Question 1 of 20
5.0 Points
The court decision that defined obscenity as being a work that “taken as a whole, lacks serious literary, artistic, political, or scientific value” is:
A. Roth v. United States.
B. FCC v. Pacifica Foundation.
C. Miller v. California.
D. Furman v. Georgia.
Reset Selection
Question 2 of 20
5.0 Points
Which of the following Supreme Court cases, affecting all subsequent obscenity rulings since, held that the state has a “compelling interest” in protecting the welfare of children?
A. Roth v. United States
B. FCC v. Pacifica Foundation
C. Miller v. California
D. Regina v. Hicklin
Reset Selection
Question 3 of 20
5.0 Points
Which of the following acts first attempted to protect families and children from online sexually explicit acts?
A. Telecommunications Reform Act of 1996
B. Child Pornography Prevention Act of 1982
C. Child Protection Act of 1984
D. Protection of Children Against Sexual Exploitation Act of 1977
Reset Selection
Question 4 of 20
5.0 Points
In an effort to tighten prohibitions at the Federal level against child pornography, what did Congress introduce that eliminated the obscenity requirement established in Miller v. California?
A. Telecommunications Reform Act of 1996
B. Child Pornography Prevention Act of 1982
C. Child Protection Act of 1984
D. Protection of Children Against Sexual Exploitation Act of 1977
Reset Selection
Question 5 of 20
5.0 Points
Without question, the single most important court decision regarding state prohibitions of child pornography is:
A. New York v. Ferber.
B. Miller v. California.
C. Stanley v. Georgia.
D. Osborne v. Ohio.
Reset Selection
Question 6 of 20
5.0 Points
The Supreme Court has said that states have more leeway in the regulation of pornographic depictions of children than in the regulation of obscenity because:
A. the Supreme Court has no jurisdiction over state lawmaking.
B. the use of children as subjects of pornographic materials is harmful to the mental health of the child.
C. no obscenity statute has ever been upheld by the Supreme Court.
D. most state constitutions do not allow for freedom of expression.
Reset Selection
Question 7 of 20
5.0 Points
What replaced the “Protection of Children Against Sexual Exploitation of 1977” act?
A. The Omnibus Crime Control Bill
B. Title 18 of the United States Code
C. The three pronged test of Cahill v. Utah
D. The Child Protection Act of 1984
Reset Selection
Question 8 of 20
5.0 Points
Which of the following was enacted in anticipation of an explosion of explicit material emerging on the Internet and specifically targets the issue of virtual child pornography?
A. Telecommunications Reform Act of 1996
B. Child Pornography Prevention Act of 1996
C. Child Protection Act of 1984
D. Protection of Children Against Sexual Exploitation Act
Reset Selection
Question 9 of 20
5.0 Points
What court struck down most of the Child Pornography Prevention Act, saying that it was unconstitutional to the extent t.
SECTION IIntroduction to Law Final Exam Instructions Instructor A.docxzenobiakeeney
SECTION I
Introduction to Law Final Exam Instructions Instructor: A. Jarmon
The following True/False and Multiple Choice questions cover the material introduced in Chapters 1-2; 4, 6, and 7-8. Each question is worth two (2) points. Please indicate (T) for True or (F) for False for the True/False Statements. For Multiple Choice, please select the letter that corresponds to the best response. There are 50 questions in this section. This section is worth 50 points.
A. LEGAL SYTSTEM, COURTS, AND LEGISLATION
All but which of the following are examples of special courts in the federal system:
a. U.S.TaxCourt
b. U.S. Bankruptcy Court
c. U.S.CourtofFederalClaims
d. Pierce County Superior Court
e. U.S.CourtofAppealsfortheArmedForces
Which of the following statements IS NOT true as it relates to the authority of the U.S. Supreme Court?
TheU.S.SupremeCourtisthefinalauthorityonallmattersoffederal jurisdiction.
The primary function of the Supreme Court is one of review.
The key element in the Supreme Court’s authority is that a federal issue must be at stake, either in the form of the parties (diversity
jurisdiction) or in the constitutionality of a state or federal law.
Every case may be submitted to the United States Supreme Court for
review.
Alloftheabovestatementsaretrue.
Judicial review refers to the system by which each branch of government can use its specially designated powers to make sure the other branches act within their constitutionally prescribed limits.
The principle of stare decisis precludes the court from correcting erroneous decisions that were previously issued.
Final Exam Page 2
Introduction to Law Final Exam Instructions Instructor: A. Jarmon
B. INTRODUCTION TO CIVIL PROCEDURE (LECTURE)
The party responding to a civil action has the initial burden of proof.
Equity law is the body of law developed by the courts that serves as precedent for the determination of later controversies.
Quasi-in-rem jurisdiction refers to the ability of a court to exercise jurisdiction over a person involved in litigation in the state in which the court is situated.
Subject matter jurisdiction refers to the authority of a particular court to hear a matter. If the court does not have proper subject matter jurisdiction, the judgment rendered is void.
Where there is diversity of the parties and the amount in controversy exceeds $75,000, the plaintiff may file his action in state court and only upon agreement of the other party, can it be removed to federal court.
10.Under the due process clause, a Washington court may not assert personal jurisdiction over a person unless:
a. Thepersonisgivenadequatenotice
b. The person is given an opportunity to be heard
c. Thepersonhashad“minimumcontacts”withtheforumstate d. A,B,&C
e. A&B
11.The doctrine of preemption precludes states from making laws on matters for which another state has already created regulations.
12.Which of the following is a remedy that can be obtained from a court of
equity?a. Amaxim
b. Speci.
1Figures title5Civil Liberties and the Supreme Court.docxdrennanmicah
1
Figures title: 5 Civil Liberties and the Supreme Court
Carpenter V. United States
In what was a big criminal case in Detroit, several suspects cell phone locations were tracked to prove a drug rings activity. This was going on for several months with no warrant granted with probable cause. Carpenter and his legal team argued after his conviction and in the appeals court that this very action violated his fourth amendment right and should vacate his conviction. This appeal set up a long and important fight that took our courts into a crossroads with regards to digital right being a part of the fourth amendment.
The Original Case and Information Seizure
Carpenter was convicted back in 2013 for a string of burglaries in the Detroit area. The FBI obtained his locations through a seizure of his stored location data for past months. Almost 13,000 data points were obtained by the agency. These data points showed everything about his life in the timeframe received. Agents were able to tell when and where he slept, went to church and much more. According to Chief Justice John Roberts, “when the Government tracks the location of a cell phone it achieves near perfect surveillance, as if it had attached an ankle monitor to the phone’s user.” (Wessler, 2018). The only problem being this perfect surveillance was done without any warrants. This set up the argument that all of this was done against his fourth amendment right.
The Fourth Amendment Right
The fourth amendment states that we all have ”The right of the people to be secure in their persons, houses, papers, and effects, against unreasonable searches and seizures, shall not be violated, and no Warrants shall issue, but upon probable cause, supported by Oath or affirmation, and particularly describing the place to be searched, and the persons or things to be seized” ("America’s Founding Documents", n.d.). At the time this was written there were no such things as cell phones, but our court system was tasked throughout this case to properly interpret its meaning regarding our security and privacy with cell phone use and data. The Supreme Court ruled in favor of Carpenter in “Fourth Amendment must apply to records of such unprecedented breadth and sensitivity” ("America's Founding Documents", n.d.). By viewing someone’s mapped out timestamped locations we get to see very intimately where a person is going and quite possibly what they are doing, and when there are doing it. Not that we have things to hide for some of us, but I still think we are entitled to that level of privacy.
FBI Claims no Right Infringement
The Governments lawyers argues that when we share our information with a “third party” in this case the cellphone company that we forfeit our Fourth Amendment right for that information when doing so. That would mean that phone call information, text messages, and even our GPS data would no longer be our information to protect as it is shared with the cellphone company and that we.
Multiple Choice Questions (Enter your answers on the enclosed answer sheet)
1. Which view of incorporation favors incorporation of certain protections enumerated in the Bill of Rights, but not all of them? It deems certain rights as being more critical or fundamental than others.
a. Total Incorporation
b. Selective Incorporation
c. Total Incorporation Plus
d. Case-by-Case Incorporation
2. Which incorporation perspective has arguably “won out” over the others?
a. Total Incorporation
b. Selective Incorporation
c. Total Incorporation Plus
d. Case-by-Case Incorporation
3. A precedent is a rule of case law that is binding on all lower courts and the court that issued it. The courts will defer to prior decisions based on a similar set of facts and legal questions. This doctrine is known as:
a. Res Gestae.
b. Scire Feci.
c. Stare Decisis.
d. Suo Motu.
4. When a decision does not apply to the current facts, a court will, saying, in effect, that because the facts of the present case are different, the case cannot be decided the same way.
a. distinguish the case
b. use case precedent
c. judge decision
d. enact case law
5. The theory world and real world can differ for which of the following reasons?
a. The Supreme Court sometimes makes decisions on excruciatingly detailed matters that have almost no applicability to most law enforcement officers most of the time.
b. The Supreme Court frequently hands down decisions that would seem to have dramatic effects on the nature of law enforcement, but actually involve issues that are already being addressed by many police agencies.
c. What the courts say and what the police do can differ simply as a consequence of some aspect of the U.S. legal system.
d. All of the above.
BCJ 240 Procedures in the Justice System
Unit 1 Examination
BCJ 240 Procedures in the Justice System
Unit 1 Examination
e.
40
41
6. The primary purpose of criminal procedure is to maintain the proper balance between:
a. controlling crime and due process.
b. dictatorship and democracy.
c. servitude and equality.
d. protection and procedure.
7. Which of the following is NOT one of the concepts underlying the due process perspective?
a. The criminal process looks, or should look, something like an “obstacle course.”
b. Quantity is better than quality.
c. Formality is preferred over informality.
d. A great deal of faith is put in the courts.
8. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the crime control perspective?
a. Assembly-line justice
b. Quantity over quality
c. Insistence on informality
d. Faith in the courts
9. Legal guilt is determined by whether a person is guilty according to the:
a. police
b. judge
c. law
d. jury
10. Which exception to the fruit of poisonous tree doctrine permits the introduction of evidence if it has become attenuated to the extent that it dissipated the taint of the initial unconstitutional act?
a. Independent source exception
b. Purged taint exception
c. Inevitable ex.
The following TrueFalse and Multiple Choice questions cover the m.docxoreo10
The following True/False and Multiple Choice questions cover the material introduced in Chapters 1-2; 4, 6, and 7-8. Each question is worth two (2) points. Please indicate (T) for True or (F) for False for the True/False Statements. For Multiple Choice, please select the letter that corresponds to the best response. There are 50 questions in this section. This section is worth 50 points.
A. LEGAL SYTSTEM, COURTS, AND LEGISLATION
1. All but which of the following are examples of special courts in the federal system: a. U.S. Tax Court
b. U.S. Bankruptcy Court
c. U.S. Court of Federal Claims
d. Pierce County Superior Court
e. U.S. Court of Appeals for the Armed Forces
2. Which of the following statements IS NOT true as it relates to the authority of the U.S. Supreme Court? a. The U.S. Supreme Court is the final authority on all matters of federal jurisdiction.
b. The primary function of the Supreme Court is one of review.
c. The key element in the Supreme Court’s authority is that a federal issue must be at stake, either in the form of the parties (diversity jurisdiction) or in the constitutionality of a state or federal law.
d. Every case may be submitted to the United States Supreme Court for review.
e. All of the above statements are true.
3. Judicial review refers to the system by which each branch of government can use its specially designated powers to make sure the other branches act within their constitutionally prescribed limits.
4. The principle of stare decisis precludes the court from correcting erroneous decisions that were previously issued.
B. INTRODUCTION TO CIVIL PROCEDURE (LECTURE)
5. The party responding to a civil action has the initial burden of proof.
6. Equity law is the body of law developed by the courts that serves as precedent for the determination of later controversies.
7. Quasi-in-rem jurisdiction refers to the ability of a court to exercise jurisdiction over a person involved in litigation in the state in which the court is situated.
8. Subject matter jurisdiction refers to the authority of a particular court to hear a matter. If the court does not have proper subject matter jurisdiction, the judgment rendered is void.
9. Where there is diversity of the parties and the amount in controversy exceeds $75,000, the plaintiff may file his action in state court and only upon agreement of the other party, can it be removed to federal court.
10.Under the due process clause, a Washington court may not assert personal jurisdiction over a person unless:
a. The person is given adequate notice
b. The person is given an opportunity to be heard
c. The person has had “minimum contacts” with the forum state
d. A, B, & C
e. A & B
11.The doctrine of preemption precludes states from making laws on matters for which another state has already created regulations.
