Class 9 Assessment Test for English, Maths and Science

Class 9 - Super 100: Assessment - SET A - 1
SET - A
Class 9
Name: ____________________________ Date: ___________ Max. marks: 60 Time: 60 mins.
Instructions:
• The question paper contains 60 questions.
• All questions carry equal marks.
• Each question has FOUR options - (a), (b), (c), and (d). ONLY ONE of these options is correct.
• For each question, choose the most suitable option.
• There is no negative marking.
English
Fill in the blanks.
1) Neither the old man nor his sons _______ willing to sell the cow.
(a) is (b) are
(c) will be (d) isn’t
2) You can tell a movie is poorly made when many in the audience _________.
(a) is sleeping (b) sleeps
(c) are sleeping (d) slept
3) Where is he? I _________ for him since three o’clock!
(a) am waiting (b) was waiting
(c) had been waiting (d) have been waiting
4) An honest person usually _________ the truth.
(a) will speak (b) spoke
(c) has spoken (d) speaks
5) Everyone _________ when the earthquake hit the small town.
(a) was sleeping (b) had been sleeping
(c) has been sleeping (d) will have been sleeping
Super 100

6) Either Rahim or I _______ always late for class.
(a) is (b) are
(c) were (d) am
7) The film ________ in New York next week.
(a) opens (b) open
(c) opening (d) opened
8) Sachin Tendulkar is referred to as _________ Donald Bradman of India.
(a) a (b) an
(c) the (d) None of the above
9)
We could barely get any information at the airport. _________ people seemed to have
_______ idea about the flights.
(a) A lot of, any (b) Only a few, some
(c) Many, any (d) Few, no
10) Which of the following sentences do NOT need an article in the blanks provided?
Sentence 1: ____________ Emani Sabharwal was declared the winner of the match.

Sentence 2: I had the opportunity to explore different parts of __________ India during
my last trip.
(a) Only Sentence 1 (b) Only Sentence 2
(c) Both Sentence 1 and Sentence 2 (d) Neither Sentence 1 nor Sentence 2

Math
11)
In the adjoining figure, PT and QT are angle bisectors P S
Q R
T
of ∠P and ∠Q. They meet at point T inside the
parallelogram PQRS. Then 2 (∠PTQ) is equal to:
(a)
∠P + ∠R (b)
∠R + ∠S
(c)
∠Q + ∠S (d) 2∠R
12) A factory owner has a heap of wheat of quantity expressed as the polynomial
4x3
+ 2x2
+ 14x − 3. He intends to distribute it evenly among all his workers in the
quantity expressed in terms of another polynomial (2x − 1) and keep the remaining
units of wheat with himself. How many units of wheat will the owner take home after
the distribution?
(a) 5 units (b) 2 units
(c) 0 units (d) 3 units
13)
Two chords PR and PQ of a circle subtend angles equal to 90°
and 150°, respectively, at the centre O. If PR and PQ are the
adjacent chords, then find the value of ∠RPQ.
(a) 90° (b) 30°
(c) 180° (d) 60°
14) A park PQRS is in the shape of a parallelogram such
that PQ = SR, PQ ∥ RS, and PS = QR and PS ∥ QR. Later,
this park is converted into a rectangular shape
by adding land in the form of △PAS and △QBR.
A
x
n
y
m
P
S
110°
Q
R
B
Find the value of ∠n.
(a) 70° (b) 20°
(c) 60° (d) 100°

15)
Jenny wanted to make a conical tent with a vertical height of 12 m and a base radius
of 16 m. How many metres of cloth of 1.1 m in width will she need? (Take π =
22
7
)
(a) 942.1 m (b) 914.2 m
(c) 991 m (d) 899.1 m
16) As shown in the figure, two concentric circles
with centre O have P, Q, R, and S as the points of
intersection with the line y. If PS = 12 cm and
QR = 8 cm, then find the lengths PQ, RS, PR, and QS
P y
Q
O
R
M S
(a) PQ = 4 cm RS = 2 cm
PR = 1 cm QS = 10 cm
(b) PQ = 2 cm RS = 2 cm
PR = 5 cm QS = 1 cm
(c) PQ = 2 cm RS = 2 cm
PR = 10 cm QS = 10 cm
(d) PQ = 4 cm RS = 4 cm
PR = 1 cm QS = 1 cm
17) If x1
, x2
, x3
, … xn
, are the means of n groups with n1
, n2
, … , nn
number of observations
respectively, then the mean x of all the groups taken together is given by:
(a)
∑
n
ni
xi
i = 1
(b)
∑
n
ni
xi
i = 1
n2
(c) ∑
∑
n
n
ni
xi
i = 1
i = 1
ni
(d)
2n
∑
n
ni
xi
i = 1
18) In the given figure, ∠LNP = 40° and ∠MPO = 120°.
The value of ∠NMO is
(a) 70° (b) 20°
(c) 40° (d) 100°
O
N
M
L
P
120°
40°

