This document contains a list of 66 multiple choice questions related to general neurology. The questions cover topics such as neurological reflexes, symptoms of lesions in different areas of the brain and spinal cord, pathways in the nervous system, and segments of the spinal cord that innervate different muscles and regions of the body.
This document contains 31 multiple choice questions testing knowledge of human anatomy and physiology. The questions cover topics such as synaptic transmission, sensory systems, reflexes, pain pathways, cardiovascular and respiratory physiology, renal function, liver function, and endocrine system disorders. The correct answer is provided for each question.
1. The document contains a 50 question multiple choice quiz on physiology of the nervous system. Topics include reflexes, sensory and motor pathways, vision, sleep, and spinal cord injuries.
2. Sample questions test knowledge of monosynaptic reflexes, muscle spindles, sensory pathways in the spinal cord and brain, visual receptors and pathways, motor control centers, and effects of spinal cord injuries.
3. The questions require understanding of basic nervous system anatomy and physiology, including reflex arcs, sensory and motor tracts, visual processing, motor control, and consequences of spinal cord damage.
This document provides a summary of anatomy and movement terminology for dancers. It tests the reader's knowledge with multiple choice and short answer questions about common dance injuries, muscles, bones, and spinal and full body movements. Key terms defined include flexion, hyper-extension, lateral flexion, rotation, abduction, and adduction. The document quizzes the reader on anatomy of the spine, arm, and leg muscles as well as full body movements.
This document contains 55 multiple choice questions about anatomy of the upper limb. The questions cover topics like bones (clavicle, scapula, humerus), joints, muscles, nerves, blood vessels, lymphatics. Specific topics include anatomy of the shoulder, axilla, arm, cubital fossa and related clinical correlations. The questions test knowledge about structure, function and clinical relevance of various anatomical structures of the upper limb.
1. A multiple choice quiz assessing knowledge of musculoskeletal and nervous system anatomy and physiology. Questions cover topics like muscle structure, nerve damage presentations, bone fractures, and joint motions.
2. An 18-year-old girl presented with severe right knee pain and abnormal anterior displacement of the tibia, indicating damage to the anterior cruciate ligament.
3. Loss of dorsiflexion and eversion of the foot after trauma to the neck of the fibula with complete sensory loss on the dorsum of the foot points to damage of the deep peroneal nerve.
1. Supracondylar fractures of the humerus are most common in children and can cause cubitus valgus. They do not cause compartment syndrome but can lead to vascular insufficiency if the brachial artery is compressed.
2. Colles' fractures present with a "dinner fork" deformity and ulnar displacement of the distal fragment. They are treated surgically in elderly patients to prevent stiffness.
3. Fractures of the femoral neck are common in elderly men and treated surgically. They can be seen on x-ray by distortion of Shenton's line.
The sensory root of a spinal nerve is also referred to as A. anterio.pdffashionfootwear1
Starr Co.\'s allowance for doubtful accounts was $135,000 at the end of 2014 and $150,000 at the
end of 2015. For the year ended December 31, 2015, Starr reported bad debt expense of $25,000
in its income statement. What amount did Starr debit to the appropriate account in 2015 to write
off actual bad debts?
Select one:
A. $40,000
B. $25,000
C. $15,000
D. $10,000
Solution
Answer is D. $10,000Beginning balance balance in allowance for doubtful accounts$
135,000Add: Baddebt expenses$ 25,000Less: Ending balance in allowance for doubtful
accounts$ (150,000)Baddebts written off$ 10,000.
This document contains 31 multiple choice questions testing knowledge of human anatomy and physiology. The questions cover topics such as synaptic transmission, sensory systems, reflexes, pain pathways, cardiovascular and respiratory physiology, renal function, liver function, and endocrine system disorders. The correct answer is provided for each question.
1. The document contains a 50 question multiple choice quiz on physiology of the nervous system. Topics include reflexes, sensory and motor pathways, vision, sleep, and spinal cord injuries.
