This document contains 100 multiple choice questions related to science for students of standard 8 in the Gujarat state education board. The questions cover topics like agriculture, plant and animal fibers, sources of energy, combustion, ecology, biology, force and pressure, sound, electricity, natural disasters, and light.
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RRB Group D 2018 Sample Paper by aglasem.com - Set AAnand Meena
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Here are some of the MCQs which will help you while studying and preparing exams of Evolution. This file contain 220 MCQs which will revise your complete study of evolution.
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Here are some of the MCQs which will help you while studying and preparing exams of Evolution. This file contain 220 MCQs which will revise your complete study of evolution.
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Letter from the Congress of the United States regarding Anti-Semitism sent June 3rd to MIT President Sally Kornbluth, MIT Corp Chair, Mark Gorenberg
Dear Dr. Kornbluth and Mr. Gorenberg,
The US House of Representatives is deeply concerned by ongoing and pervasive acts of antisemitic
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Postsecondary education is a unique opportunity for students to learn and have their ideas and beliefs challenged. However, universities receiving hundreds of millions of federal funds annually have denied
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• The Committee on Education and the Workforce has been investigating your institution since December 7, 2023. The Committee has broad jurisdiction over postsecondary education, including its compliance with Title VI of the Civil Rights Act, campus safety concerns over disruptions to the learning environment, and the awarding of federal student aid under the Higher Education Act.
• The Committee on Oversight and Accountability is investigating the sources of funding and other support flowing to groups espousing pro-Hamas propaganda and engaged in antisemitic harassment and intimidation of students. The Committee on Oversight and Accountability is the principal oversight committee of the US House of Representatives and has broad authority to investigate “any matter” at “any time” under House Rule X.
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The Roman Empire, a vast and enduring power, stands as one of history's most remarkable civilizations, leaving an indelible imprint on the world. It emerged from the Roman Republic, transitioning into an imperial powerhouse under the leadership of Augustus Caesar in 27 BCE. This transformation marked the beginning of an era defined by unprecedented territorial expansion, architectural marvels, and profound cultural influence.
The empire's roots lie in the city of Rome, founded, according to legend, by Romulus in 753 BCE. Over centuries, Rome evolved from a small settlement to a formidable republic, characterized by a complex political system with elected officials and checks on power. However, internal strife, class conflicts, and military ambitions paved the way for the end of the Republic. Julius Caesar’s dictatorship and subsequent assassination in 44 BCE created a power vacuum, leading to a civil war. Octavian, later Augustus, emerged victorious, heralding the Roman Empire’s birth.
Under Augustus, the empire experienced the Pax Romana, a 200-year period of relative peace and stability. Augustus reformed the military, established efficient administrative systems, and initiated grand construction projects. The empire's borders expanded, encompassing territories from Britain to Egypt and from Spain to the Euphrates. Roman legions, renowned for their discipline and engineering prowess, secured and maintained these vast territories, building roads, fortifications, and cities that facilitated control and integration.
The Roman Empire’s society was hierarchical, with a rigid class system. At the top were the patricians, wealthy elites who held significant political power. Below them were the plebeians, free citizens with limited political influence, and the vast numbers of slaves who formed the backbone of the economy. The family unit was central, governed by the paterfamilias, the male head who held absolute authority.
Culturally, the Romans were eclectic, absorbing and adapting elements from the civilizations they encountered, particularly the Greeks. Roman art, literature, and philosophy reflected this synthesis, creating a rich cultural tapestry. Latin, the Roman language, became the lingua franca of the Western world, influencing numerous modern languages.
Roman architecture and engineering achievements were monumental. They perfected the arch, vault, and dome, constructing enduring structures like the Colosseum, Pantheon, and aqueducts. These engineering marvels not only showcased Roman ingenuity but also served practical purposes, from public entertainment to water supply.
