulative necrosis of the myocardium which eventually heals by fibrosis.

Harsh Mohan, The text book of pathology; 7th edition, section I& III, chapter 2&14; page 26, 412
35. Pipette having three marks, 0.5, 1.0, and 11 is found in:
a. RBC Pipette
b. WBC Pipette
c. Platelet Pipette
d. Hb Pipette
Correct Answer b. WBC Pipette
Explanation:
 WBC Pipette: Pipette having three marks, 0.5, 1.0, and 11.
 RBC Pipette: Pipette having three marks, 0.5, 1.0, and 101.
 Platelet Pipette: RBC Pipette
 Hb Pipette: Pipette having three marks, 0.5, 1, and 11.
Godkar & Godkar, Text book of medical laboratory technology; 3rd edition, vol.2, chapter 38,
page 1103-23.
36. Protein in urine is examined by:
a. Hay’s test
b. Benedict’s test
c. Ehrlich’s test
d. Sulphosalicyclic acid test
Correct Answer d. Sulphosalicyclic acid test
Explanation: Protein in urine is examined by Sulphosalicyclic acid test; heat and Acetic acid test; paper
strip method; Esbach’s quantitative method; Toluenesulfonic Acid; Electrophoresis etc. Benedict’s
test is a qualitative test for Glucose in urine.
Ramnik Sood, Medical laboratory technology; 6th edition, vol.1, chapter 5, page 105
37. Pruritus Scratching Secondary infection Suppuration.
This sequence is seen in:
a. Scabies
b. Peduculosis pubis
c. Chancroid
d. Herpes genitalis
Correct Answer: b. Peduculosis pubis
Explanation: Pediculosis pubis (crab louse or Phthirus pubis) is one of the most contagious sexually
transmitted diseases (STDs). It is also transmitted through intimate contact, shared towels or sheets.
Howkins & Bourne, Shaw’s Textbook of Gynecology, 16th edition, Chapter 11, page 155.
38. Pox virus causes:

a. Genital Herpes
b. Condyloma acuminate
c. Granuloma inguinale
d. Moluscum contagiosum
Correct Answer: d. Moluscum contagiosum
Explanation: Moluscum contagiosum is a skin infection, caused by a DNA pox virus. It is most common
in children over the age of 1 year. It also frequently occurs in immunosuppressed patients (e.g. HIV).
Lesions are dome-shaped, umbilicated, skin colour papules with central punctum.
Davidson’s Principle & practice of Medicine, 22nd edition, Part 2, chapter28; Page 1279
39. Primary amenorrhoea, delayed secondary sexual characters, average height and
underdeveloped genitals are clinical feature of:
a. True hermaphroditism
b. Klinefelter’s syndrome
c. Mosaic Turner
d. Pure gonadal dysgenesis
Correct Answer: d. Pure gonadal dysgenesis
Explanation: Swyer’s Syndrome: This syndrome is a male pseudo hermaphrodite, a pure 46 XY
gonadal dysgenesis with the presence of uterus and the cervix but with hypo-oestrogenism and poorly
developed breasts. Undeveloped testes do not secrete testosterone and MIF resulting in the development
of female genital organs and female phenotype. The woman presents with primary amenorrhoea, absence
of secondary sex characters and female external genitalia. The gonads (testis) have a 30% risk to undergo
malignancy and should be removed.
Howkins & Bourne, Shaw’s Textbook of Gynaecology, 16th edition, Chapter 10, page 145.
40. Karyotype 45XO is characteristic of:
a. Adrenogenital syndrome
b. Mixed gonadal dysgenesis
c. Turner’s syndrome
d. Klinefelter’s syndrome
Correct Answer: c. Turner’s syndrome
Explanation:
In Turner’s Syndrome, either the short arm of the X chromosome is deleted or the nucleus possesses
only 45 chromosomes, i.e. 22 pairs of autosomes plus a sex chromosome XO. The absence of the Y
chromosome resembles the female, but these patients are, like males, chromatin negative, i.e. their nuclei
contain no nuclear satellite body and no drumsticks in the neutrophils. Turner’s syndrome has also been
called ovarian agenesis or gonadal dysgenesis.
Howkins & Bourne, Shaw’s Textbook of Gynaecology, 16th edition, Chapter 10, page 145
41. The pyriform shape of uterus become globular by:
a. 6 weeks of pregnancy

b. 8 weeks of pregnancy
c. 10 weeks of pregnancy
d. 12 weeks of pregnancy
Correct Answer: 12 weeks of pregnancy
Explanation:
The uterus which is a nonpregnant state weighs about 60 g, with a cavity of 5–10 mL and measures about
7.5 cm in length, at term, weighs 900–1,000 g and measures 35 cm in length. The capacity is increased
by 500–1,000 times. Changes occur in all the parts of the uterus—body, isthmus and cervix. A
nonpregnant pyriform shape is maintained in the early months. It becomes globular at 12 weeks. As the
uterus enlarges, the shape once more becomes pyriform or ovoid by 28 weeks and changes to spherical
beyond the 36th
week.
DC Dutta’s Textbook of Obstetrics; 8th edition, Chapter 5, page 53
42. To assess gestational age, detect fetal abnormality and viability, sonography should be done
between:
a. 12-16 weeks
b. 16-20 weeks
c. 18-22 weeks
d. 24-30 weeks
Correct Answer: c. 18-22 weeks
Explanation:
Fetal viability is determined by real-time ultrasound. The absence of fetal cardiac motion confirms fetal
death. Routine sonography at 18-20 weeks permits a detailed survey of fetal anatomy, placental
localization and the integrity of the cervical canal. Gestational age is determined by measuring the
biparietal diameter (BPD), head circumference (HC), abdominal circumference (AC) and femur length
(FL). It is most accurate when done between 12 and 20 weeks (variation ± 8 days).
43. Active phase of labour begins when the cervix is:
a. 10 cm dilated
b. 8 cm dilated
c. 6 cm dilated
d. 4 cm dilated
Correct Answer: d. 4 cm dilated
Explanation:
The active phase has got three components. (i) Acceleration phase with cervical dilatation of 3–4 cm.
(ii) Phase of maximum slope of 4–9 cm dilatation. (iii) Phase of deceleration of 9–10 cm dilatation.
Dilatation of the cervix at the rate of 1 cm/h in primigravida and 1.5 cm in multigravida beyond 4 cm
dilatation (active phase of labour) is considered satisfactory.

44. The time of eruption of upper canine during primary dentition is:
a. 10-14 months
b. 12-16 months
c. 16-22 months
d. 22-24 months
Correct Answer: a. 16 – 12 months
Explanation:
The time of eruption of teeth is a good indicator of age up to 18-25 years. Eruption time in age is
mentioned below:
Temporary teeth: Central incisors (lower) at 6-8-month, central incisors (upper) at 7-9 months, lateral
incisors (upper) at 7-9 months, lateral incisors (lower) at 10-12 months, first molar at 12-24 months,
Canines at 17-18 months, Second molars at 20-30 months.
Permanent teeth: Eruption time of the First molar is 6-7 years, Central Incisors is 6-8 years, Lateral
incisors is 8-9 years, Canines is 10-12 years, second molars 12-14 years and third molars (wisdom) 17-
21 years.
Section II, Page.2.6
45. The weight gain in the first 3 months of life is:
a. 15-30 gm/day
b. 30-40 gm/day
c. 20-40 gm/day
d. 10-20 gm/day
Correct Answer: c. 20-40 gm/day
Explanation: the new born loose up to 10% of his weight during the first week, which is regained by
the age of 10 days (few authors say in the first week lose 10% and in the second week gain 10%. Hence
weight at 15th
day is equal to the birth weight) after this the weight gain occurs at the rate of 25-30 gm
per day for the first three months and 40gm in a month during the rest of the first year of life. The baby
doubles its weight by the age of 5-month and trebles it by one year of age, and 4- times by 2 years of
age.
Suraj Gupte, Text book of paediatrics; 10th edi. JAYPEE, 2004, Ch.3, page 33
46. Puberty in girls starts with breast development between:
a. 7 and 9 years
b. 8 and 13 years
c. 11 and 14 years
d. 12 and 15 years
Correct Answer: b. 8 and 13 years
Explanation: The first sign of puberty is the development of the breasts. Breast budding usually appears
between the ages of 9–11 years; it is indicative of the competency of the hypothalamic-pituitary–ovarian
axis.