12.Which of the following is a remedy that can be obtained from a court of equity?
a. A maxim
b. Specific performance
c ...
Which doctrine allows police to search an automobile without a war.docxalanfhall8953
Which doctrine allows police to search an automobile without a warrant if a delay might result in a loss of evidence?
A. Fruit of the Poisoned Tree Doctrine
B. Silver Platter Doctrine
C. Carroll Doctrine
D. Mapp Doctrine
Question 2 of 20
5.0 Points
The courts have supported drug testing of police officers based on drug abuse/use when what is present?
A. probable cause
B. an anonymous tip
C. proof beyond a reasonable doubt
D. a reasonable suspicion
Question 3 of 20
5.0 Points
Which United States Supreme Court case extended the powers of the police to search vehicles for drugs with a trained dog without the need for any particular reason to suspect a narcotics violation?
A. Carroll v. United States
B. Illinois v. Caballes
C. Florida v. Jimeno
D. Harris v. United States
Question 4 of 20
5.0 Points
The pat-down search was established in the case of __________.
A. Terry v. Ohio
B. Carroll v. United States
C. Chimel v. California
D. Harris v. United States
Question 5 of 20
5.0 Points
Whether the crime involves attacks against computer systems or the information they contain or more traditional offenses like murder, money laundering, trafficking, or fraud, what type of evidence is becoming increasingly important?
A. hearsay
B. interrogation
C. exclusionary
D. electronic
Question 6 of 20
5.0 Points
On occasion, a person may be tricked into consuming an intoxicating substance. This may support a defense known as __________.
A. necessity
B. entrapment
C. involuntary intoxication
D. duress
Question 7 of 20
5.0 Points
In which case did the U.S. Supreme Court state that considerations of public safety can override and negate the need for rights advisement prior to limited questioning?
A. Mapp v. Ohio
B. Miranda v. Arizona
C. New York v. Quarles
D. Terry v. Ohio
Question 8 of 20
5.0 Points
What did Chimel v. California establish?
A. that officers can search the person arrested and the area under that person’s “immediate control” incident to an arrest
B. the good-faith exception
C. the plain-view doctrine
D. that officers can conduct emergency warrantless searches
Question 9 of 20
5.0 Points
Which of the following is not a justification for emergency warrantless searches?
A. danger of escape
B. danger of the removal or destruction of evidence
C. danger to life
D. danger to property
Question 10 of 20
5.0 Points
Which of the following situations would not allow a search under the public safety exception for searches without a warrant?
A. searches of airline passengers in a terminal
B. searches of student lockers in a school
C. searching phone records of a local robbery suspect
D. searching subway passengers
Question 11 of 20
5.0 Points
What division of a police department investigates charges that officers are guilty of wrongdoing?
A. strategic investigations
B. intelligence
C. internal affairs
D. officer supervision
Question 12 of 20
5.0 Points
To e.
Exam QUESTION 1Stare Decisis can be defined as a Latin.docxSANSKAR20
Exam
QUESTION 1
Stare Decisis can be defined as a Latin term meaning:
A.
Freedom to be free: the theory that law is created by the
free expression of humankind and should thereby be
respected
B.
The thing speaks for itself: the notion that previous
statements of fact are adopted as true
C.
Inherently dangerous: the theory that some acts are so
dangerous that negligence is presumed
D.
To stand by a decision: the theory that previous case law
is to be respected by other judges in interpreting law
Exam 2
10 points
QUESTION 2
The elements of negligence are:
A.
Breach, injury, damages
B.
Breach, damages, causation
C.
Duty, breach, causation
D.
Duty, damages, injury
10 points
QUESTION 3
Free speech is:
Exam 3
A.
The right to express yourself without government intervention, in any way
you want
B.
Expression without restraint
C.
The right to perform physical acts or methods of communication that are
harmful to others
D.
The right to be protected from undesirable feedback after you
communicate a thought
10 points
QUESTION 4
The seminal case Brandenburg v. Ohio set forth the precedent that the
government cannot punish inflammatory speech unless the following
threshold element is met:
A.
Clear and present danger
B.
Hate speech
C.
Riot speech
D.
Exam 4
Imminent lawlessness
10 points
QUESTION 5
In the seminal case of Jacobellis v. Ohio, United States
Supreme Court Justice Potter Stewart famously
described obscenity as:
A.
Something created to incite or inflame societies core
values
B.
Something that he knew when he saw it
C.
Something impossible in these modern times
D.
Something giving rise to the prurient interest
Exam 5
10 points
QUESTION 6
Laws created to protect journalists and their sources are
called:
A.
Proposition 50
B.
Free Hat laws
C.
Shield laws
D.
Eagle laws
10 points
QUESTION 7
Based on our discussions in class, BURGLARY can be defined as:
Exam ...
SECTION IIntroduction to Law Final Exam Instructions Instructor A.docxzenobiakeeney
SECTION I
Introduction to Law Final Exam Instructions Instructor: A. Jarmon
The following True/False and Multiple Choice questions cover the material introduced in Chapters 1-2; 4, 6, and 7-8. Each question is worth two (2) points. Please indicate (T) for True or (F) for False for the True/False Statements. For Multiple Choice, please select the letter that corresponds to the best response. There are 50 questions in this section. This section is worth 50 points.
A. LEGAL SYTSTEM, COURTS, AND LEGISLATION
All but which of the following are examples of special courts in the federal system:
a. U.S.TaxCourt
b. U.S. Bankruptcy Court
c. U.S.CourtofFederalClaims
d. Pierce County Superior Court
e. U.S.CourtofAppealsfortheArmedForces
Which of the following statements IS NOT true as it relates to the authority of the U.S. Supreme Court?
TheU.S.SupremeCourtisthefinalauthorityonallmattersoffederal jurisdiction.
The primary function of the Supreme Court is one of review.
The key element in the Supreme Court’s authority is that a federal issue must be at stake, either in the form of the parties (diversity
jurisdiction) or in the constitutionality of a state or federal law.
Every case may be submitted to the United States Supreme Court for
review.
Alloftheabovestatementsaretrue.
Judicial review refers to the system by which each branch of government can use its specially designated powers to make sure the other branches act within their constitutionally prescribed limits.
The principle of stare decisis precludes the court from correcting erroneous decisions that were previously issued.
Final Exam Page 2
Introduction to Law Final Exam Instructions Instructor: A. Jarmon
B. INTRODUCTION TO CIVIL PROCEDURE (LECTURE)
The party responding to a civil action has the initial burden of proof.
Equity law is the body of law developed by the courts that serves as precedent for the determination of later controversies.
Quasi-in-rem jurisdiction refers to the ability of a court to exercise jurisdiction over a person involved in litigation in the state in which the court is situated.
Subject matter jurisdiction refers to the authority of a particular court to hear a matter. If the court does not have proper subject matter jurisdiction, the judgment rendered is void.
Where there is diversity of the parties and the amount in controversy exceeds $75,000, the plaintiff may file his action in state court and only upon agreement of the other party, can it be removed to federal court.
10.Under the due process clause, a Washington court may not assert personal jurisdiction over a person unless:
a. Thepersonisgivenadequatenotice
b. The person is given an opportunity to be heard
c. Thepersonhashad“minimumcontacts”withtheforumstate d. A,B,&C
e. A&B
11.The doctrine of preemption precludes states from making laws on matters for which another state has already created regulations.
12.Which of the following is a remedy that can be obtained from a court of
equity?a. Amaxim
b. Speci.
1Figures title5Civil Liberties and the Supreme Court.docxdrennanmicah
1
Figures title: 5 Civil Liberties and the Supreme Court
Carpenter V. United States
In what was a big criminal case in Detroit, several suspects cell phone locations were tracked to prove a drug rings activity. This was going on for several months with no warrant granted with probable cause. Carpenter and his legal team argued after his conviction and in the appeals court that this very action violated his fourth amendment right and should vacate his conviction. This appeal set up a long and important fight that took our courts into a crossroads with regards to digital right being a part of the fourth amendment.
The Original Case and Information Seizure
Carpenter was convicted back in 2013 for a string of burglaries in the Detroit area. The FBI obtained his locations through a seizure of his stored location data for past months. Almost 13,000 data points were obtained by the agency. These data points showed everything about his life in the timeframe received. Agents were able to tell when and where he slept, went to church and much more. According to Chief Justice John Roberts, “when the Government tracks the location of a cell phone it achieves near perfect surveillance, as if it had attached an ankle monitor to the phone’s user.” (Wessler, 2018). The only problem being this perfect surveillance was done without any warrants. This set up the argument that all of this was done against his fourth amendment right.
The Fourth Amendment Right
The fourth amendment states that we all have ”The right of the people to be secure in their persons, houses, papers, and effects, against unreasonable searches and seizures, shall not be violated, and no Warrants shall issue, but upon probable cause, supported by Oath or affirmation, and particularly describing the place to be searched, and the persons or things to be seized” ("America’s Founding Documents", n.d.). At the time this was written there were no such things as cell phones, but our court system was tasked throughout this case to properly interpret its meaning regarding our security and privacy with cell phone use and data. The Supreme Court ruled in favor of Carpenter in “Fourth Amendment must apply to records of such unprecedented breadth and sensitivity” ("America's Founding Documents", n.d.). By viewing someone’s mapped out timestamped locations we get to see very intimately where a person is going and quite possibly what they are doing, and when there are doing it. Not that we have things to hide for some of us, but I still think we are entitled to that level of privacy.
FBI Claims no Right Infringement
The Governments lawyers argues that when we share our information with a “third party” in this case the cellphone company that we forfeit our Fourth Amendment right for that information when doing so. That would mean that phone call information, text messages, and even our GPS data would no longer be our information to protect as it is shared with the cellphone company and that we.
Multiple Choice Questions (Enter your answers on the enclosed answer sheet)
1. Which view of incorporation favors incorporation of certain protections enumerated in the Bill of Rights, but not all of them? It deems certain rights as being more critical or fundamental than others.
a. Total Incorporation
b. Selective Incorporation
c. Total Incorporation Plus
d. Case-by-Case Incorporation
2. Which incorporation perspective has arguably “won out” over the others?
a. Total Incorporation
b. Selective Incorporation
c. Total Incorporation Plus
d. Case-by-Case Incorporation
3. A precedent is a rule of case law that is binding on all lower courts and the court that issued it. The courts will defer to prior decisions based on a similar set of facts and legal questions. This doctrine is known as:
a. Res Gestae.
b. Scire Feci.
c. Stare Decisis.
d. Suo Motu.
4. When a decision does not apply to the current facts, a court will, saying, in effect, that because the facts of the present case are different, the case cannot be decided the same way.
a. distinguish the case
b. use case precedent
c. judge decision
d. enact case law
5. The theory world and real world can differ for which of the following reasons?
a. The Supreme Court sometimes makes decisions on excruciatingly detailed matters that have almost no applicability to most law enforcement officers most of the time.
b. The Supreme Court frequently hands down decisions that would seem to have dramatic effects on the nature of law enforcement, but actually involve issues that are already being addressed by many police agencies.
c. What the courts say and what the police do can differ simply as a consequence of some aspect of the U.S. legal system.
d. All of the above.
BCJ 240 Procedures in the Justice System
Unit 1 Examination
BCJ 240 Procedures in the Justice System
Unit 1 Examination
e.
40
41
6. The primary purpose of criminal procedure is to maintain the proper balance between:
a. controlling crime and due process.
b. dictatorship and democracy.
c. servitude and equality.
d. protection and procedure.
7. Which of the following is NOT one of the concepts underlying the due process perspective?
a. The criminal process looks, or should look, something like an “obstacle course.”
b. Quantity is better than quality.
c. Formality is preferred over informality.
d. A great deal of faith is put in the courts.
8. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the crime control perspective?
a. Assembly-line justice
b. Quantity over quality
c. Insistence on informality
d. Faith in the courts
9. Legal guilt is determined by whether a person is guilty according to the:
a. police
b. judge
c. law
d. jury
10. Which exception to the fruit of poisonous tree doctrine permits the introduction of evidence if it has become attenuated to the extent that it dissipated the taint of the initial unconstitutional act?
a. Independent source exception
b. Purged taint exception
c. Inevitable ex.
The following TrueFalse and Multiple Choice questions cover the m.docxoreo10
The following True/False and Multiple Choice questions cover the material introduced in Chapters 1-2; 4, 6, and 7-8. Each question is worth two (2) points. Please indicate (T) for True or (F) for False for the True/False Statements. For Multiple Choice, please select the letter that corresponds to the best response. There are 50 questions in this section. This section is worth 50 points.
