Liberty Study Guide and Answers Homeworksimple.com_Part6.pdf

8. Reality, for ___________, consisted of (Ideas) of all basic things, Forms that exist beyond the
grasp of the senses or even the mind.
9. The top or crown of a column.
10. Who wrote about the Peloponnesian War? The war between Sparta and Athens.
11. “Philosophy” literally means:
12. Who created One of Greece’s famous statue “Discobolus” (the Discus-Thrower)?
13. Which one of these did the Greeks consider the most important of the Arts?
14. The view that the universe requires no supernatural cause or government, that it is self existent,
self explanatory, self operating, and self directing, and that it is also purposeless, deterministic,
and only accidently productive of humanity.
15. In Raphael’s painting The School of Athens, ___ is depicted with his finger pointing toward
heaven, while ___ is pointing to the earth below.
16. Who said “Man is the measure of all things”?
17. Most ancient Greek cities developed around a fortified hilltop. What was this hilltop called?
18. The Greek theatre created tragedy in the year __________.
19. Who was Plato’s teacher?
20. Who had the greatest influence in the eld of logic, particularly with his invention of the syllogism
as a tool for deductive reasoning?
21. The Greeks view the individual as paramount because personal achievements were the
measure of all things.
22. The Greeks felt that music was not important and thus did not teach their youth this art.
23. In the Greek culture it was extremely important to obey the Priest and his commands.
24. Aristotle’s Allegory of the Cave regarded all sense-apparent things as shadows of the Real.
25. Pride in the Greek culture was considered a virtue.
26. Thousands of Socrates own personal writing have helped carry on his legacy.
27. Paul encountered the epicureans and the stoics when he spoke at the local agora in Greece?
28. The ancient Greeks saw the human form even in their temple styles.
29. The Greeks had a low regard for education and felt that children should learn best without a tutor
or teacher.
30. Socrates’ favorite student was Aristotle.
CSTU 101 Quiz: The Roman Narrative
Module 4: Week 4
1. This is the best preserved of all Roman buildings because it became a Catholic church early in
the history of the Church of Rome.
2. Which of these seas did not touch the shores of Rome?
3. These letters were the universal mark of Roman authority.
4. Rome had two early philosophies that had been taught by the Greeks, one being Epicureanism.
What was the other one?
5. One of the most revolutionary and authoritative structures ever built, which has influenced the
architecture of every age from the ancient Rome to the present day.
6. His long sentences and his forceful word choice and arrangement made him the model of all who
aspired to write Latin correctly from antiquity right through the Renaissance.
7. Who wrote the poem the Aeneid?
8. Representing Roman engineering and power, ______________ were a highly visible portion of
the network of waterways.
9. Literally means “the public affair” or “the people’s affair”.
10. From the Christian’s perspective which of these is true?
11. Which of American founding fathers designed their house with the Pantheon in mind?
12. Which Roman city was destroyed by a volcano, Mt. Vesuvius?
13. Who is credited with introducing the Neo-classical architecture to America’s buildings?
14. What were as common in Rome as billboards are to us today?

15. Which document did Jefferson write?
16. Who proclaimed himself to be the first emperor of Rome?
17. The writings of the ______________ “Golden Age” (70BC-14BC), not only gave aesthetic
pleasure but also promoted civic virtues and pride in the fatherland. His intent was to restore the
morale of educated Romans by means of poetry and history.
18. Caesar Augustus, we know from the Bible gave himself this name. What was his name before he
took this new name?
19. Greeks characteristically created while the Romans were often content to copy art; Roman
artists excelled in portraiture and ____________________ narrative precisely because they
copied the work as they saw it.
20. What structure did the Romans build that allowed their expression of who they were in the world
and what they were trying to do? It was also used as a propaganda device; a representation of
the yoke of oxen.
21. For the Romans, imperialism was a matter of living out their destiny.
22. A good word to describe the Roman mind in relations to art, would be idealistic.
23. Lex, Rex was written by the King of England in 1644.
24. The Roman Coliseum was not as big as previously thought and probably only held a few
thousand people.
25. Philosophy is the one area of Roman culture that is not indebted to the Greeks.
26. The Romans viewed the Greek culture as very distasteful and refused to use any of it with their
own culture.
27. Rome could be described as being pragmatic in their worldview.
28. Greece has very little influence on the Roman culture?
29. The Romans took pride in their Imperialism.
30. The main point we were illustrating with the aqueduct was Roman imperialism.

BIOL 101 Quiz 5,6,7,8
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BIOL 101 Quiz 5 Your Body at Work
1. When a vaccine is given to a person with a healthy immune system, the result is
2. The structure of a human neuron is made up of a
3. The entire human nervous system is organized into the central nervous system and the _______
nervous system.
4. Which of the following brain regions and their functions are improperly matched?
5. In the basic structure of the human heart, blood first flows through the right atrium, then it travels
to the:
6. The role of the ___________ branch of the autonomic nervous system mediates control of organ
processes when the body is essentially
7. The function of the ureter is to
8. The hepatic portal vein forms from capillary beds in ______________ and leads to a second set
of capillary beds in
9. A muscle is composed of thousands of muscle cells (fibers) bound into groups of 100 or more
fibers call __________ each of which is surrounded by _________ tissue called perimysium.
10. The function of the urinary bladder is to
11. Which of the following processes is involved in muscle contraction?
12. Which of the following types of tissue helps to keep both our blood pressure regulated and our
digestive processes effective?
13. Which structure within the brain has the role of generating emotions?
14. As a student runs up a flight of stairs, her integumentary system serves her by
15. Your adaptive immune response has all of the following characteristics except that it is not
16. Which of the following is part of the human digestive system, correctly matched to the role it
plays in the digestion process?
17. Fluoxetine HCl affects synapses by
18. Cranial and spinal nerves of the peripheral nervous system serve
19. In the human immune system, the three general lines of defense are
20. Which of the following sequences would best describe how a signal moves through a reflex arc?
21. Which is not a sign or symptom of inflammation?
22. What is the name of a contractile unit of a muscle?
23. The structure of a human neuron uniquely and perfectly fits it for its signal-carrying role. The
neuron is
24. Which of the following is a type of neuron that receives a stimulus and transmits it to the central
nervous system?
25. Which of the following is part of the human digestive system, correctly matched to the role it
plays in the digestion process?
BIOL 101 Quiz 6 Passing on Life to Another Generation
1. In the human body, melatonin supplementation is thought to help overcome the effects of
2. Which of the following methods by which human conception can be postponed is least invasive
of the complexity of human physiology?
3. When there is little or no lactose present in a bacterium’s environment then:
4. The reproductive system uses the hormones ________ and (later on) ____________ to “think
ahead”. They guide the preparation of the uterus for its role in supporting pregnancy.
5. In the human life cycle, diploid cells undergo a cell division process called __________. The
resulting haploid cells later fuse during ___________ which regenerates diploid cells.

