2. 1. You are standing on a scale in an elevator. You
notice that your weight is decreasing. What
can you conclude? The elevator is_ .
A. Accelerating upward
B. Moving at constant acceleration upward
C. Accelerating downward
D. Moving at constant acceleration downward
3. 2. If the force of gravity on balloon is 3,000N,
and the lift force provided by the atmosphere is
2,900N, in which direction is the net force
acting?
A. Upward
B. towards the east
C. Downward
D. there is no net force
4. 3. If a horse pulls on a calesa at rest, the calesa pulls
back equally as much on the horse. Will the calesa be
set into motion?
A. No, because the forces cancel each other.
B. Yes, because there is a net force acting on the
calesa.
C. Yes, because there is a time delay between action
and reaction.
D. Yes, because the horse’s pull on the calesa is larger
than the calesa’s pull on the horse.
5. 4. Which of the following statements is not one of
Newton’s Laws on motion?
A. In the absence of an unbalanced force, an object
moves at constant velocity
B. For any force there is always an equal but opposite
reaction force.
C. The force and the acceleration of a body are
towards the same direction.
D. What goes up must come down.
6. 5. Two cars are following a 35 ton tractor-trailer truck
traveling down the highway at a high rate of speed. One of
the following vehicles is significantly heavier than the other.
Wind coming off the back of the truck shakes them both. One
of them does not sway as much as the other. Which one does
not sway as much as the other?
A.The lighter car will sway more than the heavier car.
B.The heavier car will sway more than the lighter car.
C.A only
D.A and B
7. 6. When an object is placed in front of a plane
mirror the image is:
A. Upright, magnified and real
B. Upright, the same size and virtual
C. Inverted, demagnified and real
D. Inverted, magnified and virtual E.Upright,
magnified and virtual
8.
9. 7. A narrow beam of light is incident on the surface of a
plane mirror. The initial angle between the incident ray and
reflected ray is 2α. If the mirror is turned around point. A by
the angle Θ what is the change of the angle between two
rays?
(A)Θ
(B) 2Θ
(C) 4Θ
(D) Θ/2
(E) Θ/4
10.
11. 8. A candle is placed in front of a concave mirror.
The image produced by the mirror
is:
A. Real, inverted and magnified
B. Real, inverted and demagnified
C. Virtual, upright and magnified
D. Virtual, upright and demagnified
E. Real, upright and magnified
12.
13. 9. A very narrow light ray AB strikes the surface of a
concave mirror as shown on the diagram. Which of
the following diagrams represents the reflected ray?
14. 10. Which of the following are the postulates of special
relativity?
I. The color of light is the same for all frames of reference.
II. The speed of light is the same for all frames of reference.
III. The relative speed of objects is the same for all observes in
moving frames of reference.
A.I and II
B. I and III
C. II and III
D. II and IV
15. 11. One of two identical twins is an astronaut, while the other is areal estate broker. The astronaut
embarks on high speed space travel and is gone for several years. Upon the astronaut’s return, the
two twins reunite and observed their physical appearances. The observation will be that . A. Both
have aged the same B. The astronaut has aged less C. The astronaut more D. The real estate
broker has aged less
16. 12. The following physical quantities are classified as the fundamental
quantities of measure: time, length, and mass. The mass of the body is
believed to be constant wherever it is taken and we consider it also the
same whether the body is in motion or at rest. However, Einstein
considers the mass of a moving body not constant. Why is this so can
be understood by the law of acceleration. Recall that acceleration
depends not only on force but also on the mass of the object as well.
Einstein believed that when work is done on the object to increase its
velocity, its mass increases as well. So, the force produces less and less
acceleration as velocity increases. The relationship between mass and
velocity is given in the following equation:
17.
18.
19. 13. In the special theory of relativity, it is important to
know the velocity of an object relative to an observer. It
plays a very important role in attaining the effects of
time dilation, length contraction, relativistic
momentum, and energy-mass transformation. If we are
to determine the velocity of an object relative to that of
an observer, oftentimes we have to add two or more
velocities together in an equation. According to the
special theory of Relativity, the velocities are related
according to the velocity-addition equation:
20.
