nda polity questions

1. Q1. The system of judicial review originated in
(a) Germany
(b) India
(c) Russia
(d) U.S.A.
Explanation: (d). Judicial review is the doctrine under which legislative &
executive actions are subject to review (and possible invalidation) by the
judiciary. It is an example of the separation of powers in a modern governmental
system (where the judiciary is one of three branches of government). Is is one of
the main characteristics of government in the Republic of the United States. In
the United States, federal & state courts (at all levels, both appellate & trial) are
able to review & declare the “constitutionality”, or agreement with the Constitution
(or lack there of) of legislation that is relevant to any case properly within their
jurisdiction. In American legal language, “judicial review” refers primarily to the
adjudication of constitutionality of statutes, especially by the Supreme Court of
the United States.
Q2. Which of the given legislation gives constitutional status to three-tier
Panchayati Raj system –
(a) 73rd constitutional amendment, 1993
(b) 72nd constitutional amendment, 1992
(c) 74th constitutional amendment, 1993
(d) 75th constitutional amendment, 1994
Explanation: (a) 73rd constitutional amendment, 1993.The philosophy of
Panchayat Raj is deeply steeped in tradition & culture of rural India & is by no
means a new concept. April 24,1993 is a red letter day in the history of
Panchayati Raj in India as on this day the constitution (73rd Amendment)
Act,1992 came into force to provide constitutional status to the Panchayati Raj
institutions. Panchayati Raj provided a system of self-governance at the village
level, however, it did not have a constitutional status.
Q3. Under which among the given circumstances, the Governor can reserve a
state bill for the consideration of the President –
1. If it is ultra vires.
2. It is opposed to the Directive Principles of State Policy.
3. If it endangers the position of the state High Court.
4. If it is dealing with the compulsory acquisition of property under Article 31 – A.
(a) 1, 2, 3 & 4
(b) 1, 2 & 3
(c) 2, 3 & 4

2. (d) 1, 3 & 4 State Govt.
Ans: (a)
Q4. One of the following is not the function of the municipalities under 74th
Amendment
(a) Economic and social planning
(b) Construction of buildings
(c) Water supply
(d) Fisheries
Ans: (d)
Q5. How does the Constitution of India describe India as –
(a) A Union of States
(b) A federation of States & Union Areas
(c) Bharatvarsh
(d) A federated nation
Explanation: (a) A Union of States.With its adoption, the Union of India officially
became the modern & contemporary Republic of India & it replaced the
Government of India Act 1935 as the country’s fundamental governing document.
The Constitution declares India to be a sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic
republic, assuring its citizens of justice, equality, & liberty, & endeavours to
promote fraternity among them.
Q6. The 1st State in India to implement Panchayati Raj System was
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Punjab
(c) Gujarat
(d) Uttar Pradesh
Explanation: (a) Rajasthan.In October 1957, the Balwant Rai Mehta committee
suggested the organization of Panchayati Raj in rural India. The National
Development council accepted the recommendations of Balwant Rai Mehta
committee in 1958. It recommended the creation of the three tier Panchayati Raj-
Panchayats at the village level, Panchayat Samities at the block level & Zila
Parishads at the district level. On October 2, 1959, Rajasthan became the 1st
State to establish Panchayati Raj system. Thereafter, Andhra Pradesh, Punjab,
West Bengal, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Orissa, Bihar, Kerala, J & K, Himachal
Pradesh & in fact all states introduced Panchayati Raj in their respective areas
by passing necessary laws.
Q7. While appointing a Lokayuka, the Governor in most of the states consults:
1. President of India
2. Speaker of the Legislative Assembly