2. Sample questions test knowledge of monosynaptic reflexes, muscle spindles, sensory pathways in the spinal cord and brain, visual receptors and pathways, motor control centers, and effects of spinal cord injuries.
3. The questions require understanding of basic nervous system anatomy and physiology, including reflex arcs, sensory and motor tracts, visual processing, motor control, and consequences of spinal cord damage.
This document provides a summary of anatomy and movement terminology for dancers. It tests the reader's knowledge with multiple choice and short answer questions about common dance injuries, muscles, bones, and spinal and full body movements. Key terms defined include flexion, hyper-extension, lateral flexion, rotation, abduction, and adduction. The document quizzes the reader on anatomy of the spine, arm, and leg muscles as well as full body movements.
This document contains 55 multiple choice questions about anatomy of the upper limb. The questions cover topics like bones (clavicle, scapula, humerus), joints, muscles, nerves, blood vessels, lymphatics. Specific topics include anatomy of the shoulder, axilla, arm, cubital fossa and related clinical correlations. The questions test knowledge about structure, function and clinical relevance of various anatomical structures of the upper limb.
1. A multiple choice quiz assessing knowledge of musculoskeletal and nervous system anatomy and physiology. Questions cover topics like muscle structure, nerve damage presentations, bone fractures, and joint motions.
2. An 18-year-old girl presented with severe right knee pain and abnormal anterior displacement of the tibia, indicating damage to the anterior cruciate ligament.
3. Loss of dorsiflexion and eversion of the foot after trauma to the neck of the fibula with complete sensory loss on the dorsum of the foot points to damage of the deep peroneal nerve.
1. Supracondylar fractures of the humerus are most common in children and can cause cubitus valgus. They do not cause compartment syndrome but can lead to vascular insufficiency if the brachial artery is compressed.
2. Colles' fractures present with a "dinner fork" deformity and ulnar displacement of the distal fragment. They are treated surgically in elderly patients to prevent stiffness.
3. Fractures of the femoral neck are common in elderly men and treated surgically. They can be seen on x-ray by distortion of Shenton's line.
The sensory root of a spinal nerve is also referred to as A. anterio.pdffashionfootwear1
Starr Co.\'s allowance for doubtful accounts was $135,000 at the end of 2014 and $150,000 at the
end of 2015. For the year ended December 31, 2015, Starr reported bad debt expense of $25,000
in its income statement. What amount did Starr debit to the appropriate account in 2015 to write
off actual bad debts?
Select one:
A. $40,000
B. $25,000
C. $15,000
D. $10,000
Solution
Answer is D. $10,000Beginning balance balance in allowance for doubtful accounts$
135,000Add: Baddebt expenses$ 25,000Less: Ending balance in allowance for doubtful
accounts$ (150,000)Baddebts written off$ 10,000.
1. The document contains a 30 question practice exam on osteology and synosteology (the study of bones and joints). The questions cover topics like the types of joints in the body, the bones and ligaments that make up specific joints like the shoulder, and how to diagnose common joint injuries.
2. It provides multiple choice questions to test understanding of skeletal anatomy, such as identifying the ligaments that provide strength and stability to various joints, the joints that allow certain movements, and the structures involved in common injuries like dislocations.
3. The practice exam is intended to help students studying systematic anatomy at Guilin Medical College in China to learn and test their knowledge of bone and joint structures in the human
Krok 1 - 2012 Question Paper (Stomatology)Eneutron
1. The document appears to be a medical exam containing multiple choice questions about various medical topics.
2. Question 1 asks about a disease caused by a parasite found in sheep and dogs that can cause lung lesions.
3. The questions cover a wide range of topics including cell phases in mitosis, injuries causing bleeding from specific arteries, nerve damage symptoms, pancreatic and endocrine system diseases, and histological specimens.