21. u = the velocity of the object as measured by an observer on
Earth, u’ = the velocity of the object as measured by an
observer in the moving frame which itself is moving at a
velocity, v, relative to Earth. A car is approaching an observer
on Earth with a velocity v = 0.85c. A person in the car throws
a ball towards the observer at a velocity of u’ = 0.60c relative
to the car. At what velocity does the observer on Earth see
the ball approaching?
A. 0.196� B. 0.916� C. 0.96� D. 0.916�
22. 14. Microwaves were invented during World War II when radar
technology was being developed. In the last 40 years, the
microwave oven has become a ubiquitous appliance.
Microwave technology enables us to thaw and cook food
much more rapidly than conventional appliances do. The
cooking action in a microwave oven results from the
interaction between the electric the field component of the
radiation with the polar molecules—mostly water—in food.
All molecules rotate at room temperature. If the frequency of
the radiation and that of the molecular rotation are equal,
energy can be transferred from the microwave to the polar
molecule.
23. As a result, the molecule will rotate faster. This is what
happens in a gas. In the condensed state (for example, in
food), a molecule cannot execute the free rotation.
Nevertheless, it still experiences a torque (a force that
causes rotation) that tends to align its dipole moment with
the oscillating field of the microwave. Consequently, there is
friction between the molecules, which appears as heat in the
food. (Source). Which of the following statements best
describe why microwaves heat food so quickly?
24. A.The radiation is absorbed by nonpolar molecules
that created friction and will generate heat in food.
B.The radiation is absorbed by polar molecules and
can, therefore, reach different parts of food at the
same time.
C.The polar molecules in foods when exposed to
radiation will heat and cooks the food.
D.The nonpolar molecules in foods when exposed to
radiation will heat and cooks the food.
25. 15. Read the following information and answer the
question below.
26. Which of the following statements is correct about food
containers that are utilized and safe for microwaves?
A. They do not contain polar molecules and are therefore
not affected by microwaves.
B. They contain polar molecules and are therefore affected
by microwaves.
C. They do not contain nonpolar molecules and are
therefore not affected by microwaves.
D. They contain nonpolar molecules and are therefore
affected by microwaves.
27. 16. A student heated a beaker of cold water (on a tripod) with an
alcohol lamp. When the gas is ignited, the student noticed that there
was water condensed on the outside of the beaker. Which of the
statements best described the observation?
A. The gases from the environment react with the heat from the
alcohol lamp and condense.
B. The gases from the alcohol lamp condense on the outside of the
cold beaker
C. The water from the container seeps into the wall of the beaker.
D. When methane burns in the air, it forms carbon dioxide and water
vapor. The water vapor condenses on the outside of the cold
beaker.
28. 17. Suppose you are hiking in one of the mountains of Bukidnon.
Upon reaching your destined area, you decide to hard-boil an egg and
eat it to help regain your strength following the strenuous work. To
your surprise, the water seems to boil more quickly than usual, but
after 10 min in boiling water, the egg is still not cooked. Due to a
decrease in atmospheric pressure, it takes less energy to bring the
water to its boiling point. Hence due to less energy needed, the water
boils at a lower temperature. The summit of the mountain is 9,511 ft
above sea level. At this altitude, the atmospheric pressure is only
about 0.7 atm. Figure 1 below shows how pressure affects the melting
point and boiling point of water.
29.
30. Which of the following statements best described your observation?
A. The amount of heat delivered is inversely proportional to the
temperature of the water, so it takes a longer time to hard boil
the eggs.
B. Because water boils at a lower temperature at high altitudes,
hard-cooked eggs will take longer to prepare.
C. At higher altitudes, the air pressure is higher, so the boiling point
of water decreases thus needing more time in cooking eggs.
D. At higher elevations, the higher atmospheric pressure means
heated water reaches its boiling point more quickly.
31. For numbers 18 -19, read the following section of an article about the
DNA Fingerprinting In 1985 a British chemist named Alec Jeffreys
suggested that minisatellite sequences provide a means of
identification, much like fingerprints. DNA fingerprinting has since
gained prominence with law enforcement officials to identify crime
suspects. To make a DNA fingerprint, a chemist needs a sample of any
tissue, such as blood or semen; even hair and saliva contain DNA. The
DNA is extracted from cell nuclei and cut into fragments by the
addition of so-called restriction enzymes. These fragments, which are
negatively charged, are separated by an electric field in gel. The
smaller fragments move faster than larger ones, so they eventually
separate into bands.
