This document contains sample exam questions and answers for the BCABA certification exam from CertificationKing.com. It includes 30 multiple choice practice questions on topics like functional behavior assessment, ethics, experimental design, and principles of behavior analysis. CertificationKing.com provides study guides containing actual exam questions to help users pass certification exams in 10-12 hours. Their guides can be downloaded for free or purchased through their website.
CIMA OCS Certification Exam Master Operational Case StudiesAliza Oscar
Prepare for success with the CIMA OCS Certification Exam. Develop crucial skills in handling operational case studies, analysis, and decision-making. Elevate your career prospects in management accounting
This document is a final examination for an organizational behavior course. It consists of multiple choice questions testing concepts related to organizational behavior, including motivation, groups, leadership, and job design. The examination was published by California Coast University and covers topics from the textbook Understanding and Managing Organizational Behavior.
CHC Questions Answers PDF Dumps - Your Path to CHC CertificationAliza Oscar
Start your journey to CHC certification in 2023 with our PDF dumps. Access a comprehensive collection of questions and answers for effective exam preparation
The document provides guidance on effective strategies for hiring new college faculty. It recommends writing an accurate job description, creating an application evaluation system, using behavior-based interviewing with questions focused on past performance, preparing all interviewers on legal guidelines, and making objective hiring decisions based on candidate evaluations. The goal is to identify and recruit faculty that will be strong teachers and researchers, serve the institution well, and stay at the college long-term.
Question 1 of 205.0 PointsAn advantage of the structured intervi.docxteofilapeerless
Question 1 of 20
5.0 Points
An advantage of the structured interview over the unstructured interview is that:
A. structured interviews generally require a great deal of skill and expertise to administer.
B. structured interviews can be objectively scored.
C. the administration of structured interviews requires extensive training.
D. administration of structured interviews varies significantly from clinician to clinician.
Reset Selection
What's This?
Question 2 of 20
5.0 Points
__________ is not one of the areas of functioning assessed by the mental status examination.
A. Behavior
B. Content of thought
C. Socioeconomic status
D. Motivation
Reset Selection
What's This?
Question 3 of 20
5.0 Points
Delusions of thought broadcasting usually involve the idea that:
A. thoughts are being removed from one's head.
B. one is to blame for terrible things happening in the world.
C. one's lover is being unfaithful.
D. thoughts are being transmitted to others.
Reset Selection
What's This?
Question 4 of 20
5.0 Points
Which one of the following areas assessed during a mental status exam is primarily relevant in terms of understanding a client's receptivity to treatment?
A. Sense of self/motivation
B. Insight/judgment
C. Affect/mood
D. Thinking style/language
Reset Selection
What's This?
Question 5 of 20
5.0 Points
Intelligent quotient was originally interpreted as:
A. mental age compared to chronological age.
B. socioeconomic status compared to educational level.
C. emotional maturity compared to chronological age.
D. mental age compared to cognitive development.
Reset Selection
What's This?
Question 6 of 20
5.0 Points
A high __________ may interfere with a person's ability to answers and perform the tasks on the WAIS-III.
A. need for achievement
B. attention span
C. level of self esteem
D. level of anxiety
Reset Selection
What's This?
Question 7 of 20
5.0 Points
Projective tests are most commonly associated with approaches that focus on:
A. overt behavior.
B. faulty cognitions.
C. unconscious determinants of behavior.
D. humanistic issues.
Reset Selection
What's This?
Question 8 of 20
5.0 Points
The person taking the TAT is asked to:
A. keep a running log of behaviors for a week.
B. draw a picture of his or her family engaging in some everyday activity.
C. answer several fill-in-the-blank questions.
D. tell a story about the scene shown on the card.
Reset Selection
What's This?
Question 9 of 20
5.0 Points
Since some natural settings do not lend themselves to unobtrusive observation, many clinicians utilize the technique of __________ observation(s).
A. analog
B. self-report
C. electrodermal
D. in vivo
Reset Selection
What's This?
Question 10 of 20
5.0 Points
Why are theories important to the understanding of abnormal behavior?
A. Theories are critical for proper diagnosis and assessment of psychological conditions.
B. The majority of DSM-IV-TR is based on concepts implicit in psychodynamic theory.
C. Theories of.
HLTAP301B Recognise healthy body systems in a health care contexLizbethQuinonez813
HLTAP301B Recognise healthy body systems in a health care context
STUDENT ASSESSMENT
CHCLEG001 Work legally and ethically
ASSESSMENT SUMMARY / COVER SHEET
(This sheet is in the Student Assessment pack)
This form is to be completed by the assessor and used a final record of student competency. All student submissions including any associated checklists (outlined below) are to be attached to this cover sheet before placing on the students file. Student results are not to be entered onto the Student Management System unless all relevant paperwork is completed and attached to this form.
Student Name:
Student ID No:
(Folder no. )
Final Completion Date:
Assessor Name:
Rizalina Cazar
Unit Code/ Title
CHCLEG001 Work legally and ethically
Please attach the following documentation to this form
Result
Assessment Task 1-Observation & Logbook
( Observation Checklist in the Work Placement Record Book (1 assessor observation)
( Work Placement Record Book attached (2 workplace supervisor observations)
S / NYS
Assessment Task 2-Project
( Project attached
S / NYS
Assessment Task 3-Written Test
( Written Test attached
S / NYS
S = Satisfactory; NYS = Not Yet Satisfactory
Final Assessment Result for this unit
C / NYC
C = Competent; NYC = Not Yet Competent
Assessor: I declare that I have conducted a fair, valid, reliable and flexible assessment with this student, and I have provided appropriate feedback.
Signature: ____________________________
Date: ____/_____/_____
Student Declaration: I declare that I have been assessed in this unit, and I have been advised of my result. I also am aware of my appeal rights. I also declare that the work submitted is my own, and has not been copied or plagiarised from any person or source.
Signature: ____________________________
Date: ____/_____/_____
Administrative use only
Entered onto Student Management System
( ________________
Date
Initials
ASSESSMENT TASK 1 – OBSERVATION & LOGBOOK
This information which is in the Student Assessment pack is to be handed to each student to outline the assessment requirements
Student Instructions
This assessment is to be undertaken in a fully equipped aged care facility.
For this assessment, you are to be observed on 3 separate occasions (2 observations by your workplace supervisor and 1 observation by your assessor). For this assessment, you will need to demonstrate the skills and knowledge required to work legally and ethically.
You will need to provide evidence of your ability to identify and work within the legal and ethical frameworks that apply to your individual job role including how you:
1. Completed workplace activities in accordance with legal and ethical requirements in at least 3 different situations
2. Developed appropriate responses to at least 3 different legal or ethical issues relevant to the work role
3. Identified and communicated at least 2 potential work practice improvements designed to enhance workplace responsiveness to lega ...
The document discusses the referral process in counseling. It defines referral as helping clients find needed expert assistance that the referring counselor cannot provide. There are two types of referrals: self-referral where a client refers themselves, and outside referral where an issue is beyond the counselor's expertise. Reasons for referral include when the counselor cannot be objective, a specialized service is needed, or intervention is beyond the counselor's competency. The referral process involves utilizing school resources, discussing options with the client, and introducing them to the external consultant. Ethical considerations require informed consent, valid reasons for referral, and follow-up to ensure the client receives needed assistance.
CIMA OCS Certification Exam Master Operational Case StudiesAliza Oscar
Prepare for success with the CIMA OCS Certification Exam. Develop crucial skills in handling operational case studies, analysis, and decision-making. Elevate your career prospects in management accounting
This document is a final examination for an organizational behavior course. It consists of multiple choice questions testing concepts related to organizational behavior, including motivation, groups, leadership, and job design. The examination was published by California Coast University and covers topics from the textbook Understanding and Managing Organizational Behavior.
CHC Questions Answers PDF Dumps - Your Path to CHC CertificationAliza Oscar
Start your journey to CHC certification in 2023 with our PDF dumps. Access a comprehensive collection of questions and answers for effective exam preparation
The document provides guidance on effective strategies for hiring new college faculty. It recommends writing an accurate job description, creating an application evaluation system, using behavior-based interviewing with questions focused on past performance, preparing all interviewers on legal guidelines, and making objective hiring decisions based on candidate evaluations. The goal is to identify and recruit faculty that will be strong teachers and researchers, serve the institution well, and stay at the college long-term.
Question 1 of 205.0 PointsAn advantage of the structured intervi.docxteofilapeerless
Question 1 of 20
5.0 Points
An advantage of the structured interview over the unstructured interview is that:
A. structured interviews generally require a great deal of skill and expertise to administer.
B. structured interviews can be objectively scored.
C. the administration of structured interviews requires extensive training.
D. administration of structured interviews varies significantly from clinician to clinician.
Reset Selection
What's This?
Question 2 of 20
5.0 Points
__________ is not one of the areas of functioning assessed by the mental status examination.
A. Behavior
B. Content of thought
C. Socioeconomic status
D. Motivation
Reset Selection
What's This?
Question 3 of 20
5.0 Points
Delusions of thought broadcasting usually involve the idea that:
A. thoughts are being removed from one's head.
B. one is to blame for terrible things happening in the world.
C. one's lover is being unfaithful.
D. thoughts are being transmitted to others.
Reset Selection
What's This?
Question 4 of 20
5.0 Points
Which one of the following areas assessed during a mental status exam is primarily relevant in terms of understanding a client's receptivity to treatment?
A. Sense of self/motivation
B. Insight/judgment
C. Affect/mood
D. Thinking style/language
Reset Selection
What's This?
Question 5 of 20
5.0 Points
Intelligent quotient was originally interpreted as:
A. mental age compared to chronological age.
B. socioeconomic status compared to educational level.
C. emotional maturity compared to chronological age.
D. mental age compared to cognitive development.
Reset Selection
What's This?
Question 6 of 20
5.0 Points
A high __________ may interfere with a person's ability to answers and perform the tasks on the WAIS-III.
A. need for achievement
B. attention span
C. level of self esteem
D. level of anxiety
Reset Selection
What's This?
Question 7 of 20
5.0 Points
Projective tests are most commonly associated with approaches that focus on:
A. overt behavior.
B. faulty cognitions.
C. unconscious determinants of behavior.
D. humanistic issues.
Reset Selection
What's This?
Question 8 of 20
5.0 Points
The person taking the TAT is asked to:
A. keep a running log of behaviors for a week.
B. draw a picture of his or her family engaging in some everyday activity.
C. answer several fill-in-the-blank questions.
D. tell a story about the scene shown on the card.
Reset Selection
What's This?
Question 9 of 20
5.0 Points
Since some natural settings do not lend themselves to unobtrusive observation, many clinicians utilize the technique of __________ observation(s).
A. analog
B. self-report
C. electrodermal
D. in vivo
Reset Selection
What's This?
Question 10 of 20
5.0 Points
Why are theories important to the understanding of abnormal behavior?
A. Theories are critical for proper diagnosis and assessment of psychological conditions.
B. The majority of DSM-IV-TR is based on concepts implicit in psychodynamic theory.
C. Theories of.
HLTAP301B Recognise healthy body systems in a health care contexLizbethQuinonez813
HLTAP301B Recognise healthy body systems in a health care context
STUDENT ASSESSMENT
CHCLEG001 Work legally and ethically
ASSESSMENT SUMMARY / COVER SHEET
(This sheet is in the Student Assessment pack)
This form is to be completed by the assessor and used a final record of student competency. All student submissions including any associated checklists (outlined below) are to be attached to this cover sheet before placing on the students file. Student results are not to be entered onto the Student Management System unless all relevant paperwork is completed and attached to this form.
Student Name:
Student ID No:
(Folder no. )
Final Completion Date:
Assessor Name:
Rizalina Cazar
Unit Code/ Title
CHCLEG001 Work legally and ethically
Please attach the following documentation to this form
Result
Assessment Task 1-Observation & Logbook
( Observation Checklist in the Work Placement Record Book (1 assessor observation)
( Work Placement Record Book attached (2 workplace supervisor observations)
S / NYS
Assessment Task 2-Project
( Project attached
S / NYS
Assessment Task 3-Written Test
( Written Test attached
S / NYS
S = Satisfactory; NYS = Not Yet Satisfactory
Final Assessment Result for this unit
C / NYC
C = Competent; NYC = Not Yet Competent
Assessor: I declare that I have conducted a fair, valid, reliable and flexible assessment with this student, and I have provided appropriate feedback.