Anatomy Of The Human Body Henry Gray CONTENTSAddison Coleman
This document is an anatomy textbook that provides a detailed outline of its contents. The textbook is divided into 12 sections that cover topics such as embryology, osteology, syndesmology, myology, angiology, neurology, the organs of senses and integument, splanchnology, and surface anatomy. Each section contains numerous chapters that delve deeper into each anatomical system and structure of the human body.
This document contains a series of multiple choice questions related to physiology. Question topics include gastric secretion stimulation mechanisms, thirst response pathways, heart rate regulation during emotional excitement, likely blood changes with uterine bleeding, ion movement causing depolarization of excitable cells, effects of vagus nerve irritation, causes of increased energy intake in a boy, substrates oxidized during exercise, brain regions involved in conditioned reflexes, types of muscle inhibition, diets that produce different respiratory coefficients, regulatory mechanisms affecting heart rate and blood pressure during breath holding, platelet function and punctate hemorrhaging, reflexes causing dry mouth during exams, sound frequency perception after inner ear damage, heat emission pathways in different environments, factors affecting increased blood flow during exercise, muscle contraction
1. A patient has a right-sided mandible fracture accompanied by chin haematoma caused by injury of the mental artery.
2. Excessive development of lymphoid tissue in the pharyngeal mucous membrane can cause heavy nasal breathing in children due to tonsil growth.
3. Gangrenous lesion of the descending colon was caused by thrombosis of the superior mesenteric artery.
Central Nervous System: An In-Depth Exploration
The central nervous system (CNS) is a complex network of tissues and cells that plays a crucial role in coordinating and regulating various bodily functions. Comprising the brain and the spinal cord, the CNS serves as the command center for the entire body. Let’s delve into the intricacies of this remarkable system.
1. Anatomy of the CNS
1.1 The Brain
The brain is the epicenter of cognitive functions, emotions, and sensory processing.
It consists of several major regions, including the cerebrum, cerebellum, brainstem, and diencephalon.
The cerebrum is responsible for conscious thought, memory, language, and voluntary movements.
The cerebellum controls balance, coordination, and fine motor skills.
The brainstem regulates essential functions like breathing, heart rate, and digestion.
The diencephalon houses the thalamus and hypothalamus, which play roles in sensory relay and homeostasis.
1.2 The Spinal Cord
The spinal cord extends from the base of the brain down the vertebral column.
It serves as a communication pathway between the brain and the peripheral nervous system (PNS).
The spinal cord contains sensory and motor neurons, allowing for reflex actions and voluntary movements.
Protective layers of meninges surround the spinal cord, safeguarding it from injury.
2. Neurons: The Cellular Units
Neurons are the fundamental units of the CNS.
They transmit electrical signals (action potentials) to communicate with other neurons, muscles, and glands.
Neurons consist of a cell body (soma), dendrites (receiving branches), and an axon (transmitting branch).
Synapses, specialized junctions, allow neurons to pass signals to adjacent cells.
3. Glial Cells: Unsung Heroes
Glial cells (or neuroglia) provide vital support to neurons.
Astrocytes maintain the blood-brain barrier, regulate ion balance, and nourish neurons.
Oligodendrocytes produce myelin sheaths around axons, enhancing signal conduction.
Microglia act as immune cells, protecting the CNS from infections and debris.
Ependymal cells line the ventricles and aid in cerebrospinal fluid production.
4. Cerebrospinal Fluid (CSF)
CSF fills the ventricles of the brain and the central canal of the spinal cord.
It cushions and protects the CNS, provides nutrients, and removes waste products.
Imbalances in CSF circulation can lead to conditions like hydrocephalus.
5. CNS Disorders and Diseases
Numerous disorders affect the CNS, including:
Alzheimer’s disease: Progressive memory loss and cognitive decline.
Parkinson’s disease: Motor dysfunction due to dopamine deficiency.
Multiple sclerosis: Autoimmune demyelination of nerve fibers.
Epilepsy: Abnormal electrical activity causing seizures.
Stroke: Interruption of blood flow to the brain.
Spinal cord injuries: Damage to the spinal cord resulting in paralysis.