2. MCQ
1. The branch of science that deals with growing plants and
raising livestock for human use is
(a) agriculture
(b) horticulture
(c) pisciculture
(d) animal husbandry
2. Products obtained from the crops are called
(a) yield
(b) produce
(c) crop
(d) Fertilisers
3. 3. The practice of growing two or more dissimilar crops in the
same field one after another is
(a) crop rotation
(b) tilling
(c) plantation
(d) Weeding
4. The unwanted plants that grow along with the crops are
called
(a) fertilisers
(b) manure
(c) weeds
(d) kharif crops
5. The ideal months for harvesting kharif crop are
(a) June/July
(b) August/September
(c) September/October
(d) November/December
4. 6. Tiny organisms which cannot be seen with the naked eyes
are called
(a) microorganisms
(b) animals
(c) fungi
(d) Bacteria
7. Microorganisms are also known as
(a) yeast
(b) microbes
(c) viruses
(d) Amoeba
8. Fungus can be seen with a
(a) microscope
(b) telescope
(c) magnifying glass
(d) both (a) and (c)
5. 9. Microorganisms that causes disease are also known as
(a) pathogens
(b) fungi
(c) antigen
(d) Microbes
10. Pathogens are also called
(a) germs
(b) antigen
(c) antibody
(d) Carrier
11. Which of the following is natural fibre?
(a) Rayon
(b) Nylon
(c) Polyester
(d) Cotton
6. 12. Which of the following is synthetic fibre?
(a) Nylon
(b) Cotton
(c) Silk
(d) Wood
13. The basic component of plant fibres is
(a) protein
(b) cellulose
(c) starch
(d) none of these
14. Raw materials for preparation of synthetic fibres are
obtained from
(a) coal
(b) petroleum
(c) natural gas
(d) all of these
7. 15. Which of the following is known as artificial silk?
(a) Nylon
(b) Rayon
(c) Polyester
(d) Silk
16. Which of the following is synthetic fibre?
(a) Nylon
(b) Cotton
(c) Silk
(d) Wood
17. The basic component of plant fibres is
(a) protein
(b) cellulose
(c) starch
(d) none of these
8. 18. Raw materials for preparation of synthetic fibres are
obtained from
(a) coal
(b) petroleum
(c) natural gas
(d) all of these
19. In which year was nylon made?
(a) 1931
(b) 1964
(c) 1948
(d) 1950
20. Which fibre is used as artificial wool?
(a) Acrylic
(b) Rayon
(c) Nylon
(d) Cotton
9. 21. Which of the following is a renewable source of energy?
(a) Coal
(b) Petroleum
(c) Water
(d) Natural gas
22. Which of the following is a non-renewable source of energy?
(a) Water
(b) Coal
(c) Soil
(d) Sun
23. Plastic is a
(a) natural material
(b) man-made material
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) none of these
24. Fossil fuels are
(a) coal
(b) petroleum
(c) natural gas
(d) all of the these
10. 25. The word ‘coal’ is derived from the old English term
(a) col
(b) coke
(c) coco
(d) none of these
26. Which of the following fuels is used for running automobiles?
(a) CNG
(b) Petrol
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Wood
27. Magnesium burns to form
(a) calcium carbonate
(b) magnesium oxide
(c) calcium oxide
(d) magnesium sulphate
28. Coal burns to produce
(a) calcium bicarbonate
(b) magnesium
(c) carbon dioxide
(d) oxygen
11. 29. Name the chemical process in which a substance reacts with oxygen to give out heat.
(a) Reaction
(b) Junction
(c) Combustion
(d) All of these
30. The substance that undergoes combustion is said to be
(a) burning
(b) flame
(c) charcoal
(d) Combustible
31. Question 1.
The clearing of forests is referred to as
(a) reforestation
(b) desertification
(c) deforestation
(d) Sanitation
32. Deforestation leads to
(a) an increase in the temperature of the earth
(b) imbalance of O2 and CO2
(c) increase in rainfall
(d) both (a) and (b)
12. 33. Which of the following gases is needed by plants for photosynthesis?