Signature: ____________________________
Date: ____/_____/_____
Student Declaration: I declare that I have been assessed in this unit, and I have been advised of my result. I also am aware of my appeal rights. I also declare that the work submitted is my own, and has not been copied or plagiarised from any person or source.
Signature: ____________________________
Date: ____/_____/_____
Administrative use only
Entered onto Student Management System
( ________________
Date
Initials
ASSESSMENT TASK 1 – OBSERVATION & LOGBOOK
This information which is in the Student Assessment pack is to be handed to each student to outline the assessment requirements
Student Instructions
This assessment is to be undertaken in a fully equipped aged care facility.
For this assessment, you are to be observed on 3 separate occasions (2 observations by your workplace supervisor and 1 observation by your assessor). For this assessment, you will need to demonstrate the skills and knowledge required to work legally and ethically.
You will need to provide evidence of your ability to identify and work within the legal and ethical frameworks that apply to your individual job role including how you:
1. Completed workplace activities in accordance with legal and ethical requirements in at least 3 different situations
2. Developed appropriate responses to at least 3 different legal or ethical issues relevant to the work role
3. Identified and communicated at least 2 potential work practice improvements designed to enhance workplace responsiveness to lega ...
The document discusses the referral process in counseling. It defines referral as helping clients find needed expert assistance that the referring counselor cannot provide. There are two types of referrals: self-referral where a client refers themselves, and outside referral where an issue is beyond the counselor's expertise. Reasons for referral include when the counselor cannot be objective, a specialized service is needed, or intervention is beyond the counselor's competency. The referral process involves utilizing school resources, discussing options with the client, and introducing them to the external consultant. Ethical considerations require informed consent, valid reasons for referral, and follow-up to ensure the client receives needed assistance.
Example Subject Words Amounts a lot few little many mos.docxnealwaters20034
Example Subject Words
Amounts: a lot few little many most numerous partially some somewhat very
Emotions: angry celebrate curious eager enjoys fit good happiness happy irritable joy likes
loves reluctant sad shy unhappy upset
Knowledge: normal proves realizes recognize remembers seems understands
Motive: deliberate favorite interested want
Physical concepts: easy colorful hard healthy large loud messy perfect short well
Time: aggressive always constantly frequently immediately most often quick rarely seldom
sometimes usually
If you hear subjective ideas, write that in paper. For instance, her mom told me that
Kathy was very quick witted and was a curious child.
Question 1
1.
Which of the following is true of retaliation in workplaces?
a.
Employers are prohibited from retaliating against individuals who file discrimination charges.
b.
Employees are prohibited from retaliating against organizations that practice discrimination.
c.
Employers are prohibited from retaliating against employees on ethical grounds.
d.
Employees are restricted from retaliating against employers who encourage instances of glass ceiling.
5 points
Question 2
1.
“Percentage of employees with career plan” is an example of the development HR metric.
True
False
5 points
Question 3
1.
Which of the following is true of the administrative role of human resource departments?
a.
It involves managing most human resource activities in keeping with strategies and operations that have been identified by management.
b.
It involves helping to define the strategy relative to human capital and its contribution to organizational results.
c.
It involves identifying possible strategies to attract and retain talent with a focus on organizational growth.
d.
It focuses on record keeping, including essential legal paperwork and policy implementation.
5 points
Question 4
1.
Which of the following statements is true of Internet recruiting?
a.
Twitter is rarely used by recruiters because of the 140-word limit.
b.
The broad reach of Internet recruiting has significantly reduced the amount of discrimination against job seekers from racial/ethnic groups because it enlarges the applicant population exponentially over traditional recruiting methods.
c.
If a recruiter checks an applicant’s Facebook account, learns that the applicant is Jewish, and then rejects the applicant, the company can be charged with an EEO discrimination complaint.
d.
An advantage of Internet recruiting is that it streamlines EEO data gathering because everyone who accesses a job Web site is considered an applicant for legal purposes.
5 points
Question 5
1.
Which of the following best defines HR analytics?
a.
An evidence-based approach to making HR decisions on the basis of quantitative tools and models
b.
An assumption-based approach to making HR decisions on the basis of quantitative tools and models
c.
An evidence-based approach to making HR decisions on the .
Exam: - Assessing Performance, Developing Employees & Compensating Human Resources
Questions 1 to 20: Select the best answer to each question. Note that a question and its answers may be split across a page break, so be sure that you have seen the entire question and all the answers before choosing an answer.
1. An employee refuses an employer's request to falsify the contents of a report to the EEOC. The
employer subsequently discharges the worker for "not following orders." In a wrongful-discharge suit, the employee is likely to argue which of the following exceptions to the at-will-employment doctrine?
A. Implied contract
B. Equal employment
C. Public policy
D. Reverse discrimination
2. Which of the following is a false statement about using peers as a source of performance information?
A. Peer ratings are particularly useful when supervisors don't have the opportunity to observe employees.
B. Peers are more willing participants in reviews used for employees.
C. Peers have expert knowledge of job requirements and bring a unique perspective to the evaluation, often resulting in extremely valid assessments of performance.
D. Peer ratings, according to research, are highly influenced by friendships.
3. Why would an employee seek a downward move?
A. To learn different skills
B. To have more authority
C. To increase salary and visibility
D. To have greater challenges
4. In terms of job dissatisfaction, an employee who calls in sick or arrives to work late is engaging in
A. behavior change.
B. physical withdrawal.
C. psychological withdrawal.
D. whistleblowing.
5. Based on the expectation that two people in conflict should first try to arrive at a settlement together, the organization has a policy of making managers available to hear complaints. Typically, the first open door is that of the employee's
A. immediate supervisor.
B. peers.
C. director.
D. immediate subordinates.
6. If a performance measure lacks _______ reliability, determining whether an employee's performance has truly changed over time will be impossible.
A. interrater
B. external
C. test-retest
D. strategic
7. The primary use of assessment centers is to identify
A. employees' personality types and job interests.
B. decision processes and communication styles that inhibit production.
C. the strengths and weaknesses of team members.
D. employees who have the personality, characteristics, and skills needed for managerial positions.
8. Which of the following statements illustrates effective feedback?
A. "I don't see any progress from the last review; you're lazy."
B. "You've achieved 100 percent of your target in less than six months."
C. "Overall, your performance has been satisfactory."
D. "You've become careless; you came in late three times last week."
9. What is the employee's responsibility in the self-assessment stage of career management?
A. Provide assessment information to identify strengths, weaknesses, interests, and values
B. Identify opportunities and areas of ...
Student ID 21973473 Exam 003856RR - Local Standards and .docxflorriezhamphrey3065
Student ID: 21973473
Exam: 003856RR - Local Standards and Regulations
When you have completed your exam and reviewed your answers, click Submit Exam. Answers will not be recorded until you
hit Submit Exam. If you need to exit before completing the exam, click Cancel Exam.
Questions 1 to 20: Select the best answer to each question. Note that a question and its answers may be split across a page
break, so be sure that you have seen the entire question and all the answers before choosing an answer.
1. In a day care facility, items such as exit doors and heating appliances are inspected by the
A. sanitation department.
B. zoning committee.
C. building and safety committee.
D. fire department.
2. Sunny Smiles Day Care Center is organized as a partnership. Which one of the following business tax
forms will the owners need to file 75 days after the close of the fiscal year?
A. Form 1120
B. Form 990
C. Form 1065
D. Schedule C
3. Maria Martinez and her sister, Christina, are planning to operate a small day care center together. Maria
originally invested $24,000 in the business, and Christina invested $8,000. Maria and Christina decide to
divide all of the profits and share all of the losses using a fixed ratio. If the ratio agreed upon is in
proportion to their original investment, what would be Christina's share of a $60,000 end-of-year profit?
(Hint: The original total investment was $32,000, which includes $8,000 from Christina and $24,000 from
Maria. Christina's $8,000 is one-fourth, or 25 percent, of the total.)
A. $30,000
B. $10,000
C. $15,000
D. $25,000
4. Which of the following protects the owner of a daycare center in case a person is hurt at the center?
A. Business interruption insurance
B. Automobile insurance
C. Liability insurance
D. Theft insurance
5. According to the Department of Health and Human Services Day Care Requirements (DHHSDCR), in
a federally funded child care center, the maximum allowable group size for children between the ages of
three years and six years (based on scheduled enrollment) is
A. 12.
B. 18.
C. 6.
D. 8.
6. Which one of the following statements about childcare centers is correct?
A. Childcare centers are automatically enrolled in a QRIS system when they apply to be licensed.
B. Childcare centers can't get a license unless they apply to enroll in a QRIS system.
C. Childcare centers are mandated by law to enroll in a QRIS system.
D. Childcare centers voluntarily enroll in a QRIS system and agree to have their program evaluated.
7. Recently you've noticed that the supply of disposable diapers at your day care facility is being used
faster than usual. You've had to place an order twice this month, and you usually order only once each
month. You suspect that a new employee may be taking diapers to use for her own baby. Finally, you see
her taking some diapers home and she admits the theft. What type of insurance would cover your loss?
A. Fidelity bond
B. Liability.
This document provides information about an industrial psychology exam, including:
- The exam covers research methods, selection processes, employment processes, and work conditions/human factors.
- Sample multiple choice questions are provided to demonstrate the types of concepts covered in each section and ability levels tested.
- Recommended textbooks are listed to help examinees prepare for the various topics that may be included on the exam.
The Human Resource EnvironmentWhen you have completed your exam .docxcherry686017
The Human Resource Environment
When you have completed your exam and reviewed your answers, click Submit Exam. Answers will not be recorded until you
hit Submit Exam. If you need to exit before completing the exam, click Cancel Exam.
Questions 1 to 20: Select the best answer to each question. Note that a question and its answers may be split across a page
break, so be sure that you have seen the entire question and all the answers before choosing an answer.
1. Which of the following cases would most likely be filed under the theory of disparate impact?
A. A black employee is fired for testifying in a discrimination suit filed against an employer.
B. A white applicant is told he won't be hired because the employer doesn't like whites.
C. Black applicants are being disproportionately rejected relative to whites by a paper-and-pencil test.
D. White applicants with high test scores are rejected due to an affirmative-action plan.
2. Which of the following terms describes the best possible fit between a company's social system and its
technical system?
A. Self-service system
B. Outsourcing
C. High-performance work system
D. Total quality management
3. People's right to freedom of speech is the right to
A. do as they wish in their private life.
B. refuse to do something that's environmentally unsafe.
C. be treated only as they knowingly and willingly consent to be treated.
D. criticize an organization's ethics if they do it in good conscience.
4. Which of the following categories of workers is not covered under OSHA's Hazard Communication
Standards?
A. A technician servicing copy machines for most of the day
B. A receptionist changing the toner in a copier machine
C. Health-care workers exposed to latex and disinfectants
D. Production engineers manufacturing car batteries
5. The largest number of immigrants to the U.S. workforce are from
A. North America.
B. Europe.
C. Africa.
D. Asia.
6. Which of the following is a correct statement about dejobbing?
A. Dejobbing involves the use of task-based organization structures.
B. Dejobbing involves the downsizing or elimination of jobs.
C. Dejobbing involves emphasizing on detailed job descriptions which will be applicable year after year.
D. Dejobbing involves viewing organizations as a field of work to be done.
7. Which of the following decisions does not come under HRM?
A. Whom to hire
B. How to achieve sales targets
C. What training to offer
D. How to evaluate employee performance
8. Which of the following is a false statement about the Position Analysis Questionnaire?
A. It's one of the broadest and best-researched instruments for analyzing jobs.
B. It's a standardized, commercial instrument.
C. It describes specific duties and tasks that comprise the actual job.
D. It requires trained job analysts to complete it.
9. Which of the following is a false statement about the Occupational Safety and Health Act?
A. The act applies to organizations that employ 50 or more persons working 20 or more weeks a year ...
This document contains a 30-item test covering topics related to assessment of student learning, field study, practice teaching, teaching profession, and social dimensions of education. The test includes multiple choice questions testing knowledge of formative and summative assessment, classroom management strategies, instructional techniques, teacher professionalism, and societal issues. An answer key is provided at the end of the document.
PCPA - Powerpoint Presentation for ASYNC Training (3).pptxMichaelFileta
The document discusses the Protective Capacity Progress Assessment (PCPA). The two major areas assessed in the PCPA are specific indicators of change and caregiver readiness to change. The PCPA is a formal safety intervention used to enhance protective capacities, mitigate impending danger, and achieve case plan goals. Frequency of contact with case participants is important as it can impact the helping relationship between the caregiver and caseworker. The document provides information on conducting a PCPA meeting, including preparing for the meeting, conducting it, and following up after.