3. 3. Leader of the opposition in the Legislative Assembly
4. Chief justice of the State High Court.
5. Leader of the Opposition in the Legislative Council.
(a) 1, 2 & 4
(b) 1, 4 & 5
(c) 3, 4 & 5
(d) 3 & 4
Ans: (d)
Q8. Which of the following article empowers the President to call for joint sitting
of both houses?
(a) Art 102
(b) Art 101
(c) Art 108
(d) Art 110
Ans: (c)
Q9. Which among the given exercised the most profound influence in framing the
Indian Constitution –
(a) US Constitution
(b) British Constitution
(c) Irish Constitution
(d) The Government of India Act, 1935
Explanation: (d). The most profound influence was exercised by the Government
of India Act of 1935. Such features as the federal scheme, office of governor,
power of federal judiciary, emergency powers etc were drawn from this Act. The
British practice influenced the lawmaking procedures, rule of law, system of
single citizenship, besides, of course, the model of a parliamentary government.
The US Constitution inspired details on the independence of judiciary, judicial
review, fundamental rights, & the removal of Supreme Court & High Court
judges. The Irish Constitution was the source of the Directive Principles, method
of Presidential elections, & the nomination of members of Rajya Sabha by the
President.
Q10. Which among the given is not an administrative function of a Village
Panchayat –
(a) Providing burial & cremation grounds
(b) Providing sanitation & drainage
(c) Providing college education
(d) Maintenance of roa
Explanation: (c) Providing college education.Some of the functions of a Gram
Panchayat are: collection of taxes like house etc; promotion of educational,

4. health, agriculture & communication facilities; providing health & drinking water
facilities whenever the village people need; produce authentic documents
regarding birth, death or property details of village people; look after general
welfare & immediate development of village e. road, fight, bazaar, community
facilities, etc.g.
Q11. The true statements about ordinance making power of the Governor are:
1. It is laid down in Article 213.
2. It can be issued by him after the advice of the president of state council of
ministers.
3. It is co-extensive with the legislative power of the state legislature.
4. It can be issued only during the recess of State Legislative Assembly & not the
Legislative Council.
5. It can not be withdrawn by him anytime.
(a) 1, 3 & 5
(b) 2, 3 & 4
(c) 1, 2 & 3
(d) 2, 4 & 5
Ans: (c)
Q12. One of the following is not an urban local body :
(a) town area committee
(b) municipalities
(c) samitis
(d) notified area committee
Ans: (c)
Q13. A federal structure for India was 1st put forward by the:
(a) Act of 1919
(b) Act of 1909
(c) Act of 1935
(d) Act of 1947
Explanation: (c) Act of 1935.The Government of India Act 1935, the voluminous
& final constitutional effort at governing British India, articulated three major
goals: establishing a loose federal structure, attaining provincial autonomy, &
safeguarding minority interests through separate electorates. In February 1937,
however, provincial autonomy became a reality when elections were held. The
federal provisions, intended to unite princely states & British India at the centre,
were not implemented as of ambiguities in safeguarding the existing privileges of
princes.

5. Q14. The Committee appointed in 1977 to review working of the Panchayati Raj
was chaired by:
(a) Ashok Mehta
(b) Balwant Rai Mehta
(c) K. N. Katju
(d) Jagjivan Ram
Explanation: (a) Ashok Mehta.In December 1977, the Janata Government
appointed a committee on Panchayati Raj institutions under the chairmanship of
Ashok Mehta. As a result of this report, the Indian states of Karnataka, Andhra
Pradesh, & West Bengal passed new legislation. The committee submitted its
report in August 1978 & made 132 recommendations to revive & strengthen the
declining Panchayati Raj system in the country.
Q15. Which among the given are the discretionary powers given to the Governor
of a State –
1. Sending a report to the President of India for imposing the President’s rule
2. Appointing the Ministers
3. Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the
President of India
4. Making the rules to conduct the business of the State Govt. Select the true
answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 & 3 only
(b) 1 & 2 only
(c) 2, 3 & 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 & 4
Ans: (a)
Q16. Under which article are the Council of Ministers collectively responsible to
Parliament?
(a) Art 74 (c)
(b) Art 75 (c)
(c) Art 73 (b)
(d) Art 72 (b)
Ans: (b)
Q17. Charles Correa is a renowned Indian
(a) Painter
(b) Freedom fighter
(c) Architect, urban planner
(d) Award winning doctor
Explanation: Charles Correa was an Indian architect, urban planner & activist. He
was chiefly responsible for the planning of township of Navi Mumbai in the