Howkins & Bourne, Shaw’s Textbook of Gynaecology, 16th edition, Chapter 5, page 57
47. The commonest Hypospadias is:
a. Penile
b. Glandular
c. Scrotal
d. (1) and (3)
Correct Answer: b. Glandular
Explanation: Classification of Hypospadias –
 Glandular: Most common type. Meatal opening in glans.
 Coronal
 Penile
 Penoscrotal
 Perineal with split scrotum. This is associated with bilateral undescended testes.
Sriram Bhat M, SRB’s Manual of Surgery, 6th edi. Chap. 26D, Page.1044
48. Lord plication is done for:
a. Hydrocele
b. Hernia
c. Testicular Cancer
d. Varices
Correct Answer: a. Hydrocele
Explanation:
 Surgery Hydrocele: Lord’s plication; Sub-total excision; Partial excision and eversion (Jabouley’s
operation); Evacuation and eversion.
 In Hydrocele, If the sac is small, thin and contains clear fluid, either Lord’s plication, i.e. tunica is
bunched into a “ruff” by placing a series of multiple interrupted chromic catgut sutures to make the
sac form fibrous tissue (It is relatively avascular and so hematoma will not occur).
Sriram Bhat M, SRB’s Manual of Surgery, 6th edi. Chp. 26F, Page.1060
49. Varicocele is common in left testis because:
a. Left testicular vein drains into IVC which has high pressure
b. Left testicular vein drains into left renal vein which has high pressure
c. Left testis is situated lower
d. Compression of left testis by Rectum
Correct Answer: b. Left testicular vein drains into left renal vein which has high pressure
Explanation:
Primary/idiopathic Varicocele-95%: No cause is found. There is the incompetence of valves of the
testicular vein. It is common on the left side because the left testicular vein joins the left renal vein

perpendicularly and the left side vein is longer and liable to get compressed by a loaded sigmoid colon.
The left renal vein is often compressed between the aorta and SMA.
Sriram Bhat M; SRB's Manual of Surgery, 4th edition, chapter 26F, page 1158.
B D Chaurasia, Human Anatomy; 4th edition, vol 2; chapter 17, page 220.
50. First line of treatment for Keloid is:
a. Intra-lesional injection of steroid
b. Local steroid
c. Radiotherapy
d. Wide excision
Correct Answer: a. Intra-lesional injection of steroid
Explanation:
 Treatment for Keloid: (i) Steroid injection—Intrakeloidal triamcinolone, is injected at regular
intervals, may be once in 7-10 days, of 6-8 injections. (ii) Steroid injection—excision—steroid
injection. (iii) Methotrexate and vitamin A therapy into the keloid. (iv) Silicone gel sheeting; topical
retinoids. (v) Laser therapy. (Vi) Vitamin E/palm oil massage.
 A keloid is a progressive fibrous overgrowth in response to cutaneous injuries such as burns,
incisions, insect bites, vaccinations and others.
Sriram Bhat M; SRB's Manual of Surgery, 4th edition, chapter 1A, page 11.
51. Best way to prevent gas gangrene is:
a. Immunoglobulin
b. Hyperbaric oxygen
c. Proper wound debridement
d. Anti- gas gangrene serum
Correct Answer: Proper wound debridement
Explanation:
Prevention of gas gangrene: Proper debridement of devitalized crushed wounds; Devitalized wounds
should not be sutured; Adequate cleaning of the wounds with H2O2 and normal saline; Penicillin as a
prophylactic antibiotic.
Gas Gangrene is a special form of wet gangrene caused by gas-forming clostridia (gram-positive
anaerobic bacteria) which gain entry into the tissues through open contaminated wounds, especially in
the muscles, or as a complication of operation on the colon which normally contains clostridia. Clostridia
produce various toxins which produce necrosis and oedema locally and are also absorbed producing
profound systemic manifestations. Morphologically the affected area is swollen, oedematous, painful
and crepitant due to the accumulation of gas bubbles of carbon dioxide within the tissues formed by
fermentation of sugars by bacterial toxins.
Sriram Bhat M; SRB's Manual of Surgery, 4th edition, chapter 1D, page 54.
52. Match the List I with List II

List I List II
A. Anosmia is a disease of I. Eye
B. Tinnitus is a disease of II. Throat
C. Astigmatism is a disease of III. Ear
D. Dysphagia is a disease of IV. Nose
Choose the correct answer from the option given below:
Options:
a. (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
b. (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
c. (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)
d. (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
Correct Answer: a. (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
Explanation:
 Anosmia is a total loss of sensation of smell i.e. inability to recognize or detect any order. It may be
temporary or permanent. Temporary is due to obstruction of the nose (e.g. common cold) and
permanent Anosmia occurs during lesion in the olfactory tract, meningitis and degenerative condition
like Parkinson disease and Alzheimer.
 Tinnitus is a ringing or buzzing sound in the ears.
 Astigmatism is a condition in which light rays are not brought to a sharp point upon the retina. It is
a common optical defect. This defect is present in all eyes. When it is moderate, it is known as
physiological astigmatism. When it is well marked, it is considered abnormal.
 Dysphagia means difficulty in swallowing. It may be due to mechanical obstruction or decreased
movement of the esophagus and muscular disorder.
Sembulingam & Sembulingam, Essential of Medical Physiology, 6th edition, section 11, p.965-
1030
List I List II
A. Paget’s disease is also known as I. Compact Osteoma
B. Exostosis is also known as II. Osteitis Deformans
C. Ivory Exostosis is also known as III. Gaint Cell Tumor
D. Osteoclastoma is also known as IV. Cancellous Osteoma
Options:-
a. (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
b. (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
c. (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
d. (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
Correct Answer: c. (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
Explanation:

 Paget’s disease or osteitis deformans was first described by Sir James Paget in 1877.
 Giant cell tumour or osteoclastoma is a distinctive neoplasm with uncertain histogenesis and hence
classified separately. The tumour arises in the epiphysis of long bones close to the articular cartilage.
The most common sites of involvement are the lower end of the femur and upper end of the tibia (i.e.
about the knee), the lower end of the radius and the upper end of the fibula. Giant cell tumour occurs
in patients between 20 and 40 years of age with no sex predilection.
Harsh Mohan, The textbook of pathology; 8th edition, section III, chapter 28; page 872-903
List I List II
A. Myopia is I. Absence of refractive error
B. Hypermetropia is II. Absence of the lens of the eye
C. Emmetropia is III. Long Sightedness
D. Aphakia is IV. Short Sightedness
Options:-
a. (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
b. (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
c. (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
d. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
Correct Answer: a. (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
Explanation:
 Myopia is an eye defect characterized by the inability to see a distant object. It is otherwise called
short-sightedness because a person can see near objects clearly, but not distant objects.
 Hypermetropia is an eye defect characterized by the inability to see a near object. It is otherwise
called long-sightedness because the person can see distant objects clearly, but not near objects. It is
also called hyperopia.
 Emmetropia: the eye with normal refractive power is called Emmetropic eye, and the condition is
called Emmetropia.
 The lens of the eyeball is crystalline. The focal length of the human lens is 44mm and its refractive
power is 23D.
Sembulingam & Sembulingam, Essential of Medical Physiology, 6th edition, section 11, Chapter
171 p-1005
List I List II
A. Carbuncle is I. Spreading inflammation of the subcutaneous and facial tissue
B. Abscess is II. Infection of the hair follicle with Staphylococcus aureus
C. Cellulitis is III. Collection of pus within the body
D. Boil is IV. Infective gangrene of subcutaneous tissues