6. Haploid secondary spermatocytes go on directly to complete meiosis forming four spermatid
cells. These will differentiate into sperm cells. The last stage of meiosis (that generates the
spermatids) is called
7. The stages of meiosis are
8. When the lactose operon is functioning
9. When an environmental change shifts an organism’s internal chemistry toward a new state, the
organism’s response is to try to return its chemistry toward the original state. This tendency on
the organism’s part is called
10. How does a Venus fly trap close? Once expansin has weakened the cellulose in the walls of the
leaf trap cells,
11. Dilation of the cervix is a chemical procedure that
12. Which of the following will end a pregnancy?
13. The specialized process that halves the number of chromosomes during sex cell formation is
named
14. In the lactose operon of E.coli, how does the repressor protein change its shape?
15. Which of the following are involved in the control of sperm cell production?
16. Early in your own development, a subset of diploid cells called ____________ began to develop
within your pre-ectodermal tissue. These cells will eventually lodge in the gonadal ridge. Still
later they will go through meiosis and give rise to primary oocytes or primary spermatocytes.
17. In Iris plants asexual reproduction results from
18. Which of the following is an example of asexual reproduction in plants?
19. Which of the following different methods by which human conception can be postponed involves
altering the hormonal chemistry of the female partner?
20. A living thing need to be responsive because
21. The mature egg, once ruptured from its follicle is swept into the _____________ by finger-like
fringes called
22. Which of the following is a biological approach to determining when a mother and her conceptus
become separate individuals?
23. Sperm cell production occurs within the interior lining of the ______________.
24. The portion of meiosis in which the total number of chromosomes is reduced to half is called
the reduction division. Which stage below brings this about?
25. In the Venus Fly trap, how does the enzyme expansin help to close the trap?
BIOL 101 Quiz 7 The Biology of Change Through Time
1. Directional selection
2. One feature of Enlightenment Thinking was the tendency to
3. Directional selection has been used to
4. The role of the barbule in the primary flight feather is to
5. Which of the following organisms were not observed by Charles Darwin while reading and
voyaging the world?
6. Preening behavior enables a bird to continue to fly successfully by
7. One problem associated with evolving a system in which RNA bases code for amino acids is that
8. One advantage associated with viewing RNA as the original site of information storage in the
primitive cell is that RNA
9. Mycoplasma genitalium is well known for the _________ infections it causes.
10. In the early pages of the Genesis record, the first stage of life history could best be described as
11. Could RNA have been the original site of information storage in the primitive cell? A difficult
problem with this possibility is that
12. The potential power of directional selection cannot be demonstrated in a real population if
13. One major problem with the speculation that the origin of life occurred at geothermal vent is that
14. To a design theorist a beneficial mutation
15. The Design theorist comes to the conclusion that most mutations occurring today are harmful
because

16. In the evolutionary model, mutation ______ genes that will develop a better organism while
natural selection ______ genes that will develop a better organism.
17. The term _________ represents a predictive theory of how a species might change with time,
whereas the term ________ assumes that nature can create whole new structures and
organisms.
18. Which of the following phrases best evaluates the naturalistic hypothesis for its value in
explaining the origins of new structures like the flight feather?
19. Which of the following could be a new mutation needed to generate appropriate structures for
flight feathers? a mutation that:
20. Charles Darwin believed that whole new species originated as a result of
21. Darwin interpreted his observations of nature to mean that
22. Which of the following is a basic evolutionary advance needed to convert a down-like feather into
a primary flight feather.
23. Natural selection is limited in its effectiveness in preserving new favorable mutations in an
environment that
24. The third stage of life history implied in the early pages of the Genesis record could best be
described as
25. During the formation of a feather which of the following structures appears as a result of early
induction events within the dermal layer of the wing surface?
BIOL 101 Quiz 8 The Diversity and Relationships of Life
1. Which of the following defense tactics do plants use to keep from being preyed upon?
2. The best term to describe the species-species interaction between Pseudomyrmex ants and the
bullhorn acacia plant would be
3. An evolutionary theorist believes that large groups of organisms are related to each other by
_________ while a design theorist believes that such groups are related to each other in
4. The large eukaryote, Zonotrichia leucophrys belongs to the large “Group” Opisthokonta because
it
5. An area providing cool, moist conditions with rocks and decaying logs at an appropriate elevation
and rainfall level constitutes a good ________ for the Peaks of Otter salamander.
6. Which of the following is one of seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?
7. Which of the following choices most accurately represents the scientific name for human beings?
8. Which of the following is one of the seven basic characteristics used to classify living things?
9. Studying competition between the Peaks of Otter salamander and the Eastern Redback
salamander would be an example of studying ecology at the _______ level.
10. Your textbook describes two sequential _________ of interaction between organisms and their
environments that have existed since God’s creative work began.
11. The diatom, Ellerbeckia arenaria belongs to the large “Group” Stramenopiles because it
12. The large eukaryote, Amoeba proteus belongs to the large “Group” Amoebozoa because
13. Which of the following is a problem that confounds attempts to organize the entire living world for
study?
14. In the minds of design theorists, separate clades (large groups) derive from
15. The microbe, Euglena gracilis belongs to the large “Group” Discicristates because it
16. The microbe, Pyrodictium occultum belongs to the large “Group” Archaea because it
17. Which of the following is a problem that confounds attempts to organize the entire living world for
study?
18. Species of organisms are collected into a Genus by
19. The phytoplankton of a lake would be found in highest numbers in the ________ zone.
20. The state of flux in which modern systematic groupings exists is shown by the fact that the
largest category in some groupings is the “Kingdom” while in others it is the
21. The state of flux in modern systematic groupings could best be described as/seen in
22. A fallen, decaying created order still needs to be stewarded carefully because
23. In the human – Greater honeyguide mutualism, the honeyguide bird is benefited by