HUS 335: Interpersonal Helping Skills
Case Assessment Format
The case assessment takes place after the intake and assessment interviews have been conducted. The helping professional must evaluate the application for services to determine eligibility for services. This is just one process for conducting a case assessment.
Step 1. Provide me with your agency’s profile with your eligibility guidelines (on a separate page)
Step 2. Review the case assessment process (things to think about as you complete the assessment)
Step 3. Complete the Case Assessment (p. 2)
I. Examine your agency’s guidelines for eligibility as well as federal or state guidelines, if applicable. What are your agency’s guidelines for eligibility?
II. Review all the information you have gather on your client during the initial contact, intake, and assessment phases.
a. Applicant’s reason for applying for services
b. His/her background
c. Strengths
d. Weaknesses
e. The problem that is causing difficulty
f. What the applicants want to have happen as a result of service delivery
III. Determine if the client is eligible for services at your agency.
A. Is the client eligible for services? Why or why not?
B. What problems are identified (i.e., presenting problem)?
C. Are services or resources available that relate to the problems identified?
D. Will the agency’s involvement help the client reach the objectives goals that have been established.
E. Is more information needed (e.g., referral source, client’s family, chool officials, employer, medical doctor, mental health professional, previous social service agencies, etc.)
IV. Impressions
V. Assessment
VI. Service Identification/Recommendations for Services
VII. Case Assignment
Your Agency’s Name
Case Assessment
Pseudo Client Name: ____________________________________________ Date: _________________
Human Services Professional: ______________________________________ Title: _________________
Intake Date: ______________________ Assessment Interview Date: _________________________
I. Demographic description of client
Age, gender, cultural background, race, socioeconomic status, religion, occupation, marital/family status, education
II. Presenting Problem
Indicate referral source (e.g., self-referred or agency referral). If an agency referred the client, state why they referred the client to your agency.
State what brought the client to your agency from the client’s perspective. (This only needs to be a few sentences and not the history of the client.)
III. Impression/Interview affect, behavior, and mental status
How does the client appear to you (grooming, dress, voice, tone, mood, timeliness for the interview, cooperativeness, etc.)? Has this been consistent or changed throughout sessions (intake and assessment interview sessions)?
IV. History
Present the history as objectively as possible and only key information. Facts that were collected from the client, significant records, and referral source. Let the facts s ...
1._____ is the application of the scientific method in search.docxhyacinthshackley2629
1. _____ is the application of the scientific method in searching for the truth about marketing phenomena.
a.
Marketing
b.
Business
c.
Marketing Research
d.
Science
2. All of the following are important aspects of the marketing research process EXCEPT:
a.
searching for and collecting information
b.
idea and theory development
c.
analyzing data
d.
making results publicly available
3. Which of the following refers to the way researchers go about using knowledge and evidence to reach objective conclusions about the real world?
a.
qualitative method
b.
quantitative method
c.
scientific method
d.
primary method
4. Which of the following is an important aspect of the marketing concept?
a.
a cross-functional perspective for the coordination of the organization's activities
b.
an emphasis on long-term profitability instead of dollar sales volume
c.
a consumer orientation
d.
all of the above
5. When Cheetos snack food conducted research in China to determine which flavors consumers would find appealing, this was an example of which type of research?
a.
pricing research
b.
promotion research
c.
product research
d.
distribution research
6. The characteristic of data reflecting how pertinent these particular facts are to the situation at hand is called:
a.
relevance
b.
timeliness
c.
completeness
d.
significance
7. Which part of the decision support system addresses exchanges between the firm and its customers?
a.
customer relationship management (CRM) system
b.
data warehouse
c.
global information system (GIS)
d.
intellectual capital system
8. Who can provide data to a decision support system?
a.
production managers
b.
marketing researchers
c.
accountants
d.
all of the above
9. An organization's mailing list of current customers is an example of:
a.
a cookie
b.
software
c.
a database
d.
a hyperlink
10. Melanie is using the Internet to gather information designed to detect changes in her company’s external operating environment. What is Melanie performing?
a.
environmental scanning
b.
behavioral tracking
c.
search engine marketing
d.
electronic data interchange
11. When amazon.com recommends books for purchase when a customer who has ordered books from Amazon previously returns to the site, this is an example of:
a.
push technology
b.
electronic data interchange
c.
pull technology
d.
a URL
12. What type of research is being conducted to answer the question: "Can we describe the age, gender, and income of our typical purchaser?"
a.
exploratory research
b.
focus group research
c.
descriptive research
d.
causal research
13. What type of research is being conducted to answer the question: "Would this target market be interested in this type of new product?"
a.
causal research
b.
exploratory research
c.
situation analysis research
d.
descriptive research
14. Carol was invited to participate in a research study along with ten other consumers to discuss their experiences using cleaning products. The group was aske.
1242017 The Ethics of Intervention for Food Refusal Scoring .docxmoggdede
12/4/2017 The Ethics of Intervention for Food Refusal Scoring Guide
https://courseroomc.capella.edu/bbcswebdav/institution/PSY/PSY7704/170100/Scoring_Guides/u09a1_scoring_guide.html 1/1
The Ethics of Intervention for Food Refusal Scoring Guide
Due Date: End of Unit 9.
Percentage of Course Grade: 4%.
CRITERIA NON-PERFORMANCE BASIC PROFICIENT DISTINGUISHED
Assess personal
reaction to
interventions used
to address
problematic
behaviors.
25%
Does not describe
personal reaction to
interventions used to
address problematic
behaviors.
Outlines an
incomplete
description of
personal reaction to
interventions used to
address problematic
behaviors.
Assesses personal
reaction to
interventions used to
address problematic
behaviors.
Assesses personal
reaction to
interventions used to
address problematic
behaviors, noting
specific situations.
Explain how
possible undesired
side effects and
ethical guidelines do
not support the use
of certain
interventions.
25%
Does not show how
possible undesired
side effects and ethical
guidelines do not
support the use of
certain interventions.
Provides an
incomplete or
inaccurate
explanation of how
possible undesired
side effects and
ethical guidelines do
not support the use of
certain interventions.
Explains how
possible undesired
side effects and
ethical guidelines do
not support the use of
certain interventions.
Prepares a detailed
explanation using
specific examples of
how possible
undesired side effects
and ethical guidelines
do not support the
use of certain
interventions.
Explain how
potential benefits
and an individual's
right to effective
treatment support
the use of certain
interventions.
25%
Does not show how
potential benefits and
an individual's right to
effective treatment
support the use of
certain interventions.
Provides an
incomplete or
inaccurate
explanation of how
potential benefits and
an individual's right to
effective treatment
support the use of
certain interventions.
Explains how
potential benefits and
an individual's right to
effective treatment
support the use of
certain interventions.
Prepares a detailed
explanation using
specific examples of
how potential benefits
and an individual's
right to effective
treatment support the
use of certain
interventions.
Evaluate personal
reaction to
determine how
ethical and
professional
conduct principles
influence the
selection of
interventions and
treatments for
problematic
behaviors.
25%
Does not distinguish
personal reaction to
determine how ethical
and professional
conduct principles
influence the selection
of interventions and
treatments for
problematic behaviors.
Applies at a basic
level ethical and
professional conduct
principles to evaluate
personal reaction to
the selection of
interventions and
treatments for
problematic
behaviors.
Evaluates personal
reaction to determine
how ethical and
professional conduct
principles influence
the selection of
interventions and
treatments for
problematic
behaviors.
Evaluates perso ...
management in health care third editionBy Diane L. Kelly .docxLilianaJohansen814
management in health care third edition
By: Diane L. Kelly
Quality Management: A Systems Approach
Questions 1 to 20:
Select the best answer to each question. Note that a question and its answers may be split across a page
break, so be sure that you have seen the
entire
question and
all
the answers before choosing an answer.
1.
Which one of the following systems context models uses a contemporary triad and illustrates essential
elements of organizational effectiveness?
A.
Socioecological framework
B.
Three core process model
C.
Baldrige performance
D.
Systems model of organizational accidents
2.
A quality manager asks why medical errors are increasing. By asking this type of question, you can
deduce that she's
most
likely at which stage?
A.
Going below the waterline for changes
B.
Using information to identify essential systemic structure
C.
Understanding how systemic structure isn't readily available
D.
Understanding how systemic structure influences behavior
3.
When something fails to achieve the intended outcome, it's called a/an
A.
error.
B.
latency.
C.
violation.
D.
adverse event.
4.
You manage a department, and your main philosophy is to eliminate waste. In doing so, you're using
which one of the following tools?
A.
Six Sigma
B.
Total quality management
C.
Organizational design
D.
Lean thinking
5.
A systems manager comes to work in the morning after his night team had a long night of system issues.
The manager stops one employee in the hall to ask what happened during the evening shift. The employee
shouts, "I quit!" and storms out, slamming the door. This scenario is
best
described as an example of
A.
history dependency.
B.
change.
C.
nonlinearity.
D.
trade-offs.
6.
When desired healthcare outcomes are consistent with professional knowledge, then the organization has
achieved
A.
quality.
B.
organizational management.
C.
quality control.
D.
continuum.
7.
The CEO meets with hospital managers to ensure that each understands his or her responsibility in the
upcoming Joint Commission survey. In doing so, the CEO is supporting _______ structure.
A.
organizational
B.
intuitive
C.
systemic
D.
cognitive
8.
A patient's discharge status prognosis is "good." This prognosis is an example of
A.
an input.
B.
an output.
C.
a conversion process.
D.
feedback.
9.
You're the health information manager and your best friend is a laboratory technician at the same
hospital. In which total quality customer focus category does your friend belong?
A.
Stakeholder
B.
External customer
C.
Internal customer
D.
Researcher
10.
Which one of the following systems context models
best
explains how medical errors occur?
A.
Systems model of organizational accidents
B.
Baldrige peformance
C.
Three core process model
D.
Socioecological framework
11.
Which one of the following systems context models provides a "big picture" look at healthcare across a
.
An introduction to evaluation and feedback. This slide deck covers basic concepts every person engaged with designing evaluation or feedback systems for training should be familiar with. I gave this presentation to MBA students in Iqra University as a guest speaker in 2018. Hopefully, it could be useful for more people.
TEST BANK FOR ESSENTIALS OF NURSING LEADERSHIP AND MANAGEMENT, 7TH EDITION.pdfrobinsonayot
TEST BANK FOR ESSENTIALS OF NURSING LEADERSHIP AND MANAGEMENT, 7TH EDITION.pdf
TEST BANK FOR ESSENTIALS OF NURSING LEADERSHIP AND MANAGEMENT, 7TH EDITION.pdf
MGT 4308: Management Leadership
Milestone 2: Path-Goal Assessment Comparison Guidelines and Rubric
For this milestone, you must first complete the self-assessments in Leadership, chapters 5 & 6, which can be easily accessed through the table
of contents under “Leadership Instrument” for each chapter. Then score your observer responses for the same chapters according to the
directions in the textbook.
To complete this milestone, be sure to address the following critical elements:
● Compare your self-assessments for chapters 5 & 6 with your observers’ responses. Did they respond differently than you? How so?
● Explain why you think they might have responded differently
● Describe what you can do with this information to develop your leadership development plan
Guidelines for Submission: Your milestone submission must be submitted as a Microsoft Word document, about two paragraphs in length, with
double spacing, 12-point font, and one-inch margins, and any references should be cited in APA format.
Instructor Feedback: This activity uses an integrated rubric in Blackboard. Students can view instructor feedback in the Grade Center.
Rubric
Criteria Satisfactory (100%) Needs Improvement (75%) Incomplete (55%) Not Evident (0%) Value
Comparison
Compares self-assessment with
compiled observers’ assessments
for both assigned chapters.
Compares self-assessment with
compiled observers’ assessments
for both chapters, but lacks in
detail or clarity.
Compares self-assessment with
compiled observers’ assessments
for one chapter.
Does not compare
self-assessment with compiled
observers’ assessments.
30
Analysis Analyzes causes for different
perceptions of leadership
effectiveness for both assigned
chapters.
Analyzes causes for different
perceptions of leadership
effectiveness for both chapters, but
lacks in detail or clarity.
Analyzes causes for different
perceptions of leadership
effectiveness for one chapter.
Does not analyze causes for
different perceptions of leadership
effectiveness.
30
Action Describes how information from
both assigned chapters can be
used to develop leadership
development plan.