19)
In a right-angled triangle PQR, Y and Z are the midpoints
of the sides PQ and PR, respectively. If X is the midpoint
of the hypotenuse, find the ratio of the areas of the
triangle PQR and the rectangle PYXZ.
R
Z
X
P
Y
Q
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 1 : 2
(c) 3 : 1 (d) 1 : 3
20)
A piece of paper in the shape of a right-angled triangle is cut along a line that is parallel
to the hypotenuse, leaving a smaller triangle. There was a 35% reduction in the length
of the hypotenuse of the triangle. If the area of the original triangle was 34 square
inches. What is the area (in square inches) of the smaller triangle?
(a) 16.665 (b) 16.565
(c) 15.465 (d) 14.365
21)
A room has the following dimensions: 10 m × 10 m × 5 m. What is the length of the
longest straight line that you can draw connecting any two vertices of the room?
(a) 15 m (b) 10 m
(c) 25 m (d) 20 m
22)
PQ and RS are two parallel chords of a circle such that
PQ = 10 cm and RS = 24 cm. If the chords are on the
opposite sides of the centre and the distance between
them is 17 cm, the radius of the circle is: 17
P
R
A
B
O
r
r
Q
S
(a) 13 cm (b) 14 cm
(c) 11 cm (d) 15 cm
23)
A storage tank is in the form of a cube. When it is full of water, the volume is 15.625
m3
. If the present depth of water is 1.3 m, what volume of water has been used up
already?
(a) 1.25 m3
(b) 17.5 m3
(c) 6.25 m3
(d) 7.5 m3

24)
In a triangle ABC, AB = 6, BC = 8, and AC = 10. A perpendicular dropped from B meets
the side AC at D. A circle of radius BD (with centre B) is drawn. If the circle cuts AB
and BC at P and Q, respectively, then AP:QC is equal to:
(a) 1:1 (b) 3:2
(c) 4:1 (d) 3:8
25)
Let A and B be two solid spheres such that the surface area of B is 300% higher than
the surface area of A. The volume of A is found to be k% lower than the volume of B.
The value of k must be:
(a) 85.5 (b) 92.5
(c) 90.5 (d) 87.5
26)
In the given figure, ABCD is a square and CDE is an equilateral
triangle. Find the value of ∠EBC.
(a) 60° (b) 15°
(c) 45° (d) 30°

E
D
A
C
B
27)
The length of a ladder is exactly equal to the height of the wall it is leaning against.
If the lower end of the ladder is kept on a stool of height 3 feet and the stool is kept
9 feet away from the wall, the upper end of the ladder coincides with the top of the
wall. Then the height of the wall is:
(a) 12 feet (b) 15 feet
(c) 18 feet (d) 11 feet
28) If x, y, and z be distinct integers, that are odd and positive.
Which of the following statements cannot be true?
(a)
xyz2
is odd. (b) (x – y)2
z is even.
(c) (x + y – z)2
(x + y) is even. (d) (x – y)(y + z)(x + y – z) is odd.
29) If n is such that 36  n  72, then x =
n 2
+ 2√n (n + 4) + 16
n + 4√n + 4
satisfies:
(a) 20  x  54 (b) 23  x  58
(c) 25  x  64 (d) 28  x  60

30)
The linear equation that converts Fahrenheit (F) to Celsius (C) is given by the relation