32. The bands of DNA fragments are transferred from the gel to a plastic
membrane, and their position is thereby fixed. Then a DNA probe—a
DNA fragment that has been tagged with a radioactive label—is
added. The probe binds to the fragments that have a complementary
DNA sequence. An X-ray film is laid directly over the plastic sheet, and
bands appear on the exposed film in the positions corresponding to
the fragments recognized by the probe. About four different probes
are needed to obtain a profile that is unique to just one individual
33. The first U.S. case in which a person was convicted of a crime
with the help of DNA fingerprints was tried in 1987. Today,
DNA fingerprinting has become an indispensable tool of law
enforcement.
Source: Chang, Raymond, Overby, Jason. (2022). Chemistry
Fourteenth Edition. New York: McGraw-Hill (adapted)
18. The following statements explain how DNA profiling
(fingerprinting) can be used to identify people by their
unique genetic code EXCEPT.
34. A. identify suspects whose DNA may match
evidence left at crime scenes
B. clear persons wrongly accused of crimes
C. identify fathers in paternity cases
D. identify unknown remains using ashes.
35. 19. Which of the following is the correct order for obtaining
a DNA fingerprint?
I. X-ray fil detects radioactive patterns. These patterns are
then compared to the original sample.
II.DNA is extracted from the blood sample, then the
restriction enzymes cut DNA into fragments
III. Fragments are separated by gel electrophoresis and the
band pattern is transferred to a nylon membrane IV.
Radioactive DNA probe binds to specific DNA sequences
36. A. III, II, I, IV
B. I, III, IV, II
C. II, III, IV, I
D. IV, I, III, II
37. For numbers 20-21, refer to the statement below:
Experimental measurement of the rate leads to the rate law
for the reaction, which expresses the rate in terms of the rate
constant and the concentrations of the reactants. The
dependence of rate on concentrations gives the order of a
reaction. A reaction can be described as zero order if the rate
does not depend on the concentration of the reactant, or first
order if it depends on the reactant raised to the first power.
Higher orders and fractional orders are also known.
38. An important characteristic of reaction rates is the time
required for the concentration of a reactant to decrease to
half of its initial concentration, called the half-life. For first-
order reactions, the half-life is independent of the initial
concentration. (For first-order reactions, the half-life is
independent of the initial concentration). The reaction X ⟶ Y
shown here follows first-order kinetics. Initially different
amounts of X molecules are placed in three equal-volume
containers at the same temperature.
39.
40. 20. What are the relative rates of the reaction in
these three containers?
A.The relative rates for (i), (ii), and (iii) are 1:2:3
B.The relative rates for (i), (ii), and (iii) are 4:3:6 C.The
relative rates for (i), (ii), and (iii) are 6:3:4 D.The
relative rates for (i), (ii), and (iii) are 2:4:6
41. 21. How would the relative rates be affected if the volume of
each container were doubled?
A. The relative rates would be unaffected, but each of the
absolute rates would decrease by 50%.
B. The relative rates would be affected, and each of the
absolute rates would increase by 50%.
C. Both the relative and absolute rates would decrease by
50%.
D. Both the relative and absolute rates would be unaffected.
42. 22. What are the relative half-lives of the reactions in
(i) to (iii)?
A. The relative half-lives are 1:1:1.
B. The relative half-lives are 1:2:3.
C. The relative half-lives are 4:3:6.
D. The relative half-lives are 6:3:4.
43. For numbers 23-24, read the following information and
answer the question below:
44. 23. Which of the statements regarding enzymes is
true?
A. Enzymes cannot be used for a specific reaction.
B. Enzymes provide activation energy for reactions.
C. Enzymes are proteins that function as catalysts.
D. Enzyme activity cannot be regulated.
45. 24. Which of the following best describes the role of a
catalyst in a chemical reaction?
A. A substance that is being used during a chemical
reaction.
B. Catalysts increase the activation energy of a
chemical reaction.
C. A catalyst decreases the speed of a reaction and
lowers product yield.
D. A substance that speeds up a chemical reaction
without being used up.