Describes how information from
both chapters can be used to
develop leadership development
plan, but lacks in detail or clarity.
Describes how information from
one chapter can be used to
develop leadership development
plan.
Does not describe how information
can be used to develop leadership
development plan.
30
Mechanics No grammar or spelling errors that
distract the reader from the
content. All sources used are cited
using APA Style, 6th ed.
Minor errors in grammar or
spelling that distract the reader
from the content. All sources used
are cited using APA Style, 6th ed.
Some errors in grammar or
spelling that distract the reader
from the content. All sources used
Major errors in grammar or
spelling that distract the reader
from the content an ...
Top 9 electrician interview questions answersinterviews-job
This document provides tips and sample answers for common electrician interview questions. It addresses questions such as "Tell me about yourself", "What are your biggest strengths?", "What have you learned from mistakes?", "Why did you leave your last job?", "What is your greatest weakness?", and "What have you done to improve your knowledge?". For each question, it offers steps to formulate an effective answer, including connecting your experience to the role and providing evidence of your strengths. Sample answers are provided for guidance.
This document outlines ethical standards and procedures for psychologists related to assessment, therapy, education and training, and research. Key points include:
- Psychologists must maintain client confidentiality except when required by law and only disclose necessary information to appropriate individuals.
- Psychologists must obtain informed consent from clients and respect their right to withdraw from therapy.
- Psychologists must prioritize client well-being and not provide services if unfit to do so. They must consider cultural beliefs and customs.
- Psychologists must design education/training programs to meet requirements and provide accurate information. They cannot require unnecessary personal disclosures from students.
- Psychologists must respect the rights, dignity and welfare of research participants
This document provides guidelines for consumers to use in determining who may be qualified to direct applied behavior analysis (ABA) programs for individuals with autism spectrum disorders. It recommends that directors be certified as a Board Certified Behavior Analyst (BCBA) and have extensive, supervised experience providing ABA services directly to individuals with autism. The guidelines describe the necessary training and competencies in areas such as designing individualized ABA programs, implementing teaching procedures, collecting and analyzing behavioral data, and collaborating with other professionals and families. Consumers are advised to request documentation of qualifications from prospective ABA directors.
The document contains 20 multiple choice questions about ethics for management accountants based on IMA's Statement of Ethical Professional Practice. Each question is followed by an answer and a brief explanation of why that answer is correct based on the standards in the Statement. The questions cover topics like conflicts of interest, maintaining competence, keeping information confidential, resolving ethical issues, and other responsibilities of management accountants.
I apologize, but I do not feel comfortable answering questions about disabilities or medical conditions. What matters most is whether I can perform the essential functions of this role. How about we discuss the job responsibilities and what skills and experience I can offer to help the company succeed?
Introduction Describe the organization based on the information.docxstudywriters
This document outlines the structure and requirements for a report analyzing a hypothetical organizational scenario. The report would include:
1) An introduction describing the organization, problem, and relevant research
2) An analysis of leadership actions, communication, and effectiveness
3) An evaluation of the ethics of decision-making, transparency, stakeholder consideration, and implications
4) Recommendations for leadership style, resolving the problem ethically, improving relations, maintaining culture, and addressing obstacles.
The document provides detailed prompts for each section to guide an analysis of the leadership, ethical issues, and recommendations for addressing the organizational problem presented in the scenario. It emphasizes justifying responses with research and examples from the scenario.
Example Subject Words Amounts a lot few little many mos.docxnealwaters20034
Example Subject Words
Amounts: a lot few little many most numerous partially some somewhat very
Emotions: angry celebrate curious eager enjoys fit good happiness happy irritable joy likes
loves reluctant sad shy unhappy upset
Knowledge: normal proves realizes recognize remembers seems understands
Motive: deliberate favorite interested want
Physical concepts: easy colorful hard healthy large loud messy perfect short well
Time: aggressive always constantly frequently immediately most often quick rarely seldom
sometimes usually
If you hear subjective ideas, write that in paper. For instance, her mom told me that
Kathy was very quick witted and was a curious child.
Question 1
1.
Which of the following is true of retaliation in workplaces?
a.
Employers are prohibited from retaliating against individuals who file discrimination charges.
b.
Employees are prohibited from retaliating against organizations that practice discrimination.
c.
Employers are prohibited from retaliating against employees on ethical grounds.
d.
Employees are restricted from retaliating against employers who encourage instances of glass ceiling.
5 points
Question 2
1.
“Percentage of employees with career plan” is an example of the development HR metric.
True
False
5 points
Question 3
1.
Which of the following is true of the administrative role of human resource departments?
a.
It involves managing most human resource activities in keeping with strategies and operations that have been identified by management.
b.
It involves helping to define the strategy relative to human capital and its contribution to organizational results.
c.
It involves identifying possible strategies to attract and retain talent with a focus on organizational growth.
d.
It focuses on record keeping, including essential legal paperwork and policy implementation.
5 points
Question 4
1.
Which of the following statements is true of Internet recruiting?
a.
Twitter is rarely used by recruiters because of the 140-word limit.
b.
The broad reach of Internet recruiting has significantly reduced the amount of discrimination against job seekers from racial/ethnic groups because it enlarges the applicant population exponentially over traditional recruiting methods.
c.
If a recruiter checks an applicant’s Facebook account, learns that the applicant is Jewish, and then rejects the applicant, the company can be charged with an EEO discrimination complaint.
d.
An advantage of Internet recruiting is that it streamlines EEO data gathering because everyone who accesses a job Web site is considered an applicant for legal purposes.
5 points
Question 5
1.
Which of the following best defines HR analytics?
a.
An evidence-based approach to making HR decisions on the basis of quantitative tools and models
b.
An assumption-based approach to making HR decisions on the basis of quantitative tools and models
c.
An evidence-based approach to making HR decisions on the .
Exam: - Assessing Performance, Developing Employees & Compensating Human Resources
Questions 1 to 20: Select the best answer to each question. Note that a question and its answers may be split across a page break, so be sure that you have seen the entire question and all the answers before choosing an answer.
1. An employee refuses an employer's request to falsify the contents of a report to the EEOC. The
employer subsequently discharges the worker for "not following orders." In a wrongful-discharge suit, the employee is likely to argue which of the following exceptions to the at-will-employment doctrine?
A. Implied contract
B. Equal employment
C. Public policy
D. Reverse discrimination
2. Which of the following is a false statement about using peers as a source of performance information?
A. Peer ratings are particularly useful when supervisors don't have the opportunity to observe employees.
B. Peers are more willing participants in reviews used for employees.
C. Peers have expert knowledge of job requirements and bring a unique perspective to the evaluation, often resulting in extremely valid assessments of performance.
D. Peer ratings, according to research, are highly influenced by friendships.
3. Why would an employee seek a downward move?
A. To learn different skills
B. To have more authority
C. To increase salary and visibility
D. To have greater challenges
4. In terms of job dissatisfaction, an employee who calls in sick or arrives to work late is engaging in
A. behavior change.
B. physical withdrawal.
C. psychological withdrawal.
D. whistleblowing.
5. Based on the expectation that two people in conflict should first try to arrive at a settlement together, the organization has a policy of making managers available to hear complaints. Typically, the first open door is that of the employee's
A. immediate supervisor.
B. peers.
C. director.
D. immediate subordinates.
6. If a performance measure lacks _______ reliability, determining whether an employee's performance has truly changed over time will be impossible.
A. interrater
B. external
C. test-retest
D. strategic
7. The primary use of assessment centers is to identify
A. employees' personality types and job interests.
B. decision processes and communication styles that inhibit production.
C. the strengths and weaknesses of team members.
D. employees who have the personality, characteristics, and skills needed for managerial positions.
8. Which of the following statements illustrates effective feedback?
A. "I don't see any progress from the last review; you're lazy."
B. "You've achieved 100 percent of your target in less than six months."
C. "Overall, your performance has been satisfactory."
D. "You've become careless; you came in late three times last week."
9. What is the employee's responsibility in the self-assessment stage of career management?
A. Provide assessment information to identify strengths, weaknesses, interests, and values
B. Identify opportunities and areas of ...
Student ID 21973473 Exam 003856RR - Local Standards and .docxflorriezhamphrey3065
Student ID: 21973473
Exam: 003856RR - Local Standards and Regulations
When you have completed your exam and reviewed your answers, click Submit Exam. Answers will not be recorded until you
hit Submit Exam. If you need to exit before completing the exam, click Cancel Exam.
Questions 1 to 20: Select the best answer to each question. Note that a question and its answers may be split across a page
break, so be sure that you have seen the entire question and all the answers before choosing an answer.
1. In a day care facility, items such as exit doors and heating appliances are inspected by the
A. sanitation department.
B. zoning committee.
C. building and safety committee.
D. fire department.
2. Sunny Smiles Day Care Center is organized as a partnership. Which one of the following business tax
forms will the owners need to file 75 days after the close of the fiscal year?
A. Form 1120
B. Form 990
C. Form 1065
D. Schedule C
3. Maria Martinez and her sister, Christina, are planning to operate a small day care center together. Maria
originally invested $24,000 in the business, and Christina invested $8,000. Maria and Christina decide to
divide all of the profits and share all of the losses using a fixed ratio. If the ratio agreed upon is in
proportion to their original investment, what would be Christina's share of a $60,000 end-of-year profit?
(Hint: The original total investment was $32,000, which includes $8,000 from Christina and $24,000 from
Maria. Christina's $8,000 is one-fourth, or 25 percent, of the total.)
A. $30,000
B. $10,000
C. $15,000
D. $25,000
4. Which of the following protects the owner of a daycare center in case a person is hurt at the center?
A. Business interruption insurance
B. Automobile insurance
C. Liability insurance
D. Theft insurance
5. According to the Department of Health and Human Services Day Care Requirements (DHHSDCR), in
a federally funded child care center, the maximum allowable group size for children between the ages of
three years and six years (based on scheduled enrollment) is
A. 12.
B. 18.
C. 6.
D. 8.
6. Which one of the following statements about childcare centers is correct?
A. Childcare centers are automatically enrolled in a QRIS system when they apply to be licensed.
B. Childcare centers can't get a license unless they apply to enroll in a QRIS system.
C. Childcare centers are mandated by law to enroll in a QRIS system.
D. Childcare centers voluntarily enroll in a QRIS system and agree to have their program evaluated.
7. Recently you've noticed that the supply of disposable diapers at your day care facility is being used
faster than usual. You've had to place an order twice this month, and you usually order only once each
month. You suspect that a new employee may be taking diapers to use for her own baby. Finally, you see
her taking some diapers home and she admits the theft. What type of insurance would cover your loss?
A. Fidelity bond
B. Liability.
This document provides information about an industrial psychology exam, including:
- The exam covers research methods, selection processes, employment processes, and work conditions/human factors.
- Sample multiple choice questions are provided to demonstrate the types of concepts covered in each section and ability levels tested.
- Recommended textbooks are listed to help examinees prepare for the various topics that may be included on the exam.
The Human Resource EnvironmentWhen you have completed your exam .docxcherry686017
The Human Resource Environment
When you have completed your exam and reviewed your answers, click Submit Exam. Answers will not be recorded until you
hit Submit Exam. If you need to exit before completing the exam, click Cancel Exam.
Questions 1 to 20: Select the best answer to each question. Note that a question and its answers may be split across a page
break, so be sure that you have seen the entire question and all the answers before choosing an answer.
1. Which of the following cases would most likely be filed under the theory of disparate impact?
A. A black employee is fired for testifying in a discrimination suit filed against an employer.
B. A white applicant is told he won't be hired because the employer doesn't like whites.
C. Black applicants are being disproportionately rejected relative to whites by a paper-and-pencil test.
D. White applicants with high test scores are rejected due to an affirmative-action plan.
2. Which of the following terms describes the best possible fit between a company's social system and its
technical system?
A. Self-service system
B. Outsourcing
C. High-performance work system
D. Total quality management
3. People's right to freedom of speech is the right to
A. do as they wish in their private life.
B. refuse to do something that's environmentally unsafe.
C. be treated only as they knowingly and willingly consent to be treated.
D. criticize an organization's ethics if they do it in good conscience.
4. Which of the following categories of workers is not covered under OSHA's Hazard Communication
Standards?