24. Interspecific competition is defined as
25. Seeking to scientifically name each variety of life-form we find and relate it to other similar
species is a discipline known as

BIOL 101 Quiz 1,2,3,4
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BIOL 101 Quiz 1 The Why and How of Biology
Covers the Learn material from Module 1: Week 1.
1. Within a water molecule, the electrons spend most of their time attracted more closely to
2. A skillful scientist can use a well-asked question to fashion a testable
3. A condensation reaction joins two organic molecules together creating an H+ ion and an –OH
ion. These then
4. Atoms share electrons unequally in a(n) ________ bond.
5. A macro-molecular structure in the cell is composed of
6. Chromatography is useful for separating ________ out of a(n) __________.
7. The addition of neutrons to an atom affects its _______ but not its _________.
8. An ion is an “atom” that has
9. When an atom loses an electron, it becomes a positively charged
10. The tiniest, most miniscule bit of a pure elemental substance is
11. Which of the following principles of life describes a fundamental requirement for the growth of an
organism:
12. Which of the following is a “Principle of Life” on which this course in BIOL 101 is based?
13. Those serious scholars who are most inclined to see teleology in nature are those who argue
that
14. The scientific method includes all except:
15. In living organisms, cells of a similar kind are typically collected together and organized into
16. DNA is a molecule found in living things. It is the physical starting point of the principle that
17. A total of 679 leaves fell from trees kept at 10°C, whereas only 83 leaves fell from those kept at
32°C. This is an example of:
18. Your textbook discussed two separate approaches to truth. They were
19. Which of the following processes would come last or latest in a sequence of scientific activities?
20. Electrons are arranged within spherical ________ arranged in concentric ________ in the
structure of atoms.
21. cannot be degraded further by ordinary physical or chemical means.
22. A source of information and a source of energy are required in order for an organism to
23. Many Christians believe that dinosaurs were created approximately 6,000 years ago because
soft tissues have been discovered in fossilized T. rex bones. This belief is an example of:
24. A good hypothesis
25. Any substance found in nature will be either a __________, a ______ or a(n)
BIOL 101 Quiz 2 Molecules and Cells
1. When the enzyme amylase from the pancreas is finally ready for use, it is stored within cell
cytoplasmic vesicles called
2. Prokaryotic organisms have a definite lack of which of the following?
3. A eukaryotic cell structure (organelle) that results when a vesicle formed from the Golgi complex
simply remains in the cytoplasm of the cell:
4. Which of these is an organelle that would be useful in a cell that takes in and destroys viruses?
5. Some slime molds violate the first element of cell theory because
6. Which of these cell organelles has ribosomes in its membranes? (Ribosomes do protein
synthesis.)
7. Bacteria are typically very small, yet even the largest bacterium is still a prokaryote because it
8. The structure of testosterone could best be described as

9. When a prokaryotic bacterial cell has a second outer membrane, the membrane’s function is to
10. Which of the following eukaryotic structures (organelles) uses photosynthesis to capture solar
energy?
11. The boundary around a prokaryotic cell can best be described as
12. Which of the following cells are prokaryotic?
13. __________, the cell’s DNA plus its scaffolding contains the cell’s archive of
14. It is impossible to write a brief dictionary definition of life because
15. In order for the nasty bacterium Streptococcus pyogenes to adhere to your throat cells,
attachment to your cells must be made. This is done using new proteins called _____ and new
cell structures called
16. The bases in a DNA molecule include all of the following except
17. Respiratory proteins, ion channels, transport proteins and attachment point proteins are all
examples of protein found
18. Which of the following is the name for amonosaccharide sugar?
19. A carbohydrate contains ________ atoms.
20. Testosterone signals all of the following in the human male except:
21. The structure of a phospholipid molecules admirably suits it to the function of
22. DNA contains four kinds of nitrogenous bases whose principle function is
23. Generally speaking, prokaryotic cells___________ eukaryotic cells.
24. An important function of the eukaryotic cell membrane is to
25. Glycoproteins are molecules that are partially simple _______ and partially
BIOL 101 Quiz 3 Energy and Information
1. The three metabolic pathways that make up aerobic respiration are really all parts of one larger
pathway because
2. During the electron transfer reactions, protons (H+ ions) are pumped (moved) to one side of the
inner membrane of the mitochondrion. The value of this pumping is that the proton gradient is
then used
3. Which of the following is neither a reactant nor a product of glycolysis?
4. On a cold day, your cells depend on ________ to maintain an operating temperature of 37
degrees Celsius.
5. The (gene)tic information in a single strand of DNA is found in
6. Plants are considered autotrophic because their cells contain
7. The structure of DNA was unraveled using
8. The cell’s pumping of substances against diffusion forces that would carry those substances the
other way is termed
9. Each wavelength of light has its own
10. Accessory pigments enable the chloroplast to
11. Which of the following substances would most likely enable a flagellum to drive a bacterium
forward through the medium in which it is swimming?
12. In photosynthesis, ______ and ______ are used to build_______ and release______.
13. The value of the three stages of aerobic respiration is their ability to break down glucose, a
single molecule, with the resultant production of about
14. Accessory pigments and chlorophylls work together within the thylakoid membrane in clusters
called __________ . They harvest light energy and use it to transfer electrons to
15. Energy supplied to break bonds in reactant molecules is known as
16. In the chloroplast, light dependent reactions take place in the __________________ while light
independent reactions take place in the
17. Which of the following is a stage of aerobic respiration?
18. ________ and ________ are products of aerobic respiration.
19. An excess amount of product accumulates at the end of a metabolic pathway. The product then
binds to the allosteric site of the first enzyme along the pathway shutting down the pathway. We
call this process