A. LEGAL SYTSTEM, COURTS, AND LEGISLATION
1. All but which of the following are examples of special courts in the federal system: a. U.S. Tax Court
b. U.S. Bankruptcy Court
c. U.S. Court of Federal Claims
d. Pierce County Superior Court
e. U.S. Court of Appeals for the Armed Forces
2. Which of the following statements IS NOT true as it relates to the authority of the U.S. Supreme Court? a. The U.S. Supreme Court is the final authority on all matters of federal jurisdiction.
b. The primary function of the Supreme Court is one of review.
c. The key element in the Supreme Court’s authority is that a federal issue must be at stake, either in the form of the parties (diversity jurisdiction) or in the constitutionality of a state or federal law.
d. Every case may be submitted to the United States Supreme Court for review.
e. All of the above statements are true.
3. Judicial review refers to the system by which each branch of government can use its specially designated powers to make sure the other branches act within their constitutionally prescribed limits.
4. The principle of stare decisis precludes the court from correcting erroneous decisions that were previously issued.
B. INTRODUCTION TO CIVIL PROCEDURE (LECTURE)
5. The party responding to a civil action has the initial burden of proof.
6. Equity law is the body of law developed by the courts that serves as precedent for the determination of later controversies.
7. Quasi-in-rem jurisdiction refers to the ability of a court to exercise jurisdiction over a person involved in litigation in the state in which the court is situated.
8. Subject matter jurisdiction refers to the authority of a particular court to hear a matter. If the court does not have proper subject matter jurisdiction, the judgment rendered is void.
9. Where there is diversity of the parties and the amount in controversy exceeds $75,000, the plaintiff may file his action in state court and only upon agreement of the other party, can it be removed to federal court.
10.Under the due process clause, a Washington court may not assert personal jurisdiction over a person unless:
a. The person is given adequate notice
b. The person is given an opportunity to be heard
c. The person has had “minimum contacts” with the forum state
d. A, B, & C
e. A & B
11.The doctrine of preemption precludes states from making laws on matters for which another state has already created regulations.
12.Which of the following is a remedy that can be obtained from a court of equity?
a. A maxim
b. Specific performance
c ...
Which doctrine allows police to search an automobile without a war.docxalanfhall8953
Which doctrine allows police to search an automobile without a warrant if a delay might result in a loss of evidence?
A. Fruit of the Poisoned Tree Doctrine
B. Silver Platter Doctrine
C. Carroll Doctrine
D. Mapp Doctrine
Question 2 of 20
5.0 Points
The courts have supported drug testing of police officers based on drug abuse/use when what is present?
A. probable cause
B. an anonymous tip
C. proof beyond a reasonable doubt
D. a reasonable suspicion
Question 3 of 20
5.0 Points
Which United States Supreme Court case extended the powers of the police to search vehicles for drugs with a trained dog without the need for any particular reason to suspect a narcotics violation?
A. Carroll v. United States
B. Illinois v. Caballes
C. Florida v. Jimeno
D. Harris v. United States
Question 4 of 20
5.0 Points
The pat-down search was established in the case of __________.
A. Terry v. Ohio
B. Carroll v. United States
C. Chimel v. California
D. Harris v. United States
Question 5 of 20
5.0 Points
Whether the crime involves attacks against computer systems or the information they contain or more traditional offenses like murder, money laundering, trafficking, or fraud, what type of evidence is becoming increasingly important?
A. hearsay
B. interrogation
C. exclusionary
D. electronic
Question 6 of 20
5.0 Points
On occasion, a person may be tricked into consuming an intoxicating substance. This may support a defense known as __________.
A. necessity
B. entrapment
C. involuntary intoxication
D. duress
Question 7 of 20
5.0 Points
In which case did the U.S. Supreme Court state that considerations of public safety can override and negate the need for rights advisement prior to limited questioning?
A. Mapp v. Ohio
B. Miranda v. Arizona
C. New York v. Quarles
D. Terry v. Ohio
Question 8 of 20
5.0 Points
What did Chimel v. California establish?
A. that officers can search the person arrested and the area under that person’s “immediate control” incident to an arrest
B. the good-faith exception
C. the plain-view doctrine
D. that officers can conduct emergency warrantless searches
Question 9 of 20
5.0 Points
Which of the following is not a justification for emergency warrantless searches?
A. danger of escape
B. danger of the removal or destruction of evidence
C. danger to life
D. danger to property
Question 10 of 20
5.0 Points
Which of the following situations would not allow a search under the public safety exception for searches without a warrant?
A. searches of airline passengers in a terminal
B. searches of student lockers in a school
C. searching phone records of a local robbery suspect
D. searching subway passengers
Question 11 of 20
5.0 Points
What division of a police department investigates charges that officers are guilty of wrongdoing?
A. strategic investigations
B. intelligence
C. internal affairs
D. officer supervision
Question 12 of 20
5.0 Points
To e.
Exam QUESTION 1Stare Decisis can be defined as a Latin.docxSANSKAR20
Exam
QUESTION 1
Stare Decisis can be defined as a Latin term meaning:
A.
Freedom to be free: the theory that law is created by the
free expression of humankind and should thereby be
respected
B.
The thing speaks for itself: the notion that previous
statements of fact are adopted as true
C.
Inherently dangerous: the theory that some acts are so
dangerous that negligence is presumed
D.
To stand by a decision: the theory that previous case law
is to be respected by other judges in interpreting law
Exam 2
10 points
QUESTION 2
The elements of negligence are:
A.
Breach, injury, damages
B.
Breach, damages, causation
C.
Duty, breach, causation
D.
Duty, damages, injury
10 points
QUESTION 3
Free speech is:
Exam 3
A.
The right to express yourself without government intervention, in any way
you want
B.
Expression without restraint
C.
The right to perform physical acts or methods of communication that are
harmful to others
D.
The right to be protected from undesirable feedback after you
communicate a thought
10 points
QUESTION 4
The seminal case Brandenburg v. Ohio set forth the precedent that the
government cannot punish inflammatory speech unless the following
threshold element is met:
A.
Clear and present danger
B.
Hate speech
C.
Riot speech
D.
Exam 4
Imminent lawlessness
10 points
QUESTION 5
In the seminal case of Jacobellis v. Ohio, United States
Supreme Court Justice Potter Stewart famously
described obscenity as:
A.
Something created to incite or inflame societies core
values
B.
Something that he knew when he saw it
C.
Something impossible in these modern times
D.
Something giving rise to the prurient interest
Exam 5
10 points
QUESTION 6
Laws created to protect journalists and their sources are
called:
A.
Proposition 50
B.
Free Hat laws
C.
Shield laws
D.
Eagle laws
10 points
QUESTION 7
Based on our discussions in class, BURGLARY can be defined as:
Exam ...
Questions and Answers1. The residents of State Y, located nea.docxcatheryncouper
Questions and Answers:
1.
The residents of State Y, located near the Canadian border, began complaining to elected officials that illegal immigrants were
crossing the Canadian border and straining scarce State Y recourses when many of the immigrants attempted to obtain
medical care in State Y medical clinics and hospital emergency rooms. In an attempt to resolve the problem, the state enacted
a statute making it illegal for nonUS
residents to be treated in state medical facilities. Another part of the statute authorized
the immediate hiring of 100 new health care workers, also providing that only persons who had graduated from a high school
in State Y would be eligible to apply for the new health care positions.
In a challenge to the constitutionality of the first part of the statute excluding nonUS
residents from being treated in state
medical facilities, which of the following would be the best challenge?
A The Privileges and Immunities Clause of the Fourteenth Amendment.
B The reserved powers of the state under the Tenth Amendment.
C The laws enacted by Congress affecting the status of aliens.
D The Fourteenth Amendment Due Process Clause.
2.
Paul applied for a job with city government as a computer systems administrator. City ordinances provided that all city
employees were on probationary status for the first six months of their employment, during which time they could be
discharged for any reason whatsoever. These ordinances also stated that after six months of full time employment for the city,
an employee gained "permanent" status, which meant, among other things, that the employee could only be discharged "for
good cause." Paul was hired by the city and began working fulltime.
After five and onehalf
months, Paul was discharged. His
supervisor came into Paul's office at the end of the workday and said, "Paul, I've decided to let you go. Your computer work is
competent, but you aren't able to interact effectively with other city personnel. Please give me your keys and clean out your
desk."
If Paul challenges his termination from city employment in an appropriate legal action as a violation of his constitutional right
to due process of law, the court should rule for
A Paul, because government employees must be given some kind of notice and opportunity to respond to a job termination prior to the
time the government takes such action.
B Paul, unless the city provides him with a fair postdischarge
hearing at which he can contest the factual issue regarding his ability to
interact with other city employees.
C the city, because under the circumstances the supervisor's actions were sufficient to meet any constitutional requirements as to due
process.
D the city, if the need to prevent Paul from harming the city's computer system in retaliation for his termination justified not providing him
with notice and an opportunity to respond prior to that termination.
3. Your Choice: blank legislature of State enacted a statute providing that pers ...
Questions and Answers1. The residents of State Y, located near .docxJUST36
Questions and Answers:
1.
The residents of State Y, located near the Canadian border, began complaining to elected officials that illegal immigrants were
crossing the Canadian border and straining scarce State Y recourses when many of the immigrants attempted to obtain
medical care in State Y medical clinics and hospital emergency rooms. In an attempt to resolve the problem, the state enacted
a statute making it illegal for nonUS
residents to be treated in state medical facilities. Another part of the statute authorized
the immediate hiring of 100 new health care workers, also providing that only persons who had graduated from a high school
in State Y would be eligible to apply for the new health care positions.
In a challenge to the constitutionality of the first part of the statute excluding nonUS
residents from being treated in state
medical facilities, which of the following would be the best challenge?
A The Privileges and Immunities Clause of the Fourteenth Amendment.
B The reserved powers of the state under the Tenth Amendment.
C The laws enacted by Congress affecting the status of aliens.
D The Fourteenth Amendment Due Process Clause.
2.
Paul applied for a job with city government as a computer systems administrator. City ordinances provided that all city
employees were on probationary status for the first six months of their employment, during which time they could be
discharged for any reason whatsoever. These ordinances also stated that after six months of full time employment for the city,
an employee gained "permanent" status, which meant, among other things, that the employee could only be discharged "for
good cause." Paul was hired by the city and began working fulltime.
After five and onehalf
months, Paul was discharged. His
supervisor came into Paul's office at the end of the workday and said, "Paul, I've decided to let you go. Your computer work is
competent, but you aren't able to interact effectively with other city personnel. Please give me your keys and clean out your
desk."
If Paul challenges his termination from city employment in an appropriate legal action as a violation of his constitutional right
to due process of law, the court should rule for
A Paul, because government employees must be given some kind of notice and opportunity to respond to a job termination prior to the
time the government takes such action.
B Paul, unless the city provides him with a fair postdischarge
hearing at which he can contest the factual issue regarding his ability to
interact with other city employees.
C the city, because under the circumstances the supervisor's actions were sufficient to meet any constitutional requirements as to due
process.
D the city, if the need to prevent Paul from harming the city's computer system in retaliation for his termination justified not providing him
with notice and an opportunity to respond prior to that termination.
3. Your Choice: blank legislature of State enacted a statute providing that pers ...
Fingerprints, Passcodes, and Self Incrimination - BSides NovaWendy Knox Everette
You’re arrested and your phone is held up to your face to be unlocked by the arresting officer, then sent to a forensics lab. Dystopian future or one where FaceID collides with weak self-incrimination protections for biometrics? This talk will explain how your 4th and 5th Amendment rights interact with advances in biometric technology. Along the way it will offer design suggestions for creators of mobile devices and tips to end users.
Introduction to Law Final Exam Instructions Instructor .docxnormanibarber20063
Introduction to Law
Final Exam Instructions
Instructor: A. Jarmon
Final Exam
Page 1
EXAM DATE/TIME SELECTION-ONLY (1) OPTION
There are no re-take options. Your final exam is due Saturday, March 19, 2016 at 12:00 noon
via Canvas. It must be submitted via Canvas. I will not accept exams that are sent to me via
email.
PERMISSIBLE EXAM MATERIALS
This final exam is “open-book/open-notes.” While this exam is “open-book/open-notes,” it is not
group work. Each student is expected to independently complete and submit his/her exam. Any
appearance of plagiarism or similarity in submissions will automatically result in a zero
submitted for each submission. Submissions subject to a zero under this provision are not
eligible for re-take.
CONTENT DESCRIPTION OF FINAL EXAM
This exam is comprehensive. You are being evaluated on your understanding of the legal
principles and theories covered through the course, as well as your ability to apply those
principles and theories to various fact patterns or scenarios.