Options:
a. (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
b. (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
c. (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
d. (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
Correct Answer: d. (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
Explanation:
 The word meaning of carbuncle is charcoal. ♦ It is infective gangrene of skin and subcutaneous
tissue. ♦ Staphylococcus aureus is the main culprit. ♦ common site of occurrence is the nape of the
neck and back. Skin in this area is thick. The condition also can occur in the shoulder, cheek, hand,
forearm. ♦ It is common in diabetics and after forty years of age. ♦ It is common in males.
 An abscess is a collection of pus within the body. Types: Pyogenic abscess; Pyaemic abscess;
Metastatic abscess; Cold abscess due to chronic infection like tuberculosis.
 Cellulitis is spreading inflammation of subcutaneous and fascial planes. Infection may follow a small
scratch or wound or incision or insect/snake/scorpion bite.
 Boil (Furuncle): It is an acute staphylococcal infection of a hair follicle with perifolliculitis which
usually proceeds to suppuration and central necrosis.
Sriram Bhat M; SRB's Manual of Surgery, 4th edition, chapter 1D, page 36-50.
List I List II
A. Hyper parathyroidism is I. Adult counterpart of Rickets
B. Osteomalacia is II. Failure of fusion of post part of spine
C. Chondroma is III. Over secretion of Para thormone
D. Spina Bifida is IV. Benign tumour of cartilage
Options:-
a. (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
b. (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
c. (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
d. (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
Correct Answer: a. (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
Explanation:
 Hyper parathyroidism is over secretion of Parathormone. Primary hyper parathyroidism is most
commonly seen in individuals with advanced chronic kidney disease. More in females.

 Osteomalacia is an adult counterpart of Rickets. Osteomalacia is characterized by defective
mineralization of bone due to vitamin D deficiency, resistance to the effect of vitamin D or
hypophosphataemia, causes pain, fragility and fracture of bone.
 Chondroma is a benign tumour of cartilage.
 Spina bifida (distematomyelia) is a Failure of fusion of the posterior part of spine. It is congenital
abnormality. Incidence is reduced by increased maternal intake of folic acid during pregnancy.
Davidson’s Principle & practice of Medicine, 22th edition, Part 2, ch.20,25,26; P769, 1126, 1131,
1223
List I List II
A. Gas gangrene is caused by I. Streptococcus Pyogenes
B. Tetanus is caused by II. Clostridium Perfinges
C. Cellulitis is caused by III. Burn Scar
D. Marjolin’s ulcer is caused by IV. Clostridium Tetani
Options:-
a. (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
b. (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
c. (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
d. (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
Correct Answer: b. (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
Explanation:
 Gas gangrene is a special form of wet gangrene caused by gas-forming Clostridium Perfinges (a
gram-positive anaerobic bacteria).
 Tetanus is an infective condition caused by Clostridium tetani organisms leading to reflex muscle
spasm, often associated with tonic-clonic convulsions.
 Cellulitis is spreading inflammation of subcutaneous and facial planes. ♦Commonly due to
Streptococcus pyogenes and other Gram +ve organisms. The release of streptokinase and
hyaluronidase cause the spread of infection. ♦ Often Gram –ve organisms like Klebsiella,
Pseudomonas, E. coli are also involved (usually Gram –ve organisms cause secondary infection).
 Marjolin’s ulcer: It is a very well-differentiated squamous cell carcinoma occurring in a scar ulcer
due to repeated breakdown. It is Complications of Burns Contracture.
Sriram Bhat M; SRB's Manual of Surgery, 4th edition, chapter 1BD, p 37, 49,52,137.
Reason R.
Assertion A: Rectal bleeding most commonly occurred in haemorrhoids
Reason R: Malignancy is an exceptionally rare cause of rectal bleeding.

Options:
a. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
Correct Options: d. A is false but R is true
Explanation: Rectal bleeding (splash in the pan) during defecation is the first symptom in piles.
Cancer of the rectum is more common in male, its symptom is occult blood (melaena), change in bowel
habit, loss of weight (cachexia), loss of appetite, anaemia, weakness, malaise.
Sriram Bhat M; SRB's Manual of Surgery, 4th edition, chapter 25 D, p 962
Harsh Mohan, The textbook of pathology; 8th edition, section III, chapter 20; page.612-16
Reason R.
Assertion A: Diabetic patients have foot problem secondary to neuropathy and micro vascular changes.
Reason R: Diabetic patients are risk of infection, ulceration and trauma.
Options:
Correct Options: a. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation: The diabetic foot ulceration occurs as a result of trauma (often trivial) in the presence of
neuropathy and/ or peripheral vascular disease, with infection occurring as a secondary phenomenon
following disruption of the protective epidermis.
Davidson’s Principle & practice of Medicine, 22nd edition, Part 2, chapter21; P 833
Statements I: Uric acid stones are resistant to ESWL.
Statements II: Oxalate stones are radio-opaque.
In the light of the above statement, choose the most appropriate answer from the option given below –
Correct Answer: d. statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
Explanation: There are 4 main types of urinary calculi—calcium-containing, mixed (struvite), uric acid
and cystine stones, and a few rare types. Calcium stones are the most common comprising about 75% of
all urinary calculi. Approximately 6% of urinary calculi are made of uric acid. Uric acid calculi are

radiolucent, unlike radio-opaque calcium (Calcium oxalate) stones. Hard stones, oxalate stones are better
eliminated by ESWL (Extracorporeal Shock Wave Lithotripsy).
Harsh Mohan, The textbook of pathology; 7th edition, chapter20; p.673
Statements I: In Reynold’s phenomena lower limb is more commonly involved than the upper limb.
Statements II: Reynold’s phenomena is superficial thrombo-phlebitis.
In the light of the above statement, choose the most appropriate answer from the option given below:
Options:
Correct Answer: b. Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
Explanation: Causes for Raynaud’s Phenomenon is Raynaud’s disease: It is seen in females, usually
bilateral. It occurs in an upper limb with normal peripheral pulses. It is due to upper limb (hand) arteriolar
spasm as a result of abnormal sensitivity to cold. The patient develops blanching, cyanosis and later
flushing as in Raynaud’s syndrome. Occasionally if a spasm persists it results in gangrene. Symptoms
can be precipitated and observed by placing hands in cold water.
Sriram Bhat M; SRB's Manual of Surgery, 4th edition, chapter 1L, p.189
Statements I: Pain, fever and Jaundice are features of common bile duct stone.
Statements II: Septic shock is not a feature of common bile duct stone.
In the light of the above statement, choose the most appropriate answer from the option given below –
Correct Answer: a. Both statement I and statement II are correct
Explanation: Cholangitis is a complication of obstructive (cholestatic) jaundice; it is characterized by
Charcot’s triad of jaundice, right upper quadrant pain and fever. Cholestatic jaundice is characterized by
a relatively greater elevation of ALP and GGT than the aminotransferase. Early clinical features of
obstructive (cholestatic) jaundice are jaundice, pale stool, dark urine, and pruritus. A late feature of
cholestatic jaundice is malabsorption (vitamin A, D, E, K), weight loss, steatorrhoea, osteomalacia,
bleeding tendency, xanthelasma and xanthomas.
Davidson’s Principle & practice of Medicine, 22nd edition, Part 2, chapter 23; P 937
Reason R.