C =
5F − 160
9
. If the temperature is 0°C, what is the temperature in Fahrenheit, and if
the temperature is 0°F, what is the temperature in Celsius?
(a) F = 32° and C = 40° (b) F = 32° and C =
−160
9
°
(c) F = 40° and C = −160° (d) F = 102° and C =
−160
9
°
31) In the given figure, find the value of ∠PRS, if PQ ∥ ST.
(a) 90° (b) 45°
(c) 60° (d) 70°
P
S
Q
T
R
30°
40°
32)
If the expression ax2
+ 5x + b has two roots as x = 2
and x =
1
2
,then
(a)
a ≠ b (b)
a b
(c)
a b (d)
a = b
33)
Assertion (A): A random experiment has two events. If one of the events is an
impossible event, then the probability of the other event is 1.
Reason (R): In a random experiment, the sum of probabilities of all the events is 1.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
34)
Find the length of each side of the rhombus whose lengths of diagonals are 16 cm and
12 cm.
(a) 16 cm (b) 12 cm
(c) 10 cm (d) 9 cm

35)
If x represents the mean of n observations x1
, x2
, ..., xn
then ∑
n
i = 1
(xi
– x) + 1 is equal to:
(a) –1 (b) 0
(c) 1 (d) n–1
Science
36)
A boy projects a body vertically upwards from the ground with an initial velocity ‘v’. At
a point P, the kinetic energy of the body is nine times its potential energy. If the boy
projects the same body with half the previous velocity, then at the same point P, the
ratio of its potential energy to its kinetic energy will be:
(a) 1:9 (b) 3:2
(c) 2:3 (d) 4:9
37) The given image shows a person drawing water from a well by pulling a rope.

Which of the following statements is correct with respect to the work done by the
person drawing the water, and the work done by gravity?
(a) Work done by the person is negative and that by the gravity is positive.
(b) Work done by both is positive.
(c) Work done by both is negative.
(d) Work done by the person is positive and that by the gravity is negative.

38)
Water from a lake is used by a hydroelectric power station to generate electricity.
The lake is situated at a height of 150 m from the turbines of the hydroelectric power
station. If electricity is generated with 60% efficiency, calculate the mass of the water
which flows through the turbine each second to produce a power output of
0.05 MW. (Take g = 10m/s2
.)
(a) 0.83 kg (b) 83.33 kg
(c) 0.56 kg (d) 55.56 kg
39)
A group of scientists observed that a feather and a stone, when dropped in vacuum
from the same height, reached the surface of the earth at the same time and with the
same velocity. Based on this observation, the following conclusions were made about
bodies falling freely towards the surface of the earth in vacuum.
(i) All freely falling bodies travel the same distance in the same interval of time.
(ii) The velocity of a freely falling body remains constant.
(iii)
Acceleration produced in a body falling freely towards the surface of the earth
does not depend on the mass of the body.
(iv) The motion of a freely falling body is a non-uniformly accelerated motion.
Which of the above conclusions are correct?
(a) (i), (ii), and (iii) (b) only (iii)
(c) (i) and (iii) (d) (iii) and (iv)
40)
Beaker A and Beaker B are two identical beakers. Beaker A has sea water and Beaker
B has river water. A cube of side 8 cm is immersed in the two beakers up to the
same level. F1
and F2
are the upthrusts acting on the cube in Beaker A and Beaker B,
respectively. Which of the following statements are correct?
(i) The apparent weight of the cube is more in Beaker A than in Beaker B.
(ii) The apparent weight of the cube is more in Beaker B than in Beaker A.
(iii) F1
will increase if the cube of side 8 cm is replaced with an identical cube of side
5 cm which is immersed up to the same level.
(iv) F2
will decrease if the cube of side 8 cm is replaced with an identical cube of side
5 cm which is immersed up to the same level.

Choose the correct option:
(a) (ii) and (iii) (b) only (i)
(c) only (ii) (d) (ii) and (iv)
41)
A wooden cube floats when immersed in three different liquids A, B, and C as shown
below. FA
, FB
, and FC
are the upthrust exerted by liquids A, B, and C, respectively, on the
wooden cube. The table shows the comparative study of the density of the liquids A,
B, and C and the upthrust exerted by each of the liquids on the wooden cube. Select
the row that depicts the correct information.