A. A technician servicing copy machines for most of the day
B. A receptionist changing the toner in a copier machine
C. Health-care workers exposed to latex and disinfectants
D. Production engineers manufacturing car batteries
5. The largest number of immigrants to the U.S. workforce are from
A. North America.
B. Europe.
C. Africa.
D. Asia.
6. Which of the following is a correct statement about dejobbing?
A. Dejobbing involves the use of task-based organization structures.
B. Dejobbing involves the downsizing or elimination of jobs.
C. Dejobbing involves emphasizing on detailed job descriptions which will be applicable year after year.
D. Dejobbing involves viewing organizations as a field of work to be done.
7. Which of the following decisions does not come under HRM?
A. Whom to hire
B. How to achieve sales targets
C. What training to offer
D. How to evaluate employee performance
8. Which of the following is a false statement about the Position Analysis Questionnaire?
A. It's one of the broadest and best-researched instruments for analyzing jobs.
B. It's a standardized, commercial instrument.
C. It describes specific duties and tasks that comprise the actual job.
D. It requires trained job analysts to complete it.
9. Which of the following is a false statement about the Occupational Safety and Health Act?
A. The act applies to organizations that employ 50 or more persons working 20 or more weeks a year ...
This document contains a 30-item test covering topics related to assessment of student learning, field study, practice teaching, teaching profession, and social dimensions of education. The test includes multiple choice questions testing knowledge of formative and summative assessment, classroom management strategies, instructional techniques, teacher professionalism, and societal issues. An answer key is provided at the end of the document.
PCPA - Powerpoint Presentation for ASYNC Training (3).pptxMichaelFileta
The document discusses the Protective Capacity Progress Assessment (PCPA). The two major areas assessed in the PCPA are specific indicators of change and caregiver readiness to change. The PCPA is a formal safety intervention used to enhance protective capacities, mitigate impending danger, and achieve case plan goals. Frequency of contact with case participants is important as it can impact the helping relationship between the caregiver and caseworker. The document provides information on conducting a PCPA meeting, including preparing for the meeting, conducting it, and following up after.
HUS 335: Interpersonal Helping Skills
Case Assessment Format
The case assessment takes place after the intake and assessment interviews have been conducted. The helping professional must evaluate the application for services to determine eligibility for services. This is just one process for conducting a case assessment.
Step 1. Provide me with your agency’s profile with your eligibility guidelines (on a separate page)
Step 2. Review the case assessment process (things to think about as you complete the assessment)
Step 3. Complete the Case Assessment (p. 2)
I. Examine your agency’s guidelines for eligibility as well as federal or state guidelines, if applicable. What are your agency’s guidelines for eligibility?
II. Review all the information you have gather on your client during the initial contact, intake, and assessment phases.
a. Applicant’s reason for applying for services
b. His/her background
c. Strengths
d. Weaknesses
e. The problem that is causing difficulty
f. What the applicants want to have happen as a result of service delivery
III. Determine if the client is eligible for services at your agency.
A. Is the client eligible for services? Why or why not?
B. What problems are identified (i.e., presenting problem)?
C. Are services or resources available that relate to the problems identified?
D. Will the agency’s involvement help the client reach the objectives goals that have been established.
E. Is more information needed (e.g., referral source, client’s family, chool officials, employer, medical doctor, mental health professional, previous social service agencies, etc.)
IV. Impressions
V. Assessment
VI. Service Identification/Recommendations for Services
VII. Case Assignment
Your Agency’s Name
Case Assessment
Pseudo Client Name: ____________________________________________ Date: _________________
Human Services Professional: ______________________________________ Title: _________________
Intake Date: ______________________ Assessment Interview Date: _________________________
I. Demographic description of client
Age, gender, cultural background, race, socioeconomic status, religion, occupation, marital/family status, education
II. Presenting Problem
Indicate referral source (e.g., self-referred or agency referral). If an agency referred the client, state why they referred the client to your agency.
State what brought the client to your agency from the client’s perspective. (This only needs to be a few sentences and not the history of the client.)
III. Impression/Interview affect, behavior, and mental status
How does the client appear to you (grooming, dress, voice, tone, mood, timeliness for the interview, cooperativeness, etc.)? Has this been consistent or changed throughout sessions (intake and assessment interview sessions)?
IV. History
Present the history as objectively as possible and only key information. Facts that were collected from the client, significant records, and referral source. Let the facts s ...
1._____ is the application of the scientific method in search.docxhyacinthshackley2629
1. _____ is the application of the scientific method in searching for the truth about marketing phenomena.
a.
Marketing
b.
Business
c.
Marketing Research
d.
Science
2. All of the following are important aspects of the marketing research process EXCEPT:
a.
searching for and collecting information
b.
idea and theory development
c.
analyzing data
d.
making results publicly available
3. Which of the following refers to the way researchers go about using knowledge and evidence to reach objective conclusions about the real world?
a.
qualitative method
b.
quantitative method
c.
scientific method
d.
primary method
4. Which of the following is an important aspect of the marketing concept?
a.
a cross-functional perspective for the coordination of the organization's activities
b.
an emphasis on long-term profitability instead of dollar sales volume
c.
a consumer orientation
d.
all of the above
5. When Cheetos snack food conducted research in China to determine which flavors consumers would find appealing, this was an example of which type of research?
a.
pricing research
b.
promotion research
c.
product research
d.
distribution research
6. The characteristic of data reflecting how pertinent these particular facts are to the situation at hand is called:
a.
relevance
b.
timeliness
c.
completeness
d.
significance
7. Which part of the decision support system addresses exchanges between the firm and its customers?
a.
customer relationship management (CRM) system
b.
data warehouse
c.
global information system (GIS)
d.
intellectual capital system
8. Who can provide data to a decision support system?
a.
production managers
b.
marketing researchers
c.
accountants
d.
all of the above
9. An organization's mailing list of current customers is an example of:
a.
a cookie
b.
software
c.
a database
d.
a hyperlink
10. Melanie is using the Internet to gather information designed to detect changes in her company’s external operating environment. What is Melanie performing?
a.
environmental scanning
b.
behavioral tracking
c.
search engine marketing
d.
electronic data interchange
11. When amazon.com recommends books for purchase when a customer who has ordered books from Amazon previously returns to the site, this is an example of:
a.
push technology
b.
electronic data interchange
c.
pull technology
d.
a URL
12. What type of research is being conducted to answer the question: "Can we describe the age, gender, and income of our typical purchaser?"
a.
exploratory research
b.
focus group research
c.
descriptive research
d.
causal research
13. What type of research is being conducted to answer the question: "Would this target market be interested in this type of new product?"
a.
causal research
b.
exploratory research
c.
situation analysis research
d.
descriptive research
14. Carol was invited to participate in a research study along with ten other consumers to discuss their experiences using cleaning products. The group was aske.
1242017 The Ethics of Intervention for Food Refusal Scoring .docxmoggdede
12/4/2017 The Ethics of Intervention for Food Refusal Scoring Guide
https://courseroomc.capella.edu/bbcswebdav/institution/PSY/PSY7704/170100/Scoring_Guides/u09a1_scoring_guide.html 1/1
The Ethics of Intervention for Food Refusal Scoring Guide
Due Date: End of Unit 9.
Percentage of Course Grade: 4%.
CRITERIA NON-PERFORMANCE BASIC PROFICIENT DISTINGUISHED
Assess personal
reaction to
interventions used
to address
problematic
behaviors.
25%
Does not describe
personal reaction to
interventions used to
address problematic
behaviors.
Outlines an
incomplete
description of
personal reaction to
interventions used to
address problematic
behaviors.
Assesses personal
reaction to
interventions used to
address problematic
behaviors.
Assesses personal
reaction to
interventions used to
address problematic
behaviors, noting
specific situations.
Explain how
possible undesired
side effects and
ethical guidelines do
not support the use
of certain
interventions.
25%
Does not show how
possible undesired
side effects and ethical
guidelines do not
support the use of
certain interventions.
Provides an
incomplete or
inaccurate
explanation of how
possible undesired
side effects and
ethical guidelines do
not support the use of
certain interventions.
Explains how
possible undesired
side effects and
ethical guidelines do
not support the use of
certain interventions.
Prepares a detailed
explanation using
specific examples of
how possible
undesired side effects
and ethical guidelines
do not support the
use of certain
interventions.
Explain how
potential benefits
and an individual's
right to effective
treatment support
the use of certain
interventions.
25%
Does not show how
potential benefits and
an individual's right to
effective treatment
support the use of
certain interventions.
Provides an
incomplete or
inaccurate
explanation of how
potential benefits and
an individual's right to
effective treatment
support the use of
certain interventions.
Explains how
potential benefits and
an individual's right to
effective treatment
support the use of
certain interventions.
Prepares a detailed
explanation using
specific examples of
how potential benefits
and an individual's
right to effective
treatment support the
use of certain
interventions.
Evaluate personal
reaction to
determine how
ethical and
professional
conduct principles
influence the
selection of
interventions and
treatments for
problematic
behaviors.
25%
Does not distinguish
personal reaction to
determine how ethical
and professional
conduct principles
influence the selection
of interventions and
treatments for
problematic behaviors.
Applies at a basic
level ethical and
professional conduct
principles to evaluate
personal reaction to
the selection of
interventions and
treatments for
problematic
behaviors.
Evaluates personal
reaction to determine
how ethical and
professional conduct
principles influence
the selection of
interventions and
treatments for
problematic
behaviors.
Evaluates perso ...
management in health care third editionBy Diane L. Kelly .docxLilianaJohansen814
management in health care third edition
By: Diane L. Kelly
Quality Management: A Systems Approach
Questions 1 to 20:
Select the best answer to each question. Note that a question and its answers may be split across a page
break, so be sure that you have seen the
entire
question and
all
the answers before choosing an answer.
1.
Which one of the following systems context models uses a contemporary triad and illustrates essential
elements of organizational effectiveness?
A.
Socioecological framework
B.
Three core process model
C.
Baldrige performance
D.
Systems model of organizational accidents
2.
A quality manager asks why medical errors are increasing. By asking this type of question, you can
deduce that she's
most
likely at which stage?
A.
Going below the waterline for changes
B.
Using information to identify essential systemic structure
C.
Understanding how systemic structure isn't readily available
D.
Understanding how systemic structure influences behavior
3.
When something fails to achieve the intended outcome, it's called a/an
A.
error.
B.
latency.
C.
violation.
D.
adverse event.
4.
You manage a department, and your main philosophy is to eliminate waste. In doing so, you're using
which one of the following tools?
A.
Six Sigma
B.
Total quality management
C.
Organizational design
D.
Lean thinking
5.
A systems manager comes to work in the morning after his night team had a long night of system issues.
The manager stops one employee in the hall to ask what happened during the evening shift. The employee
shouts, "I quit!" and storms out, slamming the door. This scenario is
best
described as an example of
A.
history dependency.
B.
change.
C.
nonlinearity.
D.
trade-offs.
6.
When desired healthcare outcomes are consistent with professional knowledge, then the organization has
achieved
A.
quality.
B.
organizational management.
C.
quality control.
D.
continuum.
7.
The CEO meets with hospital managers to ensure that each understands his or her responsibility in the
upcoming Joint Commission survey. In doing so, the CEO is supporting _______ structure.
A.
organizational
B.
intuitive
C.
systemic
D.
cognitive
8.
A patient's discharge status prognosis is "good." This prognosis is an example of
A.
an input.
B.
an output.
C.
a conversion process.
D.
feedback.
9.
You're the health information manager and your best friend is a laboratory technician at the same
hospital. In which total quality customer focus category does your friend belong?
A.
Stakeholder
B.
External customer
C.
Internal customer
D.
Researcher
10.
Which one of the following systems context models
best
explains how medical errors occur?
A.
Systems model of organizational accidents
B.
Baldrige peformance
C.
Three core process model
D.
Socioecological framework
11.
Which one of the following systems context models provides a "big picture" look at healthcare across a
.
An introduction to evaluation and feedback. This slide deck covers basic concepts every person engaged with designing evaluation or feedback systems for training should be familiar with. I gave this presentation to MBA students in Iqra University as a guest speaker in 2018. Hopefully, it could be useful for more people.
TEST BANK FOR ESSENTIALS OF NURSING LEADERSHIP AND MANAGEMENT, 7TH EDITION.pdfrobinsonayot
TEST BANK FOR ESSENTIALS OF NURSING LEADERSHIP AND MANAGEMENT, 7TH EDITION.pdf
TEST BANK FOR ESSENTIALS OF NURSING LEADERSHIP AND MANAGEMENT, 7TH EDITION.pdf
MGT 4308: Management Leadership
Milestone 2: Path-Goal Assessment Comparison Guidelines and Rubric
For this milestone, you must first complete the self-assessments in Leadership, chapters 5 & 6, which can be easily accessed through the table
of contents under “Leadership Instrument” for each chapter. Then score your observer responses for the same chapters according to the
directions in the textbook.