Assertion A: Goiter is a common disease in mountain region
Reason R: The diet of the people in mountains lack iodine content
Options:
Explanation:
 The term “endemic goitre” is now replaced by the term Iodine Deficiency Disorders (IDD).
 It has always been thought in India that goitre and cretinism were only found to a significant extent
in the “Himalaya goitre belt” which is the world’s biggest goitre belt. In recent years renewed surveys
outside the conventional goitre belt have identified endemic foci of iodine deficiency and associated
IDD in parts of MP, AP, TN, Gujarat etc. even near the sea cost like Bharuch district in Gujarat and
Ernakulum district in Kerala are found goitre affected.
 The iodized salt is a prophylactic public health measure against endemic goitre. In India, the level of
iodization is fixed under the prevention of the Food Adulteration (PFA) Act and is not less than 30
ppm at the production point, and not less than 15 ppm of iodine at the consumer level.
K Park, Preventive and Social Medicine; 24thedition, Chapter 11, P.681.
Reason R.
Assertion A: Carbohydrates provide energy to the body
Reason R: Obesity is caused by excessive intake of Carbohydrate
Options:
b. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Correct Options: c. A is true but R is false
Explanation:
 The third major component of food is a carbohydrate, which is the main source of energy, providing
4 kcal per gram.
 A diet rich in fat can pose a threat to human health by encouraging obesity. In fat people, adipose
tissue may increase up to 30 percent.
K Park, Preventive and Social Medicine; 24th edition, Chapter 11, Page 650-51.
65. Secretin is secreted by:

a. Duodenum
b. Pancreas
c. Liver
d. Stomach
Correct Answer a. Duodenum
NOTE: Correct option: b. The pancreas is mentioned as the Correct Answer by AIPGET. But as per the
explanation correct answer is option a. Duodenum.
Explanation: Secretin is produced by S cells of the mucus membrane in the duodenum and jejunum. It
is secreted as inactive prosecretin, which is activated into secretin by an acid chime. Secretin stimulates
pancreatic secretion.
Sembulingam & Sembulingam, Essential of Medical Physiology, 6th edition, section 4, ch.39,
p.246.
Statements I: Amoebiasis is an occupational disease.
Statements II: Amoebiasis is caused by inhalation of asbestos dust.
Correct Answer: b. Both statement I and statement II are false
Explanation:
 Amoebiasis is a protozoan disease caused by Entamoeba histolytica.
 Inhalation of asbestos dust causes Asbestosis and lung cancer.
K Park, Preventive and Social Medicine; 24th edition, Chapter 5-II&16, P.255, 842.
Reason R.
Assertion A: Vaccine prevent disease
Reason R: Vaccine must be given to the children
Options:
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Correct Answer: b. Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:

A vaccine is an immune-biological substance designated to produce specific protection against a given
disease. It stimulates the production of protective antibodies and other immune mechanisms. The
vaccine may be prepared from a live modified organism, inactivated or killed organism, extracted
cellular fractions, toxoids or a combination of these.
K Park, Preventive and Social Medicine; 24th edition, Chapter 3, P108
68. Hormones FSH and LH from anterior pituitary gland act on:
a. Testis
b. Ovaries
c. Both Testis and Ovaries
d. Adrenal cortex
Correct Answer: c. Both Testis and Ovaries
Explanation:
 The anterior pituitary is also known as the master gland. It is consist of three parts (Pars
distalis; Pars tuberalis & Pars intermedia). It secretes six hormones: 1. GH or somatotropic
hormone; 2. TSH; 3. ACTH; 4. FSH; 5. LH (Female) & ICSH (Male) and 6. Prolactin.
 FSH is a glycoprotein. In a male, FSH acts along with testosterone and accelerates the process
of spermiogenesis. In females, FSH causes the development of Graafian follicle; stimulates the
theca cells of Graafian follicle and cause the secretion of estrogen; and promotes the aromatase
activity in granulosa cells resulting in the conversion of androgens into estrogen.
 In males, LH (or interstitial cell-stimulating hormone) stimulates the interstitial cells of Leydig
in the testis. This hormone is essential for the secretion of testosterone from Leydig cells.
 In females, LH causes maturation of vesicular follicles into Graafian follicles along with FSH.
It induces the synthesis of androgens from theca cells of growing follicles. It is responsible for
ovulation and the formation of the corpus luteum.
Sembulingam & Sembulingam, Essential of Medical Physiology, 6th edition, section 6, ch.66 p 381
69. Which can differentiate between Seizure and Syncope?
a. Unconsciousness
b. Injury due to fall
c. Urinary incontinence
d. Tongue bite
Correct Answer: d. Tongue bite
Explanation: The term syncope refers to sudden loss of consciousness due to reduced cerebral
perfusion. Cardiac syncope is usually sudden but can be associated with premonitory light-headedness,
palpitation or chest discomfort. The blackout is usually brief and recovery rapid. Patient with seizure do
not exhibit pallor, may have abnormal movement, usually takes more than 5 minutes to recover and are
often confused.

70. A patient is Hepatitis HBs Ag and HBe Ag Positive, which of the following is true about this
patient?
a. Acute Hepatitis B
b. Hepatitis E Infection
c. Chronic Hepatitis B
d. Co-infection of HBV with HEV
Correct Answer: a. Acute Hepatitis B
Explanation:
 HBs Ag (hepatitis B surface antigen or Australia antigen) appears early in the blood after about 6
weeks of infection and its detection is an indicator of active HBV infection. It usually disappears in
3-6 months. Its persistence for more than 6 months implies a carrier state.
 HBe Ag is derived from core protein is present transiently (3-6 weeks) during an acute attack. Its
persistence beyond 10 weeks is indicative of the development of chronic liver disease and carrier
state.
Harsh Mohan, The textbook of pathology; 7th edition, sec. III, chapter19; p.592
71. Most common form of Arthritis is:
a. Rheumatoid Arthritis
b. Psoriatic Arthritis
c. Seronegative Arthritis
d. Osteo Arthritis
Correct Answer: d. Osteo Arthritis
Explanation: Osteoarthritis is by far the most common form of Arthritis. It is strongly associated with
ageing and is a major cause of pain and disability in older people.
72. Which of the following is the most common presenting symptom of non-cirrhotic Portal
hypertension?
a. Chronic liver failure
b. Ascites
c. Upper gastrointestinal bleeding
d. Endoscopy
Correct Answer: c. Upper gastrointestinal bleeding
Explanation:
 The normal portal venous pressure is quite low (10-15 mm saline). Portal hypertension occurs when
the portal pressure is above 30 mm saline.
 Non-cirrhotic portal fibrosis (NCPF) is a group of congenital and acquired diseases in which there is
localised or generalised hepatic fibrosis without nodular regenerative activity. The patients of NCPF
are relatively young as compared to those of cirrhosis and develop repeated bouts of haematemesis
in the course of the disease.