Upthrust (F) Density of liquids (ρ)
(a) FA
FC
FB
ρB
ρC
ρA
(b) FA
= FB
= FC
ρA
ρC
ρB
(c) FA
FC
FC
ρB
ρC
ρA
(d) FA
FB
FC
ρA
ρC
ρB

42)
A wooden block has a mass of 100 g and its dimension are 50 cm x 40 cm x 10 cm. The
maximum pressure and the minimum pressure exerted by the wooden block on the
ground when placed in a manner that one of its faces touches the ground are:
(Take g = 9.8 m/s2
)

Maximum pressure Minimum pressure
(a) 2.45 Pa 0.49 Pa
(b) 24.5 Pa 4.9 Pa
(c) 0.25 Pa 0.05 Pa
(d) 9.8 Pa 1.96 Pa

43)
Two trains, Rajdhani Express and Shan-e Punjab, each of length 300 m are moving on
two parallel tracks in the same direction. Each train is initially travelling at the same
speed of 108 km/h. The driver of Rajdhani Express accelerates the train at 1 m/s2
and
after 60s the end point of last coach of Rajdhani Express just moves past the front of
Shan-e Punjab. The original distance between the two trains was:
(a) 1200 m (b) 1500 m
(c) 1800 m (d) 30 m
44)
A car travels from point A to point B at a uniform speed of 216 km/h and returns at a
uniform speed of 180 km/h. The average speed of the car for the whole journey is:
(a) 98.12 km/h (b) 198 km/h
(c) 196.36 km/h (d) 0 km/h
45)
A body starts from rest and moves with an acceleration of 8 m/s2
. The force
accelerating the body is removed after 5 s and the body continues to move under no
opposing force. The distance travelled by the body in the first 8 seconds of motion is:
(a) 220 m (b) 320 m
(c) 100 m (d) 256 m
46) The table below displays information on four neutral elements P, Q, R and S.

Element Mass number
No. of
electrons
No. of protons
No. of
neutrons
P 36 18
Q 40 20
R 18 22
S 20 24

Which of the following statements are correct with respect to the information
represented in the table above?
(i) Elements P and R are the only pair of isobars represented in the table.
(ii) Elements Q and S are the only pair of isotopes represented in the table.
(iii) Elements Q and S have the same valency.
(iv) Elements Q and R are the only pair of isobars represented in the table.

(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (i), (ii), and (iii) (d) (iii) and (iv)
47)
Boron consists of two isotopes A and B with atomic masses 10 and 11. The average
atomic mass of boron is 10.8 u. The ratio of relative abundances of the two isotopes
A and B of boron is:
(a) 1:1 (b) 1:4
(c) 4:1 (d) 2:3
48)
Which of the following statements gives the correct similarity between the atomic
models as proposed by Rutherford and J. J. Thomson?
(a) Both state that an atom contains positive and negative charges.
(b) Both state that the mass of an atom is uniformly distributed around a sphere.
(c) Both state that an atom contains electrons that revolve in circular paths.
(d)
Both state that an atom contains a nucleus whose size is very small compared to
that of the atom.
49)
The mass number of an element X is 80. The number of neutrons present in the
nucleus of the element X is 45 and it forms an anion having a unit negative charge.
What is the number of electrons present in the anion?
(a) 45 (b) 34
(c) 35 (d) 36
50)
The table below mentions a few postulates of Dalton’s atomic theory and their
relevance in the present day. Select the row with incorrect information.

Postulates of Dalton’s atomic Theory Relevance of the postulate
(a) Atoms combine in the ratio of small whole
numbers to form compounds.
Is a result of the law of conservation
of mass
(b) Atoms of a given element are identical in
terms of mass and chemical properties.
Has been proven wrong, as isotopes
also exist
(c) The relative number and kinds of atoms
are constant in a given compound.
Can explain the law of constant
proportion
(d) Atomsofdifferentelementshavedifferent
masses and chemical properties.
Has been proven wrong, as isobars
also exist

51) The table below shows the quantity of the substances present with four students.

