The document provides a sample of questions from a test for admission to the Bachelor of Fashion Technology program. The questions cover topics like quantitative ability, communication ability, English comprehension, and analytical ability. The test aims to assess general knowledge and skills required for the fashion technology program.
Frost & Sullivan_Entry Interview Questions (English & Math)Max Lee
Wondering what are the questions asked during the entry interview for Frost & Sullivan (Malaysia)? Take a look at this document.
Sharing with you my dear readers who may find it useful.
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The Pearl Academy PG sample question paper helps you to manage the exam in a better way and give them you an idea about the expected features and elements of the test..
NID-pg mock test prepared by AFD academic team and is based on pattern of questions asked in previous years PGDPD entrance exams of the National Institute of Design. AFD tutors consists of alumnus of NID, NIFT & M.Des graduates from IITs
The Pearl Academy UG design aptitude test will help you to get the information about the questions and the latest pattern that how questions are being framed.
Frost & Sullivan_Entry Interview Questions (English & Math)Max Lee
Wondering what are the questions asked during the entry interview for Frost & Sullivan (Malaysia)? Take a look at this document.
Sharing with you my dear readers who may find it useful.
Feel free to connect with me at maxermesilliam@gmail.com.
The Pearl Academy PG sample question paper helps you to manage the exam in a better way and give them you an idea about the expected features and elements of the test..
NID-pg mock test prepared by AFD academic team and is based on pattern of questions asked in previous years PGDPD entrance exams of the National Institute of Design. AFD tutors consists of alumnus of NID, NIFT & M.Des graduates from IITs
The Pearl Academy UG design aptitude test will help you to get the information about the questions and the latest pattern that how questions are being framed.
SOFT Pune Managerial Ability Test 3 helps you to manage the exam in a better way and give you an idea about the expected features and elements of the test.
The SOFT Pune General Ability Test 2 paper will give you an idea about the question patterns. It will help you to become more confident to face the actual exam. The more you revise; it will be easier for you to crack your exam.
The SOFT Pune General Ability Test 1 paper will let you know which topic to give more importance. It will help you to understand the format of the question paper which will be very similar to actual question paper.
The SOFT Pune Creative Ability Test 3 Previous year question paper helps you to manage the exam in a better way and give them you an idea about the expected features and elements of the test.
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This is a presentation by Dada Robert in a Your Skill Boost masterclass organised by the Excellence Foundation for South Sudan (EFSS) on Saturday, the 25th and Sunday, the 26th of May 2024.
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SOFT Pune Managerial Ability Test 3 helps you to manage the exam in a better way and give you an idea about the expected features and elements of the test.
The SOFT Pune General Ability Test 2 paper will give you an idea about the question patterns. It will help you to become more confident to face the actual exam. The more you revise; it will be easier for you to crack your exam.
The SOFT Pune General Ability Test 1 paper will let you know which topic to give more importance. It will help you to understand the format of the question paper which will be very similar to actual question paper.
The SOFT Pune Creative Ability Test 3 Previous year question paper helps you to manage the exam in a better way and give them you an idea about the expected features and elements of the test.
The previous year SOFT Pune Creative Ability Test 2 will help the candidates to prepare better for exams as it will help them to understand the type of questions that come , along with level of difficulty of questions
The Pearl Academy sample design aptitude test will give you an idea about the question patterns. It will help you to become more confident to face the actual exam. The more you revise; it will be easier for you to crack your exam
The Pearl Academy PG MA General Profficiency Test 2010 will help the candidates to prepare better for exams as it will help them to understand the type of questions that come , along with level of difficulty of questions
This is a presentation by Dada Robert in a Your Skill Boost masterclass organised by the Excellence Foundation for South Sudan (EFSS) on Saturday, the 25th and Sunday, the 26th of May 2024.
He discussed the concept of quality improvement, emphasizing its applicability to various aspects of life, including personal, project, and program improvements. He defined quality as doing the right thing at the right time in the right way to achieve the best possible results and discussed the concept of the "gap" between what we know and what we do, and how this gap represents the areas we need to improve. He explained the scientific approach to quality improvement, which involves systematic performance analysis, testing and learning, and implementing change ideas. He also highlighted the importance of client focus and a team approach to quality improvement.
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1. Academy of Fashion & Design
Email: contact@afdindia.com
Ph: 08800337062
Get into premier design school In India & Abroad with AFD
http://www.afdindia.com
SAMPLE QUESTIONS
The sample questions are only illustrative and not exhaustive in terms of type and difficulty level of the questions which will be set in the test. The types given below may also be arranged in the test in a different order.