Harsh Mohan, The textbook of pathology; 7th edition, sec. III, chapter19; p.614-15
73. Which of the following is the characteristic of Osteoporosis?
a. Decrease in bone mass
b. Decrease in marrow content of bone
c. Decrease in mineralization of bone
d. Softening and deformity of bone
Correct Answer: a. Decrease in bone mass
Explanation: The defining feature of Osteoporosis is reduced bone density, which causes micro-
architectural deterioration of bone tissue and leads to an increased risk of fracture. This fracture can
affect any bones but the most common sites are the forearm (Colle’s fracture), spine and hip. It is most
common in postmenopausal women because of oestrogen deficiency.
Davidson’s Principle & practice of Medicine, 22nd edition, Part 2, chapter 25; P 1120
74. Gilbert syndrome is a disorder of:
a. Protein metabolism
b. Bilirubin metabolism
c. Lipid metabolism
d. Fructose metabolism
Correct Answer: b. Bilirubin metabolism
Explanation: Gilbert’s syndrome is autosomal dominant hereditary non-haemolytic unconjugated
hyperbilirubinaemia. It is characterized by decreased Glucuronyl transferase and bilirubin uptake. Its
clinical presentation is mild jaundice, especially with fasting, no treatment necessary.
Davidson’s Principle & practice of Medicine, 22nd edition, Part 2,chapter23; Pg No.937
75. “An autosomal dominant disorder, in which patches of skin totally devoid of pigment are
present at birth and usually remain unchanged throughout life”.
The above description belongs to:
a. Nevus depigmentosus
b. Vitiligo
c. Piebaldism
d. Albinism
Correct Answer: c. Piebaldism
Explanation: Piebaldism is a condition characterized by the absence of cells called melanocytes. In
certain areas of the skin and hair. Melanocytes produce the pigment melanin, which contributes to hair,
eye, and skin colour. The absence of melanocytes leads to patches of skin and hair that are lighter than
normal. Approximately 90 percent of affected individuals have a white section of hair near their front
hairline (a white forelock). The eyelashes, the eyebrows, and the skin under the forelock may also be
unpigmented.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Piebaldism

76. The term “Generic name” is used in place of:
a. Chemical name
b. Non-proprietary name
c. Proprietary name
d. Coded name
Correct Answer: b. Non-proprietary name
Explanation: in common parlance, the term “Generic name” is used in place of a Non-proprietary name.
Non-proprietary name is the name of a drug accepted by a competent scientific body/authority. E.g.
United State Adopted Name (USAN) by the USAN Council. Until the drug is included in a
pharmacopoeia, the Non-proprietary name may also be called the approved name. After the appearance
in the official publication, it becomes the official name.
KD Tripathi, Essential of medical pharmacology, 7th ed. 2013, JAYPEE, Ch.1, page3
Reason R
Assertion A: As, Cd, Cr, Pb and Hg are Heavy metals.
Reason R: These heavy metals are toxic.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the option given below:
Options:
a. Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is correct but R is not correct
d. A is not correct but R is correct
Correct Options: a. Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
Heavy metals are naturally occurring elements that have a high atomic weight and a density at least 5
times greater than that of water e.g arsenic (As), cadmium (Cd), lead (Pb), lithium (Li), Chromium (Cr),
mercury (Hg) etc. In biological systems, heavy metals have been reported to affect cellular organelles
and components. They interact with cell components such as DNA and nuclear proteins, causing DNA
damage and conformational changes that may lead to cell cycle modulation, carcinogenesis or apoptosis.
Tchounwou, P. B., Yedjou, C. G., Patlolla, A. K., & Sutton, D. J. (2012). Heavy metal toxicity and
the environment. Experientia supplementum (2012), 101, 133–164. https://doi.org/10.1007/978-3-
7643-8340-4_6
78. Given below are two statements:
Statements I: National Formulary of Unani Medicine and Unani Pharmacopeia of India are similar
official books.
Statements II: Pharmaceutical Standards of the compound formulation are not mentioned in the
National Formulary of Unani Medicine. Whereas Pharmaceutical Standards of the compound
formulation are mentioned in Unani Pharmacopeia of India.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the option given
below:
Correct Answer Correct Options: d. statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
Explanation: The Unani Pharmacopoeia Committee (U.P.C.) was reconstituted vide office order no. U.
20012/94-APC dated. 13th September 1994 by the Government of India. Ministry of Health and Family
Welfare, consisting of experts in various fields concerning the subject. The First Part of the National
Formulary of Unani Medicine, consisting of 441 compound formulations was published in 1984. Out of
500 formulations, the Previous Committee has selected 202 compound formulations for inclusion in the
second part of the National Formulary of Unani Medicine. The pharmacopoeial laboratory for Indian
medicine (PLIM) was established in Ghaziabad, UP, in 1970.
(National Formulary of Unani Medicine, Part-Ii Volume-I Part-Ii Volume-I, Page-preface,
Ministry of Health & Family Welfare Department of AYUSH, Government of India, New
The Unani Pharmacopoeia of India, Part-I Volume-V, Ministry of Health & Family Welfare
Department of AYUSH, Government of India, New)
79. Ummor-e-Tabiya are the factors on which human body exist:
(A) Arkan, Mizaj, Akhlat (D) Mizaj and Kafiyat
(B) Nabz, Bol, Baraz (E) Aza-e-badan only
(C) Qua and Afal
Options.
a. (A) only
b. (A) and (D) only
c. (A) and (C) only
d. (D) and (E) only
Correct Answer: (c)-(A) and (C) only
Explanation:
Umoor-e-Tabiya are the factors on which the human body exist, these are seven in number:
1. Arkan 2. Miza
̅ j 3. ‘Akhla
̅ t’ 4. A‘da’ 5. Arwaah 6.Quwā 7. Afa’l
Reference: Nafis B. Kulliyat-e-Nafisi. New Delhi: Idara Kitab-us-Shifa; 1954.
80. A’dal-fil-Qisma relates to:
Options:
a. Mizaj Motadil Haqeeqi
b. Mizaj Motadil Tibbi
c. Both
d. Luck by chance

Correct Answer: (b) Mizaj Motadil Tibbi
Explanation:
‫زماج‬
‫دتعمل‬
‫یبط‬
‫وک‬
‫دعل‬
‫یف‬
‫ت‬‫م‬‫س‬‫لق‬‫ا‬
‫ےتہک‬
‫ںیہ۔‬
‫سج‬
‫ےک‬
‫ینعم‬
‫میسقت‬
‫ںیم‬
‫دعل‬
‫و‬
‫ااصنف‬
‫رکےن‬
‫ےک‬
‫ںیہ۔‬
‫اس‬
‫ےس‬
‫رماد‬
‫ہی‬
‫ےہ‬
‫ہک‬
‫رمبک‬
‫وک‬
‫انعرص‬
‫ےس‬
‫احلبظ‬
‫تیمک‬
‫و‬
‫تیفیک‬
‫ضحم‬
‫اینت‬
‫دقمار‬
‫ںیم‬
‫ےلم‬
‫ینتج‬
‫اس‬
‫ےک‬
‫زماج‬
‫ےک‬
‫ےئل‬
‫انمبس‬
‫وہ‬
‫۔‬
‫یلع‬‫اعدب‬‫و‬‫ااصنری‬‫ہیعیبط۔دبعالبیسحل‬‫اومر‬
‫ئ‬ ،‫ءافش‬‫ا‬ ‫بات‬ ‫ااصنری۔ادار‬
‫دیلہ۔ااشتع‬
2102
‫۔ہفص‬
97
‫۔‬
81. Al-Qanoon Fil-Tibb is an original work of:
Options:
a. Ali bin Abbas Majusi
b. Ali bin Hussain Bin Abdullah Sina
c. Shamsuddin Chugmani
d. Allauddin Qureshi
Correct Answer: (b) Ali bin Hussain Bin Abdullah Sina
Explanation:
Ibn Sina (Full name was Abū ʿAlī al-Ḥusayn bin ʿAbdullāh ibn al-Ḥasan bin ʿAlī bin Sīnā al-Balkhi al-
Bukhari )‫البخاري‬ ‫البلخي‬ ‫سينا‬ ‫بن‬ ‫علي‬ ‫بن‬ ‫الحسن‬ ‫بن‬ ‫الله‬ ‫عبد‬ ‫بن‬ ‫الحسين‬ ‫علي‬ ‫)أبو‬ was a famous Persian polymath of
the Islamic golden age. He was born in Isfahan, a village near Bukhara, the capital of the Samanids,
(Uzbekistan). The first appointment of Ibn Sina was as a physician of the emir Nuh II of the Samanid
Empire. In the last ten or twelve years of his life, he serves the Kakuyid ruler Muhammad ibn Rustam
Dushmanziyar. In June 1037 he died at the age of 56 years in the month of Ramadan and was buried in
Hamdan, Iran. It is believed that he has written 450 works on medicine, logic, philosophy, psychology,
mathematics, physics, alchemy, astronomy, geography, geology, Islamic theology, and poetry, out of
these 240 have survived including 150 on philosophy and 40 on medicine. On the subject of medicine,
his treatise Kitab al-Qanoon fil Tibb (The Canon of Medicine) gains much popularity.
Saffari M, Pakpour A. Avicenna’s Canon of Medicine: A Look at Health, Public Health, and
Environmental Sanitation. Arch Iran Med. 2012;15(12):785–9.
https://www.loc.gov/item/2021666183
82. Individuals having Damvi Temprament have pulse:
(A) Qawi and Azeem (D) Qawi and Zaeef
(B) Qawi and Sarie (E) Sarie and Bati
(C) Bati and Zaeef
Options:
a. (B) only
b. (C) only
c. (A) and (B) only
d. (A) only
Correct Answer: d. (A) only
Explanation:

Mizāj Haar Damvi is Qawi, Azeem and layeen; Mizāj Haar Safrawi is sager, sarie, matawatir and salab;
Mizāj HaarTabbi is Azeem and Qawi; Mizāj Haar ghair Tabbi is sager, sarie and matawatir.
S. Habibur Rahman, Kulliyat Nabz Bolo Baraz, Qumi council bare frog urdue zuban, N.Delhi, 2nd
edi. 1999, Page115
Reason R.
Assertion A: Sin-e-Zihaq and Sine-e- Fata are a subtype of Sin-e-Numu
Reason R: Because, both in Sin-e-Zihaq and Sine-e- Fata, the growth and development of individuals
are progressive towards adulthood.
Options:
Correct Options: (a). Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation: Human life is broadly divided into 4-stages. These are given below in the table -
Sl.
No
Age Period Mizāj (temperament) Dominated
humour
1 Growing age (Sinn-i- Numū) Birth to 30 year Hārr Raṭb (hot moist) Blood
2 Adulthood (Sinn-i-Shabāb) 30 – 40 year HārrYābis (hot moist) Yellow Bile
3 Age of decline (Sinn-i- Kuhūlat) 40 – 60 year Bārid Yābis (cold dry) Black Bile
4 Senility (Sinn-i-Shaykhūkhat) 60 to till death Bārid Raṭb (cold moist) Phlegm
Growing age: (Sinn-i- Numū) is further divided into five sub-stages.
a. Infancy/ crawling age (Sinn-i-t̩ufu
̅ lat): This stage is up to four years of age.
b. Babyhood (Sinn-i-s̩ aba
̅ ): This stage is up to seven-year of age.
c. Childhood (Sinn-i-tara ̒ru
̒ ): This stage is up to thirteen years of age. The teeth have fully erupted.
d. Puberty or Juvenility (Sinn-i-galamiyat wa riha
̅ q): Appearances of secondary sexual characteristics
like beard, moustache begins.
e. Youth (Sinn-i-fata
̅ ): The puberty completed. This is the period up to the limit of body
growth.
Avicenna. The Canon of Medicine of Avicenna. Gruner C, editor. NEW YORK: AMS PRESS;
1930. Page 68-69
84. Following are some statements about temperament:
(A) Motadil Nau’ and Motadil sinfi are types of Motadil Tibbi
(B) Aza-e-Mufrida and Aza Murakkab are types of Mizaj Mtadil Haqeeqi

(C) Motadil Haqeeqi is dominant on earth
(D) Simple intermixing occurs in Mizaj Motadil Tibbi and Haqeeqi
(E) No intermixing occurs in Mizaj Motadil Tibbi
Options:
a. (B) and (C) are correct
b. (C) and (E) are correct
c. only(C) is correct
d. only (A) is correct
Correct Options: d. only (A) is correct
Explanation:
When the contrary quality and quantity of participating Arkān in a compound are not equal instead they
are just and perfectly balanced according to required properties and functions of that compound; then it
is called as Mizaj Motadil Tibbi (Equable temperament medic): There are 8- types of miza
̅ j mu’tadil
T
̩ ibbi. Miza
̅ j Motadil Nau’, Motadil sinfi, Motadil sakhsi and Motadil uzwi are types of miza
̅ j mu’tadil
T
̩ ibbi.
Avicenna. The Canon of Medicine of Avicenna. Gruner C, editor. NEW YORK: AMS PRESS;
1930. Page 68-69
85. In the lungs alveoli, Ruh gets separated from the air and absorbed into the blood, by which
of the following Quwa?
Options:
a. Quwat-e-nafsania
b. Quwat-e-Munfaiyla
c. Quwat-e-Saukiya
d. Quwat-e-Mumayizah
Correct Option: (d) Quwat-e-Mumayizah
86. Nuqra is an example of:
a. Mizaj Sani Mustahkam
b. Mizaj Sani Ghair Mustahkam Rikhu Muthlaq
c. Mizaj Sani Ghair Mustahkam Rikhu Jiddan
d. Mizaj Sani Ghair Mustahkam Rikhu ba Ifrat
Correct Answer: a. Mizaj Sani Mustahkam
Explanation:
‫اثین‬‫زماج‬
‫ازجا‬‫ےک‬‫نج‬‫یہ‬‫اجات‬‫اپای‬‫ںیم‬‫ادوہی‬‫ان‬
‫ۓ‬
‫ےہ۔‬‫وہات‬‫وموجد‬‫اول‬‫زماج‬‫ںیم‬‫رتیبیک‬
‫اث‬‫زماج‬‫ںیہ۔‬‫دوںیمسق‬‫یک‬‫اثین‬‫زماج‬‫ےس‬‫احلظ‬‫ےک‬‫ااکحتسم‬‫دعم‬‫اور‬‫ااکحتسم‬
‫اثین‬‫زماج‬‫اور‬‫ مکحتس‬‫ین‬
‫ریغ‬
‫ مکحتس‬
‫۔‬
‫اثین‬‫زماج‬‫وک‬‫زماج‬‫ےک‬‫مسق‬‫اس‬‫وت‬‫وہں‬‫ہن‬‫اگل‬‫یھب‬‫ےس‬‫اچنہپےن‬‫رحارت‬‫زیت‬‫یک‬‫آگ‬‫ازجا‬‫یک‬‫اثین‬‫زماج‬‫ارگ‬
‫ںیہ‬‫ےتہک‬‫ مکحتس‬
‫۔‬
Usool e tibb, Page no308.