(a) Oxygen
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Carbon dioxide
(d) Sulphu
34. Name the process undertaken by plants for preparing their own food.
(a) Industrialisation
(b) Photosynthesis
(c) Stealing
(d) Sterilisation
35. An increase in the amount of carbon dioxide results in
(a) winter season
(b) global warming
(c) rainfall
(d) all of these
36. Nucleus is separated from cytoplasm by
(a) nuclear membrane
(b) nucleoplasm
(c) organs
(d) cell membrane
13. 37. The liquid material in the nucleus is
(a) chromosomes
(b) bacteria
(c) nucleoplasm
(d) Nucleolus
38. Tissues combine to form
(a) nucleus
(b) cells
(c) organism
(d) Organs
39. Cells present in living organism differ in
(a) numbers
(b) shape
(c) size
(d) all of these
40. Cells which lack nuclear membrane are
(a) eukaryotic cells
(b) prokaryotic cells
(c) single cells
(d) multicells
14. 41. Nucleus is separated from cytoplasm by
(a) nuclear membrane
(b) nucleoplasm
(c) organs
(d) cell membrane
42. The liquid material in the nucleus is
(a) chromosomes
(b) bacteria
(c) nucleoplasm
(d) Nucleolus
43. Tissues combine to form
(a) nucleus
(b) cells
(c) organism
(d) Organs
44. Cells present in living organism differ in
(a) numbers
(b) shape
(c) size
(d) all of these
15. 45. Cells which lack nuclear membrane are
(a) eukaryotic cells
(b) prokaryotic cells
(c) single cells
(d) Multicells
46. The number of modes by which animals reproduce are
(a) two
(b) three
(c) four
(d) none of these
47. Binary fission is observed in
(a) Hydra
(b) yeast
(c) Amoeba
(d) human being
48. Asexual reproduction is observed in
(a) cow
(b) buffalo
(c) sponge
(d) hen
16. 49. In Hydra, the mode of reproduction is
(a) asexual
(b) sexual
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these
50. The animals that produce new young ones are called
(a) viviparous
(b) oviparous
(c) both
(d) none of these
51. The adolescence period is
(a) 14 – 20 years
(b) 10 – 18 years
(c) 11 – 19 years
(d) none of these
52. Larynx is called
(a) music box
(b) voice box
(c) respiratory organ
(d) sound box
17. 53. Most adolescents attain their maximum height around the age of
(a) 22 – 25 years
(b) 13 – 15 years
(c) 11 – 12 years
(d) 18 – 19 years
54. Initially girls grow
(a) slower than boys
(b) faster than boys
(c) both of these
(d) none of these
55. Puberty age in females is
(a) 10 – 12 years
(b) 12 – 14 years
(c) 8 – 10 years
(d) 5 – 6 years
56. The adolescence period is
(a) 14 – 20 years
(b) 10 – 18 years
(c) 11 – 19 years
(d) none of these
18. 57. Larynx is called
(a) music box
(b) voice box
(c) respiratory organ
(d) sound box
58. Most adolescents attain their maximum height around the age of
(a) 22 – 25 years
(b) 13 – 15 years
(c) 11 – 12 years
(d) 18 – 19 years
59. Initially girls grow
(a) slower than boys
(b) faster than boys
(c) both of these
(d) none of these
60. Puberty age in females is
(a) 10 – 12 years
(b) 12 – 14 years
(c) 8 – 10 years
(d) 5 – 6 years
19. 61. The pressure which is exerted by air around us is known as
(a) force
(b) atmospheric pressure
(c) muscular force
(d) Friction
62. Force acting on per unit area is called
(a) non-contact forces
(b) contact forces
(c) force
(d) Pressure
63. A exerted by an object on another is a force.
(a) Push or pull
(b) Contact or non-contact force
(c) Pressure
(d) Magnitude
64. The force exerted by the earth to pull the object towards itself is called
(a) electrostatic force
(b) gravitational force
(c) muscular force
(d) contact force
20. (a) non-contact
(b) contact
(c) gravitational
(d) Magnetic
66. The pressure which is exerted by air around us is known as