To complete this milestone, be sure to address the following critical elements:
● Compare your self-assessments for chapters 5 & 6 with your observers’ responses. Did they respond differently than you? How so?
● Explain why you think they might have responded differently
● Describe what you can do with this information to develop your leadership development plan
Guidelines for Submission: Your milestone submission must be submitted as a Microsoft Word document, about two paragraphs in length, with
double spacing, 12-point font, and one-inch margins, and any references should be cited in APA format.
Instructor Feedback: This activity uses an integrated rubric in Blackboard. Students can view instructor feedback in the Grade Center.
Rubric
Criteria Satisfactory (100%) Needs Improvement (75%) Incomplete (55%) Not Evident (0%) Value
Comparison
Compares self-assessment with
compiled observers’ assessments
for both assigned chapters.
Compares self-assessment with
compiled observers’ assessments
for both chapters, but lacks in
detail or clarity.
Compares self-assessment with
compiled observers’ assessments
for one chapter.
Does not compare
self-assessment with compiled
observers’ assessments.
30
Analysis Analyzes causes for different
perceptions of leadership
effectiveness for both assigned
chapters.
Analyzes causes for different
perceptions of leadership
effectiveness for both chapters, but
lacks in detail or clarity.
Analyzes causes for different
perceptions of leadership
effectiveness for one chapter.
Does not analyze causes for
different perceptions of leadership
effectiveness.
30
Action Describes how information from
both assigned chapters can be
used to develop leadership
development plan.
Describes how information from
both chapters can be used to
develop leadership development
plan, but lacks in detail or clarity.
Describes how information from
one chapter can be used to
develop leadership development
plan.
Does not describe how information
can be used to develop leadership
development plan.
30
Mechanics No grammar or spelling errors that
distract the reader from the
content. All sources used are cited
using APA Style, 6th ed.
Minor errors in grammar or
spelling that distract the reader
from the content. All sources used
are cited using APA Style, 6th ed.
Some errors in grammar or
spelling that distract the reader
from the content. All sources used
Major errors in grammar or
spelling that distract the reader
from the content an ...
Top 9 electrician interview questions answersinterviews-job
This document provides tips and sample answers for common electrician interview questions. It addresses questions such as "Tell me about yourself", "What are your biggest strengths?", "What have you learned from mistakes?", "Why did you leave your last job?", "What is your greatest weakness?", and "What have you done to improve your knowledge?". For each question, it offers steps to formulate an effective answer, including connecting your experience to the role and providing evidence of your strengths. Sample answers are provided for guidance.
This document outlines ethical standards and procedures for psychologists related to assessment, therapy, education and training, and research. Key points include:
- Psychologists must maintain client confidentiality except when required by law and only disclose necessary information to appropriate individuals.
- Psychologists must obtain informed consent from clients and respect their right to withdraw from therapy.
- Psychologists must prioritize client well-being and not provide services if unfit to do so. They must consider cultural beliefs and customs.
- Psychologists must design education/training programs to meet requirements and provide accurate information. They cannot require unnecessary personal disclosures from students.
- Psychologists must respect the rights, dignity and welfare of research participants
This document provides guidelines for consumers to use in determining who may be qualified to direct applied behavior analysis (ABA) programs for individuals with autism spectrum disorders. It recommends that directors be certified as a Board Certified Behavior Analyst (BCBA) and have extensive, supervised experience providing ABA services directly to individuals with autism. The guidelines describe the necessary training and competencies in areas such as designing individualized ABA programs, implementing teaching procedures, collecting and analyzing behavioral data, and collaborating with other professionals and families. Consumers are advised to request documentation of qualifications from prospective ABA directors.
The document contains 20 multiple choice questions about ethics for management accountants based on IMA's Statement of Ethical Professional Practice. Each question is followed by an answer and a brief explanation of why that answer is correct based on the standards in the Statement. The questions cover topics like conflicts of interest, maintaining competence, keeping information confidential, resolving ethical issues, and other responsibilities of management accountants.
I apologize, but I do not feel comfortable answering questions about disabilities or medical conditions. What matters most is whether I can perform the essential functions of this role. How about we discuss the job responsibilities and what skills and experience I can offer to help the company succeed?
Introduction Describe the organization based on the information.docxstudywriters
This document outlines the structure and requirements for a report analyzing a hypothetical organizational scenario. The report would include:
1) An introduction describing the organization, problem, and relevant research
2) An analysis of leadership actions, communication, and effectiveness
3) An evaluation of the ethics of decision-making, transparency, stakeholder consideration, and implications
4) Recommendations for leadership style, resolving the problem ethically, improving relations, maintaining culture, and addressing obstacles.
The document provides detailed prompts for each section to guide an analysis of the leadership, ethical issues, and recommendations for addressing the organizational problem presented in the scenario. It emphasizes justifying responses with research and examples from the scenario.
INFECTION OF THE BRAIN -ENCEPHALITIS ( PPT)blessyjannu21
Neurological system includes brain and spinal cord. It plays an important role in functioning of our body. Encephalitis is the inflammation of the brain. Causes include viral infections, infections from insect bites or an autoimmune reaction that affects the brain. It can be life-threatening or cause long-term complications. Treatment varies, but most people require hospitalization so they can receive intensive treatment, including life support.
KEY Points of Leicester travel clinic In London doc.docxNX Healthcare
In order to protect visitors' safety and wellbeing, Travel Clinic Leicester offers a wide range of travel-related health treatments, including individualized counseling and vaccines. Our team of medical experts specializes in getting people ready for international travel, with a particular emphasis on vaccines and health consultations to prevent travel-related illnesses. We provide a range of travel-related services, such as health concerns unique to a trip, prevention of malaria, and travel-related medical supplies. Our clinic is dedicated to providing top-notch care, keeping abreast of the most recent recommendations for vaccinations and travel health precautions. The goal of Travel Clinic Leicester is to keep you safe and well-rested no matter what kind of travel you choose—business, pleasure, or adventure.
Hypertension and it's role of physiotherapy in it.Vishal kr Thakur
This particular slides consist of- what is hypertension,what are it's causes and it's effect on body, risk factors, symptoms,complications, diagnosis and role of physiotherapy in it.
This slide is very helpful for physiotherapy students and also for other medical and healthcare students.
Here is summary of hypertension -
Hypertension, also known as high blood pressure, is a serious medical condition that occurs when blood pressure in the body's arteries is consistently too high. Blood pressure is the force of blood pushing against the walls of blood vessels as the heart pumps it. Hypertension can increase the risk of heart disease, brain disease, kidney disease, and premature death.
Let's Talk About It: Breast Cancer (What is Mindset and Does it Really Matter?)bkling
Your mindset is the way you make sense of the world around you. This lens influences the way you think, the way you feel, and how you might behave in certain situations. Let's talk about mindset myths that can get us into trouble and ways to cultivate a mindset to support your cancer survivorship in authentic ways. Let’s Talk About It!
Feeding plate for a newborn with Cleft Palate.pptxSatvikaPrasad
A feeding plate is a prosthetic device used for newborns with a cleft palate to assist in feeding and improve nutrition intake. From a prosthodontic perspective, this plate acts as a barrier between the oral and nasal cavities, facilitating effective sucking and swallowing by providing a more normal anatomical structure. It helps to prevent milk from entering the nasal passage, thereby reducing the risk of aspiration and enhancing the infant's ability to feed efficiently. The feeding plate also aids in the development of the oral muscles and can contribute to better growth and weight gain. Its custom fabrication and proper fitting by a prosthodontist are crucial for ensuring comfort and functionality, as well as for minimizing potential complications. Early intervention with a feeding plate can significantly improve the quality of life for both the infant and the parents.
Gemma Wean- Nutritional solution for Artemiasmuskaan0008
GEMMA Wean is a high end larval co-feeding and weaning diet aimed at Artemia optimisation and is fortified with a high level of proteins and phospholipids. GEMMA Wean provides the early weaned juveniles with dedicated fish nutrition and is an ideal follow on from GEMMA Micro or Artemia.
GEMMA Wean has an optimised nutritional balance and physical quality so that it flows more freely and spreads readily on the water surface. The balance of phospholipid classes to- gether with the production technology based on a low temperature extrusion process improve the physical aspect of the pellets while still retaining the high phospholipid content.
GEMMA Wean is available in 0.1mm, 0.2mm and 0.3mm. There is also a 0.5mm micro-pellet, GEMMA Wean Diamond, which covers the early nursery stage from post-weaning to pre-growing.
Trauma Outpatient Center is a comprehensive facility dedicated to addressing mental health challenges and providing medication-assisted treatment. We offer a diverse range of services aimed at assisting individuals in overcoming addiction, mental health disorders, and related obstacles. Our team consists of seasoned professionals who are both experienced and compassionate, committed to delivering the highest standard of care to our clients. By utilizing evidence-based treatment methods, we strive to help our clients achieve their goals and lead healthier, more fulfilling lives.
Our mission is to provide a safe and supportive environment where our clients can receive the highest quality of care. We are dedicated to assisting our clients in reaching their objectives and improving their overall well-being. We prioritize our clients' needs and individualize treatment plans to ensure they receive tailored care. Our approach is rooted in evidence-based practices proven effective in treating addiction and mental health disorders.
Dr. David Greene R3 stem cell Breakthroughs: Stem Cell Therapy in CardiologyR3 Stem Cell
Dr. David Greene, founder and CEO of R3 Stem Cell, is at the forefront of groundbreaking research in the field of cardiology, focusing on the transformative potential of stem cell therapy. His latest work emphasizes innovative approaches to treating heart disease, aiming to repair damaged heart tissue and improve heart function through the use of advanced stem cell techniques. This research promises not only to enhance the quality of life for patients with chronic heart conditions but also to pave the way for new, more effective treatments. Dr. Greene's work is notable for its focus on safety, efficacy, and the potential to significantly reduce the need for invasive surgeries and long-term medication, positioning stem cell therapy as a key player in the future of cardiac care.
TEST BANK For Accounting Information Systems, 3rd Edition by Vernon Richardso...rightmanforbloodline
TEST BANK For Accounting Information Systems, 3rd Edition by Vernon Richardson, Verified Chapters 1 - 18, Complete Newest Version
TEST BANK For Accounting Information Systems, 3rd Edition by Vernon Richardson, Verified Chapters 1 - 18, Complete Newest Version
TEST BANK For Accounting Information Systems, 3rd Edition by Vernon Richardson, Verified Chapters 1 - 18, Complete Newest Version
Can Allopathy and Homeopathy Be Used Together in India.pdfDharma Homoeopathy
This article explores the potential for combining allopathy and homeopathy in India, examining the benefits, challenges, and the emerging field of integrative medicine.
MBC Support Group for Black Women – Insights in Genetic Testing.pdfbkling
Christina Spears, breast cancer genetic counselor at the Ohio State University Comprehensive Cancer Center, joined us for the MBC Support Group for Black Women to discuss the importance of genetic testing in communities of color and answer pressing questions.
Deep Leg Vein Thrombosis (DVT): Meaning, Causes, Symptoms, Treatment, and Mor...The Lifesciences Magazine
Deep Leg Vein Thrombosis occurs when a blood clot forms in one or more of the deep veins in the legs. These clots can impede blood flow, leading to severe complications.
Deep Leg Vein Thrombosis (DVT): Meaning, Causes, Symptoms, Treatment, and Mor...
Pages from bacb bcaba
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2. Topic 1, Volume A
QUESTION NO: 1
BACB BCABA Exam
When presenting extinction as a possible treatment option to a client and his or her family, it is
MOST important for a behavior analyst to
A. assure them that extinction is supported in the literature as an effective procedure.
B. present it along with other interventions, including reinforcement based alternatives.
C. discuss the risks and benefits of using extinction and assure them that it is the best option.
D. explain his or her experience using extinction with similar cases.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 2
A behavior analyst is asked to provide direct services requiring daily 1:1 interaction with a teen-
aged client. The client does not speak but can communicate fluently using sign language. The
behavior analyst knows some sign language but is not fluent. The BEST approach to this situation
would be to
A. explain his level of competence in sign language to the family before beginning service.
B. hire a sign language interpreter to attend the sessions.
C. attend a workshop in sign language prior to beginning service.
D. refer the family to a behavior analyst fluent in sign language.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 3
Fara has identified two procedures that have an equal probability of being effective. In order to
select the better procedure, she should
A. choose the procedure that falls within the staff's level of competence.
B. determine which procedure is most clinically popular based on the rate of use by professionals.
C. select the procedure that best utilizes the existing funding stream.
D. use a random number table to rule out bias.
www.CertificationKing.com 2
3. Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 4
BACB BCABA Exam
Which of the following would BEST contribute to a behavior analyst’s professional development?