EXAM-POINT VALUE
This exam is worth 150 points.
Introduction to Law
Final Exam Instructions
Instructor: A. Jarmon
Final Exam
Page 2
SECTION I
The following True/False and Multiple Choice questions cover the material
introduced in Chapters 1-2; 4, 6, and 7-8. Each question is worth two (2) points.
Please indicate (T) for True or (F) for False for the True/False Statements. For
Multiple Choice, please select the letter that corresponds to the best response.
There are 50 questions in this section. This section is worth 50 points.
A. LEGAL SYTSTEM, COURTS, AND LEGISLATION
1. All but which of the following are examples of special courts in the federal
system:
a. U.S. Tax Court
b. U.S. Bankruptcy Court
c. U.S. Court of Federal Claims
d. Pierce County Superior Court
e. U.S. Court of Appeals for the Armed Forces
2. Which of the following statements IS NOT true as it relates to the authority
of the U.S. Supreme Court?
a. The U.S. Supreme Court is the final authority on all matters of federal
jurisdiction.
b. The primary function of the Supreme Court is one of review.
c. The key element in the Supreme Court’s authority is that a federal
issue must be at stake, either in the form of the parties (diversity
jurisdiction) or in the constitutionality of a state or federal law.
d. Every case may be submitted to the United States Supreme Court for
review.
e. All of the above statements are true.
3. Judicial review refers to the system by which each branch of government
can use its specially designated powers to make sure the other branches act
within their constitutionally prescribed limits.
4. The principle of stare decisis precludes the court from correcting erroneous
decisions that were previously issued.
Introduction to Law
Final Exam Instructions
Instructor: A. Jarmon
Final Exam
Page 3
B. INTRODUCTION TO CI.
CJ 500 Sample Case Brief Facts Mr. Miranda was arrest.docxsleeperharwell
CJ 500 Sample Case Brief
Facts: Mr. Miranda was arrested at his residence, taken into custody, and subsequently brought
to the police station. While in custody at the police station, Mr. Miranda was identified by a
witness who made an accusation and complaint against him. Mr. Miranda was then interrogated
by police officers for approximately two hours. Mr. Miranda subsequently confessed to the crime
and gave a signed, written confession. Mr. Miranda was never advised of his right to counsel or
his right to remain silent. At trial, the oral and written confessions were presented to the jury.
Miranda was found guilty of kidnapping and rape and was sentenced to 20 to 30 years
imprisonment on each count. On appeal, the Supreme Court of Arizona held that Miranda’s
constitutional rights were not violated in obtaining the confession.
Issue: Whether statements that are obtained from an individual who is in custody and being
interrogated are admissible at trial if the suspect has not been advised of his Fifth Amendment
privilege to remain silent and his Sixth Amendment right to counsel.
Ruling: Confession received in violation of an individual’s Fifth Amendment and Sixth
Amendment privileges are inadmissible in trial if the individual has not been advised of his or
her rights.
Analysis: The court held that
there can be no doubt that the Fifth Amendment privilege is available outside of criminal
court proceedings and serves to protect persons in all settings in which their freedom of
action is curtailed in any significant way from being compelled to incriminate
themselves. (Miranda v. Arizona, 1966)
As such,
the prosecution may not use statements, whether exculpatory or inculpatory, stemming
from custodial interrogation of the defendant unless it demonstrates the use of procedural
safeguards effective to secure the privilege against self-incrimination. By custodial
interrogation, we mean questioning initiated by law enforcement officers after a person
has been taken into custody or otherwise deprived of his freedom of action in any
significant way. (Miranda v. Arizona, 1966)
The court further held that
without proper safeguards the process of in-custody interrogation of persons suspected or
accused of crime contains inherently compelling pressures which work to undermine the
individual’s will to resist and to compel him to speak where he would otherwise do so
freely. (Miranda v. Arizona, 1966)
Therefore, a defendant
must be warned prior to any questioning that he has the right to remain silent, that
anything he says can be used against him in a court of law, that he has the right to the
presence of an attorney, and that if he cannot afford an attorney one will be appointed for
him prior to any questioning if he so desires. (Miranda v. Arizona, 1966)
Conclusion: Based on the aforementioned reasons, the U.S. Supreme Court overruled and
reversed the conviction of.
QUESTION The BP Pipeline case is a complex situational case abo.docxteofilapeerless
QUESTION:
The BP Pipeline case is a complex situational case about the actions of individuals and the practices of a large corporation.
At the heart of the dispute over whether or not BP acted with gross negligence and wilful misconduct in the 2010 Deepwater Horizon disaster is the “swiss cheese” model of complex accidents.
Hazardous activities are guarded against by multiple barriers and so long as any failures are scattered through them, the system as a whole will avoid an accident.
Research more into this topic and p
repare a 2-3 page paper that adequately addresses the the ethical and environmental issues in this case. Be sure to s
ummarize the BP Pipeline Case regarding Ethical Behaviors and Decision-Making.
.
Question Properties of life and recognizing living and nonliving .docxteofilapeerless
Question:
Properties of life and recognizing living and nonliving things.
Consider the properties and characteristics of life. Choose two items (one of which is alive or has been alive and one which has never been alive). Compare and contrast their characteristics. What characteristics do they share and how are they different? Be prepared to discuss the importance of the various characteristics of living things and how their combination makes life an emergent part of the universe.
.
Question After reading the first 10 chapters and the economic n.docxteofilapeerless
Question: After reading the first 10 chapters and the economic news from the major newspaper such as the Wall Street Journal, New York Times, the Economist and the like, please write a three page paper to explain the three main goal of macroeconomics in the United States and make a diagnosis of the current state of the American economy.
-Economic Report
-
Remember that the report must be at least 3 pages long.
-
You must provide the reference for each of the source used in the paper
-
Please do not use Wikipedia and other open source
.
Question Answer any TEN of the following questions.1. How are.docxteofilapeerless
Question: Answer any TEN of the following questions.
1. How are multiplexers different from switchers?
2. Name the basic types of multiplexers?
3. Name the advanced features that can be incorporate into multiplexers.
4. Describe the principle of time division multiplexing.
5. Describe the significance of camera ID number in case of multiplexing operation.
6. Describe how a quad multiplexer works.
7. What do you understand by picture in a picture in relation to multiplexer.
8. Explain how a multi-picture mosaic display is generated.
9. Why do you need encoder and decoder along with multiplexer?
10. Describe the concept of time lapse recording mode.
11. Compare the performance of duplex multiplexer with that of triplex multiplexer.
12. How is digital recording different from analog recording?
13. Describe how video motion detection can be incorporated in to a multiplexer.
14. What external alarm sensors can be incorporated in to multiplexer?
15. Describe the concept of remote distributed multiplexing.
4 pages
.
Question 6What is stakeholder theory Explain.Your respons.docxteofilapeerless
Question 6
What is stakeholder theory? Explain.
Your response should be at least 200 words in length. You are required to use at least your textbook as source material for your response. All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced; paraphrased and quoted material must have accompanying citations.
Course Textbook
Hartman, L. P., DesJardins, J., & MacDonald, C. (2014).
Business ethics: Decision making for personal integrity & social responsibility
(3rd ed.). New York, NY: McGraw-Hill.
.
Question 6 Explain the significance of gatekeepers. Your respons.docxteofilapeerless
Question 6
Explain the significance of gatekeepers.
Your response should be at least 200 words in length. You are required to use at least your textbook as source material for your response. All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced; paraphrased and quoted material must have accompanying citations.
Course Textbook
Hartman, L. P., DesJardins, J., & MacDonald, C. (2014).
Business ethics: Decision making for personal integrity & social responsibility
(3rd ed.). New York, NY: McGraw-Hill.
.
Question 4The stockholders’ equity section of Tootsie Roll Indus.docxteofilapeerless
Question 4
The stockholders’ equity section of
Tootsie Roll Industries’
balance sheet is shown in the Consolidated Statement of Financial Position.
(Note that Tootsie Roll has two classes of common stock. To answer the following questions, add the two classes of stock together.)
TOOTSIE ROLL INDUSTRIES, INC. AND SUBSIDIARIES
CONSOLIDATED STATEMENTS OF
Earnings, Comprehensive Earnings and Retained Earnings (in thousands except per share data)
For the year ended December 31,
2011
2010
2009
Net product sales
$528,369
$517,149
$495,592
Rental and royalty revenue
4,136
4,299
3,739
Total revenue
532,505
521,448
499,331
Product cost of goods sold
365,225
349,334
319,775
Rental and royalty cost
1,038
1,088
852
Total costs
366,263
350,422
320,627
Product gross margin
163,144
167,815
175,817
Rental and royalty gross margin
3,098
3,211
2,887
Total gross margin
166,242
171,026
178,704
Selling, marketing and administrative expenses
108,276
106,316
103,755
Impairment charges
—
—
14,000
Earnings from operations
57,966
64,710
60,949
Other income (expense), net
2,946
8,358
2,100
Earnings before income taxes
60,912
73,068
63,049
Provision for income taxes
16,974
20,005
9,892
Net earnings
$43,938
$53,063
$53,157
Net earnings
$43,938
$53,063
$53,157
Other comprehensive earnings (loss)
(8,740
)
1,183
2,845
Comprehensive earnings
$35,198
$54,246
$56,002
Retained earnings at beginning of year.
$135,866
$147,687
$144,949
Net earnings
43,938
53,063
53,157
Cash dividends
(18,360
)
(18,078
)
(17,790
)
Stock dividends
(47,175
)
(46,806
)
(32,629
)
Retained earnings at end of year
$114,269
$135,866
$147,687
Earnings per share
$0.76
$0.90
$0.89
Average Common and Class B Common shares outstanding
57,892
58,685
59,425
(The accompanying notes are an integral part of these statements.)
CONSOLIDATED STATEMENTS OF
Financial Position
TOOTSIE ROLL INDUSTRIES, INC. AND SUBSIDIARIES (in thousands except per share data)
Assets
December 31,
2011
2010
CURRENT ASSETS:
Cash and cash equivalents
$78,612
$115,976
Investments
10,895
7,996
Accounts receivable trade, less allowances of $1,731 and $1,531
41,895
37,394
Other receivables
3,391
9,961
Inventories:
Finished goods and work-in-process
42,676
35,416
Raw materials and supplies
29,084
21,236
Prepaid expenses
5,070
6,499
Deferred income taxes
578
689
Total current assets
212,201
235,167
PROPERTY, PLANT AND EQUIPMENT, at cost:
Land
21,939
21,696
Buildings
107,567
102,934
Machinery and equipment
322,993
307,178
Construction in progress
2,598
9,243
455,097
440,974
Less—Accumulated depreciation
242,935
225,482
Net property, plant and equipmen.
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Questions and Answers:
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The residents of State Y, located near the Canadian border, began complaining to elected officials that illegal immigrants were
crossing the Canadian border and straining scarce State Y recourses when many of the immigrants attempted to obtain
medical care in State Y medical clinics and hospital emergency rooms. In an attempt to resolve the problem, the state enacted
a statute making it illegal for nonUS
residents to be treated in state medical facilities. Another part of the statute authorized
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in State Y would be eligible to apply for the new health care positions.
In a challenge to the constitutionality of the first part of the statute excluding nonUS
residents from being treated in state
medical facilities, which of the following would be the best challenge?
A The Privileges and Immunities Clause of the Fourteenth Amendment.
B The reserved powers of the state under the Tenth Amendment.
C The laws enacted by Congress affecting the status of aliens.
D The Fourteenth Amendment Due Process Clause.
2.
Paul applied for a job with city government as a computer systems administrator. City ordinances provided that all city
employees were on probationary status for the first six months of their employment, during which time they could be
discharged for any reason whatsoever. These ordinances also stated that after six months of full time employment for the city,
an employee gained "permanent" status, which meant, among other things, that the employee could only be discharged "for
good cause." Paul was hired by the city and began working fulltime.
After five and onehalf
months, Paul was discharged. His
supervisor came into Paul's office at the end of the workday and said, "Paul, I've decided to let you go. Your computer work is
competent, but you aren't able to interact effectively with other city personnel. Please give me your keys and clean out your
desk."
If Paul challenges his termination from city employment in an appropriate legal action as a violation of his constitutional right
to due process of law, the court should rule for
A Paul, because government employees must be given some kind of notice and opportunity to respond to a job termination prior to the
time the government takes such action.
B Paul, unless the city provides him with a fair postdischarge
hearing at which he can contest the factual issue regarding his ability to
interact with other city employees.