6. 1970s. Credited for the creation of modern architecture in post-Independence
India, he was described as “India’s greatest architect”. 1.
Q18. All doubts & disputes in connection with election of the President are
inquired into & decided by __________.
(a) the Supreme Court
(b) the Election Commission
(c) the Parliament
(d) Prime Minister
Explanation: (a) the Supreme Court.According to Article 71 of the Constitution, all
doubts & disputes arising out of or in connection with the election of a President
or Vice-President shall be inquired into & decided by the Supreme Court. I If the
election is declared void by the Supreme Court, acts done by him in the exercise
& performance of the powers & duties of the office, on or before the date of the
decision of the Supreme Court shall not be invalidated by reason of that
declaration.
Q19. Article 156 of the Constitution of India provides that a Governor shall hold
office for a term of 5 years from the date on which he enters upon his office.
Which among the given can be deducted from this –
1. No Governor can be removed from office till the completion of his term.
2. No Governor can continue in office beyond a period of five years. Which
among the given statements is/are correct –
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 only
(c) Both 1 & 2
(d) Neither
Ans: (d)
Q20. Consider the following statements: ________
1. National Policy on Education envisages a common educational structure which
is 10+2+1+3 ________
2. It promotes values such as emphasis on common cultural heritage, secularism
and the like ________ Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
Q21. Who among the following was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of
the Constitution –

7. (a) Rajendra Prasad
(b) J. B. Kripalani
(c) J. L. Nehru
(d) B. R. Ambedkar
Explanation: (d)., Alladi Krishnaswamy Iyer (ExAdvocate General, Madras State),
N Gopalaswami Ayengar (Ex-Prime Minister, J&K & later member of Nehru
Cabinet), B L Mitter (Ex-Advocate General, India), Md. Saadullah (Ex- Chief
Minister of Assam, Muslim League member) & D P Khaitan (Scion of Khaitan
Business family & a renowned lawyer). The constitutional advisor was Sir
Benegal Narsing Rau (who became 1st Indian Judge in International Court of
Justice, 1950–54).
Q22. Which among the given is not a Panchayati Raj Institution –
(a) Gram Panchayat
(b) Gram Sabha
(c) Gram Cooperative Society
(d) Nyaya Panchayat
Explanation: (c) Gram Cooperative Society. Cooperative is an autonomous
association of persons who voluntarily cooperate for their mutual social,
economic, & cultural benefit. The Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) in India are
Zilla Panchayat; Block Panchayat or Panchayat Samiti; Gram Panchayat; Gram
Sabha Cooperatives include non-profit community organizations & businesses
that are owned & managed by the people who use its services (a consumer
cooperative) and/or by the people who work there (a worker cooperative) or by
the people who live there (a housing cooperative).
Q23. In which among the given bodies, does the Chief Minister of a State hold
membership –
1. National Integration Council
2. National Development Council
3. Inter-State Council
4. Zonal Council Select the true answer from the codes given below:
(a) 2 & 3
(b) 1, 3 & 4
(c) 1, 2, 3 & 4
(d) 2, 3 & 4
Ans: (c)
Q24. The National Policy on Agriculture (2000) does not include one of the
following:
(a) To promote safety, health and conducive environment at farms and fields
(b) To minimize fluctuations in commodity prices

8. (c) To provide adequate and timely supply of quality inputs
(d) To seek rational utilization of water resources
Ans: (a)
Q25. Who among the given was not a member of the Constituent Assembly
established in July 1946 –
(a) K M Munshi
(b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Abul Kalam Azad
Explanation: (c) Mahatma Gandhi.The Constituent Assembly of India was elected
to write the Constitution of India.B. Some of its main members were Pandit
Jawaharlal Nehru, Maulana Abul Kalam Azad, Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, Acharya
J. Kriplani, Dr. Rajendra Prasad, Smt. Sarojini Naidu, Shri Hare-Krushna
Mahatab, Pandit Govind Ballabh Pant, Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, Shri Sarat Chandra
Bose, Shri C. Rajagopalachari & Shri M. Asaf Ali.
Q26. The 3-tier of the Panchayati Raj System consists of
(a) Janapad Panchayat, Taluka Panchayat, Anchal Panchayat
(b) Gram Sabha, Anchal Panchayat, Panchayat Samiti
(c) Gram Panchayat, Block & Panchayat Samiti, Zilla Parishad
(d) Gram Sabha, Panchayat Samiti, Zilla Parishad
Explanation: (d). Panchayati Raj is a system of governance in which gram
panchayats are the basic units of administration. It has 3 levels: village, block &
district. At the village level, it is called a Gram Panchayat. It is a local body
working for the good of the village. The number of members usually ranges from
7 to 31; occasionally, groups are larger, but they never have fewer than 7
members. The block-level institution is called the Panchayat Samiti. The district-
level institution is called the Zilla Parishad.
Q27. Consider the following statements: The Governor of a State has the power
to appoint:
1. Judges of the High Court
2. Members of the State Public Service Commission
3. Members of the State Finance Commission
4. The Accountant General Which of the following of these statements are
correct –
(a) 2 & 3
(b) 1 & 2
(c) 1, 3 & 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 & 4
Explanation: (a) The Governor has the power to appoint the Council of Ministers