46. For numbers 25-26, refer to the paragraph below: To make
bread dough, a cook mixes flour, water, salt and yeast. After
mixing, the dough is placed in a container for several hours to
allow the process of fermentation to take place. During
fermentation, a chemical change occurs in the dough: the
yeast (a single-celled fungus) helps to transform the starch
and sugars in the flour into carbon dioxide and alcohol. A few
hours after mixing the dough, the cook weighs the dough
and observes that its weight has decreased. The weight of the
dough is the same at the start of each of the four experiments
shown below.
47.
48. 25. Which two experiments should the cook compared
to test if the yeast is the cause of the loss of weight?
A.The cook should compare experiments 1 and 2.
B.The cook should compare experiments 1 and 3.
C.The cook should compare experiments 2 and 4.
D.The cook should compare experiments 3 and 4.
49.
50. *For numbers 27-30, refer to the paragraph below.
Four boxes contain different organisms. Box A has organism
with a waxy cuticle to protect it against water loss. Box B
contains organism with Xylem and Phloem. Inside Box C is an
organism with connective tissues like cartilage, blood, bone,
and adipose. Box D has organism with unspecified tissues. Its
tendons are covered with Xylem and phloem while its hairs
are attached directly to its bones with no epithelial tissues at
all.
51. 27. Which of the following boxes contains an
animal?
A.Box B
B. Box C
C. Box A
D. Box D
52. 28. Which of the following boxes contains
organism that is NOT a plant?
A. Box C
B. Box B
C. Box E
D. Box A
53. 29. Which of the following tissue can also be
found in Box A and B?
A. Muscular Tissue
B. Vascular Tissue
C. Neural Tissue
D. Epithelial Tissue
54. 30. Which of the following boxes contains neither
animals nor plants and is considered unidentified
species?
A. Box D
B. Box C
C. Box A
D. Box B
55. 31. An unidentified flying object (UFO) has cells with a
typical nucleus with a nuclear envelope, where its DNA
lies inside it and is commonly linear. It does not have
mesosomes yet contains golgi apparatus. Which of
the following statements best describes this UFO?
A. The UFO is a prokaryote.
B. It is a kind of bacteria.
C. It definitely possesses a eukaryotic cell.
D. It is probably an alien with indistinct feature.
56. *For numbers 32-33, refer to the paragraph below: Plants and
animals may reproduce either sexually or asexually. In both cases,
this is the reason why species survived for thousands of years. Just
like any other vertebrates for example, human reproduce sexually by
the joint of a sperm cell and egg cell to form embryo. On the other
hand, some organisms like bacteria and sponges reproduce having
no gametes involved. Yet, there are also exceptional cases that some
organisms may reproduce like for example those honey bees and
even earthworms are called hermaphrodites. However, unlike
animals, reproduction in plants specifically in Gumamela is unique
and is termed double fertilization.
57. 32. Which of the following scenario is TRUE? A.
Honey bees are some of the viviparous organisms.
B. Earthworms have both male and female
reproductive organs.
C. Sponges give birth through live placental birth.
D. Bacteria are some of the oviparous organisms.
58. 33. Why is fertilization in Gumamela plants termed as
double fertilization?
A. Only those complete flowers may have double
fertilization.
B. All plants both have male and female parts.
C. Only those perfect flowers can have double
fertilization.
D. Since there are two sperm cells involved in the
fertilization of egg cell and two polar bodies.
59. *For numbers 34-35, refer to the paragraph below. Thirdy’s
botanical garden seemed to amuse the locals of Bukidnon.
However, there are times that his plants are attacked by
some pathogens thereby becoming vulnerable. One of them
is the mayana particularly its leaves. Luckily, there are some
plants that can resist diseases. Unlike its neighbor plants, the
entire kalabo plant, gabon- gabon, asunting, and lagundi are
resistant to infection.
60. Sometimes, there are also herbivores that roam around
which created mess inside the botanical garden. Thirdy
noticed that these herbivores seemed to have eaten
specific plants while refusing some.
61. 34. Which of the following immune responses do
kalabo plant, gabon-gabon, asunting, and lagundi
possess?
A. Basal response
B. Hypersensitive response
C. Systemic acquired immunity
D. Jasmonic acid/ethylene pathway
62. 35. What kind of immune response do some
plants have for them not to be eaten by the
herbivores?