C the city, because under the circumstances the supervisor's actions were sufficient to meet any constitutional requirements as to due
process.
D the city, if the need to prevent Paul from harming the city's computer system in retaliation for his termination justified not providing him
with notice and an opportunity to respond prior to that termination.
3. Your Choice: blank legislature of State enacted a statute providing that pers ...
Questions and Answers1. The residents of State Y, located near .docxJUST36
Questions and Answers:
1.
The residents of State Y, located near the Canadian border, began complaining to elected officials that illegal immigrants were
crossing the Canadian border and straining scarce State Y recourses when many of the immigrants attempted to obtain
medical care in State Y medical clinics and hospital emergency rooms. In an attempt to resolve the problem, the state enacted
a statute making it illegal for nonUS
residents to be treated in state medical facilities. Another part of the statute authorized
the immediate hiring of 100 new health care workers, also providing that only persons who had graduated from a high school
in State Y would be eligible to apply for the new health care positions.
In a challenge to the constitutionality of the first part of the statute excluding nonUS
residents from being treated in state
medical facilities, which of the following would be the best challenge?
A The Privileges and Immunities Clause of the Fourteenth Amendment.
B The reserved powers of the state under the Tenth Amendment.
C The laws enacted by Congress affecting the status of aliens.
D The Fourteenth Amendment Due Process Clause.
2.
Paul applied for a job with city government as a computer systems administrator. City ordinances provided that all city
employees were on probationary status for the first six months of their employment, during which time they could be
discharged for any reason whatsoever. These ordinances also stated that after six months of full time employment for the city,
an employee gained "permanent" status, which meant, among other things, that the employee could only be discharged "for
good cause." Paul was hired by the city and began working fulltime.
After five and onehalf
months, Paul was discharged. His
supervisor came into Paul's office at the end of the workday and said, "Paul, I've decided to let you go. Your computer work is
competent, but you aren't able to interact effectively with other city personnel. Please give me your keys and clean out your
desk."
If Paul challenges his termination from city employment in an appropriate legal action as a violation of his constitutional right
to due process of law, the court should rule for
A Paul, because government employees must be given some kind of notice and opportunity to respond to a job termination prior to the
time the government takes such action.
B Paul, unless the city provides him with a fair postdischarge
hearing at which he can contest the factual issue regarding his ability to
interact with other city employees.
C the city, because under the circumstances the supervisor's actions were sufficient to meet any constitutional requirements as to due
process.
D the city, if the need to prevent Paul from harming the city's computer system in retaliation for his termination justified not providing him
with notice and an opportunity to respond prior to that termination.
3. Your Choice: blank legislature of State enacted a statute providing that pers ...
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You’re arrested and your phone is held up to your face to be unlocked by the arresting officer, then sent to a forensics lab. Dystopian future or one where FaceID collides with weak self-incrimination protections for biometrics? This talk will explain how your 4th and 5th Amendment rights interact with advances in biometric technology. Along the way it will offer design suggestions for creators of mobile devices and tips to end users.
Introduction to Law Final Exam Instructions Instructor .docxnormanibarber20063
Introduction to Law
Final Exam Instructions
Instructor: A. Jarmon
Final Exam
Page 1
EXAM DATE/TIME SELECTION-ONLY (1) OPTION
There are no re-take options. Your final exam is due Saturday, March 19, 2016 at 12:00 noon
via Canvas. It must be submitted via Canvas. I will not accept exams that are sent to me via
email.
PERMISSIBLE EXAM MATERIALS
This final exam is “open-book/open-notes.” While this exam is “open-book/open-notes,” it is not
group work. Each student is expected to independently complete and submit his/her exam. Any
appearance of plagiarism or similarity in submissions will automatically result in a zero
submitted for each submission. Submissions subject to a zero under this provision are not
eligible for re-take.
CONTENT DESCRIPTION OF FINAL EXAM
This exam is comprehensive. You are being evaluated on your understanding of the legal
principles and theories covered through the course, as well as your ability to apply those
principles and theories to various fact patterns or scenarios.
EXAM-POINT VALUE
This exam is worth 150 points.
Introduction to Law
Final Exam Instructions
Instructor: A. Jarmon
Final Exam
Page 2
SECTION I
The following True/False and Multiple Choice questions cover the material
introduced in Chapters 1-2; 4, 6, and 7-8. Each question is worth two (2) points.
Please indicate (T) for True or (F) for False for the True/False Statements. For
Multiple Choice, please select the letter that corresponds to the best response.
There are 50 questions in this section. This section is worth 50 points.
A. LEGAL SYTSTEM, COURTS, AND LEGISLATION
1. All but which of the following are examples of special courts in the federal
system:
a. U.S. Tax Court
b. U.S. Bankruptcy Court
c. U.S. Court of Federal Claims
d. Pierce County Superior Court
e. U.S. Court of Appeals for the Armed Forces
2. Which of the following statements IS NOT true as it relates to the authority
of the U.S. Supreme Court?
a. The U.S. Supreme Court is the final authority on all matters of federal
jurisdiction.
b. The primary function of the Supreme Court is one of review.
c. The key element in the Supreme Court’s authority is that a federal
issue must be at stake, either in the form of the parties (diversity
jurisdiction) or in the constitutionality of a state or federal law.
d. Every case may be submitted to the United States Supreme Court for
review.
e. All of the above statements are true.
3. Judicial review refers to the system by which each branch of government
can use its specially designated powers to make sure the other branches act
within their constitutionally prescribed limits.
4. The principle of stare decisis precludes the court from correcting erroneous
decisions that were previously issued.
Introduction to Law
Final Exam Instructions
Instructor: A. Jarmon
Final Exam
Page 3
B. INTRODUCTION TO CI.
CJ 500 Sample Case Brief Facts Mr. Miranda was arrest.docxsleeperharwell
CJ 500 Sample Case Brief
Facts: Mr. Miranda was arrested at his residence, taken into custody, and subsequently brought
to the police station. While in custody at the police station, Mr. Miranda was identified by a
witness who made an accusation and complaint against him. Mr. Miranda was then interrogated
by police officers for approximately two hours. Mr. Miranda subsequently confessed to the crime
and gave a signed, written confession. Mr. Miranda was never advised of his right to counsel or
his right to remain silent. At trial, the oral and written confessions were presented to the jury.
Miranda was found guilty of kidnapping and rape and was sentenced to 20 to 30 years
imprisonment on each count. On appeal, the Supreme Court of Arizona held that Miranda’s
constitutional rights were not violated in obtaining the confession.
Issue: Whether statements that are obtained from an individual who is in custody and being
interrogated are admissible at trial if the suspect has not been advised of his Fifth Amendment
privilege to remain silent and his Sixth Amendment right to counsel.
Ruling: Confession received in violation of an individual’s Fifth Amendment and Sixth
Amendment privileges are inadmissible in trial if the individual has not been advised of his or
her rights.
Analysis: The court held that
there can be no doubt that the Fifth Amendment privilege is available outside of criminal
court proceedings and serves to protect persons in all settings in which their freedom of
action is curtailed in any significant way from being compelled to incriminate
themselves. (Miranda v. Arizona, 1966)
As such,
the prosecution may not use statements, whether exculpatory or inculpatory, stemming
from custodial interrogation of the defendant unless it demonstrates the use of procedural
safeguards effective to secure the privilege against self-incrimination. By custodial
interrogation, we mean questioning initiated by law enforcement officers after a person
has been taken into custody or otherwise deprived of his freedom of action in any
significant way. (Miranda v. Arizona, 1966)
The court further held that
without proper safeguards the process of in-custody interrogation of persons suspected or
accused of crime contains inherently compelling pressures which work to undermine the
individual’s will to resist and to compel him to speak where he would otherwise do so
freely. (Miranda v. Arizona, 1966)
Therefore, a defendant
must be warned prior to any questioning that he has the right to remain silent, that
anything he says can be used against him in a court of law, that he has the right to the
presence of an attorney, and that if he cannot afford an attorney one will be appointed for
him prior to any questioning if he so desires. (Miranda v. Arizona, 1966)
Conclusion: Based on the aforementioned reasons, the U.S. Supreme Court overruled and
reversed the conviction of.
QUESTION The BP Pipeline case is a complex situational case abo.docxteofilapeerless
QUESTION:
The BP Pipeline case is a complex situational case about the actions of individuals and the practices of a large corporation.
At the heart of the dispute over whether or not BP acted with gross negligence and wilful misconduct in the 2010 Deepwater Horizon disaster is the “swiss cheese” model of complex accidents.
Hazardous activities are guarded against by multiple barriers and so long as any failures are scattered through them, the system as a whole will avoid an accident.
Research more into this topic and p
repare a 2-3 page paper that adequately addresses the the ethical and environmental issues in this case. Be sure to s
ummarize the BP Pipeline Case regarding Ethical Behaviors and Decision-Making.
.
Question Properties of life and recognizing living and nonliving .docxteofilapeerless
Question:
Properties of life and recognizing living and nonliving things.
Consider the properties and characteristics of life. Choose two items (one of which is alive or has been alive and one which has never been alive). Compare and contrast their characteristics. What characteristics do they share and how are they different? Be prepared to discuss the importance of the various characteristics of living things and how their combination makes life an emergent part of the universe.
.
Question After reading the first 10 chapters and the economic n.docxteofilapeerless
Question: After reading the first 10 chapters and the economic news from the major newspaper such as the Wall Street Journal, New York Times, the Economist and the like, please write a three page paper to explain the three main goal of macroeconomics in the United States and make a diagnosis of the current state of the American economy.
-Economic Report
-
Remember that the report must be at least 3 pages long.
-
You must provide the reference for each of the source used in the paper
-
Please do not use Wikipedia and other open source
.
Question Answer any TEN of the following questions.1. How are.docxteofilapeerless
Question: Answer any TEN of the following questions.
1. How are multiplexers different from switchers?
2. Name the basic types of multiplexers?
3. Name the advanced features that can be incorporate into multiplexers.
4. Describe the principle of time division multiplexing.
5. Describe the significance of camera ID number in case of multiplexing operation.
6. Describe how a quad multiplexer works.
7. What do you understand by picture in a picture in relation to multiplexer.
8. Explain how a multi-picture mosaic display is generated.
9. Why do you need encoder and decoder along with multiplexer?
10. Describe the concept of time lapse recording mode.
11. Compare the performance of duplex multiplexer with that of triplex multiplexer.
12. How is digital recording different from analog recording?
13. Describe how video motion detection can be incorporated in to a multiplexer.
14. What external alarm sensors can be incorporated in to multiplexer?
15. Describe the concept of remote distributed multiplexing.
4 pages
.
Question 6What is stakeholder theory Explain.Your respons.docxteofilapeerless
Question 6
What is stakeholder theory? Explain.
Your response should be at least 200 words in length. You are required to use at least your textbook as source material for your response. All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced; paraphrased and quoted material must have accompanying citations.
Course Textbook
Hartman, L. P., DesJardins, J., & MacDonald, C. (2014).
Business ethics: Decision making for personal integrity & social responsibility
(3rd ed.). New York, NY: McGraw-Hill.
.
Question 6 Explain the significance of gatekeepers. Your respons.docxteofilapeerless
Question 6
Explain the significance of gatekeepers.
Your response should be at least 200 words in length. You are required to use at least your textbook as source material for your response. All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced; paraphrased and quoted material must have accompanying citations.
Course Textbook
Hartman, L. P., DesJardins, J., & MacDonald, C. (2014).
Business ethics: Decision making for personal integrity & social responsibility
(3rd ed.). New York, NY: McGraw-Hill.
.
Question 4The stockholders’ equity section of Tootsie Roll Indus.docxteofilapeerless
Question 4
The stockholders’ equity section of
Tootsie Roll Industries’
balance sheet is shown in the Consolidated Statement of Financial Position.
(Note that Tootsie Roll has two classes of common stock. To answer the following questions, add the two classes of stock together.)
TOOTSIE ROLL INDUSTRIES, INC. AND SUBSIDIARIES
CONSOLIDATED STATEMENTS OF
Earnings, Comprehensive Earnings and Retained Earnings (in thousands except per share data)
For the year ended December 31,
2011
2010
2009
Net product sales
$528,369
$517,149
$495,592
Rental and royalty revenue
4,136
4,299
3,739
Total revenue
532,505
521,448
499,331
Product cost of goods sold
365,225
349,334
319,775
Rental and royalty cost
1,038
1,088
852
Total costs
366,263
350,422
320,627
Product gross margin
163,144
167,815
175,817
Rental and royalty gross margin
3,098
3,211
2,887
Total gross margin
166,242
171,026
178,704
Selling, marketing and administrative expenses
108,276
106,316
103,755
Impairment charges
—
—
14,000
Earnings from operations
57,966
64,710
60,949
Other income (expense), net
2,946
8,358
2,100
Earnings before income taxes
60,912
73,068
63,049
Provision for income taxes
16,974
20,005
9,892
Net earnings
$43,938
$53,063
$53,157
Net earnings
$43,938
$53,063
$53,157
Other comprehensive earnings (loss)
(8,740
)
1,183
2,845
Comprehensive earnings
$35,198
$54,246
$56,002
Retained earnings at beginning of year.