9. including the Chief Minister of the state, the Advocate General & the members of
the State Public Service Commission. However, the Governor cannot remove the
members of the State Public Service Commission as they can only be removed
by an order of the President.
Q28. One of the following is wrongly listed:
(a) National Policy on: 1990 Education
(b) National Policy on: 2000 Agriculture
(c) National Policy on Health : 2009 Safety and Environment at work place
(d) National Youth Policy: 2003
Ans: (a)
Q29. From the Constitution of which country the provision of Federation was
borrowed while framing the Constitution of India –
(a) UK
(b) USA
(c) Canada
(d) Switzerland
Explanation: (c) Canada.Though the basic features of Indian Constitution are
based on the Government of India Act, 1935, it has many features which were
borrowed from many other constitutions. It was from the Canadian Constitution
that India borrowed a quasi-federal form of government (a federal system with a
strong central government) & the idea of Residual Powers.
Q30. The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee was related with—
(a) Banking Reforms
(b) Industrial Policy
(c) Panchayati Raj
(d) Center-State relations
Explanation: (c) Panchayati Raj.The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee was a
committee appointed by the Government of India in January 1957 to examine the
working of the Community Development Programme (1952) & the National
Extension Service (1953) & to suggest measures for their better working. The
committee submitted its report in November 1957 & recommended the
establishment of the scheme of ‘democratic decentralization’ which finally came
to be known as Panchayati Raj. The Chairman of this committee was Balwant
Rai Mehta.
1. Which one of the following pairs of the Schedule in the Constitution of
India and its Content is not correctly matched?
Schedule Content
a) Eighth Schedule : Languages

10. b) Second Schedule : The forms of oaths and affirmations
c) Fourth Schedule : Allocation of seats in the Council of States
d) Tenth Schedule : Provision as to disqualification on the ground of defection
Ans. (b) Second Schedule : The forms of oaths and affirmations
Second schedule of the Constitution lists the emoluments for holders of
Constitutional offices such as President, Vice President, Governors, Judges and
Comptroller and Auditor-General of India, Speaker of Lok Sabha, etc.
2. Consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution of India empowers the Parliament to form new States and to
alter the areas, boundaries or names of existing States by passing a resolution in
simple majority.
2. Jammu and Kashmir has been given special status under Article 370 of the
Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c) Both 1 and 2
Article 3 of the Constitution empowers the Parliament in relation formation of new
States and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of existing States. For
instance, Parliament, by law, can form a new State by separation of territory from
any State or by uniting two or more States or parts of States or by uniting any
territory to a part of any State, can increase the area of any State, can diminish the
area of any State and alter the boundaries of any State.
3. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha may resign his office by writing,
addressed to the
(a) President of India
(b) Prime Minister of India
(c) Vice President of India
(d) Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Ans. (d) Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha
As per the Article 94 (b) of the Constituiton, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha should
hand over the his resignation to the Deputy Speaker of the House.
4. The Election Commission recognizes political party as a national party if
1. it secures at least six percent of the total valid votes polled in four or more
States in a general election to the Lok Sabha or to the State Legislative Assemblies.
2. it wins at least four seats in a general election to the Lok Sabha from any State
or States.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only