A. Basal response
B.Jasmonic acid/ethylene pathway C.Systemic
acquired immunity D.Hypersensitive response
63. 36. Kingdom Animalia shares a common characteristic with all
its organisms. They have several organ systems performing
together for a common function yet a portion of it differs
from one species to another. Just like their firm framework
which gives physical support and protection for the body and
provides surfaces for the attachment of muscles. Earthworms
have liquid support of their bodies. Corals, mollusks, crabs,
and insects are being protected with rigid external covering
and it also serves as a defensive armor for certain animals like
turtles, crabs, and armadillos.
64. Fishes, frogs, chickens, and other vertebrates including
humans have a hard framework inside their bodies. Some of
the muscles which attached to these skeletons are voluntary
and can be control by thinking like muscles of our arms and
legs. Others are involuntary which means they work
automatically and without voluntary control; it move food
along the digestive system and allows the heart to pump
and never stop working. How do crabs differ from chickens?
65. A. Crabs have exoskeleton while chickens have
hydrostatic skeleton.
B. Crabs have endoskeleton while chickens have
exoskeleton.
C. Crabs have exoskeleton while chickens have
endoskeleton.
D. Crabs have endoskeleton while chickens have
hydrostatic skeleton.
66. 37. Which of the following factors are NOT
homeostatically regulated?
A. Your father’s body temperature is 40 C. ᴼ
B. Your sister’s oxygen concentration is 100 mmHg.
C.Your mother’s blood pressure is 160/70.
D.The concentration of your carbon dioxide is 40
mmHg.
67. 38. Earth, the largest spaceship we lived in, has a very
dramatic history. As we all know, this is the only planet in our
solar system that can sustain life ever discovered. Yet, it
started with the “chaotic eon”. Earth’s surface was continually
bombarded by meteorites and the very hot mantle caused
severe volcanism. Earth would look very inhospitable. As
time passed by, Earth was probably warm and the
atmosphere contained mostly methane and little to no
oxygen. Most of it was covered with ocean and continent
formation began. Until then, it was experiencing the longest
period that lasted almost half of its age.
68. It was the time of great changes: oxygenation of the
atmosphere, origin and diversification of eukaryote
life, appearance of multicellular animal life, and the
motion of continental drift. After which, many fossils
were found in layers of sedimentary rocks. Marine
invertebrate probably lived near the shores of shallow
water. Fossils of trilobites and brachiopods were found
preserved in rocks. Amphibians came out of the sea
and land plants also began to develop during this
period.
69. Giant ferns and marsh plants provided food to land animals
which increased in number. Marine life also developed. Clams
and snails also increased in number. Fish became more
abundant and showed a greater variety of forms. It passed an
era which saw the formation of several continents. The large
creatures that existed were the dinosaurs. North and South
America, Australia, Africa, and India became separate plates.
Reptiles were the first true terrestrial vertebrates existed
which flourished. However, many reptile groups became
extinct. Mountains were uplifted and new life forms started
appearing after quite sometime.
70. Volcanic activity was also widespread, forming
immense flows of lava and basalt. Warm- blooded
animals, such as marsupials like kangaroo, and
primitive mammals, roamed the land. And from this
point in time, humans left their marks on land.
71. Based on the passage, which of the following
conclusions is correct? era. A.Humans existed during
the latter part which is called Cenozoic
B. Marine invertebrate probably lived near the shores
of shallow water during Mesozoic era.
C. Dinosaurs lived on Earth during Paleozoic era.
D. During Cenozoic era, the formation of several
continents happened.
72. 39. Why do Earth has magnetic field?
A. It is because Earth is one of the Inner Terrestrial or
Rocky-Icy Planets.
B. Because Earth has a complex terrain–ice mountains
and vast crater free plains.
C. It is the because of the Earth’s solid metallic inner
core and a liquid metallic outer core.
D. Since Earth is a habitable planet.
73. *For numbers 40- 43, refer to the paragraph below.
Petrologists Vinxcent and Xiah are strolling while visiting to
their grandpa’s place. Along the way, they are fun of
collecting peculiar rocks. Two of the rocks from Vinxcent’s
hand are solidified lava he called basalt and rhyolite while
Xiah picked solidified magma she named granite and gabbro.