20. Photosynthesis and respiration are complementing processes within a global cycle known as the
21. Biological information must exist because
22. In the process of glycolysis one molecule of _______ is converted to two molecules of
23. One glucose molecule plus six oxygen molecules plus 36 ADPs generate six molecules of
carbon dioxide, 6 molecules of water and 36 molecules of ATP in a process known as
24. Physicists define energy as
25. An endergonic reaction always
BIOL 101 Quiz 4 Cells to Organisms
1. A sequence of human cell divisions accompanied by some growth and cell differentiation convert
an early ___________ into a hollow ball of cells called a
2. Animal development and automobile development differ in that
3. Life perpetuates itself at the cellular level
4. Which of the following phrases best describes the function of ribosomal RNA (rRNA)?
5. The nuclear membrane of the cell disintegrates during which phase of the cell cycle?
6. The “S” phase of the cell cycle represents the activity of
7. Successful differentiation of early brain regions requires that cells destined to form these regions
8. In healthy cells, the normal function of the activated Ras protein is to
9. In the three-dimensional form of the adult Dalmatian dog, the “front” end of the animal would be
named the _____ aspect.
10. The genetic code is said to be degenerate. This means that
11. Your primordial (early) heart began as
12. A three-dimensional, folded molecule shaped like an “L” with an anticodon at one end and an
amino acid attachment site at the other end:
13. is a disease state characterized by cells that divide uncontrollably and no longer respect their
confinement within their tissue of origin.
14. Why is the word “translation” used for protein production? Protein production is the process of
15. Sensory and motor functions in the mature human adult are controlled by the
16. In the process of transcription, the base sequence in the molecule _______ is read by the
molecule _________ , an enzyme that makes an RNA molecule.
17. Which of the following terms would not be used to describe an aspect of the three-dimensional
adult form?
18. Moving ahead with cell division is controlled by the interaction of
19. Which of the following is a part of the overall processing of mRNA in the cell nucleus?
20. Which of the following phrases best describes the role of mRNA in gene expression?
21. What purpose does the process of mitosis serve?
22. Once the protein release factor enters the ribosome, other releasing factors enter as well. The
ribosome responds by coming apart and releasing the new protein. This process is called
23. During G2 phase
24. The transformation of chromatin to chromosomes is necessary prior to cell division because
25. The role of the ribosome or its subunits: binding ____________ ____________ together to form
a polypeptide chain.

GOVT 406 Quiz 1,2
https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/govt-406-quiz-12/
GOVT 406 Quiz 1
GOVT 406 Quiz Nonpossessory Interests in Real Estate
1. In constructing the railroads in the United States, thousands of landowners granted the federal
government easements for the placement of railroad tracks. As rail travel declined, many of the
routes were no longer used. Many of the railroad tracks were dismantled formally by cities and
towns and many were dismantled informally by those seeking to utilize the iron from the tracks
and the wooden ties. In some cases, the tracks were turned into bicycle paths that have served
recreational and commuter needs. What are the rights of the cities and towns that removed the
rails and converted the easements to bike paths?
2. An easement:
3. X owns an easement in Y’s property that permits X to operate his factory so that polluted air can
travel over Y’s property. X’s easement is an example of:
4. The Axrods own a landlocked tract of land. When they bought it from the Bonhams, who owned
the full tract, they did not obtain an easement.
5. Which of the following is true about a license?
6. Hal Divelbiss owned a corner lot located next to an elementary school. Children from the
neighborhood cut across the lot diagonally as they were walking to school. The children did so
with such frequency that there was a visible path across Hal’s property. The children had been
using the path since the school opened in 1971. On December 1, 2000, Hal placed a fence
around the perimeter of the lot and the children could no longer use their well-established short
cut. The school and the children:
7. Angela holds an easement that prevents Bill from planting willow trees. Angela and Bill are
adjoining landowners, and Angela obtained the easement because she felt the roots of willow
trees would harm her in-ground swimming pool. Who is the dominant tenement?
8. A solar easement is an example of:
9. Tacking:
10. Which element is common to easements by implication and easements by necessity?
11. An easement by prescription is really just a license.
12. Public utility easements are not transferable with the land.
13. The scope of an express easement cannot be expanded.
14. Jennifer grants an access easement to Cynthia across her property. Cynthia could lose her
easement through non-use.
15. The dominant estate is the one holding the easement.
16. Easements have been used to preserve farmland.
17. A utility easement ends once the servient estate is transferred.
18. Jennifer grants an access easement to Cynthia across her property. Jennifer could have
accomplished the same purpose and given the same rights through a license.
19. A conservation easement is a negative easement.
20. A license must be in writing to be valid.
GOVT 406 Quiz 2
GOVT 406 Quiz Describing Land Interests
Covers the Textbook material from Module 2: Week 2.

1. What is the effect of attaching a plat map to a deed with the following description: “The
Doonesbury Inn at Salisbury, Maryland.”
2. Plat map descriptions:
3. How many sections in a township?
4. The following description appears in a deed: “Lot 27 of Candlelight Estates IV, as per plat
recorded in Book of Maps 30, page 80, in the Office of the County Recorder of Holim County,
Utah.”
5. Grids are the segments of land:
6. Metes and bounds descriptions start from a reference point and describe property by:
7. Which of the following are placed every 24 miles in the government survey?
8. The NE-1/4 of the NW-1/4 and the SE-1/4 have how many acres?
9. The following description appears in a deed: “The home at 4244 Seville Street, Indigo, CA.” This
description:
10. The name for the vertical lines that run parallel to the Salt Lake meridian is:
11. If there is a plat map and a metes and bounds description with an ambiguity, the plat map will
control the result.
12. “I hereby convey my farm” is a sufficient legal description.
13. “The land that includes the Wind Song cave” is a sufficient legal description.
14. A street address is a sufficient legal description.
15. Oral evidence can be used to clarify a patent ambiguity.
16. A plat map shows the dimensions of lots.
17. There are 36 sections in a township.
18. The NE-1/4 of a section has 60 acres.
19. Parol evidence cannot be used to create a valid description.
20. A township is six miles square.