A. attending a workshop that provides videotaped examples and practice activities for innovative
interventions
B. reading articles from a peer-reviewed applied behavior analysis journal that describe
techniques that are applicable to her client population
C. becoming a member of the Association for Behavior Analysis International, which is a rich
resource for behavior analysts
D. contributing an article to the newsletter of the local Association for Behavior Analysis chapter
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 5
Before recruitment of participants for a research study begins, a behavior analyst needs to:
A. obtain consent from participant(s) or legal guardian(s) if necessary.
B. obtain institutional review board approval or equivalent (e.g., an ethics committee).
C. inform participants of their ability to withdraw from the study.
D. inform participants about ethical requirements and experimental procedures.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 6
Billy, a 20-year-old male, has the capacity to give consent for treatment. The behavior analyst has
developed a program and explained it to Billy. Procedures, benefits, rights, and other information
also were shown to him. The one element still needed for informed consent is approval from
A. Billy.
www.CertificationKing.com 3
4. B. clinical review committee.
C. human rights committee.
D. Billy's parents.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 7
BACB BCABA Exam
From an ethical standpoint, target behaviors and program goals should be selected
A. by service providers and staff members who are knowledgeable of the consumer's needs.
B. by the consumer or their representative in consultation with an interdisciplinary team.
C. so that they ultimately facilitate transition to independent living.
D. that most closely adhere to the standards of the community.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 8
Fred does not follow some of the directives imposed by the direct care staff. A behavior analyst
has been asked to put a program in place that will get Fred to comply with all directives. The
behavior analyst should FIRST
A. differentiate between compliance rates across different directives.
B. request that staff provide a ratio of compliant behaviors to noncompliant ones.
C. determine a list of potential reinforcers for the behavior program.
D. consider the ethical implications of training Fred to comply with all directives.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 9
A behavior analyst specializing in developmental disabilities is informed by a cousin at a family
gathering that their 2-year-old child has just received a diagnosis of autism and severe intellectual
disability. The cousin asks the behavior analyst for advice. Which statement BEST conforms to the
ethical and professional standards for behavior analysts?
www.CertificationKing.com 4
5. BACB BCABA Exam
A. It would be unprofessional and unethical for the behavior analyst to advise a relative.
B. The behavior analyst can consult with their cousin, but only on an informal basis once the
cousin hires their own behavior analyst.
C. Early intensive behavioral intervention may suit the child and family. The behavior analyst
should suggest some people for the cousin to contact.
D. Tell the cousin that the child will benefit from behavioral intervention with the impact of the
intervention depending on the specific treatment that is implemented.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 10
From an ethical standpoint, which source provides the MOST appropriate information for justifying
implementation of a program to change a person's behavior?
A. daily reports from the direct care staff who work with the person routinely
B. graphed data from the program staff who observe the person regularly
C. written recommendations from the medical staff who treat the person on a regular basis
D. written requests from the administrative staff who are ultimately responsible for the person's
care
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 11
A behavior analyst develops a program that decreases a baby's crying when her diaper is soiled.
This is an example of
A. development of a procedure to decrease maladaptive behaviors.
B. differential reinforcement of alternative responses.
C. extinction.
D. misuse of a practitioner's ability to control behavior.
Answer: D
Explanation:
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6. QUESTION NO: 12
BACB BCABA Exam
A behavior analyst is asked to review a point system to be used in an elementary school.
According to the program, participation in extracurricular activities such as sports or choir is
contingent upon earning "good citizen" points. "Good citizen" behaviors are clearly defined. Ethical
standards should lead the behavior analyst to recommend which of the following with regard to
earning extracurricular activities?
A. Implement the contingency as designed.
B. Modify the contingency to include points earned for academic performance.
C. Obtain the consent of the students' parents.
D. Require points to be earned outside the classroom.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 13
Mitch, a 17-year-old with intellectual disabilities, has made great progress on toileting and hand-
washing skills at school. Ethically, which procedure would be the MOST appropriate?
A. Every time Mitch uses the washroom, an aide stands at the door, records the task analysis
steps successfully completed, and posts the results on the bathroom door.
B. If all steps to toileting and hand-washing are completed successfully, the teacher gives Mitch a
smile and notes the frequency on a chart at her desk.
C. If Mitch makes errors on toileting and hand-washing tasks, a positive practice procedure is
implemented.
D. Upon successful completion of toileting and hand-washing, the teacher announces, "Good
toileting, Mitch," and marks the success on a wall chart.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 14
A colleague who is friends with one of a behavior analyst's clients asks the behavior analyst during
a break at a local peer review meeting how the case is going. The behavior analyst should
A. ask the colleague if the client has given permission to discuss the case.
B. inform the colleague that he can't discuss this and change the subject.
C. discuss the case in hypothetical terms without using the client's name.
www.CertificationKing.com 6
7. BACB BCABA Exam
D. provide a minimum amount of information so that the colleague can assist him.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 15
The Smiths' daughter, who has autism, has been receiving ABA services for one-and-a-half years
from Andrew, a behavior analyst. Andrew's experience and training is in special education.
Recently, the Smiths' other child has been behaving differently and they suspect that he may be
clinically depressed. The Smiths would like their son to receive services from Andrew because
their family is familiar with him and he has provided effective interventions for their daughter. The
Smiths ask Andrew to confirm their suspicions about their son. What should Andrew do?
A. Remind the family that his area of expertise is special education and ABA.
B. Conduct a descriptive assessment and collect baseline data in order to develop an intervention.
C. Consult with colleagues who have expertise in treating mood disorders in order to design an
effective intervention.
D. Refer the family to a colleague who has expertise in diagnosing mood disorders.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 16
From an ethical standpoint, evaluation of treatment outcomes should occur through
A. direct measurement of the individual's behavior.
B. discussion with the interdisciplinary team.
C. continuous evaluation of program integrity.
D. a system based on randomly monitoring program outcomes.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 17
Scott, a behavior analyst, has been accepted into a doctoral program and will be leaving the in-
home treatment program where he has been working. Scott has informed the family about when
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8. BACB BCABA Exam
he will be leaving. What is the MOST important action for Scott to take?
A. Make copies of his data and case files for his records.
B. Ask the family whether they would like to continue treatment.
C. Make arrangements for transfer of services to another qualified behavior analyst.
D. Assess caregiver's skills in order to determine competence to maintain program integrity.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 18
After collecting baseline data and verifying the hypothesis, which of the following is the BEST
approach to use when selecting behavior change procedures?
A. Ask professionals in the individual's environment to list procedures to address the unique
circumstances involved.
B. Use a procedure that has previously been found to be socially valid based on staff evaluations.
C. Limit selection to behavior change procedures that are consistent with those documented in the
behavioral literature.
D. Review all journals containing procedures that may apply to the behavior targeted for change.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 19
Which statement is an example of "philosophic doubt"?
A. Attention is the most powerful reinforcer for most clients so it will probably work with Freddie.
B. I have many reservations about using the principles of behavior in designing treatment
programs.
C. I really do not think that food functions as a reinforcer for Linda since she often misses meals.
D. Past research has shown that verbal behavior training is effective but this could change when
new research is conducted.
Answer: D
Explanation:
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9. QUESTION NO: 20
Which is NOT true of determinism?
A. Science is based on determinism.
BACB BCABA Exam
B. Determinism is in contrast to empiricism.
C. All science is predicated on determinism.
D. The universe is orderly and follows universal laws.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 21
What is the reinforcing consequence in "I itch, therefore I scratch?"
A. automatic positive reinforcement
B. automatic negative reinforcement
C. proprioceptive positive reinforcement
D. proprioceptive negative reinforcement
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 22
Which is NOT a characteristic of applied behavior analysis?
A. describing behavior in a way that can be objectively measured
B. precisely describing procedures and the rationales for using them
C. an emphasis on the current function of the behavior in question
D. reliably determining the variables that initially caused the behavior
Answer: D
Explanation:
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10. QUESTION NO: 23
One of the properties of behavior is
A. size.
B. effectiveness.
C. repeatability.
D. universality.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 24
BACB BCABA Exam
Sue consults with her supervisor to be certain her procedures are conceptually systematic.
Conceptually systematic procedures are
A. based on empirical evidence of their effectiveness.
B. derived from experimental analysis of similar behavior in the field.
C. identifiers of functional relations between a behavioral dimension and an environmental event.
D. linked to and described in terms of the basic principles of behavior.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 25
Three boys with autism, ages 7–10 years old, served as participants in a study. During baseline,
staff used response blocking when five instances of aggression or head-banging occurred within
10 seconds, until attempts ceased for 1 minute. During baseline and treatment, each occurrence
of aggression and head-banging was recorded daily and converted to the number of responses
per hour. Treatment comprised a differential reinforcement of incompatible behavior (DRI)
schedule coupled with response blocking after every head-banging or aggression. The staff
initially applied the treatment to head-banging, while continuing to take a baseline on aggression.
After noting treatment effects on head-banging, the staff then applied the treatment to aggression.
What is the independent variable?
A. DRI schedule with instruction on the incompatible behavior
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11. BACB BCABA Exam
B. DRI schedule and response blocking
C. rate of the incompatible behavior
D. number of head-bangs and aggressions per hour
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 26
When demands are placed on Raoul, he is often observed to hit his head, bite his hand, or slap
the therapist. These behaviors are reinforced by termination of the demands. Taken together,
these behaviors comprise
A. an establishing operation.
B. a functional response class.
C. respondent behaviors.
D. a topographical response class.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 27
A stimulus is defined as
A. a change in behavior brought about by alterations of the physical environment.
B. a change in the environment that can affect behavior.
C. a change in the environment that elicits a response with or without prior conditioning.
D. any environmental event exclusive of private events.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 28
Which situation is likely to be an example of negative reinforcement?
A. A child puts a coin into a machine and gets a gumball.
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12. BACB BCABA Exam
B. An employee submits reports to a nagging boss and boss stops nagging.
C. An employee submits time sheet to payroll department and gets paid on Friday.
D. A student has a tantrum and the teacher gives a hug to calm them down.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 29
Angela nurses her newborn infant when he cries. Rates of crying increase. The presentation of the
milk functions as a(n)
A. unconditioned reinforcer.
B. discriminative stimulus.
C. establishing operation.
D. conditioned reinforcer.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 30
In the past, Parnelli consistently drove at high speeds on city streets. However, he was pulled over
and had to immediately pay a very expensive fine. Afterward, Parnelli very seldom drove at high
rates of speed. Which of the following might account for the effect of the lost money resulting from
paying the fine?
A. negative punishment
B. negative reinforcement
C. positive punishment
D. escape conditioning
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 31
Patrick is participating in a toilet training program. For the first several sessions his trainer, Moira,
prompted him to go to the toilet and she delivered edibles and praise each time he correctly
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13. BACB BCABA Exam
voided. Eventually, Moira was able to fade prompts as Patrick began to go to the toilet and void
independently. Which of the following BEST describes this process?
A. establishing operation
B. negative reinforcement
C. shifting from respondent to operant behavior
D. transfer of stimulus control
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 32
Fiona cannot independently open her lunchbox. It is lunch time. The teacher closes the latch on
Fiona's lunchbox and places it in front of Fiona. The teacher has manipulated the
A. consequence.
B. establishing operation.
C. contingency.
D. prompt.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 33
The dependency between a response and the stimuli that precede and follow it is referred to as a
A. behavior chain.
B. behavioral correlation.
C. contingency.
D. functional response class.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 34
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14. BACB BCABA Exam
A functional relationship is said to exist when two events
A. are similar in content.
B. consistently co-vary.
C. occur at the same rate.
D. occur simultaneously.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 35
Larry engages in self-injurious behavior which is maintained by automatic reinforcement. This
behavior results in abrasions on both of his arms as a result of intense scratching. The behavior
analyst decides to have Larry only wear long sleeved shirts as an initial effort to reduce the
behavior. This is an example of which type of procedure?