$135,866
$147,687
$144,949
Net earnings
43,938
53,063
53,157
Cash dividends
(18,360
)
(18,078
)
(17,790
)
Stock dividends
(47,175
)
(46,806
)
(32,629
)
Retained earnings at end of year
$114,269
$135,866
$147,687
Earnings per share
$0.76
$0.90
$0.89
Average Common and Class B Common shares outstanding
57,892
58,685
59,425
(The accompanying notes are an integral part of these statements.)
CONSOLIDATED STATEMENTS OF
Financial Position
TOOTSIE ROLL INDUSTRIES, INC. AND SUBSIDIARIES (in thousands except per share data)
Assets
December 31,
2011
2010
CURRENT ASSETS:
Cash and cash equivalents
$78,612
$115,976
Investments
10,895
7,996
Accounts receivable trade, less allowances of $1,731 and $1,531
41,895
37,394
Other receivables
3,391
9,961
Inventories:
Finished goods and work-in-process
42,676
35,416
Raw materials and supplies
29,084
21,236
Prepaid expenses
5,070
6,499
Deferred income taxes
578
689
Total current assets
212,201
235,167
PROPERTY, PLANT AND EQUIPMENT, at cost:
Land
21,939
21,696
Buildings
107,567
102,934
Machinery and equipment
322,993
307,178
Construction in progress
2,598
9,243
455,097
440,974
Less—Accumulated depreciation
242,935
225,482
Net property, plant and equipmen.
Question 5. Look how great we are doing,” said Sawyer Mittlestaed.docxteofilapeerless
Question 5.
“Look how great we are doing,” said Sawyer Mittlestaedt, president of Elliott Company. “Our sales have grown from $1.6 million to $2.0 million this year, we about doubled our warehouse space, and we have more cash in the bank than we started with. A few more years of growth like this and we’ll be tops in the industry.”
“Yes, our statements look pretty good,” replied Endia Bush, the company’s vice president for finance. “But I have concerns that we’re doing business with a lot of companies we don’t know much about. But I do agree, we’re certainly selling a lot of merchandise; our inventory is actually down from last year.”
See statements on next page.
Elliott Company
Comparative Balance Sheets
At December 31, 2015 and 2014
2015
2014
Assets
Current assets:
Cash.
$42,000
$ 27,000
15000 incr
Marketable securities
19,000
13,000
Accounts receivable.
710,000
530,000
Inventory
848,000
860,000
Prepaid expenses
10,000
5,000
Total current assets
1,435,000
1,629,000
Long-term investments
60,000
110,000
Loans to subsidiaries
130,000
80,000
Plant and equipment
3,170,000
2,600,000
Less accumulated depreciation
810,000
755,000
Net plant and equipment
2,360,000
1,845,000
Patents
84,000
90,000
Total assets
$4,263,000
$3,560,000
Liabilities and Stockholders’ Equity
Current liabilities
:
Accounts payable
$ 970,000
$ 670,000
Accrued liabilities
65,000
82,000
Total current liabilities
1,035,000
752,000
Long-term Bonds Payable
820,000
600,000
Notes payable
95,000
80,000
Total liabilities
1,950,000
1,432,000
Stockholders’ equity:
Common stock
1,740,000
1,650,000
Retained earnings .
573,000
478,000
Total stockholders’ equity
2,313,000
2,128,000
Total liabilities and stock
$4,263,000
3,560,000
Elliott’s income statement for 2015 follows
Sales
$2,000,000
Cost of goods sold
1,300,000
Gross profit
700,000
Selling and administrative expenses
490,000
Net operating income
210,000
Nonoperating items:
Gain on sale of investments
$60,000
Loss on sale of equipment.
20,000
40,000
Income before taxes
250,000
Income taxes
80,000
Net income
$ 170,000
The following additional information is available about Elliott’s activities during 2015:
Cash dividends declared and paid to the common stockholders totaled $75,000.
Long-term BONDS with a value of $380,000 were repaid during the year.
Equipment was sold during the year for $70,000. The equipment had cost $130,000 and had $40,000 in accumulated depreciation on the date of sale.
Long-term investments were sold during the year for $110,000. These investments had cost $50,000 when purchased several years ago.
5-1. Ms. Bush asks you to prepare a statement of cash flow (indirect method) for 2015.
5-2. What is Elliott’s free cash flow? Interpret your findings.
5-3. Is Elliott Corp. doing as well as its CEO believes? Discuss.
Question 7.
Thompson Co..
Question 5The financial statements of The Hershey Company and .docxteofilapeerless
Question 5
The financial statements of
The Hershey Company
and
Tootsie Roll
are presented below.
THE HERSHEY COMPANY
CONSOLIDATED STATEMENTS OF INCOME
For the years ended December 31,
2011
2010
2009
In thousands of dollars except per share amounts
Net Sales
$6,080,788
$5,671,009
$5,298,668
Costs and Expenses:
Cost of sales
3,548,896
3,255,801
3,245,531
Selling, marketing and administrative
1,477,750
1,426,477
1,208,672
Business realignment and impairment (credits) charges, net
(886
)
83,433
82,875
Total costs and expenses
5,025,760
4,765,711
4,537,078
Income before Interest and Income Taxes
1,055,028
905,298
761,590
Interest expense, net
92,183
96,434
90,459
Income before Income Taxes
962,845
808,864
671,131
Provision for income taxes
333,883
299,065
235,137
Net Income
$628,962
$509,799
$435,994
Net Income Per Share—Basic—Class B Common Stock
$2.58
$2.08
$1.77
Net Income Per Share—Diluted—Class B Common Stock
$2.56
$2.07
$1.77
Net Income Per Share—Basic—Common Stock
$2.85
$2.29
$1.97
Net Income Per Share—Diluted—Common Stock
$2.74
$2.21
$1.90
Cash Dividends Paid Per Share:
Common Stock
$1.3800
$1.2800
$1.1900
Class B Common Stock
1.2500
1.1600
1.0712
The notes to consolidated financial statements are an integral part of these statements and are included in the Hershey's 2011 Annual Report, available at www.thehersheycompany.com.
THE HERSHEY COMPANY
CONSOLIDATED BALANCE SHEETS
December 31,
2011
2010
In thousands of dollars
ASSETS
Current Assets:
Cash and cash equivalents
$693,686
$884,642
Accounts receivable—trade
399,499
390,061
Inventories
648,953
533,622
Deferred income taxes
136,861
55,760
Prepaid expenses and other
167,559
141,132
Total current assets
2,046,558
2,005,217
Property, Plant and Equipment, Net
1,559,717
1,437,702
Goodwill
516,745
524,134
Other Intangibles
111,913
123,080
Deferred Income Taxes
38,544
21,387
Other Assets
138,722
161,212
Total assets
$4,412,199
$4,272,732
LIABILITIES AND STOCKHOLDERS’ EQUITY
Current Liabilities:
Accounts payable
$420,017
$410,655
Accrued liabilities
612,186
593,308
Accrued income taxes
1,899
9,402
Short-term debt
42,080
24,088
Current portion of long-term debt
97,593
261,392
Total current liabilities
1,173,775
1,298,845
Long-term Debt
1,748,500
1,541,825
Other Long-term Liabilities
617,276
494,461
Total liabilities
3,539,551
3,335,131
Commitments and Contingencies
—
—
Stockholders’ Equity:
The Hershey Company Stockholders’ Equity
Preferred Stock, shares issued: none in 2011 and 2010
—
—
Common Stock, shares issued: 299,269,702 in 2011 and 299,195,325 in 2010
299,269
299,195
Class B Common Stock.
Question 4The stockholders’ equity section of Tootsie Roll Industr.docxteofilapeerless
Question 4
The stockholders’ equity section of Tootsie Roll Industries’ balance sheet is shown in the Consolidated Statement of Financial Position.
(Note that Tootsie Roll has two classes of common stock. To answer the following questions, add the two classes of stock together.)
TOOTSIE ROLL INDUSTRIES, INC. AND SUBSIDIARIES
CONSOLIDATED STATEMENTS OF
Earnings, Comprehensive Earnings and Retained Earnings (in thousands except per share data)
For the year ended December 31,
2011
2010
2009
Net product sales
$528,369
$517,149
$495,592
Rental and royalty revenue
4,136
4,299
3,739
Total revenue
532,505
521,448
499,331
Product cost of goods sold
365,225
349,334
319,775
Rental and royalty cost
1,038
1,088
852
Total costs
366,263
350,422
320,627
Product gross margin
163,144
167,815
175,817
Rental and royalty gross margin
3,098
3,211
2,887
Total gross margin
166,242
171,026
178,704
Selling, marketing and administrative expenses
108,276
106,316
103,755
Impairment charges
—
—
14,000
Earnings from operations
57,966
64,710
60,949
Other income (expense), net
2,946
8,358
2,100
Earnings before income taxes
60,912
73,068
63,049
Provision for income taxes
16,974
20,005
9,892
Net earnings
$43,938
$53,063
$53,157
Net earnings
$43,938
$53,063
$53,157
Other comprehensive earnings (loss)
(8,740
)
1,183
2,845
Comprehensive earnings
$35,198
$54,246
$56,002
Retained earnings at beginning of year.
$135,866
$147,687
$144,949
Net earnings
43,938
53,063
53,157
Cash dividends
(18,360
)
(18,078
)
(17,790
)
Stock dividends
(47,175
)
(46,806
)
(32,629
)
Retained earnings at end of year
$114,269
$135,866
$147,687
Earnings per share
$0.76
$0.90
$0.89
Average Common and Class B Common shares outstanding
57,892
58,685
59,425
(The accompanying notes are an integral part of these statements.)
CONSOLIDATED STATEMENTS OF
Financial Position
TOOTSIE ROLL INDUSTRIES, INC. AND SUBSIDIARIES (in thousands except per share data)
Assets
December 31,
2011
2010
CURRENT ASSETS:
Cash and cash equivalents
$78,612
$115,976
Investments
10,895
7,996
Accounts receivable trade, less allowances of $1,731 and $1,531
41,895
37,394
Other receivables
3,391
9,961
Inventories:
Finished goods and work-in-process
42,676
35,416
Raw materials and supplies
29,084
21,236
Prepaid expenses
5,070
6,499
Deferred income taxes
578
689
Total current assets
212,201
235,167
PROPERTY, PLANT AND EQUIPMENT, at cost:
Land
21,939
21,696
Buildings
107,567
102,934
Machinery and equipment
322,993
307,178
Construction in progress
2,598
9,243
455,097
440,974
Less—Accumulated depreciation
242,935
225,482
Net property, plant and equipment
.
Question 8The contract interest rate for bondsA.must.docxteofilapeerless
Question
8:
The contract interest rate for bonds:
A.
must equal the effective interest rate.
B.
is greater than the effective interest rate when bonds are issued at a premium.
C.
has no relation to the cash flow associated with a particular bond.
D.
will fluctuate over the life of a bond.
E.
None of these.
Question
9:
Frick Corporation issued $100,000 of 7%, 15-year bonds on June 1, 2014 (dated April 1 2014) at 101 plus accrued interest, which is paid on April 1 and October 1.
The proper entry to record issuance of the bonds includes a debit to Cash for:
a.
$100,000.
b.
$101,000.
c.
$101,167.
d.
$102,167.
e.
None of these.
Question
10:
Which of the following statements about treasury stock is true?
a.
Excess of the sales price over cost should be credited to retained earnings.
b.
Gains are not recorded on treasury stock transactions but losses are.
c.
Losses on treasury stock transactions are recorded in income.
d.
Reacquiring treasury stock causes stockholders equity to decrease.
e.
None of these.
Question
11:
Frick Company has 100,000 shares of common stock outstanding. On April 15, the board declared a $.30 dividend to be paid to stockholders of record on May 4.
The dividend was distributed on May 15.
The proper journal entry for Frick Company on May 15 does not include:
a.
a credit to Dividends Payable for $30,000.
b.
a debit to Dividends for $30,000.
c.
a credit to Cash for $30,000.
d.
Both A and B, above.
e.
None of these.