BIBL 104 Quiz 5,6,7,8
https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/bibl-104-quiz-5678/
BIBL 104 Quiz 5 The Gospels
1. The book of Revelation was written by John on the island of
2. According to early church tradition, Mark was a close disciple of James, the brother of Jesus. So,
he heard James tell and retell the stories about Jesus everywhere they went.
3. There is no purposeful arrangement to the letters as they are presented in the New Testament.
4. Rather than focusing on what was already written, the Gospel of John focuses on events,
discourses, and miraculous signs not found in the other Gospels.
5. Mark’s writing is action packed, forceful, fresh, vivid, dramatic, realistic, graphic, simple, direct,
swift, rough, brief, and to the point.
6. John uses this central “I am” declaration to affirm the deity of Christ. One of these “I Am”
declarations is:
7. references more historical events in the Roman Empire during the life of Jesus than the other
Gospels
declarations is:
9. Which of the following is not a parable of Jesus?
10. Because Matthew, Mark, and Luke have more stories in common with one another, these three
Gospels are called the “_____________ Gospels.”
11. The book of Jude belongs to the section of the New Testament known as
12. The story of the early church begins with the outpouring of the Holy Spirit on the day of
Pentecost and focuses initially on the ministry of Peter.
13. According to the Gospel of John, Jesus’ mission to the Jews was highlighted by seven
miraculous signs. One of these signs is
14. Jesus’ seven miraculous “signs” in the Gospel of John were intended to affirm Jesus’ message
and confirm His claims.
15. The book of Acts ends with a final “update” as Paul awaits his trial before Caesar and the gospel
message continues spreading as the church continues to grow.
16. John’s Gospel concludes by noting that while Jesus did many other things, no one could possibly
write them all down. If anyone did, even the whole world could not contain all of the books that
would have to be written.
17. The Acts of the Apostles covers the time from Pentecost to Paul’s imprisonment.
18. Matthew gives special attention to the rejection of Jesus by the Jewish leaders.
20. John sees prophetic fulfillment in the fact that when they pierced Jesus’ side with a spear both
blood and water came out at once.
declarations is:
22. In the Gospels, ___________ interprets the facts of Jesus’ life with an emphasis on His deity.
23. Which of the following is not a miracle that Jesus performed?
24. The book of Mark belongs to the section of the New Testament known as
25. According to our textbook, Mark’s theological purpose was to explain the most significant life in
all of human history.
27. John’s portrait of Christ is that of

28. During Jesus’ post-resurrection appearances He comforted Mary, convinced Thomas of His
resurrection, and reassured Peter that he was forgiven for denying Him.
29. Luke’s Gospel is the most universal Gospel because the good news about Jesus is for the whole
world, not for the Jews only.
30. The New Testament consists of twenty-seven books that were written in Koine Greek or common
Greek.
31. Which of the following books is a Pauline Epistle?
32. The Gospel of __________ places an emphasis on the individual person.
33. The book of Hebrews belongs to the section of the New Testament known as
34. In order to speed up Jesus’ death so that it did not conflict with the Sabbath, the Jesus legs were
broken at the request of the religious leaders.
35. The Gospel of Matthew provides some of Jesus’ most prominent sermons, parables, and
miracles, plus a record of important messages such as the Sermon on the Mount, the parables
of the kingdom, and the Olivet Discourse.
36. The New Testament Epistles are personal letters written to churches and individuals.
37. The book of Acts begins with the ascension of Christ and His commission to the apostles to take
the gospel message from Jerusalem to the rest of the world.
38. Luke’s purpose is to give “an orderly sequence” of the events about Christ’s birth, life, and
sacrificial death followed by His resurrection and ascension back to heaven.
39. Which of the following people wrote at least one letter that is included in the New Testament
canon.
40. According to our textbook, the original audience for the Gospel of John seems to be Greek-
speaking Jews who were living outside of Israel.
41. Matthew’s Gospel opens with the genealogy of Jesus traced all the way back through King David
and concluding with Isaac who was the child of promise.
42. According to our textbook, the book of Revelation is written in apocalyptic symbolism and makes
use of numbers, animals, and colors as graphic symbols of prophetic realties.
43. The Gospel of _____________ is the only Gospel to mention that Jesus was a carpenter during
His early adulthood.
declarations is:
46. The typical letters of the Greco-Roman period included an address, a greeting, a body, and a
conclusion.
47. In the Gospels, _________, the travel companion of Paul and Peter, writes for the Roman mind.
48. Which of the following books is a General Epistle?
49. In John 3 Jesus met _______________, a Jewish ruler in Jerusalem, to whom He explains what
it means to be “born again.”
50. Matthew originally crafted this Gospel for a group of Christians who needed to become more
familiar with the Old Testament.
BIBL 104 Quiz 6 New Testament History
1. As the good news spread to Syrian Antioch and many believed, Jewish leaders had ________
killed and had Peter thrown in jail.
2. According to our textbook, the birth of the church to place in ______________ at Pentecost.
3. What member of the Jewish Sanhedrin was converted to Christ on the road to Damascus.
4. According to our textbook, there are five key ideas in the book of Acts. _____________ is one of
these ideas.
5. While ministering ______________ during his first missionary journey, a Jewish magician was
struck blind and a Roman proconsul was converted.

6. The book of Acts is the second volume written by Luke.
7. In the Old Testament, God’s glory dwelt in a tabernacle and in the temple, but in the New
Testament God’s Spirit lives in the lives of believers.
8. Paul begins his third missionary journey from
9. A serious disagreement arose at Antioch as to whether the new Gentile converts
10. During his two years at Caesarea, Paul presented his case before
11. The Jerusalem Council happened between Paul’s second and third missionary journey.
12. Church leadership in Acts consisted of deacons but not elders.
13. On his third missionary journey, Paul establishes churches in ___________ where he also writes
1 & 2 Corinthians.
14. While at Perga on his first missionary journey, _____________ left and returned to Jerusalem
while Paul and Barnabas went on.
15. At the ___________________ it was determined that Gentiles were not required to be
circumcised and that both Jews and Gentiles were saved by grace through faith alone.
16. The convert Saul would eventually exchange his Jewish name for the Greco-Roman name
___________, as he expanded his ministry to the Gentiles.
17. What deacon was responsible for taking the Gospel to Samaria?
18. The book of Acts includes twenty-three ___________ which make up one-third of the book.
19. The Holy Spirit was poured out on the believers at
20. The church never added a twelfth disciple to take Judas place. They simply carried on without
him.
21. The birth and growth of the church in Acts reveals God’s plan to take the gospel to the world as
an extension of the Jewish messianic hope from its beginning in Jewish Jerusalem to the heart
of the Gentile world in Rome.
these ideas.
these ideas.
24. Who did Paul raise from the dead.
25. Who did Paul take with him on his second missionary journey.
BIBL 104 Quiz 7 Paul’s Letters
1. 1 Thessalonians is filled with Old Testament quotations as Paul seeks to answer some of the
questions currently troubling the believers at Thessalonica.
2. According to Paul in Romans, justification was provided by Christ’s substitutionary death on the
cross as a satisfaction for man’s sin for all who come to Christ in faith.
3. In order to “not carry out the desire of the flesh,” Paul urges the Galatians to
4. Paul’s letter to the ___________ includes one of the most complete statements about the true
nature of the person of Christ in the New Testament.
5. In First Corinthians, Paul encouraged these believers to examine their attitudes before partaking
in this ordinance of the church.
6. In _______________, Paul cites an early Christian hymn in order to explain the preeminence of
Christ.
7. In Romans Paul shows that the whole world is under sin and therefore guilty before God.
8. In Philemon, Paul pleads with Philemon to take Onesimus back and forgive him for both the
crimes of stealing and running away because “you owe me over and above your very soul.”
9. In Ephesians, Paul uses the figure of a temple to describe the church as a spiritual building in
which all the different elements are welded together into a collective unity.
10. In 2 Thessalonians Paul assures the believers that God will take vengeance on their persecutors
and will be glorified over them at the end of the age.