A. extinction
B. deprivation
C. punishment
D. differential reinforcement
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 36
A person engages in target behaviors in environments different from the original training
environment. This is a demonstration of
A. stimulus generalization.
B. response generalization.
C. stimulus discrimination.
D. response induction.
Answer: A
Explanation:
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15. QUESTION NO: 37
BACB BCABA Exam
Terry notices that his heart rate increases and he begins to sweat when he enters the dentist's
office because the office is associated with painful, unpleasant dental work. He also is reluctant to
make appointments and seems to want to do anything else but go to the dentist. His physical
symptoms are an example oF.
A. operant behavior.
B. respondent behavior.
C. escape conditioning.
D. aversive conditioning.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 38
The defining feature of operant conditioning, as contrasted with respondent conditioning, is that
the probability of behavior in operant conditioning is changed because of
A. changes in consequences.
B. conditioning history.
C. environmental changes.
D. stimulus pairing.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 39
Echoic behavior is controlled by a
A. non-verbal stimulus, the response matches that stimulus, and reinforcer is specific.
B. verbal stimulus, the response matches that stimulus, and reinforcer is non-specific.
C. verbal stimulus, the response matches that stimulus, and reinforcer is specific.
D. verbal stimulus, the response does not match that stimulus, and reinforcer is non-specific.
Answer: B
Explanation:
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16. QUESTION NO: 40
BACB BCABA Exam
A behavior analyst is conducting a communication training session with a child. The behavior
analyst says to the child, "Say your name." The child says, "Sarah." and the behavior analyst
delivers a reinforcer. What type of verbal operant was the behavior analyst's statement?
A. echoic
B. mand
C. prompt
D. tact
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 41
Tact behavior is controlled by a ________ stimulus. The reinforcer for tact behavior is _____.
A. non-verbal; non-specific
B. non-verbal; specific
C. verbal; non-specific
D. verbal; specific
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 42
Mr. Myers asks Susan what her favorite food is. Susan answers, "Spaghetti." This is an example
of a (n):
A. autoclitic.
B. intraverbal.
C. mand.
D. tact.
Answer: B
Explanation:
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17. QUESTION NO: 43
Contingency-shaped behavior is:
BACB BCABA Exam
A. based on phylogeny, whereas rule-governed behavior is based on ontogeny.
B. established as a function of relations among unconditioned stimuli, a response class, and
reinforcement.
C. more resistant to extinction than rule-governed behavior.
D. established as the result of a person's experience.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 44
When Katie was learning how to stir-fry vegetables, her hand brushed the side of the very hot pan
and she now refuses to make stir-fried vegetables. Her refusal is a result oF.
A. negative punishment.
B. negative reinforcement.
C. conditioned punishment.
D. unconditioned punishment.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 45
A descriptive assessment generally includes all of the following EXCEPT:
A. development of hypotheses.
B. gathering of historical information as well as current sources.
C. graphic representation of data.
D. manipulation of variables.
Answer: D
Explanation:
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18. QUESTION NO: 46
BACB BCABA Exam
Narrative recording is used to compilE.
A. data on various tasks the person can perform, such as putting on a shirt or tying shoe laces, to
further identify skills training goals.
B. demographic data such as age, marital status, sex, and educational experience and to identify
appropriate interventions.
C. information, which can be used to set inclusion goals, concerning proximity and social contacts
with non-disabled peers in segregated settings.
D. a running account of the behaviors and environmental circumstances to identify further
behaviors and related variables worthy of analysis.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 47
Reviewing written documentation of a student's life and behavior is one method used for collecting
information when conducting A.
A. descriptive assessment.
B. functional analysis.
C. narrative recording.
D. reinforcer assessment.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 48
The most appropriate tool for performing a behavior pattern analysis is a (n):
A. ABC form.
B. daily schedule.
C. narrative recording.
D. scatterplot.
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19. Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 49
BACB BCABA Exam
Narrative recording indicates the following:
Sequence #1:
As Dad goes to change Rita's diaper, Mike screams. Dad puts Rita down, moves towards Mike,
and tells him "be quiet."
Sequence #2:
Mom is sitting next to Mike when the phone rings. She gets up, answers the phone, and starts
talking to a friend. Mike starts screaming. Mom tells the friend good-bye and hangs up the phone.
She then goes to Mike and tells him to stop screaming.
Which is the MOST plausible hypothesis? Mom and Dad's behavior is most likely
A. being negatively reinforced by escape.
B. being positively reinforced by attention.
C. elicited by separation anxiety.
D. evoked by feelings of jealousy.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 50
Alonzo tries to run out of his classroom without permission and forcefully resists attempts to stop
him. Behavioral assessment information leads to two hypotheses regarding Alonzo's behavior.
The behavior analyst decides to conduct systematic manipulations to determine functional
relationships. The MOST important reason to do this is to
A. convince Alonzo that running out of the classroom without permission can be dangerous.
B. determine why Alonzo tried to run out of the classroom.
C. increase the likelihood of selecting effective interventions.
D. determine whether or not the door to classroom should be locked.
Answer: C
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20. Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 51
BACB BCABA Exam
A study was undertaken to determine the effectiveness of time-out for physical aggression. The
time-out procedure would be considered the:
A. baseline measure.
B. dependent variable.
C. independent variable.
D. response measure.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 52
When conducting an analogue functional analysis, the condition commonly used as a control is
the:
A. home condition.
B. play condition.
C. social attention condition.
D. demand condition.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 53
Which method is the BEST to use when presenting categorical data from a functional analysis?
A. a bar graph
B. anecdotal report
C. scatter plot
D. standard celeration chart
Answer: A
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21. Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 54
BACB BCABA Exam
What is the next step in the assessment process if data from the functional analysis do NOT
support the original hypothesis?
A. Base the intervention on the original hypothesis and re-assess after a time lapse.
B. Design a package intervention to address all possible functions of the behavior.
C. Continue to conduct the functional assessment until the data coincides with the original
hypothesis.
D. Alter the hypothesis regarding the maintaining variable of the behavior based on the results of
the functional assessment.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 55
When developing a task analysis, a behavior analyst would first:
A. assess the mastery level of the individual.
B. conduct a functional assessment of the target skills.
C. determine the necessary component steps.
D. observe the individual to collect baseline data.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 56
In general, when a behavior analyst is asked to help someone make friends, the behavior analyst
shoulD.
A. avoid interfering in interpersonal relationships.
B. refer the person to a counselor, social worker, or other professional.
C. evaluate the current social repertoire.
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22. BACB BCABA Exam
D. set up a social skills training program.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 57
Holly is learning to use a spoon to feed herself. Applesauce is known to function as a reinforcer.
Her teacher has selected the following objective for Holly: "Given a spoon and a 3-ounce dish of
applesauce, Holly will independently scoop the applesauce to her mouth." This objective is
incomplete. Which component is missing?
A. antecedent stimulus
B. consequence condition
C. prerequisite skill criteria
D. standard of performance
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 58
Speed, magnitude, durability and generality of effect are some of the MOST important
A. dimensions of behavior that lend themselves to quantification more readily than others.
B. variables that are overlooked by other social sciences in solving problems.
C. variables to consider when selecting reinforcers and punishers.
D. components of treatment packages used in treating the most severe behavior problems.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 59
Jim's teacher has taught him to say, "Hello, how are you?" and when he does this, she delivers
praise. Now Jim says this whenever he meets anyone, and some people say,
"Fine, how are you?" What is the natural consequence for Jim's behavior?
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23. A. increased number of friends
B. continuous reinforcement
C. improved social repertoire for Jim
BACB BCABA Exam
D. the responses of the people he meets
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 60
When shopping with her dad, Sally knocks items off the shelf, especially canned goods. The cans
make a loud noise when they hit the floor. Her dad decides to teach her an alternative behavior.
What alternative behavior is the BEST choice to teach?
A. Sally pushes the shopping cart with both hands.
B. Sally drops items into the cart when her dad gives them to her.
C. Sally keeps her hands in her pockets while in the store.
D. Sally holds dad's hand while shopping and gets to let go when quiet.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 61
When setting criteria for behavior change, behavior analysts attempt to implement the simplest
mode of intervention necessary to elicit the desired outcome. As such, the identified outcome
criteria should be
A. applied to ecological assessments to generalize skills.
B. developed prior to the identified intervention.
C. initially broad in focus with subsequent reduction to a target response.
D. measured independent of practice effects or reactivity.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 62
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24. BACB BCABA Exam
Jamie and Morgan have similar behavior challenges and similar daily schedules. A behavior
analyst has spent extensive time and effort on developing and implementing Morgan's plan, which
is proving to be very successful. How should the behavior analyst proceed with developing a
treatment plan for Jamie?
A. Because the behaviors are topographically similar, implementing the plan designed for Morgan
would be appropriate as it is the least restrictive option.
B. Complete a separate functional assessment and plan for Jamie.
C. Use the same plan for both, just ensure the ecological variables correspond to the student.
D. Do a separate functional analysis, but the same behavior supports can be applied to both
students.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 63
The use of a withdrawal design is LEAST appropriate when:
A. evaluating an intervention for severe problem behavior.
B. evaluating the effects of an intervention for behavior that has multiple functions.
C. extraneous variables cannot be controlled.
D. multiple participants are being evaluated.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 64
When using an alternating treatments design it is important to randomly:
A. assign participants to treatment conditions.
B. select participants from the population of interest.
C. order treatment conditions presented during each phase.
D. change each criterion level.
Answer: C
Explanation:
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25. QUESTION NO: 65
BACB BCABA Exam
When using a changing criterion design, the BEST demonstration of experimental control would
be produced if the:
A. criterion level is changed in equal increments.
B. criterion level is changed slightly on each manipulation.
C. criterion level is set well above that of the behavior.
D. behavior changes concurrently with the criterion level.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 66
The PRIMARY advantage of using a multiple baseline design across subjects is that:
A. an intervention may be applied to more than one individual.
B. experimental control can be demonstrated without a reversal.
C. it is the most effective method for establishing functional relations.
D. more individuals benefit from the effects of an intervention.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 67
Jamie frequently falls to the floor and screams at school. Preliminary behavioral assessment data
indicate that his tantrums are maintained by attention and escape from demand situations. Jamie's
behavior analyst wants to examine precisely how attention and escape conditions affect these
behaviors. The behavior analyst does not want to conduct the analysis in Jamie's classroom
because she would not be able to control for potentially important factors. Relating to this
scenario, which statement is TRUE?
A. Analyses that involve experimental conditions are almost always conducted in the person's
natural environment.
B. The behavior analyst could conduct the analysis in a vacant classroom, but the generality of the
findings is an issue to be considered.
C. The behavior analyst should conduct detailed interviews with the teacher and school staff to
determine functional relations.
D. Only if the analysis is conducted in Jamie's classroom can a reasonable hypothesis be
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26. generated.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 68
BACB BCABA Exam
Carlos participated in a toothbrushing skill acquisition program. When he started the program, he
needed physical assistance to perform each step. After two weeks, he met all objectives and was
able to complete each step independently. The program involved the use of graduated guidance,
praise, and token reinforcement. In the future, the behavior analyst would like to examine which
procedures made the program most effective (i.e., guidance, praise, or token reinforcement). To
determine this, the behavior analyst could use a
A. component analysis.
B. discriminant analysis.
C. nonparametric analysis.
D. parametric analysis.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 69
The behavior analyst has had good results with an intervention she designed that makes access
to video games contingent upon playing with other children. She now wants to compare the effects
of differing amounts of video game access time. She should conduct a
A. changing criterion study.
B. nonparametric study.
C. parametric study.
D. reversal study.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 70
Which of the following measures would be the MOST appropriate for reporting head banging
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27. during each 5-minute interval of work?
A. duration of head banging
BACB BCABA Exam
B. latency from a request to the first response
C. rate of head banging
D. inter-response time
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 71
A person "getting wet" in the rain is NOT considered an occurrence of behavior because "getting
wet"
A. does not specify an interaction between an organism and its environment.
B. can occur under only one, very specific environmental condition.
C. is a hypothetical construct and cannot therefore meet the criteria for an occurrence of behavior.
D. does not have social or clinical significance in a science of human behavior.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 72
The BEST definition for mouthing behavior would be any instance of LukE.
A. placing his mouth on any object for at least 5 seconds.
B. placing his open mouth on a non-nutritive object or placing a non-nutritive object in his mouth.
C. making contact with his mouth to any non-nutritive object.
D. mouthing a non-nutritive item for 3 or more consecutive instances within a 30 second interval.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 73
Susan recorded data on a student's fidgeting behavior in the following way: She divided a 10-
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