"BACHELOR OF FASHION TECHNOLOGY (B.FTech) IN APPAREL PRODUCTION
General Ability Test (GAT)
QUANTITATIVE: ABILITY
1. The function f(x) = (x2-1)/ x2- 3x + 2 I cos (Ixl) is not differentiable'
at
(1) -1 (2) 0
(3) 1 (4) 2
2. A candidate is required to answer 7questions out of 12 questions which are divided into two
groups each containing 6 questions. He is not permitted to attempt more than 5 questions from each group. The number of ways in which he can choose the 7 questions is
(1) 640 (2) 780 (3) 820 (4) None of these
3. Area bounded by y = x2 and y= 2x is
(1) sq. units (2) sq. units
(3) sq. units (4) sq. units
4. If Y = f(t) sin {k(x-t)}dt, then d2y/dx2 + k2y equals
(1) 0 (2) Y (3) kf(x) (4) k2f(x)
5. The derivative of an odd function is always
(1) an odd function (2) an even function
(3) does not exist (4) None of the above
6. On a railway route there are 15 stations. The number of tickets required in order that it may be
possible to book a passenger from every station to every other is
(1) 15!/13! (2) 15!/13!2! (3) 15! (4) 15!/2!
7. The function F(x)! = {t + } dt is
(1) an even function (2) a periodic function
(3) an odd function (4) None of these
COMMUNICATlON ABILITY
8. Choose the word that best expresses the meaning of "To be servile"
(1) feign (2) fawn
(3) fend (4) fetish
9. . very hungry, he bought a sandwich.
(1) Feel (2) Feeling
(3) He felt (4) To feel
10. The Antonym of "BAROQUE" is "
(1) polished (2) constant
(3) aglow (4) simple
Directions (Q11): In the following question a related pair of words is followed by four pairs of words. Select the pair that best expresses a relationship similar to that expressed in the original pair.
11. POTBOILER : NOVELIST
(1) easel : painter
(2).doggerel : poet
(3) caption : cartoonist
(4) symphony :composer
12. Choose the option that best expresses the meaning of "Bark is worse than one's bite"
(1) To misjudge a person
(2) One is, not as ferocious as one appears
(3) Overlook faults in someone
(4) Appearances are deceptive
Directions (Q13): Select the alternative you consider most correct and effective that can-replace the underlined part of the sentence, according to the requirements of standard written English.
13. Unless they reverse present policies immediately, the world may suffer permanent damage from
(1) Unless present policies are reversed
(2) Unless "present policies will' be reversed
(3) If it will not reverse present policies
(4) If present policies will not be reversed
14. Choose the correct spelling.
(1) ocurrence (2) occurrence
(3) occurence (4) occurrance
15. Identify the part of the sentence that is incorrect. .
(1) He promised (2) to quickly come
(3) the next time (4) I called
Directions (016): In the question below choose the alternative which can be substituted for the given words I expressions.
16. That which can be interpreted in any way
(1) Ambient (2) Ambivalent
(3) Amphibious (4) Ambiguous
Academy of Fashion & Design
Email: contact@afdindia.com
Ph: 08800337062
Get into premier design school In India & Abroad with AFD
http://www.afdindia.com
ENGLISH COMPREHENSION
An expert group has sounded a timely warning on what 'environmentally destructive tourism' will mean to national parks and wildlife sanctuaries and the objectives they are supposed to serve. Given the unique and rare wildlife the country has been endowed with, the rationale for using the resources for attracting
tourists from abroad is unassailable. This necessarily postulates that the flora and the fauna should be protected and conserved. As a matter of fact, much of the government's interest in wildlife preservation has to do with the tremendous prospect of tourist traffic on that account. Yet the risk of the revenue -
earning motivation overrunning the conservation imperatives is very real, the lure of the coveted foreign exchange that goes with this business only serving to enhancing it several folds. Even with the tourist inflow far below the potential, the pressure of visitors is said to have been already felt on the tiger reserves.
With the Government of India's declared intent to boost tourism quite justified for its own reasons, the need for eliminating the risk assumes a greater sense of urgency. The study team has noted that most of the 41 national parks and 165 wildlife sanctuaries surveyed are open tourists. The less frequented among
them may not require special attention immediately in this respect as much as the ones that are major tourists attraction do. These include the Sanjay National Park in Maharashtra, Nandankanan in Orissa, and Bannerghatta in Karnataka.
Over a year ago, the Indian Board of Wildlife expressed concern over the booming danger, and decided that the core areas of national parks and sanctuaries should be kept totally free from biotic disturbances, and the visitors be permitted to view the wildlife only from areas marked out for the purpose. And now, the
expert group has come up with the suggestion that a case by case evaluation be done of the 'capacity' as well as the 'limitations' of all the national parks and wildlife sanctuaries and based on such assessment on area-specific plan for tourist, promotion within the 'safety' norms be charted. That this is the most
scientific way of going about the job, and that there is no time to lose can be readily conceded.
17. The government shows keen interest in wild life preservation because
(1) it would bring in heavy foreign currency into the country.