(a) force
(b) atmospheric pressure
(c) muscular force
(d) Friction
67. Force acting on per unit area is called
(a) non-contact forces
(b) contact forces
(c) force
(d) Pressure
68. A exerted by an object on another is a force.
(a) Push or pull
(b) Contact or non-contact force
(c) Pressure
21. is called
(a) electrostatic force
(b) gravitational force
(c) muscular force
(d) contact force
70. Muscular force is also called __________ force.
(a) non-contact
(b) contact
(c) gravitational
(d) Magnetic
71. Friction is a
(a) non-contact force
(b) contact force
(c) magnetic force
(d) electrostatic force
72. Which of the following produces least friction?
(a) Sliding friction
(b) Rolling friction
(c) Composite friction
22. (a) opposes the motion
(b) helps the motion
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these
74. Friction can be reduced by using
(a) oil
(b) grease
(c) powder
(d) all of these
75. Static friction is less than
(a) sliding friction
(b) rolling friction
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these
76. The voice box is also called as
(a) stomach
(b) heart
23. (a) work
(b) energy
(c) force
(d) Pressure
78. The hearing range of human ear is
(a) 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz
(b) less than 20 Hz
(c) more than 20,000 Hz
(d) 20 Hz to 25,000 Hz
79. Pitch of sound is determined by its
(a) frequency
(b) speed
(c) amplitude
(d) Loudness
80. The frequency of subsonic sound is
(a) more than 20 Hz
(b) 100 Hz
(c) less than 20 Hz
24. (b) heart
(c) larynx
(d) Mouth
82. Sound is a kind of
(a) work
(b) energy
(c) force
(d) Pressure
83. Sound is a kind of
(a) work
(b) energy
(c) force
(d) Pressure
84. Pitch of sound is determined by its
(a) frequency
(b) speed
(c) amplitude
(d) Loudness
85. The frequency of subsonic sound is
(a) more than 20 Hz
(b) 100 Hz
25. 86. Which of the following is a bad conductor of electricity?
(a) Distilled water
(b) Silver nitrate
(c) Sulphuric acid
(d) Copper sulphate
87. Which of the following does not conduct electricity?
(a) Sugar solution
(b) Vinegar solution
(c) Lemon juice solution
(d) Caustic soda solution
88. An electric current can produce
(a) heating effect
(b) chemical effect
(c) magnetic effect
(d) all of these
89. Pure or distilled water is a
(a) poor conductor
(b) good conductor
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these
90. Which of the following is a good conductor?
(a) Brick
(b) Steel
(c) Plastic
(d) Cotton
26. 91. Like charges
(a) attract each other
(b) repel each other
(c) no interaction takes place
(d) none of these
92. Earthquake of which magnitude of the following cause the maximum damage?
(a) 3.0
(b) 8.0
(c) 5.0
(d) 4.0
93. Lightning occurs due to
(a) wind
(b) rain
(c) electric discharge
(d) Earthquake
94. The shaking and trembling of earth is called
(a) tsunami
(b) volcano
(c) earthquake
(d) none of these
95. The magnitude of an earthquake is measured in
(a) Kelvin scale
(b) Celsius scale
(c) Decibel scale
(d) Richter scale
27. 96. We are able to see an object due to the presence of
(a) light
(b) dark
(c) refraction
(d) Object
97. The bouncing back of light into the same medium is called
(a) refraction
(b) reflection
(c) dispersion
(d) Diffraction
98. A mirror has _____ surface.
(a) rough
(b) polished
(c) dark
(d) all of these
99. Maximum part of light is reflected by
(a) opaque object
(b) translucent object
(c) transparent object
(d) all of these
28. 100. Beam of light striking the reflecting surface is called
(a) incident ray
(b) reflected ray
(c) refracted ray
(d) normal ray.