6. Conclusion
The central nervous system orchestrates our thoughts, emotions, and bodily functions. Understanding its intricacies is essential in medicine today
CAT.1. ANATOMY BSc.N and BSc.Physio. 16th.Jan. 2023.pdfJuliusKauki1
This document contains a quiz on human anatomy with multiple choice questions and answers. It covers topics like bones, joints, muscles, and nerves. Some example questions are about the location of the ulna relative to the radius, bones that make up the distal carpal row, and the large foramen between the pubic and ischial rami. The answers provided are meant to test understanding of anatomical structures and their relationships.
This document contains a 33 multiple choice questions anatomy and physiology exam for first year clinical officers. The questions cover topics like the female reproductive system, sperm transport, phases of the ovarian and menstrual cycles, hormones, the nervous system, blood groups, circulation, and other body systems. It tests knowledge of anatomy, physiology and clinical concepts.
1. The document discusses various medical cases and questions. It includes a case of glaucoma where the increased intraocular tension is due to injury of the ciliary muscle.
2. Another case involves a woman diagnosed with Bartholinitis, which is inflammation of the Bartholin's glands located in the labia minora.
3. Multiple choice questions cover topics like cardiac function, genetic disorders, anatomy, pathology, and pharmacology. The document contains medical information and questions to test one's knowledge of various body systems and diseases.
This document provides information on various muscles of the head, neck, and upper back. It lists the origin, insertion, and actions of muscles like the temporalis, masseter, sternocleidomastoid, trapezius, scalenes, and others. Instructions are given on how to palpate some of these muscles by having the client perform certain movements and contractions.
This document provides information on various muscles of the head, neck, and upper back. It lists the origin, insertion, and actions of muscles like the temporalis, masseter, sternocleidomastoid, trapezius, scalenes, and others. Instructions are given on how to palpate some of these muscles by having the client perform certain movements and contractions.
This document contains a 57-question multiple choice neurology exam covering topics like upper and lower motor neuron impairment, cranial nerve dysfunction, neurological syndromes, and autonomic nervous system function. The questions test knowledge of how different neurological structures and systems can be impaired based on the presenting signs and symptoms.
The document contains 58 multiple choice questions related to pediatrics, internal medicine, and cardiology. Specifically, it covers topics like: symptoms and diagnosis of common childhood illnesses; heart and lung auscultation findings; developmental milestones in infants; and characteristics of various diseases and conditions. The questions require understanding of anatomy, physiology, clinical presentation, diagnostic indicators, and disease pathogenesis.
This document contains multiple choice questions about lower limb anatomy divided into two sections. The first section contains simple theoretical questions with answers provided at the end. The second section contains clinically oriented problem-based questions with explanations provided after every 10 questions. In total there are 55 questions covering topics like nerves, muscles, bones, ligaments and vasculature of the lower limb.
NEET 2011 solved Question paper by TripMyCoursetripmycourse
The document provides information about anatomy topics including:
- Anterior choroidal artery syndrome features complete hemiplegia, hemianesthesia, and homonymous hemianopia.
- Resection of liver segments 2 and 3 is referred to as a left lateral segmentectomy or left lateral sectionectomy.
- The vertebral artery passes through the foramen magnum.
Krok 1 - 2015 Question Paper (Stomatology)Eneutron
1. Mastoiditis has resulted from untreated middle ear inflammation, causing an abscess to erupt into the sternocleidomastoid muscle bed. This pathological process is located in the lamina superficialis fasciae colli propriae cervical fascia.
2. Examination of a 22-year-old patient revealed a destroyed medial tubercle on the cutting edge of the right maxillary first molar, which is called the paracone.
3. Alveolar bleeding was detected following extraction of the maxillary second premolar, likely caused by damage to the anterior superior alveolar artery.
This document provides a revision of the musculoskeletal and integumentary systems module. It contains questions to test knowledge of anatomy including identification of bones, muscles, nerves and other structures in the upper limb, lower limb, thorax, and neck regions. References are provided for additional learning resources on human anatomy.