87. The shelf-life of samaghiyaat is:
a. Five years
b. Three years
c. Seven years
d. Nine years
Correct Answer: b. Three years
Explanation: Shelf life of advia mufrada are different according to their mahiyat.
‫ابنیت‬
،‫دوا‬
‫ےک‬
(‫ںیہ۔‬‫وہےت‬‫ےک‬‫مسق‬ ‫ایگر‬،‫ازجا‬
0
‫)وگدن‬
(
2
‫)اصعر‬
(
3
‫)وھپل‬
(
4
‫)رونغ‬
(
5
‫دودھ‬)
(
6
‫ےتپ‬)
(
9
‫لھپ‬)
(
8
‫مخت‬)
(
7
‫اشخ‬)
(
01
‫ڑج‬)
(
00
‫(اھچل)۔‬‫وپتس‬)
‫نیت‬‫وگدن‬
‫ر‬‫ابیق‬‫كت‬‫اسل‬‫دس‬‫وقت‬‫یک‬‫دودھ‬‫ارثك‬ ‫ںیہ‬‫رےتہ‬‫وقی‬‫كت‬‫اسل‬‫دو‬‫ےس‬‫اكی‬‫ےتپ‬‫اور‬‫وھپل‬ ‫ےہ‬‫راتہ‬‫وقی‬‫مك‬‫ےس‬‫اس‬ ‫اصعر‬ ‫ںیہ‬‫رےتہ‬‫وقی‬‫كت‬‫اسل‬
‫یتہ‬
‫اصو‬‫رونغ‬‫ابرد‬ ‫ےہ‬
‫ابدام‬ ‫ںیہ‬‫رےتہ‬‫ابیق‬‫كت‬‫اسل‬‫دو‬‫ےس‬‫اكی‬‫رونغ‬‫ایسب‬‫اور‬‫ربط‬‫رگم‬‫ںیہ۔‬‫اجےت‬‫وہ‬‫افدس‬‫ںیم‬‫ہتفہ‬‫نیت‬‫دو‬‫رونغ‬‫ربط‬
‫ریثك‬ ‫وریغ‬ ‫ہتسپ‬
‫رےتہ‬‫ابیق‬‫كت‬‫اسل‬‫اكی‬‫ا ن‬‫م ےكل‬‫اچ ے‬‫لھپ‬‫روپ ی‬
‫وریغ‬‫ینیچ‬‫دار‬ ‫دروجن‬ ‫وچپ‬‫زرد‬ ‫طسق‬ ‫ےہ‬‫وہیت‬‫فلتخم‬‫ےس‬‫اابتعر‬‫ےک‬‫وجرہ‬‫زمكور‬‫اور‬‫تسس‬ ‫تخس‬‫ےک‬‫ان‬،‫اقب‬‫دمت‬‫یک‬‫وپتس‬ ‫ڑج‬ ‫اشخ‬ ‫ںیہ‬
‫ےک‬
‫ابیق‬‫كت‬‫اسل‬‫دس‬‫وقت‬‫یک‬،‫دوا‬‫تخس‬‫نا دن‬
‫لہسم‬‫دار‬‫رعوق‬‫اور‬‫ےہ۔رہشی‬‫ریتہ‬
‫ےہ۔‬‫ریتہ‬‫وقی‬‫كت‬‫اسل‬‫نیت‬،‫دوا‬
Azam Khan. Muheet Azam; CCRUM, New Delhi, 2012, vol.1Page.128
88. An important formulation of Reg Mahi is:
a. Habb-e-Muquil
b. Habb-e-Mulazziz
c. Habb-e-Mumsik
d. Habb-e-Mun’ish
Correct Answer: d. Habb-e-Mun’ish
Explanation:
 Principle component (juz-e-khas) of Habb-e-Muquil is Muquil.
 Principle component (juz-e-khas) of Habb-e-Mulazziz is Aqar Qarha.
 Principle component (juz-e-khas) of Habb-e-Mumsik is Afiyoon.
 Principle component (juz-e-khas) of Habb-e-Mun’ish is Reg Mahi.
Zillurrahman S. Kitabul Murakkabat, Ibn Sina Academy, Aligarh: 2002; Pg no. 65-67
89. Which of the following is a Musaffi Dam drug?
a. Satar Farsi
b. Sahjana
c. Shahttra
d. Shaqaqul Misri
Correct Answer: c. Shahttra
Explanation:
Musaffi Dam drugs are: Abnoos (Diospyros ebenum), Amba Haldi (Curcuma amada Roxb.), Haldi
(Curcuma longa L.), Babchi (Psoralea corylifolia L.), Bakain (Melia azedarach L.), Hina (Lawsonia
inermis L.), Beramdandi ( Tricholepsis glaberrima DC.), Chalmugra (Hednocarpus laurifolia), Chiraeta
(Swertia chirata L.), Chob Chini (Smilex China) Unnab (Ziziphus vulgaris Lam.)

Muaddil-e-Dam drug are: Unnab (Ziziphus vulgaris Lam.), Gule surkh (Rosa damascene Mill.)
Habis-e-Dam drugs are: Abnoos (Diospyros ebenum), Anjabar (polygonum bistorta L.)
Mane Injemad-ud-Dam (Anticoagulants): Chiraeta, Kutki
Munjammid (Coagulants): Samagh-e-Arabi, Kateera, Kahruba, Ajwain Khurasani, Shib e yamani,
Kils (lime), Sang-e-jarahat (Soap stone)
Abdul Wadud, T.B of Single Drugs, front line publication, Hyderabad, 1st edi.2021, Ch.2, p.67
90 Given below are two statements-
Statements I: Samagh-e-Dhaak is also known as Kamar Kas
Statements II: because of its usefulness in backache
Correct Answer: (a) Both statements I and statement II are true.
Explanation:
Samagh-e-Dhak is derived from the plant Butea monosperma Lam. It is also known as ‫رمکسک‬ & ‫وگدن‬‫اینچ‬
Asad Husain S, Afzal Husain S. Azalul Mufradat. New Delhi: Idara Kitabus Shifa, 2021.
91. Azraqi is suffixed to which of the following drugs:
a. Muqil
b. Kundur
c. Ushaq
d. Loban
Correct Answer: a. Muqil
Explanation:
‫ےہ۔‬‫دیتی‬‫رک‬‫دبتلی‬‫ںیم‬‫تفخ‬‫ےہ‬‫وہیت‬ ‫زاید‬‫ےس‬‫رضورت‬‫وج‬‫وک‬‫دحت‬‫یک‬‫ومرث‬‫زج‬‫رک‬‫لم‬‫اسھت‬‫ےک‬‫ایلص‬‫دوا‬ ‫حلصم‬‫دوا‬
Usool e Tbb, pg no. 383.
List I List II
A. Azraqi I. Papaverine
B. Afiyun II. Anthraquinone
C. Rewandchini III. Cannabinol
D. Qinnab IV. Strychnine
Options:

a. (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
b. (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
c. (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
d. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
Correct Answer: b. (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
Explanation:
Chemicals in Azraqi (Nux-vomica): Strychnine, Brucine, Vomicine, Alpha and beta colubrine,
condylocarpine, diaboline, geissoschizine, normacusine, novacine, psudobrucine etc.
Chemicals in Afiyun (Opium): morphine, codeine, thebian, papaverine, Noscapine, narceine etc.
Chemicals in Rewandchini (Rhubarb): mainly contain free anthraquinone, their glycoside, glycorhein,
emodin, chrysophenol, emodin, palmidine B and C. etc.
Chemicals in Qinnab (Indian hemp): Resin-cannabinol, tetrahydrocannabinol, cannabidiol,
cannabigerol, choline, spermidine flavonoid, etc
Abdul Wadud, T.B of Single Drugs, front line publication, Hyderabad, 1st edi.2021.
Reason R
Assertion A: Daw-e-Motadil does not produce any abnormal kaifiyat after administration into the body,
which becomes higher or lower than the normal body’s temperament.
Reason R: because the kaifiyat of the Daw-e-Motadil exist similar to normal body kaifiyat.
Options:
c. A is correct but R is incorrect
Correct Options: (a) Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.
94. Which of the following is not an animal origin drug?
a. Shakar Teeghal
b. Kafe e Darya
c. Lodh Pathani
d. Shakh Ghozan
Correct Options: Lodh Pathani
Explanation: Lodh Pathani is of herbal origin. It is the bark of lodh tree (Symplocos racemosa).
Shakar Teeghal is an insect Cocoon, Shakh Ghozan (Staghorn) is an antler and Kafe e Darya (Cuttle
fishbone) is the internal shell of cuttle fish. All three are of animal origin.
Abdul Wadud, T.B of Single Drugs, front line publication, Hyderabad, 1st edi.2021.