11. The dominant theme of 2 Timothy is Timothy’s departure from the truth which Paul was seeking
to correct.
12. In Ephesians, Paul asserts that, while believers are the church and the bride, Christ is the
Bridegroom.
13. The Roman church consisted of both Jews and Gentiles, but the majority were Jews.
14. Paul’s letters to the Corinthians deal with the challenges of Christians living in a hostile culture.
15. Paul’s instructs the Corinthians that his perspective on the Gospel ministry includes the idea that
knowing the fear of God moves the minister to persuade unsaved people to become Christians.
16. The Galatian Christians were being influenced by Judaizers who would have Gentile believers
circumcised and live by the law.
17. According to the textbook, of all the cities where Paul ministered, perhaps the __________ had
more evidence of Satanic activity and demonic oppression than any other place.
18. In order to “not carry out the desire of the flesh,” Paul urges the Galatians to
19. 2 Timothy was written by Paul to Timothy just before Paul’s martyrdom.
20. At the bottom of all the problems addressed in First Corinthians was a self-serving, indulgent
attitude. This attitude stood in contrast to the death of Christ as a self-giving sacrifice for the sins
of others.
21. Paul wrote _____________ to encourage his ministry assistant to live the gospel and flight to
defend it.
22. According to Paul in 2 Timothy, since God is perfect and all knowing, when He breathed
inspiration on the Scriptures, they were perfect.
23. In First Corinthians, the Corinthian believers boasted in their tolerance. Instead they should have
dealt with this sin problem.
24. Paul wanted Timothy to see four generations of ministry duplication. The first
generation was Paul who preached the gospel. The second generation was Timothy who
received the gospel from Paul. The third generations were the people converted when Timothy
preached. The fourth generation includes the “others” who were taught by faithful men from the
third generation.
25. Paul uses the phrase “in Christ” 170 times in his writings to refer to church-age
believers to whom the mystery of the God’s grace was already revealed.
26. In the letter of ___________, Paul emphasized that believers can experience true joy by living
out the mind of Christ within the body of Christ.
27. was Philemon’s runaway slave from Colossae who encountered Paul in Rome.
28. According to the textbook, Timothy was probably converted to Christianity as a youth when Paul
visited his home in Lystra on the first missionary journey with Barnabas.
29. In Philippians Paul argues that true joy and peace are not contingent on circumstances but
rather in knowing that an all-powerful and all-loving God is in control.
30. In 1 Timothy Paul argues that pastors should get paid but should not be appointed until they
have proven they are of godly character.
31. In Colossians, Paul said Christ fulfilled the law, thus keeping the obligations of the law is no
longer necessary because Christ took “it away by nailing it to the cross.”
32. In Philemon, Paul makes himself personally responsible for the amount stolen by
He tells Philemon to “Charge that to my account.”
33. a wealthy businessman who lived in Colossae, owned slaves, and the church met in his house.
34. According to the textbook, to keep him from exalting himself, God gave him a thorn in the flesh.
35. Paul reminds Titus that since people were saved “not by works of righteousness that we had
done, but according to His mercy” and justified by God’s grace, they should live a life of good
works toward all men.
36. First Corinthians is a pastoral letter to a local church from a father addressing his
spiritually erring children
37. In Philemon, Paul tells Philemon to receive back his runaway slave “on the basis of love.” Paul is
suggesting Philemon not only forgive his crimes but also give Onesimus his freedom.
38. Paul reminds the Colossians to focus on their heavenly standing because “you have been raised
with the Messiah, seek what is above, where the Messiah is, seated at the right hand of God. Set

your minds on what is above.”
39. Paul’s hope in Philippians was to offer practical encouragements to his friends at
Philippi so they would not be tempted to doubt God’s faithfulness even in dire circumstances.
40. Some scholars believe that the absence of personal greetings in Ephesians suggests that
neither did Paul found the church in Ephesus nor did he know anyone in the church.
41. According to the textbook, Paul asserts in 1 Thessalonians that because of the promise of the
rapture, believers will not suffer the wrath of the Day of the Lord.
42. In Ephesian, Paul pictures believers as being “in Christ.” This is a special relationship with God
because they are perfect in Christ.
43. Paul argues in Galatians that the law requires perfect obedience, and since no one is perfect, all
are condemned by the law. Only faith in Christ’s finished work can save anyone.
44. The church in Rome probably consisted of at least five household churches rather than one large
church.
45. In Romans Paul shows that all are accountable and no one can be justified by his own good
works, with or without the law.
46. In Philippians, Paul asserts that he is pursing Christ as passionately as a runner would pursue
the goal and prize of winning a race.
47. The task that Paul gives Titus is to appoint elders and reprove the rebellious.
48. Paul and Epaphras visited Colossae and founded the church in Colossae after ministering in
Ephesus.
49. Paul tells Timothy in 2 Timothy to “preach the word.” It’s not Timothy’s opinion that he is to
preach; it’s what God commands.
50. In First Corinthians Paul address three moral issues in the church. One of these is the issue of
BIBL 104 Quiz 8 The General Letters, Revelation, and The Epilogue
1. The book of Revelation is addressed to the seven churches in Africa.
2. The author of Hebrews explains what it means for Jesus to be the Mediator of a better covenant.
3. James warns believers about
4. James gives five pictures to describe the dangers of the tongue.
5. In 1 his first letter, Peter argues that believers have been redeemed from an empty way of life
and are transformed by the precious blood of Christ.
6. Jesus was not of the Levitical priesthood descended from the Levites but is God’s Son, and “a
high priest forever in the order of Melchizedek”
7. The author of Hebrews list several personal examples of faith. From this list select the one
Biblical character that is not mentioned by the author of Hebrews in Hebrews 11:1-40.
8. While we do not know who wrote Hebrews we are confident the letter was addressed to
believers in Asia Minor.
9. In 1 John, John remind his audience what they already know, namely that they have a
relationship with God.
10. was one of the three people in the inner circle of our Lord’s disciples
11. According to 2 Peter, the Lord will return like a thief, unexpectedly, and will catch the unbelieving
world unprepared even as He did when he swept Pharaoh’s army away.
12. Jude describes false teachers as
13. The traditional view of the Christian church has long held that John the apostle was the author of
the Revelation as well as the Gospel and epistles that bear his name.
14. According to 1 Peter, Christ is the
15. ___________ was the political church
16. In 1 Peter believers are identified as
17. In 3 John, John commends “the elect lady and her children for their faithfulness in lovingly
helping fellow Christians and strangers.