Name of student Quantity of substance
Farah 6.022 × 1024
atoms of Ca
Rohan 5 moles of HCl
Simran 10 moles of N2
Aftab 6.022 × 1024
molecules of CO2

Arrange the students in the decreasing order of masses of the substances that they
have.
(Atomic weight of Ca = 40 u; H = 1 u; Cl = 35.5 u; N = 14 u; C = 12 u; O = 16 u)
(a) Rohan Simran Farah Aftab (b) Simran Rohan Aftab Farah
(c) Aftab Farah Simran Rohan (d) Farah Aftab Rohan Simran
52)
X and Z are metals, and Y is a non-metal. The formula of the compound formed by X
and Y is X2
Y3
and that formed by Z and Y is ZY2
. The valency of Z is _____.
(a) 4 (b) 1
(c) 2 (d) 3
53)
The ratio of the number of atoms present in 50 g of calcium and 50 g of magnesium,
respectively, is (Given: atomic mass of calcium is 40 g and that of magnesium is 24 g).
(a) 1:1 (b) 3:5
(c) 5:3 (d) 2:3
54) Carefully study the diagram of the plant cell with labels i, ii, iii, and iv.

Select the option that correctly identifies a structure and mentions its function and/or
characteristic.

(a) (i) Golgi apparatus: Acts as storage sacs for solid or liquid contents.
(b) (ii) Plastids: Present only in plant cells and are of two types.
(c) (iii) Lysosomes: Digest any foreign material as well as worn-out cell organelles.
(d) (iv) Vacuoles: Have their own DNA and ribosomes.
55)
A human cheek cell is initially placed in an isotonic solution. The cell is then removed
from this solution and placed in a hypotonic solution for a long time. Which of the
following observations is/are true in the scenario when the cell is placed in a hypotonic
solution?
A – The cell will shrink first.
B – The cell will recover its shape slowly.
C – Water molecules will move from the cell into the solution by osmosis.
D – The cell will eventually burst.
(a) B and D (b) A, B, C, and D
(c) A and C (d) Only D
56)
Study the images and the table below. Pick the INCORRECT option from the table.

B
A

Cell in image A Cell in image B
(a) It contains more than one chromosome. It contains a single chromosome.
(b) Membrane-bound cell organelles are
present.
Membrane-bound cell organelles are
absent.
(c) The nuclear region is surrounded by a
nuclear membrane.
The nuclear region is not
surrounded by a nuclear membrane.
(d) The size of such a cell is generally
between 5 mm and 100 mm.
The size of such a cell is generally
between 1 mm and 10 mm.

57)
To observe human cheek cells, a teacher asked the students to scrape the inside
surface of their cheeks using an ice cream spoon. The students were then asked to
transfer this material onto a glass slide and add a drop of methylene blue solution to
it. The students were then instructed to gently put a cover slip on the glass slide. The
purpose of putting the cover slip gently on the mounted material is to:
(a) avoid crushing the mounted (b) avoid oozing of the stain.
material.
(c) avoid oozing of glycerine. (d) avoid the entry of air bubbles.
58)
The table below displays the names of various classes of animals and their
characteristic features. Match the class of animals with their characteristic feature.

Class of animals Characteristic feature
A. Porifera i. Jointed legs
B. Annelida ii. Soft - bodied animals
C. Arthropoda iii. Pore - bearing animals
D. Mollusca iv.
Bilaterally symmetrical with extensive
organ differentiation.
(a) A – iii B – i C – iv D – ii (b) A – iii B – iv C – i D – ii
(c) A – ii B – iv C – i D – ii (d) A – ii B – iii C – iv D – i
59)
Shown below are the images of a few plants. Study the images and select the option
which classifies these plants correctly.

A

B

C

D

(a) A – Bryophyta B – Phanerograms C – Thallophyta D – Pteridophyta
(b) A – Thallophyta B – Phanerograms C – Pteridophyta D – Bryophyta
(c) A – Thallophyta B – Pteridophyta C – Phanerograms D – Bryophyta
(d) A – Bryophyta B – Pteridophyta C – Phanerograms D – Thallophyte
60)
The images below show different vertebrates. Study the diagrams and choose the
correct statements.

A B C
(i) B is a cold-blooded animal having a four-chambered heart.
(ii) C is a warm-blooded animal having a four-chambered heart.
(iii) A is a cold-blooded animal having a two-chambered heart.
(iv) All the animals A, B, and C have a notochord.
(a) only (iv) (b) (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv)
(c) (ii), (iii), and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iv)

Class 9 Assessment Test for English, Maths and Science

Recommended

Recommended

More Related Content

Similar to Class 9 Assessment Test for English, Maths and Science

Similar to Class 9 Assessment Test for English, Maths and Science (18)

Recently uploaded

Recently uploaded (20)

Class 9 Assessment Test for English, Maths and Science