Acct221
Page 4 of 8
Question
12:
In an effort to concentrate its resources in more profitable areas, Frick Corporation recently sold its family pizza restaurant segment.
The disposal constitutes:
a.
an extraodinary item.
b.
a discontinued operation which should be treated as a prior period adjustment.
c.
a discontinued operation which should be disclosed net-of-tax effects.
d.
a portion of income from continuing operations.
e.
None of these.
Question
13:
Frick Corporation has 100,000, 5%, $100 par preferred shares outstanding.
The stock is callable at 102, but was originally issued at 99.
The current dividend has been fully paid.
Total stockholders' equity is $20,000,000.
The residual common equity is:
a.
$20,000,000
b.
$10,100,000
c.
$10,000,000
d.
$9,800,000
e.
None of these.
Question
14:
Frick Company's balance sheet included cash ($4,000,000), accounts receivable ($16,000,000), inventories ($10,000,000), prepaid expenses ($2,000,000), accounts payable ($9,000,000), and accrued expenses ($7,000,000).
These are the only current items.
a.
The quick ratio is 2:1.
b.
The quick ratio is 1.25:1.
c.
The current ratio is 1.875:1.
d.
Both A and C.
e.
None of these.
Question
15:
Selected information for 2014 is: cost of goods sold, $5,400,000; average inventory, $1,800,000; net sales, $7,200,000; average receivables, $960,000; and net income, $720,000.
Assuming a 360-day year, what was the inventory turnover ratio for 2014?
a.
333
b.
3
c.
7.5
d.
20
e.
QUESTION 3
A.
Retribution
B.
Incapacitation
C.
Determinate Sentencing
D.
Deterrence
E.
Rehabilitation
F.
Restoration
G.
Indeterminate Sentencing
14 points
2 points
.
Question 2A group working at the University of California, Berke.docxteofilapeerless
Question 2
A group working at the University of California, Berkeley has developed “nanothermometers,” little nanoparticles that can be injected into cells to measure the temperature in various places in the cell. So far, it has been used in cells growing in a culture dish.
Indicate what you think the group will discover about the temperature in different parts of the cell. Discuss whether you believe it will be the same or different, and explain why.
.
Question 6
A.
The tendency to view all things from one’s own perspective, even when there is evidence against one’s position.
B.
Thinking for oneself rather than uncritically accepting the views of others.
C.
Striving to create disciplined thinking as well as holding oneself to the same standards that one holds others to.
D.
The failure to hold oneself to the same intellectual standards that one holds others to.
E.
The tendency to passively accept the views of others and agree with mass positions on issues.
F.
The fear of considering ideas that do not match our own.
G.
The art of thinking about one’s thinking with the goal of improving thinking.
H.
The tendency to think that the world is a better place when people learn to think for themselves, when they draw reasonable conclusions, and when they think logically.
I.
Awareness of the limits of human knowledge and a special focus on being aware of situations in which one is likely to be self-deceived due to native egocentrism.
J.
The tendency to give up the search for truth or understanding when difficult circumstances arise.
K.
The ability to push on in the face of intellectual adversity in order to understand more about the truth of an issue or idea.
L.
The willingness to face ideas and positions on issues that directly threaten our own ideas and beliefs.
M.
The tendency of the human mind to think that it knows more than it does, or that is in possession of the TRUTH.
N.
The tendency to feel threatened by logical thinking and scientific explanation, often the result of fear or the pain involved in analyzing one’s beliefs.
O.
The tendency to ignore other people’s ideas, thought, and feelings because their ideas do not address that with which one is interested.
NEED THIS IN ONE HOUR
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Question 6.6. Mariel hires Andrew as manager of her sporting goo.docxteofilapeerless
Question 6.
6.
Mariel hires Andrew as manager of her sporting goods store. Nothing is said to Andrew about hiring other employees, but the store is understaffed, so Andrew hires two clerks. Andrew has what type of authority to hire the clerks? (Points : 1)
[removed] Actual authority
[removed] Apparent authority
[removed] Ratified authority
[removed] No authority
.
Question 6 Outline the business reasons to limiting monito.docxteofilapeerless
Question 6
Outline the business reasons to limiting monitoring.
Your response should be at least 200 words in length. You are required to use at least your textbook as source material for your response. All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced; paraphrased and quoted material must have accompanying citations.
Course Textbook
Hartman, L. P., DesJardins, J., & MacDonald, C. (2014).
Business ethics: Decision making for personal integrity & social responsibility
(3rd ed.). New York, NY: McGraw-Hill.
.
Question 6 (1 point)The full child tax credit is available to .docxteofilapeerless
Question 6 (1 point)
The full child tax credit is available to unmarried taxpayers whose AGI does not exceed:
$55,000.
$11,000.
$75,000.
$150,000.
$125,000.
Question 7 (1 point)
For tuition expenses paid during the year for a student attending graduate school, an education credit is available that is equal to:
100% of up to $2,500 of such expenses.
20% of up to $2,500 of such expenses.
20% of up to $10,000 of such expenses.
50% of up to $10,000 of such expenses.
$2,000 plus 25% of the next $2,000 of such expenses.
Question 8 (1 point)
The maximum child and dependent care credit that a married couple with three qualifying children can claim is:
Question 8 options:
$2,100.
$1,800.
$3,150.
$1,200.
$2,400.
Question 9 (1 point)
The additional child tax credit is claimed on:
Question 9 options:
Form 2441.
Schedule 8812.
Form 8863.
Schedule EIC.
Form 1116.
Question 10 (1 point)
Which of the following taxpayers cannot file Form 1040EZ?
A taxpayer with more than $99,999 of taxable income
A taxpayer receiving unemployment compensation
A taxpayer with taxable scholarship income
None of the above taxpayers can file Form 1040EZ
All of the above taxpayers can file Form 1040EZ
Question 16 (1 point)
John pays his former wife Rose $3,100 in alimony and $400 in child support each month. Assuming John makes all 12 payments during the year, how much of the $42,000 must Rose include in gross income:
$37,200.
$42,000.
$4,800.
$0.
None of the above.
Question 17 (1 point)
As part of their divorce agreement, Harry transfers to Mary, his former spouse, GM stock with a market value of $30,000. Harry had $20,000 invested in the stock. How does this transfer affect Harry, and what is Mary's basis in the stock?
Harry has no gain or loss, and Mary's basis is $20,000.
Harry has no gain or loss, and Mary's basis is $30,000.
Harry has a gain of $10,000, and Mary's basis is $20,000.
Harry has a gain of $10,000, and Mary's basis is $30,000.
None of the above.
Question 18 (1 point)
Employees are required to report the amount of tips they receive to their employer when their tips for the month exceed:
$0.
$20.
$25.
$100.
None of the above.
Question 19 (1 point)
On January 1, 2014, Ron pays $92,550 for corporate bonds that have a $100,000 face value. The bonds were originally issued 10 years earlier for $94,660. Prior to January 1, 2014, the previous owner had included $3,100 of original issue discount (OID) in gross income. The amount of Ron's market discount on the bonds is:
$2,110.
$7,450.
$5,340
$5,210.
$4,350.
Question 20 (1 point)
In computing the taxable amount of social security benefits, the (first-tier) base amount for a married person who files jointly with her spouse is:
$0.
$16,000.
$25,000.
$32,000.
$50,000.
.
Question 2 of 205.0 PointsPopper’s demarcation criterion of fals.docxteofilapeerless
Question 2 of 20
5.0 Points
Popper’s demarcation criterion of falsifiability runs into two difficulties. One of which is:
[removed]
A. historical Zeitgeists.
[removed]
B. scientific theories actually compete with each other as well as with nature.
[removed]
C. it does not agree with the nomological approach.
[removed]
D. fulfilling all your desires without exception.
Question 3 of 20
5.0 Points
In the Hempel and Oppenheim covering-law model of explanation, explanation is basically the same as:
[removed]
A. understanding.
[removed]
B. control.
[removed]
C. prediction.
[removed]
D. superstition.
Question 4 of 20
5.0 Points
Who was the Archaic Greek Philosopher that in essence told his student, “This is how I see things- how I believe things are. Try to improve upon my teaching.”
[removed]
A. Leahey
[removed]
B. Achilles
[removed]
C. Elgin Marbles
[removed]
D. Thales
Question 5 of 20
5.0 Points
According to Thomas Kuhn, most eras in science are dominated by a single
Weltanschauung
called a(n):
[removed]
A. Gestalt.
[removed]
B. research plan.
[removed]
C. paradigm.
[removed]
D. axiom set.
Question 6 of 20
5.0 Points
Like Wittgenstein, the
Weltanschauung
approach to science views science as being:
[removed]
A. essentially rational.
[removed]
B. engaged in the search for truth.
[removed]
C. based on models of nature.
[removed]
D. a form of life.
Question 7 of 20
5.0 Points
In a Kuhn’s view of science, what provides scientists with a blueprint and foundation for scientific enterprises?
[removed]
A. The covering law
[removed]
B. The falsification test
[removed]
C. Anomalies
[removed]
D. A paradigm
Question 8 of 20
5.0 Points
The thesis that unobserved, theoretically postulated entities actually exist is called:
[removed]
A. instrumentalism.
[removed]
B. realism.
[removed]
C. unificationism.
[removed]
D. positivism.
Question 9 of 20
5.0 Points
The most important Greek moral value was
sophrosyne
, which meant:
[removed]
A. finding your true inner personality by asking family to help you.
[removed]
B. fulfilling all your desires without exception.
[removed]
C. private contemplation of the gods.
[removed]
D. self control, the kind that springs from wisdom.
Question 10 of 20
5.0 Points
Imagine the author of a History of Psychology textbook (known as book X) devotes a single chapter to “The Great Men of Psychology.” In contrast, the author of your textbook has sought to place psychology within larger social and historical patterns. One could argue that your history of psychology text represents an example of __________ while text book (X) represents a more __________ dimension.
[removed]
A. externalism; internal
[removed]
B. internalism; external
[removed]
C. a nomological perspective; semantic
[removed]
D. naturalism; deductive
Question 11 of 20
5.0 Points
The "New History" criticizes the "Old History" for:
[removed]
A. presenting history "from below."
[rem.
Model Attribute Check Company Auto PropertyCeline George
In Odoo, the multi-company feature allows you to manage multiple companies within a single Odoo database instance. Each company can have its own configurations while still sharing common resources such as products, customers, and suppliers.
The French Revolution, which began in 1789, was a period of radical social and political upheaval in France. It marked the decline of absolute monarchies, the rise of secular and democratic republics, and the eventual rise of Napoleon Bonaparte. This revolutionary period is crucial in understanding the transition from feudalism to modernity in Europe.
For more information, visit-www.vavaclasses.com
Honest Reviews of Tim Han LMA Course Program.pptxtimhan337
Personal development courses are widely available today, with each one promising life-changing outcomes. Tim Han’s Life Mastery Achievers (LMA) Course has drawn a lot of interest. In addition to offering my frank assessment of Success Insider’s LMA Course, this piece examines the course’s effects via a variety of Tim Han LMA course reviews and Success Insider comments.
Embracing GenAI - A Strategic ImperativePeter Windle
Artificial Intelligence (AI) technologies such as Generative AI, Image Generators and Large Language Models have had a dramatic impact on teaching, learning and assessment over the past 18 months. The most immediate threat AI posed was to Academic Integrity with Higher Education Institutes (HEIs) focusing their efforts on combating the use of GenAI in assessment. Guidelines were developed for staff and students, policies put in place too. Innovative educators have forged paths in the use of Generative AI for teaching, learning and assessments leading to pockets of transformation springing up across HEIs, often with little or no top-down guidance, support or direction.
This Gasta posits a strategic approach to integrating AI into HEIs to prepare staff, students and the curriculum for an evolving world and workplace. We will highlight the advantages of working with these technologies beyond the realm of teaching, learning and assessment by considering prompt engineering skills, industry impact, curriculum changes, and the need for staff upskilling. In contrast, not engaging strategically with Generative AI poses risks, including falling behind peers, missed opportunities and failing to ensure our graduates remain employable. The rapid evolution of AI technologies necessitates a proactive and strategic approach if we are to remain relevant.
Acetabularia Information For Class 9 .docxvaibhavrinwa19
Acetabularia acetabulum is a single-celled green alga that in its vegetative state is morphologically differentiated into a basal rhizoid and an axially elongated stalk, which bears whorls of branching hairs. The single diploid nucleus resides in the rhizoid.
Francesca Gottschalk - How can education support child empowerment.pptxEduSkills OECD
Francesca Gottschalk from the OECD’s Centre for Educational Research and Innovation presents at the Ask an Expert Webinar: How can education support child empowerment?