18. In 1 John, John remind his audience what they already know, specifically that God hears and
grants their prayer requests.
19. One reason that Paul may have authored Hebrews is that both Hebrews and Colossians mention
the preexistence and creatorship of Jesus.
20. _____________ was the powerless church
21. In the seven trumpets of judgment the sun is darkened through air pollution.
23. The author of Hebrews had a thorough knowledge of the Old Testament.
24. In 2 Peter false teachers are characterized as bullish, sensational, and greedy.
25. The book of Hebrews contains 5 warnings. One of these warnings is
26. In the seven seal judgments the pale horse stands for death
27. Which of the following is not one of the seven churches addressed in the book of Revelation
28. ______________ was the putrid church.
30. In 1 John, John remind his audience what they already know, specifically that sin is not
characteristic of someone in fellowship with God.
31. According to the textbook, the author of 2 John is most likely not the same author as 1 John.
32. Hebrews can be divided into three sections. The first two sections are a theological declaration
followed by a Biblical explanation. The third section is devoted to
33. In light of the examples of faith presented by the author of Hebrews, he encourages his readers
to fix their eyes on Jesus and
34. In 1 Peter believers are identified as
35. In the seven trumpets of judgment the rivers are polluted by decomposing flesh.
36. Eventually in the book of Revelation the seven-sealed scroll is open by the Lamb while the
elders and angelic creatures fall down in worship, proclaiming, “You are worthy.”
37. James uses two Old Testament illustrations to show the works of people who were saved by
faith. One of these is
38. According to Peter in 1 Peter, the new birth assures the believer of an inheritance that is
imperishable, kept in heaven, and “guarded by God’s power.”
39. ____________ was the persecuted church.
40. James reminds his readers that such trials are inevitable experiences that test our commitment
to Christ.
41. Which of the following is not something John claimed about love in 1 John?
42. According to the textbook, the end of Revelation spells out twelve new things in the eternal state.
43. In the seven trumpets of judgment a rain of fire burns the vegetation.
44. According to Peter in 1 Peter a believer’s present sufferings are akin to being refined by fire.
45. James pictures the tongue as
47. In light of what Jesus has done, the author encourages his audience to:
49. According to 1Peter, believers should submit to every Christian institution in order to silence the
unfounded criticism of unbelievers.
50. According to the textbook, the book of Revelation ends with a dramatic postscript which
describes the millennium in which Satan is bound in the abyss and Christ and His saints rule the
world with a “rod of iron.”

BIBL 104 Quiz 1,2,3,4
https://www.homeworksimple.com/downloads/bibl-104-quiz-1234/
Updated for 2023
BIBL 104 Quiz 1 The Bible, The Old Testament, and The Pentateuch
1. The books of 1–2 Chronicles offers a priestly perspective.
2. The book of _______________ tells the story of the wilderness journey. It serves as a travel
diary of the Israelites after the exodus.
3. The turning point in the book of Numbers is
4. The messages of the Major Prophets remind us that God holds all nations accountable for their
behavior and policies.
5. Deuteronomy focuses on covenant renewal.
6. In the book of Amos God’s ultimate justice is an area of focus.
7. God gave Israel the Ten Commandments
8. Leviticus describes the religious system of worship that was given at Mt. Carmel.
9. In Deuteronomy, Moses persuasively argued that his audience must ‘hear’and ‘do,’ ‘keep,’
‘observe’ God’s commands out of a heart of
10. What was the major turning point in Moses’ life?
11. The bronze altar illustrated
12. The biblical description of creation is and by the power of God’s spoken word
13. How did the Israelites become enslaved in Egypt?
14. The ten commandments can be divided into two categories: responsibilities to God and
responsibilities to
15. 1–2 Samuel thematically focuses on Kings and Priests.
16. The book of ____________ is used extensively by Christ not only to validate His messiahship
and summarize the law but also to rebut Satan.
17. The thematic focus of Esther centers around the rescuing of the Israelite people.
18. The book of Malachi deals with the theme, “rebuild the Temple.”
19. Song of Songs is a book that provides songs of life.
20. The JEDP Theory asserts that anonymous editors compiled the Pentateuch from four documents
long after the time of Moses.
21. Leviticus describes the way of Holiness.
22. Conservative evangelical scholars recognize that certain small elements of the Pentateuch were
probably added later, such as the account of Moses’ death and burial.
23. The book of Nahum relates the destruction of Edom.
24. In Zechariah, the main them is “restore the King.”
25. The book of Hosea underscores God’s unquenchable love.
26. In Numbers, the Israelites were given divine guidance in
27. The book of Ruth offers a ray of hope.
28. Jacob’s marriages to Leah and Rachael produced _____________ sons who would become the
various tribes of Israel.
29. According to Leviticus, there were ____________ religious feasts that were to be celebrated in
the Spring and Fall.
30. The book of Proverbs is a book containing words of wisdom.
31. In Zephaniah the chief pronouncement is that disaster is imminent.
32. According to our textbook, the opening verses of Genesis clearly refute
33. Genesis also emphasizes the importance of the ________________ covenant, which gave Israel
a right to the land (Gen 15:18–21).