This document provides information about muscles of the scapula and arm region including:
- Descriptions of the supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, and subscapularis muscles and their attachments, actions, and involvement in shoulder rotation.
- Instructions for palpating the teres major muscle and feeling its contraction with arm movements.
- Guidance for properly palpating the rotator cuff muscles and feeling their contractions during specific arm movements against resistance.
This document contains a final exam for Anatomy and Physiology with multiple choice questions covering various topics from different chapters in the textbook Memmler's - The Human Body in Health and Disease. The exam covers levels of organization in the body, chemistry and cells, tissues, disease, the skin, skeleton, muscles, nervous system, senses, endocrine system, blood, heart, circulation, lymphatic system, respiration, digestion, and metabolism. There are 73 multiple choice questions in total testing knowledge of these body systems and related topics.
A 10-year-old child was found to have Enterobins vermicularis (pinworm) based on findings of white helminths on their underwear and achromic ovums on microscopy. A patient presented with headache, pain in the left hypochondrium, and fever for 1.5 weeks, suggesting malaria, which would require a blood examination for diagnosis. Lamblia was identified in a man's stool based on the description of protozoa 30-200 microns in length with cilias and an oval body.
Storyboard on Skin- Innovative Learning (M-pharm) 2nd sem. (Cosmetics)MuskanShingari
Skin is the largest organ of the human body, serving crucial functions that include protection, sensation, regulation, and synthesis. Structurally, it consists of three main layers: the epidermis, dermis, and hypodermis (subcutaneous layer).
1. **Epidermis**: The outermost layer primarily composed of epithelial cells called keratinocytes. It provides a protective barrier against environmental factors, pathogens, and UV radiation.
2. **Dermis**: Located beneath the epidermis, the dermis contains connective tissue, blood vessels, hair follicles, and sweat glands. It plays a vital role in supporting and nourishing the epidermis, regulating body temperature, and housing sensory receptors for touch, pressure, temperature, and pain.
3. **Hypodermis**: Also known as the subcutaneous layer, it consists of fat and connective tissue that anchors the skin to underlying structures like muscles and bones. It provides insulation, cushioning, and energy storage.
Skin performs essential functions such as regulating body temperature through sweat production and blood flow control, synthesizing vitamin D when exposed to sunlight, and serving as a sensory interface with the external environment.
Maintaining skin health is crucial for overall well-being, involving proper hygiene, hydration, protection from sun exposure, and avoiding harmful substances. Skin conditions and diseases range from minor irritations to chronic disorders, emphasizing the importance of regular care and medical attention when needed.
1. The document contains a 30 question practice exam on osteology and synosteology (the study of bones and joints). The questions cover topics like the types of joints in the body, the bones and ligaments that make up specific joints like the shoulder, and how to diagnose common joint injuries.
2. It provides multiple choice questions to test understanding of skeletal anatomy, such as identifying the ligaments that provide strength and stability to various joints, the joints that allow certain movements, and the structures involved in common injuries like dislocations.
3. The practice exam is intended to help students studying systematic anatomy at Guilin Medical College in China to learn and test their knowledge of bone and joint structures in the human
Krok 1 - 2012 Question Paper (Stomatology)Eneutron
1. The document appears to be a medical exam containing multiple choice questions about various medical topics.
2. Question 1 asks about a disease caused by a parasite found in sheep and dogs that can cause lung lesions.
3. The questions cover a wide range of topics including cell phases in mitosis, injuries causing bleeding from specific arteries, nerve damage symptoms, pancreatic and endocrine system diseases, and histological specimens.
Anatomy Of The Human Body Henry Gray CONTENTSAddison Coleman
This document is an anatomy textbook that provides a detailed outline of its contents. The textbook is divided into 12 sections that cover topics such as embryology, osteology, syndesmology, myology, angiology, neurology, the organs of senses and integument, splanchnology, and surface anatomy. Each section contains numerous chapters that delve deeper into each anatomical system and structure of the human body.