Read| The latest issue of The Challenger is here! We are thrilled to announce that our school paper has qualified for the NATIONAL SCHOOLS PRESS CONFERENCE (NSPC) 2024. Thank you for your unwavering support and trust. Dive into the stories that made us stand out!
June 3, 2024 Anti-Semitism Letter Sent to MIT President Kornbluth and MIT Cor...Levi Shapiro
Letter from the Congress of the United States regarding Anti-Semitism sent June 3rd to MIT President Sally Kornbluth, MIT Corp Chair, Mark Gorenberg
Dear Dr. Kornbluth and Mr. Gorenberg,
The US House of Representatives is deeply concerned by ongoing and pervasive acts of antisemitic
harassment and intimidation at the Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT). Failing to act decisively to ensure a safe learning environment for all students would be a grave dereliction of your responsibilities as President of MIT and Chair of the MIT Corporation.
This Congress will not stand idly by and allow an environment hostile to Jewish students to persist. The House believes that your institution is in violation of Title VI of the Civil Rights Act, and the inability or
unwillingness to rectify this violation through action requires accountability.
Postsecondary education is a unique opportunity for students to learn and have their ideas and beliefs challenged. However, universities receiving hundreds of millions of federal funds annually have denied
students that opportunity and have been hijacked to become venues for the promotion of terrorism, antisemitic harassment and intimidation, unlawful encampments, and in some cases, assaults and riots.
The House of Representatives will not countenance the use of federal funds to indoctrinate students into hateful, antisemitic, anti-American supporters of terrorism. Investigations into campus antisemitism by the Committee on Education and the Workforce and the Committee on Ways and Means have been expanded into a Congress-wide probe across all relevant jurisdictions to address this national crisis. The undersigned Committees will conduct oversight into the use of federal funds at MIT and its learning environment under authorities granted to each Committee.
• The Committee on Education and the Workforce has been investigating your institution since December 7, 2023. The Committee has broad jurisdiction over postsecondary education, including its compliance with Title VI of the Civil Rights Act, campus safety concerns over disruptions to the learning environment, and the awarding of federal student aid under the Higher Education Act.
• The Committee on Oversight and Accountability is investigating the sources of funding and other support flowing to groups espousing pro-Hamas propaganda and engaged in antisemitic harassment and intimidation of students. The Committee on Oversight and Accountability is the principal oversight committee of the US House of Representatives and has broad authority to investigate “any matter” at “any time” under House Rule X.
• The Committee on Ways and Means has been investigating several universities since November 15, 2023, when the Committee held a hearing entitled From Ivory Towers to Dark Corners: Investigating the Nexus Between Antisemitism, Tax-Exempt Universities, and Terror Financing. The Committee followed the hearing with letters to those institutions on January 10, 202
Unit 8 - Information and Communication Technology (Paper I).pdfThiyagu K
This slides describes the basic concepts of ICT, basics of Email, Emerging Technology and Digital Initiatives in Education. This presentations aligns with the UGC Paper I syllabus.
Unit 8 - Information and Communication Technology (Paper I).pdf
Question 1 of 205.0 PointsThe court decision that defined obscen.docx
1. Question 1 of 20
5.0 Points
The court decision that defined obscenity as being a work that
“taken as a whole, lacks serious literary, artistic, political, or
scientific value” is:
A. Roth v. United States.
B. FCC v. Pacifica Foundation.
C. Miller v. California.
D. Furman v. Georgia.
Reset Selection
Question 2 of 20
5.0 Points
Which of the following Supreme Court cases, affecting all
subsequent obscenity rulings since, held that the state has a
“compelling interest” in protecting the welfare of children?
A. Roth v. United States
B. FCC v. Pacifica Foundation
C. Miller v. California
D. Regina v. Hicklin
Reset Selection
Question 3 of 20
5.0 Points
Which of the following acts first attempted to protect families
and children from online sexually explicit acts?
A. Telecommunications Reform Act of 1996
B. Child Pornography Prevention Act of 1982
2. C. Child Protection Act of 1984
D. Protection of Children Against Sexual Exploitation Act of
1977
Reset Selection
Question 4 of 20
5.0 Points
In an effort to tighten prohibitions at the Federal level against
child pornography, what did Congress introduce that eliminated
the obscenity requirement established in Miller v. California?
A. Telecommunications Reform Act of 1996
B. Child Pornography Prevention Act of 1982
C. Child Protection Act of 1984
D. Protection of Children Against Sexual Exploitation Act of
1977
Reset Selection
Question 5 of 20
5.0 Points
Without question, the single most important court decision
regarding state prohibitions of child pornography is:
A. New York v. Ferber.
B. Miller v. California.
C. Stanley v. Georgia.
D. Osborne v. Ohio.
Reset Selection
Question 6 of 20
3. 5.0 Points
The Supreme Court has said that states have more leeway in the
regulation of pornographic depictions of children than in the
regulation of obscenity because:
A. the Supreme Court has no jurisdiction over state lawmaking.
B. the use of children as subjects of pornographic materials is
harmful to the mental health of the child.
C. no obscenity statute has ever been upheld by the Supreme
Court.
D. most state constitutions do not allow for freedom of
expression.
Reset Selection
Question 7 of 20
5.0 Points
What replaced the “Protection of Children Against Sexual
Exploitation of 1977” act?
A. The Omnibus Crime Control Bill
B. Title 18 of the United States Code
C. The three pronged test of Cahill v. Utah
D. The Child Protection Act of 1984
Reset Selection
Question 8 of 20
5.0 Points
Which of the following was enacted in anticipation of an
explosion of explicit material emerging on the Internet and
specifically targets the issue of virtual child pornography?
A. Telecommunications Reform Act of 1996
4. B. Child Pornography Prevention Act of 1996
C. Child Protection Act of 1984
D. Protection of Children Against Sexual Exploitation Act
Reset Selection
Question 9 of 20
5.0 Points
What court struck down most of the Child Pornography
Prevention Act, saying that it was unconstitutional to the extent
that it proscribed computer images that did not involve the use
of real children in their production or dissemination?
A. The Eleventh Circuit Court of Appeals
B. The Sixth Circuit Court of Appeals
C. The Eighth Circuit Court of Appeals
D. the Ninth Circuit Court of Appeals
Reset Selection
Question 10 of 20
5.0 Points
What issue, of interest to computer crime prosecutors, has not
yet been ruled upon by the United States Supreme Court?
A. Whether the First Amendment will be applicable to Internet
communications
B. Legislation dealing with technologically generated computer
images
C. The continuation of the exclusionary rule
D. Whether Congress can pass laws prohibiting child
pornography
5. Reset Selection
Question 11 of 20
5.0 Points
The probable cause requirement of the Fourth Amendment:
A. is based on a “reasonable person” standard.
B. does not apply if you have a warrant.
C. does not apply in computer crimes.
D. applies only when police get a warrant.
Reset Selection
Question 12 of 20
5.0 Points
The Electronic Communications Privacy Act of 1986 gave
individuals more protection than the Fourth Amendment
because:
A. the Fourth Amendment does not apply to state police, it only
applies to federal authorities.
B. statutory law is more binding than case law.
C. it applies to all individuals, not just those acting on behalf of
the government.
D. it makes the “equal protection” clause of the Fourteenth
Amendment applicable to the states.
Reset Selection
Question 13 of 20
5.0 Points
One failing of the Electronic Communications Privacy Act of
1986 is that:
A. it was found to be “arbitrary and capricious” by the Ninth
6. Circuit.
B. it only extends to communications which affect interstate or
foreign commerce.
C. jurisdictional issues render it impossible to enforce.
D. it expires by operation of law in 2006.
Reset Selection
Question 14 of 20
5.0 Points
Which act requires manufacturers of telecommunications
equipment and service providers to develop systems which
provide the capability for surveillance of telephone and cellular
communications, advanced paging, satellite-based systems, and
specialized mobile radio?
A. CALEA
B. ECPA
C. PPA
D. Harrison Communications Act of 1997
Reset Selection
Question 15 of 20
5.0 Points
Which of the following is TRUE concerning search warrants?
A. Contraband cannot be seized unless it is specifically
mentioned in the warrant.
B. Federal law enforcement authorities are not required to get
search warrants.
C. The warrant must describe with particularity the places to be
7. searched and the items to be seized.
D. A search warrant can only be obtained from a federal judge.
Reset Selection
Question 16 of 20
5.0 Points
Lawrence decides to have a few friends over for a cookout.
While he is outside flipping burgers on the grill, one of his
guests goes inside Lawrence’s house and starts looking through
the files on his computer without Lawrence’s permission. He
finds pornographic pictures that Lawrence has made of some of
the neighborhood kids. Although he is not affiliated with law
enforcement in any way, the guest feels it is his civic duty to
copy the files onto a disc and turn them over to the police.
Lawrence is arrested. Lawrence tells his lawyer that his Fourth
Amendment rights have been violated because the search and
seizure was unreasonable. This argument is:
A. not valid. Since computer evidence can be destroyed easily
and quickly, exigent circumstances dictated that no warrant was
necessary.
B. valid because there was no probable cause for the guest to
have searched the computer prior to his doing so. Any evidence
found must be excluded.
C. valid because a warrant was necessary to seize the files.
D. not valid because no Fourth Amendment protection exists for
searches conducted by someone acting independently absent
direction from the government.
Reset Selection
Question 17 of 20
5.0 Points
Not all searches require a search warrant. For example, a
8. consent search does not require a warrant if which of the
following requirements is met?
A. The person giving the consent must have the proper authority
over the area to be searched and is legally capable of granting
such access.
B. It can be shown that a magistrate or judge was unavailable.
C. It can be shown that those conducting the search checked
with the U.S. Attorney’s office before proceeding.
D. The person giving the consent must be advised beforehand
that any evidence seized can be used in a court of law against
him and that he has the right to an attorney before the search
takes place.
Reset Selection
Question 18 of 20
5.0 Points
The police obtain a search warrant to go to Harry’s house and
look for stolen computers. They serve the warrant and, once
inside, begin their search. While on the scene, one of the
officers sees a bag of marijuana in plain view on Harry’s coffee
table. He immediately knows it is marijuana, based on his 10
years of experience as a drug officer. The evidence is seized,
and Harry is charged with possession of marijuana. Was the
seizure of the marijuana valid under the Fourth Amendment?
A. Absolutely not. The Fourth Amendment requires that the
object of the search be described with particularity. Since the
police had no probable cause to search for drugs, and it wasn’t
mentioned in the warrant, they exceeded the bounds of the
warrant, and the exclusionary rule will require that the evidence
be thrown out.
B. Absolutely. The police were acting in a lawful manner by
being in the house to serve a search warrant. Since they were
9. legally on the scene, anything in plain view which is obviously
evidence of any crime can be seized and will be admissible in
Harry’s trial.
C. Absolutely not. Unless the officer who seized it is a drug
identification expert and tested the material, there is no way
that the officer can know for certain that the item was in fact
marijuana. The motion to suppress this evidence will be granted
by the judge.
D. Absolutely. Marijuana is contraband, and it is illegal to
possess it. As such, there are no Fourth Amendment protections.
Regardless of whether the police were in an area where they
were legally entitled to be or not, this evidence can be seized
and will be admissible in court at Harry’s trial.
Reset Selection
Question 19 of 20
5.0 Points
A computer crime investigator looks for suspected child
molesters by going to a live chat room on the Internet. She does
not identify herself as a police officer. In fact, she does not say
anything at all but remains silent in the chat room. If she is able
to obtain enough evidence to use against a molester to build a
case against him, what will most courts likely say about her
methods? (Assume for the purposes of this question that the
court in question is not the Ninth Circuit Court of Appeals.)
A. Most courts will likely say that a wiretap was required prior
to obtaining any evidence.
B. Most courts will likely say that the molester had a reasonable
expectation of privacy since the officer did not say anything and
the molester did not know she was there. Therefore, any
evidence collected will be excluded.
C. Most courts will likely say that no warrant was required.
10. Since the officer could read the offending words on her screen,
they are considered to be in “plain view” and are thus exempt
from the warrant requirement of the Fourth Amendment.
D. Most courts will likely say that there is no expectation of
privacy in an Internet chat room since others are likely to visit
there. Therefore, no warrant is necessary.
Reset Selection
Question 20 of 20
5.0 Points
Generally, it can be said that because the courts recognize the
difficulty of detection and prosecution of cyberspace child
pornography, they tend to:
A. give child pornographers the harshest possible sentences.
B. rule consistently from court to court.
C. give child pornographers sentences far less than those
provided for under law.
D. fail to agree on the appropriateness of traditional
investigative techniques.