(2) it wants to preserve the national parks and wildlife sanctuaries.
(3) to solve the problem of unemployment.
(4) of its interest in international tourism.
18. By-using the expression "environmentally destructive tourism", the author means
(1) the preservation of the wild beasts.
(2) destruction of the wildlife and sanctuaries.
(3) destroying the attractive sources of wild animals and birds.
2. (4) the maintenance of the flora and fauna of the country.
ANALYTICAL ABILITY
Directions (019): In this question, there are two statements A and B followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
Mark (1) if only conclusion I follows.
Mark (2) if only conclusion II follows.
Mark (3) if neither I nor II follows.
Mark (4) if both I and II follow.
19. Statements: _
A : All rivers are mountains.
B : Some rivers are deserts. Conclusions: - '"
I : Some mountains are deserts.
II : Some deserts are not mountains.
Directions (Q20): Study the following information carefully and answer the question.
Indian Olympic Association is in the process of selecting a team of four athletes for participating in the relay race in the forthcoming Olympic. After watching their performance in the National Events, the Association has shortlisted seven athletes. Their names are Zacharia, Yohanna, Wasim, Dalbir, Chakravarti,
Bishan and Anil. The Association also wants that the team should be well-knit and friendly but is faced with a situation wherein Yohanna and Anil are not friendly, then Zacharia and Chakravarti do not see eye to eye with each other. To make the matters more difficult, Anil and Bishan do not like each other.
20. If Bishan is selected and Yohanna is rejected, the team wjll consist of
(1) Wasim, Zacharia, Anil and Bishan.
(2) Wasim, Zacharia, Dalbir and Bishan
(3) Wasim, Zacharia, Chakravarty and Bishan
(4) Zacharia, Dalbir, Chakravarty and Bishan.
21. The greatest chance for the existence of extra-terrestrial life is on a planet beyond our solar system. This is because the Milky Way galaxy alone contains 100 billion other Suns, many of which could be accompanied by planets similar enough to earth to make them suitable abodes of life.
The argument assumes which one of the following?
(1) It is likely that life on another planet would require conditions similar to those on Earth.
(2) Living creatures OD another planet would probably have the same appearance as those on Earth. (3) Life cannot exist on other planets in our solar system.
(4) If the appropriate physical conditions exist, life is an inevitable consequence.
Directions (022) : The following bar graph shows the number of lndian tourists visiting some countries in the period 1997 to 2002. Refer to the graph and answer the question that follow.
Number of Indian Tourists (in thousands) visiting some selected countries
22. In 2002, the average air fare per tourist for" visiting Dubai was Rs.10,000 and if the average 'fare for visiting Nepal was Rs.5000, then the ratio of total air fare "'collection for Nepal/total air fare collection for Dubai would be approximately.
(1) 3: 5(2) 3: 7
(3) 2: 5(4) 4: 5
23. Which three cities have the ratio of negative blood group donors as 5: 6 : 7?
(1) Mumbai : Chennai : Delhi
(2) Chennai : Mumbai : Kolkata
(3) Kolkata : Delhi : Mumbai
(4) Mumbai : Delhi : Kolkata.
24. If in a certain language, MADRAS is coded as NBESBT, how is BOMBAY coded in that code?
1) CPNCBX 2) CPNCBZ
3) CPOCBZ 4) CQOCBZ
Academy of Fashion & Design
Email: contact@afdindia.com
Ph: 08800337062
Get into premier design school In India & Abroad with AFD
http://www.afdindia.com
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE & CURRENT AFFAIRS
25. Commonwealth Games in the year 2010 are scheduled to be held in
(1) Toronto (2) London
(3) Sydney (4) Delhi
26. Capital of Arunachal Pradesh is
(1) Dispur (2) Shillong
(3) Imphal (4) None of these
27. Which country is known as the "Land of the Rising Sun"?
(1) Norway (2) Australia
(3) Japan (4) North Korea
28. Westside Stores is an enterprise of
(1) Raymond (2) Tatas
(3) Aditya Birla Group (4) None of these
29. "The God of Small Things" is a novel written by
(1) Satish Gujral (2) Arundhati Roy
(3) Vikram Seth (4) Salman Rushdie
30. The correct chronological order in which
A. V P Singh.
B. Chandra Shekhar
C. Moraji Desai
D. Charan Singh
occupied the office of the Prime Minister of India is
(1) C, D, B, A (2) D, C, B, A
(3) C, D, A, B (4) D, C, A, B
31. Who is the author of Kadambari?
(1) Bana Bhatt (2) Besant Annie
(3) Sarojini Naidu (4) Dr. Abdul Kalam Azad
32. Who among the following won the International Cosmo Prize 2006?
. (1) Shenaz Hussain . (2) Raman Sukuma
(3) Zinedine Zindane (4) Fidel Castro