This document contains a series of multiple choice questions related to physiology. Question topics include gastric secretion stimulation mechanisms, thirst response pathways, heart rate regulation during emotional excitement, likely blood changes with uterine bleeding, ion movement causing depolarization of excitable cells, effects of vagus nerve irritation, causes of increased energy intake in a boy, substrates oxidized during exercise, brain regions involved in conditioned reflexes, types of muscle inhibition, diets that produce different respiratory coefficients, regulatory mechanisms affecting heart rate and blood pressure during breath holding, platelet function and punctate hemorrhaging, reflexes causing dry mouth during exams, sound frequency perception after inner ear damage, heat emission pathways in different environments, factors affecting increased blood flow during exercise, muscle contraction
1. A patient has a right-sided mandible fracture accompanied by chin haematoma caused by injury of the mental artery.
2. Excessive development of lymphoid tissue in the pharyngeal mucous membrane can cause heavy nasal breathing in children due to tonsil growth.
3. Gangrenous lesion of the descending colon was caused by thrombosis of the superior mesenteric artery.
Central Nervous System: An In-Depth Exploration
The central nervous system (CNS) is a complex network of tissues and cells that plays a crucial role in coordinating and regulating various bodily functions. Comprising the brain and the spinal cord, the CNS serves as the command center for the entire body. Let’s delve into the intricacies of this remarkable system.
1. Anatomy of the CNS
1.1 The Brain
The brain is the epicenter of cognitive functions, emotions, and sensory processing.
It consists of several major regions, including the cerebrum, cerebellum, brainstem, and diencephalon.
The cerebrum is responsible for conscious thought, memory, language, and voluntary movements.
The cerebellum controls balance, coordination, and fine motor skills.
The brainstem regulates essential functions like breathing, heart rate, and digestion.
The diencephalon houses the thalamus and hypothalamus, which play roles in sensory relay and homeostasis.
1.2 The Spinal Cord
The spinal cord extends from the base of the brain down the vertebral column.
It serves as a communication pathway between the brain and the peripheral nervous system (PNS).
The spinal cord contains sensory and motor neurons, allowing for reflex actions and voluntary movements.
Protective layers of meninges surround the spinal cord, safeguarding it from injury.
2. Neurons: The Cellular Units
Neurons are the fundamental units of the CNS.
They transmit electrical signals (action potentials) to communicate with other neurons, muscles, and glands.
Neurons consist of a cell body (soma), dendrites (receiving branches), and an axon (transmitting branch).
Synapses, specialized junctions, allow neurons to pass signals to adjacent cells.
3. Glial Cells: Unsung Heroes
Glial cells (or neuroglia) provide vital support to neurons.
Astrocytes maintain the blood-brain barrier, regulate ion balance, and nourish neurons.
Oligodendrocytes produce myelin sheaths around axons, enhancing signal conduction.
Microglia act as immune cells, protecting the CNS from infections and debris.
Ependymal cells line the ventricles and aid in cerebrospinal fluid production.
4. Cerebrospinal Fluid (CSF)
CSF fills the ventricles of the brain and the central canal of the spinal cord.
It cushions and protects the CNS, provides nutrients, and removes waste products.
Imbalances in CSF circulation can lead to conditions like hydrocephalus.
5. CNS Disorders and Diseases
Numerous disorders affect the CNS, including:
Alzheimer’s disease: Progressive memory loss and cognitive decline.
Parkinson’s disease: Motor dysfunction due to dopamine deficiency.
Multiple sclerosis: Autoimmune demyelination of nerve fibers.
Epilepsy: Abnormal electrical activity causing seizures.
Stroke: Interruption of blood flow to the brain.
Spinal cord injuries: Damage to the spinal cord resulting in paralysis.