95. The following are oral antidiabetic drugs, identify one that is not included in Sulfonylurea
group?
a. Tolbutamide
b. Glibenclamide
c. Metformin
d. Glipizide
Correct Options: c. Metformin
Explanation:
Tolbutamide, Glibenclamide and Glipizide are oral antidiabetic drugs belonging to Sulfonylurea group.
96. Turanjabeen acts by virtue of:
a. Mus’hil bil Izabat
b. Mus’hil bil Izlaaq
c. Mus’hil bil Asar
d. Mus’hil bil Lila wa Taqtee
Correct Options: a. Mus’hil bil Izabat
97. Match the list I with List II
List I List II
A. Anqrooya Saghir I. Sual muzmin
B. Habbe Shifa II. Amraze Gurda wa Masanah
C. Sharbate Sadar III. Amraze Balghamiya
D. Sharbate Bazoori Motadil IV. De-addiction of opium
Options:-
a. (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
b. (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
c. (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
d. (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
Correct Answer: b. (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
Explanation: list I have formulations (murakkabat) whereas list II represents their uses.
98. Match the list I with List II
Options:-
a. (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)

b. (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
c. (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
d. (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
Correct Answer: d. (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
Explanation:
List I shows different formulations (murakkabat) and list II represents their principal uses (Nafa-Khas).
99. The author of ‘Minhajud Dukan Wa Dastoorul Ayan fi Amal wa Tarkeebul Advia’ is:
a. Mohammad bin Khajandi
b. Najeebuddin Samarqandi
c. Abu Nasr Attar Israili
d. Mohammad bin Zakaria Razi
Correct Answer: Abu Nasr Attar Israili
Reason R
Assertion A: Absorption of Kushtajat are swift as compared to other drugs, and they are more fast-
acting.
Reason R: Because due to calcination process metals/ minerals are converted into nanoparticles,
therefore, their absorption is swift and their actions are fast.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the option given below –
Options:
c. A is correct but R is not correct
Correct Options: a. Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
‫اک‬‫زابن‬‫افریس‬‫ہتشک‬
‫ےہ‬"‫وہا‬‫"نارا‬‫ینعم‬‫یک‬‫سج‬‫ےہ‬‫ظفل‬
‫ےس‬‫اس‬‫ےہ۔‬‫اجات‬‫رکیانای‬‫ ال‬‫ےس‬‫رت بی‬ ‫صا‬‫اكی‬‫ ےس‬‫ےہ‬‫دوا‬ ‫و‬‫ہتشک‬ ‫حر‬‫اس‬‫۔‬
‫ےک‬‫دوا‬
‫ااضہف‬‫ںیم‬‫ولمع‬‫اتریث‬‫یک‬‫اس‬‫اور‬ ‫اذجنا‬
‫ےہ‬‫وہاجات‬
‫۔‬
Zillurrahman S. Kitabul Murakkabat, Ibn Sina Academy, Aligarh: 2002; Pg no. 65-67.
List I List II
A. Intasabi I. Jarb wo Hikkah
B. Habbe Qooba II. Taqwiate Bah
C. Majoon Baladur III. Daad
D. Roghane Hanzal IV. Damaah

Reason R
Assertion A: Amber is incorporated in a formulation during slow heating at a later stage.
Reason R: Because Amber evaporates at higher temperatures.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the option given below –
Options:
b. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.
List I List II
A. Qurse Kafoor I. Muqqavi Aasab
B. Qurse Haabis II. Muharike Rutubaat Maida
C. Johrare Seen III. Mubarrid
D. Jawarishe Falafil IV. Habise Dam
Options:-
a. (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
b. (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
c. (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
d. (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
Correct Answer: c. (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
Explanation:
List I shows different formulations (murakkabat) and list II represents their principal uses (Nafa-Khas).
Options:
List I List II
A. Effective in Khafqan wa Baswas I. Khamira Khaskhas
B. Remove Khushki-e-Dimagh II. Khamira Abresham shire Unnabwala
C. Effective in Malekholia III. Khamira Banafsha
D. Prevent Nazlae Haar IV. Khamira Abresham Ood Mastaghiwala

a. (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
b. (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
c. (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
d. (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
Correct Answer: a. (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
Explanation:
List I shows principle uses (Nafa-Khas) and list II represents formulations (murakkabat).
104. Which is the sixth one in the Asbab-e-sitta Zaruriyah?
a. Nawm wa Yaqza
b. Hawa –e- Muheet
c. Istifragh wa Ihtebas
d. Harkat wa Sukoon Nafsani
Correct Answer: c. Istifragh wa Ihtebas
Explanation:
Asbab-e-sitta Zaruriyah are 1. Hawa –e- Muheet, 2. Maqool wo masroob 3. Harkat wa Sukoon Badni
4. Harkat wa Sukoon Nafsani 5. Nawm wa Yaqza 6. Istifragh wa Ihtebas
Nafis B. Kulliyat-e-Nafisi (Urdu Translation by Hkm Mohd Kabiruudin). New Delhi, India:
Idarakitab al Shifa; 1954. Page188
105. Excess of Sukoon (rest) causes what effect on the body?
a. Hararat
b. Burudat
c. Rutubat
d. Yabusat
Correct Answer b. Burudat
Explanation:
Aetiology of Burudat are: (1) Excess of Sukoon, (2) Excess of activity also resolution (tahalul) of
hararat ghariziya and causes burudat. (3) Excessive diet and drink (4) extremely small diet (5) Ghazaye
barid and dawa-e-barid.
Aetiology of Hararat are a moderate amount of diet, moderate activity, moderate exercise, dalak
motadil, dry cupping.
Aetiology of Rutubat are rest, sleeping (sleeping has the same effect as rest), accumulation of normal
metabolic waste, excess of diet, motadil hammam, farhate motadil, Rutubat producing diet and drink.
Aetiology of Yabusat are activity, sleeplessness, excessive psychological stress and strain, intercourse,
dryness causing diet and drugs.
Ibn Sina, Kullyate Qanoon, (Urdu by Kabiruddin), Idra Kitabus Shifa 2015.Page.190
106. Riyazat strengthens which of these?
a. Arkan

b. Akhlat
c. A’zaa
d. Arwah
Correct Answer: c. A’zaa
Explanation:
Riyazat (Exercise):  It hardens the organs and renders them fit for their functions  It results in better
absorption of food, aids assimilation, and by increasing the innate heat, improves nutrition  It clears
the pores of the skin  It removes effete substances through the lungs  Strengthen the physique.
Hippocrates wrote that Riyazat helps in strengthening muscles, improving mental attitude, decreasing
obesity.
Ibn Sina, Kullyate Qanoon, (Urdu by Kabiruddin), Idra Kitabus Shifa 2015.
107. Takaan wa Takassur (Tiredness/Fatigue) can be relieved by which of the following type of
Dalk?
a. Dalk-e-Khashin
b. Dalk-e-Amlas
c. Dalk-e-Iste’dad
d. Dalk-e-Istardad
Correct Answer: d. Dalk-e-Istardad
Explanation: Dalk-e-Istardad should be done before exercise and Dalake isterdad after exercise. The
best time for exercise is during the moderate condition of the body. Before exercise the intestine and
urinary bladder should be empty.
Ibn Sina. Kulliyat Qanoon. 2006. New Delhi: Ejaz Publishing House; 2006.
108. Correctly match the following adverse effect of Qai (emesis) in List I with their
appropriate management in list II.
List I List II
A. Qai does not occur after taking muqi (emetic) I. Zood-e-hazm shorba (easily digestible
curry)
B. Pain beneath the ribs (epigastric region) II. Try to induce sneezing
C. Burning sensation in the stomach III. Huqna
D. Hiccups IV. Takore with warm water, hijamah
nariya
Options:-
a. (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
b. (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
c. (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)
d. (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
Correct Answer: a. (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)

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