11. c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c) Both 1 and 2
As per the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968, for any
political party to be eligible for recognition as a National Party, it has to satisfy any
of the three conditions listed below.
i. Secure at least 6% of the valid vote in an Assembly or a Lok Sabha General
Election in any four or more states and won at least 4 seats in a Lok Sabha General
Election from any State or States
ii. Win at least 2% of the total Lok Sabha seats in a Lok Sabha General Election and
these seats have to be won from at least 3 states
iii. The party is recognized as a State Party in at least four states
5. Consider the following statements:
1. The Amendment procedure has been provided in Article 368 of the Constitution
of India.
2. The consent of the States is mandatory for all Amendments to the Constitution of
India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (a) 1 only
As per the Article 368 (2) of the Constitution, if an amendment seeks to make any
change in
(a) Article 54, Article 55, Article 73, Article 162 or Article 241, or
(b) Chapter IV of Part V, Chapter V of Part VI, or Chapter I of Part XI, or
(c) any of the Lists in the Seventh Schedule, or
(d) the representation of States in Parliament, or
(e) the provisions of this article
The amendment shall also require to be ratified by the Legislature of not less than
one half of the States.
6. Which of the following statements relating to the Comptroller and
Auditor General (CAG) of India is/are correct?
1. The CAG can attend the sitting of the Committee on Public Accounts.
2. The CAG can attend the sitting of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
3. The jurisdiction of CAG is co-extensive with powers of the Union Government.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

12. Ans. (a) 1 only
The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India is a Constitutional authority.
Besides auditing the expenditure of all the departments and ministries of the Union
as well as the State governments, the CAG is also the external auditor of
Government-owned corporations and conducts supplementary audit of government
companies.
7. Which of the following statements relating to election as the President
of India is/are correct?
1. A person above the age of thirty-five years is eligible for election as the President
of India.
2. The President of India is eligible for re-election for more than one term.
3. A person is not eligible for election as the President of India if the person holds
and office of profit.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Ans. (c) 1, 2 and 3
The Article 54 of the Constituion states that the the President shall be elected by
the members of an electoral college consisting of the elected members of both
Houses of Parliament; and the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the
States.
8. The citizens of India do not have which one of the following
Fundamental Rights?
a) Right to reside and settle in any part of India
b) Right to acquire, hold and dispose of property
c) Right to practice any profession
d) Right to form co-operative societies
Ans. (b) Right to acquire, hold and dispose of property
At present, the Indian Constitution does not recognize property right as a
fundamental right. In the year 1977, the 44th amendment eliminated the right to
acquire, hold and dispose of property as a fundamental right. However, in another
part of the Constitution, Article 300 (A) was inserted to affirm that no person shall
be deprived of his property save by authority of law. In a nut shell, the right to
acquire, hold and dispose of property is a Constitutional right but not a fundamental
right.
9. The Prime Minister must be a member of which of the following houses?
a) Lok Sabha
b) Rajya Sabha
c) Either of the houses
d) Not a necessary condition being a member of either house

13. Ans. (c) Either of the houses
In 1997, the Supreme Court held that a person who is not a member of either
House of Parliament can be appointed as Prime Minister for six months, within
which, he should become a member of either House of Parliament; otherwise, he
ceases to be the Prime Minister.
Constitutionally, the Prime Minister may be a member of any of the two Houses of
parliament. For instance, three Prime Ministers - Indira Gandhi (1966), Deve Gowda
(1996) and Manmohan Singh (2004), were members of the Rajya Sabha. In Britain,
on the other hand, the Prime Minister should definitely be a member of the Lower
House (House of Commons).
10. In which of the following cases the Council of Ministers gets dissolved?
a) Resignation of Prime Minister
b) Death of Prime Minister
c) In either of the above cases
d) None of the above
Ans. (c) In either of the above cases
Since the Prime Minister stands at the head of the council of ministers, the other
ministers cannot function when the Prime Minister resigns or dies. In other words,
the resignation or death of an incumbent Prime Minister automatically dissolves the
council of ministers and thereby generates a vacuum. The resignation or death of
any other minister, on the other hand, merely creates a vacancy which the Prime
Minister may or may not like to fill.
1. Which of the following elections is not conducted under the supervision of
the Election Commission of India?
a) Election of Vice President of India
b) Election of States legislatures
c) Election of local bodies
d) Election of Union Legislature
2. The Ninth Schedule of the Indian Constitution was added by
a) First Amendment
b) Eighth Amendment
c) Ninth Amendment
d) Forty Second Amendment
3. Who among the following is often referred to as the ‘De Jure’ head of the
Indian State?
a) President
b) Prime Minister
c) Chief Justice of India
d) Vice President of India
4. As per the Constitution of India, which of the following are fundamental to