6. Conclusion
The central nervous system orchestrates our thoughts, emotions, and bodily functions. Understanding its intricacies is essential in medicine today
CAT.1. ANATOMY BSc.N and BSc.Physio. 16th.Jan. 2023.pdfJuliusKauki1
This document contains a quiz on human anatomy with multiple choice questions and answers. It covers topics like bones, joints, muscles, and nerves. Some example questions are about the location of the ulna relative to the radius, bones that make up the distal carpal row, and the large foramen between the pubic and ischial rami. The answers provided are meant to test understanding of anatomical structures and their relationships.
This document contains a 33 multiple choice questions anatomy and physiology exam for first year clinical officers. The questions cover topics like the female reproductive system, sperm transport, phases of the ovarian and menstrual cycles, hormones, the nervous system, blood groups, circulation, and other body systems. It tests knowledge of anatomy, physiology and clinical concepts.
1. The document discusses various medical cases and questions. It includes a case of glaucoma where the increased intraocular tension is due to injury of the ciliary muscle.
2. Another case involves a woman diagnosed with Bartholinitis, which is inflammation of the Bartholin's glands located in the labia minora.
3. Multiple choice questions cover topics like cardiac function, genetic disorders, anatomy, pathology, and pharmacology. The document contains medical information and questions to test one's knowledge of various body systems and diseases.
This document provides information on various muscles of the head, neck, and upper back. It lists the origin, insertion, and actions of muscles like the temporalis, masseter, sternocleidomastoid, trapezius, scalenes, and others. Instructions are given on how to palpate some of these muscles by having the client perform certain movements and contractions.
This document provides information on various muscles of the head, neck, and upper back. It lists the origin, insertion, and actions of muscles like the temporalis, masseter, sternocleidomastoid, trapezius, scalenes, and others. Instructions are given on how to palpate some of these muscles by having the client perform certain movements and contractions.
This document contains a 57-question multiple choice neurology exam covering topics like upper and lower motor neuron impairment, cranial nerve dysfunction, neurological syndromes, and autonomic nervous system function. The questions test knowledge of how different neurological structures and systems can be impaired based on the presenting signs and symptoms.
The document contains 58 multiple choice questions related to pediatrics, internal medicine, and cardiology. Specifically, it covers topics like: symptoms and diagnosis of common childhood illnesses; heart and lung auscultation findings; developmental milestones in infants; and characteristics of various diseases and conditions. The questions require understanding of anatomy, physiology, clinical presentation, diagnostic indicators, and disease pathogenesis.
This document contains multiple choice questions about lower limb anatomy divided into two sections. The first section contains simple theoretical questions with answers provided at the end. The second section contains clinically oriented problem-based questions with explanations provided after every 10 questions. In total there are 55 questions covering topics like nerves, muscles, bones, ligaments and vasculature of the lower limb.
NEET 2011 solved Question paper by TripMyCoursetripmycourse
The document provides information about anatomy topics including:
- Anterior choroidal artery syndrome features complete hemiplegia, hemianesthesia, and homonymous hemianopia.
- Resection of liver segments 2 and 3 is referred to as a left lateral segmentectomy or left lateral sectionectomy.
- The vertebral artery passes through the foramen magnum.
Krok 1 - 2015 Question Paper (Stomatology)Eneutron
1. Mastoiditis has resulted from untreated middle ear inflammation, causing an abscess to erupt into the sternocleidomastoid muscle bed. This pathological process is located in the lamina superficialis fasciae colli propriae cervical fascia.
2. Examination of a 22-year-old patient revealed a destroyed medial tubercle on the cutting edge of the right maxillary first molar, which is called the paracone.
3. Alveolar bleeding was detected following extraction of the maxillary second premolar, likely caused by damage to the anterior superior alveolar artery.
This document provides a revision of the musculoskeletal and integumentary systems module. It contains questions to test knowledge of anatomy including identification of bones, muscles, nerves and other structures in the upper limb, lower limb, thorax, and neck regions. References are provided for additional learning resources on human anatomy.