Not too distant from their grandpa’s house is a river where
they collected quite number of rocks formed from
weathering, erosion, compaction and cementation of
sediments in which some of those rocks has fossil remains of
leaves and fishes.
74. They were so amazed by the gigantic foliated and
nonfoliated rocks formed because of heat and
pressure/stress around their grandpa’s paradisiacal
park.
40. Which of the following rocks are examples from
Vinxcent’s hand?
A. Intrusive Igneous Rocks C. Extrusive Igneous
Rocks
B. Sedimentary Rocks D. Metamorphic Rocks
75. 41. Which of the following classification of rocks
best describes the rocks they found near the
river?
A. Intrusive Igneous Rocks C. Metamorphic
Rocks
B. Extrusive Igneous Rocks D. Sedimentary Rocks
76. 42. Which of the following are the rocks picked by
Xiah herself along their way while strolling their
grandpa’s place?
A. Extrusive Igneous Rocks C. Intrusive Igneous
Rocks
B. B. Non-foliated Rocks D. Bioclastics
77. 43. Which of the following is the rock found in
paradisiacal park of their grandpa?
A.Clastic Sedimentary Rock
B. Metamorphic Rock
C. Organic Sedimentary Rock
D. Igneous Rock
78. *For numbers 44- 45, refer to the paragraph below. The
Grand Canyon is located in a desert in the USA. It is a very
large and deep canyon containing many layers of rock.
Sometime in the past, movements in the Earth’s crust lifted
these layers up. The Grand Canyon is now 1.6 km deep in
parts. The Colorado River runs through the bottom of the
canyon. Several different layers of rock can be seen in the
walls of the canyon.
79. 44. The temperature in the Grand Canyon ranges from
below 0 Cᴼ to over 40ᴼC. Although it is a desert area,
cracks in the rocks sometimes contain water. How do
these temperature changes and the water in rock
cracks help to speed up the breakdown of rocks?
A. Freezing water dissolves warm rocks.
B. Water cements rocks together.
C. Ice smoothes the surface of rocks.
D. Freezing water expands in the rock cracks.
80. 45. There are many fossils of marine animals, such as clams, fish and
corals, in the Limestone A layer of the Grand Canyon. What happened
millions of years ago that explains why such fossils are found there?
A. In ancient times, people brought seafood to the area from the
ocean.
B. Oceans were once much rougher and sea life washed inland on
giant waves.
C. An ocean covered this area at that time and then receded later.
D. Some sea animals once lived on land before migrating to the sea.
81. 46. Limestones when exposed to a carbonic acid
produced by the reaction of water and carbon
dioxide may causes weathering is a best example of
A. Oxidation
B. Hydrolysis
C. Erosion
D. Carbonation
82. 47. The following scenarios best describe biological activities
which helped in the physical disintegration of rocks or at near
earth’s surface, EXCEPT
A. Ants, rats, and earthworms break down rocks through
burrowing.
B. Miners in search of gold ores in Surigao del Norte.
C. Plant roots can penetrate soil and break down rocks. D.
Oxygen and water reacts with iron-rich minerals producing a
reddish-orange color.
83. 48. What must NOT be done during Earthquake?
A. You must go under the table to protect you from
falling objects.
B. You must go in the open field away from the tall
buildings or trees.
C. You must go near the sea to unwind.
D. None of the above
84.
85. The figure above shows how water supplied to houses in
cities is made fit for drinking.
49. It is important to have a source of good drinking water.
Water found underground is
referred to as ground water. Which of the following reasons
best explain why there is
less bacteria and particle pollution in ground water than in
water from surface sources
such as lakes and rivers?
86. A. When water goes down through the ground it will be
strained by rocks and sand, and so it has been naturally
filtered compared to lakes and rivers which are polluted by
people and animals.
B. Because ground water passes through a filter and chlorine
is added.
C. The ground water passes through a filter that cleans it
absolutely.
D. Because it is not stirred and therefore don’t bring mud
from the bottom.
87. 50. Suppose that the scientists involved in the testing of
water at the water plant discover that there are some
dangerous bacteria in the water after the cleaning process is
completed. What should people at home do with this water
before drinking it?
A. Mix the water with chloride in a bucket and then drink it.
B. Boil the water.
C. Use a coffee filter to purify it again.
D. Buy bottled water until the cleaning process is fixed.