34. Genesis is the book of Beginnings.
35. The English Bible includes twelve books of the Major Prophets.
36. The global extent of the flood is indicated by the fact that
37. and _____________ were disgruntled over Moses’ marriage and ministerial supremacy and
challenged his divinely given authority.
38. Eight of the Minor Prophets are focused on the southern kingdom of Judah.
39. The Day of ______________ was the holiest day on the Hebrew calendar.
40. Because of _________________ importance in leading Israel into practical sanctification and
fellowship with God, three chapters in Leviticus are devoted to
41. According to the book of Numbers, people could also be sanctified through the __________
Blessing assuring them of God’s continued grace upon them.
42. God accomplished Israel’s complete liberation from Egypt
43. The book of Jonah centers around the consequences for individual disobedience.
44. The thematic focus of Ezra is rebuilding the wall.
45. 1–2 Kings details the Kings of Israel and Judah.
46. The Abrahamic Covenant was
47. Numbers details the wilderness journey of the Egyptians.
48. In Moses’ speeches in Deuteronomy he unfolds the essence of the covenant in the form of
49. Altogether the Minor Prophets are a collection of messages to Israel and Judah that serve both
as predictions of judgment and as promises of hope for the future.
50. The book of Exodus focuses on Moses’ life, which can be divided into __________ forty- year
time periods.
BIBL 104 Quiz 2 The Old Testament Books of History
1. The books of _____________ form the transition from the era of the judges to that of the kings.
2. Through idolatry, the apostate tribe of ______________ not only abandoned its God-given
inheritance but forsook the Lord as well.
3. David obeyed God in purchasing a threshing floor to build “an altar to the Lord.” On this site
Solomon would later build the temple.
4. The spirituality of Samuel’s lineage is seen in Hannah’s prayer for a child and her vow to
dedicate her child to the Lord.
5. The book of Judges concludes with a civil war in Israel that almost exterminated the tribe of
6. David’s covenant violations involve adultery, murder, and a host of deceptive acts committed in
an attempt to cover up these sins.
7. In the _______________ campaign, the town of Jericho was captured.
8. As Samuel aged, the people of Israel insisted that they should select a king “like all the other
nations.
9. When the nation of Israel divided the Kingdom to the north was known as
10. served as the nation’s religious headquarters for about 300 years.
11. Each cycle in the book of Judges portrays a downward spiral. This spiral includes Barak’s
reluctance.
12. killed the unsuspecting commander Sisera with a tent peg and a mallet.
13. In the north, Jeroboam built two sanctuaries (temples or high places) at
14. The events surrounding the selection of Saul for king demonstrate that he was the people’s
choice. The people seemed to focus on Saul’s outward appearance rather than his heart.
15. How did the Israelites lose the Ark of the Covenant?
16. David captures Jerusalem from the Jebusites and moves the Ark of the Covenant there.
17. Nehemiah’s covenant enforcement took the form of excluding foreigners from the assembly,
removing Tobiah from the temple, restoring the Levitical tithes, stopping Sabbath breaking, and
disciplining those who had intermarried with pagans.

18. God’s promise to Abraham that He would bless all nations begins to come to fruition through
Boaz and Ruth.
19. According to our textbook, one reason for the northern kingdom’s downfall is their intermarriage
with pagan nations.
20. In the _______________ campaign, the town of Ai was captured.
21. The main body of the story of the Judges revolves around __________ cycles of apostasy,
repentance, and deliverance.
22. In Joshua’s farewell address he explains to the people of Israel that they will remain in Canaan
and prosper in the land only when they comply with the Mosaic covenant.
23. The rediscovery of the covenant law caused King Josiah to lead the nation of Judah in covenant
renewal and reform.
24. Saul was not the tenth generation of Judah’s son Perez. Thus, he could not be the rightful King
of Israel.
25. Each cycle in the book of Judges portrays a downward spiral. This spiral includes Jephthah’s
immoral relationship with foreign women.
26. According to our textbook, one reason for the northern kingdom’s downfall is that they rejected
the covenant itself.
27. As a Gentile who marries a Hebrew from Bethlehem, Ruth pictures the love of God for both
Hebrews and Gentiles.
28. The political capital of the Northern tribes was at
29. According to our textbook, the uniqueness of Samson was
30. Ruth’s kinsman redeemer was
31. The beginning chapters of 1 Samuel draw a sharp contrast between Eli and his ungodly sons
and the godly prophet Samuel.
32. According to our textbook, the story of _____________ is a ray of hope during the period of the
Judges.
33. Saul’s disobedience of the divine command to abolish the Moabites caused Yahweh to reject him
as king.
34. Theologically, the story of Ruth and Boaz illustrates the biblical concept of
35. ______________ was a Judge in Israel
36. The book of _____________ shows how the remnant were motivated to “rise up and build”
Jerusalem’s walls.
37. Whose bones were buried in the Promised Land at Shechem?
38. The Judge _________________ made a rash vow to the Lord saying, “whatever” came out of
his house to greet him upon his return from battle “will belong to the Lord, and I will offer it as a
burnt offering.”
39. When the nation of Israel divided, the Kingdom to the south was known as
40. Elijah’s prophetic successor was Elisha.
41. Elijah, the lone prophet of God, confronted the 450 prophets of Baal on
42. Each cycle in the book of Judges portrays a downward spiral. This spiral includes Gideon’s
foolish vow.
43. In the _______________ campaign, Joshua destroyed Hazor, a major Canaanite fortress city.
44. Elijah was primarily a prophet to the Southern Kingdom.
45. References to Joshua’s death and the elders that outlived him indicate that these final notations
in Joshua were added by another inspired writer, perhaps
46. Boaz was not only Ruth’s kinsman redeemer, he was also the one carrying the Davidic lineage.
47. Ruth plays an important role in the history of the Old Testament as the great grandmother of
48. Under the principle of ___________________, the next of kin of a deceased man was to marry
his widow and produce an offspring in order to prevent the deceased man’s lineage and name
from dying out.
49. Solomon’s ________________ turned him away from wholeheartedly following the Lord.
50. In general, Elijah’s miraculous ministry resulted in the return of the nation to covenant
faithfulness.

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