14. the governance of the country?
a) Fundamental Rights
b) Fundamental Duties
c) Directive Principles of State Policy
d) Fundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties
5. Who said that the preamble is the keynote to the constitution?
a) Ernest Barker
b) BR Ambedkar
c) KM Munshi
d) Jawahar Lal Nehru
6. Which of the following is not true regarding the Office of the Chief Election
Commissioner of India?
a) President appoints the Chief Election Commissioner of India
b) Chief Election Commissioner is nowhere mentioned in the Constitution of
India
c) Chief Election Commissioner’s salary is equal to a judge of the Supreme
Court
d) T Swaminathan was the first Chief Election Commissioner of India.
7. Which of the following is not a fundamental duty of Indian citizens?
a) To safeguard public property
b) To protect and improve the natural environment
c) Respecting women
d) To develop the scientific temper and spirit of inquiry
8. The Union Council of Ministers is responsible to the……..
a) Rajya Sabha
b) President
c) Lok Sabha
d) Prime Minister
9. Which of the following Government of India Acts is called as the mini
constitution of India?
a) Government of India Act, 1919
b) Government of India Act, 1935
c) Government of India Act, 1919
d) Government of India Act, 1909
10. Separate electorate for Muslims was introduced by the
a) Indian Councils Act, 1909
b) Government of India Act, 1919
c) Government of India Act, 1935
d) None of the Above
Answers with Explanations
1. (c) Election of local bodies
As per the Article 243K and 243ZA, State Election Commissions conduct
elections to Panchayath Raj Institutions and Urban Local Bodies respectively;
these two articles were inserted in the Constitution through 73rd and 74th

15. Constitutional Amendment Acts respectively.
2. (a) First Amendment
The first amendment to the Indian Constitution added the Ninth Schedule to
it. It was introduced by the Nehru Government, on 10 May 1951 to address
judicial decisions and pronouncements especially about the chapter on
fundamental rights. The schedule seeks to protect legislations from judicial
‘reach’.
3. (a) President
The President is often referred to as the De Jure (nominal) head of the
Indian State; In contrast, Prime Minister, is referred to as the ‘De facto’
(real) head.
4. (c) Directive Principles of State Policy
The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) as the name suggests are
guiding principles to the governments at all the levels for policy making.
However, DPSP, contained in Part IV (Article 36-51) of the Constitution are
not enforceable by any court.
5. (a) Ernest Baker
Sir Ernest Barker was an English political scientist who served as Principal of
King's College London from 1920 to 1927. He opined that the preamble is
the keynote to the constitution.
6. (d) T Swaminathan was the first Chief Election Commissioner of India
India’s first Chief Election Commissioner of India is Sukumar Sen, who
occupied the office between 21 March 1950 and 19 December 1958.
7. (c) Respecting women
The Fundamental Duties of citizens were added to the Constitution by the
42nd Amendment in 1976. They were added upon the recommendations of
the Swaran Singh Committee. Originally 10 in number, the Fundamental
Duties were increased to 11 by the 86th Amendment in 2002, which added a
duty on every parent or guardian to ensure that their child or ward was
provided opportunities for education between the ages of 6 and 14 years.
8. (c) Lok Sabha
The article 75(3) of the Constitution states that the Council of Minister shall
be collectively responsible to the House of the People (Lok Sabha).
9. (b) Government of India Act, 1935
The Government of India Act, 1935 was originally passed in August 1935
and is said to be the longest Act (British) of Parliament ever enacted by that
time. Many of its features like autonomous status to provinces, federal
constitution, federal court, etc were incorporated in the Constitution of India
that came into force on 26 January 1950.
10. (b) Indian Councils Act, 1909
The Act of 1909 stipulated that in councils and in the imperial legislature
that only Muslims should vote for candidates for the Muslim seats ('separate
electorates').