This document provides information about muscles of the scapula and arm region including:
- Descriptions of the supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, and subscapularis muscles and their attachments, actions, and involvement in shoulder rotation.
- Instructions for palpating the teres major muscle and feeling its contraction with arm movements.
- Guidance for properly palpating the rotator cuff muscles and feeling their contractions during specific arm movements against resistance.
This document contains a final exam for Anatomy and Physiology with multiple choice questions covering various topics from different chapters in the textbook Memmler's - The Human Body in Health and Disease. The exam covers levels of organization in the body, chemistry and cells, tissues, disease, the skin, skeleton, muscles, nervous system, senses, endocrine system, blood, heart, circulation, lymphatic system, respiration, digestion, and metabolism. There are 73 multiple choice questions in total testing knowledge of these body systems and related topics.
A 10-year-old child was found to have Enterobins vermicularis (pinworm) based on findings of white helminths on their underwear and achromic ovums on microscopy. A patient presented with headache, pain in the left hypochondrium, and fever for 1.5 weeks, suggesting malaria, which would require a blood examination for diagnosis. Lamblia was identified in a man's stool based on the description of protozoa 30-200 microns in length with cilias and an oval body.
Similar to ID_7156_Questions General Neurology_English_sem_1-rtf (11 files merged).pdf (20)
Storyboard on Skin- Innovative Learning (M-pharm) 2nd sem. (Cosmetics)MuskanShingari
Skin is the largest organ of the human body, serving crucial functions that include protection, sensation, regulation, and synthesis. Structurally, it consists of three main layers: the epidermis, dermis, and hypodermis (subcutaneous layer).
1. **Epidermis**: The outermost layer primarily composed of epithelial cells called keratinocytes. It provides a protective barrier against environmental factors, pathogens, and UV radiation.
2. **Dermis**: Located beneath the epidermis, the dermis contains connective tissue, blood vessels, hair follicles, and sweat glands. It plays a vital role in supporting and nourishing the epidermis, regulating body temperature, and housing sensory receptors for touch, pressure, temperature, and pain.
3. **Hypodermis**: Also known as the subcutaneous layer, it consists of fat and connective tissue that anchors the skin to underlying structures like muscles and bones. It provides insulation, cushioning, and energy storage.
Skin performs essential functions such as regulating body temperature through sweat production and blood flow control, synthesizing vitamin D when exposed to sunlight, and serving as a sensory interface with the external environment.
Maintaining skin health is crucial for overall well-being, involving proper hygiene, hydration, protection from sun exposure, and avoiding harmful substances. Skin conditions and diseases range from minor irritations to chronic disorders, emphasizing the importance of regular care and medical attention when needed.
Giloy in Ayurveda - Classical Categorization and SynonymsPlanet Ayurveda
Giloy, also known as Guduchi or Amrita in classical Ayurvedic texts, is a revered herb renowned for its myriad health benefits. It is categorized as a Rasayana, meaning it has rejuvenating properties that enhance vitality and longevity. Giloy is celebrated for its ability to boost the immune system, detoxify the body, and promote overall wellness. Its anti-inflammatory, antipyretic, and antioxidant properties make it a staple in managing conditions like fever, diabetes, and stress. The versatility and efficacy of Giloy in supporting health naturally highlight its importance in Ayurveda. At Planet Ayurveda, we provide a comprehensive range of health services and 100% herbal supplements that harness the power of natural ingredients like Giloy. Our products are globally available and affordable, ensuring that everyone can benefit from the ancient wisdom of Ayurveda. If you or your loved ones are dealing with health issues, contact Planet Ayurveda at 01725214040 to book an online video consultation with our professional doctors. Let us help you achieve optimal health and wellness naturally.
Osvaldo Bernardo Muchanga-GASTROINTESTINAL INFECTIONS AND GASTRITIS-2024.pdfOsvaldo Bernardo Muchanga
GASTROINTESTINAL INFECTIONS AND GASTRITIS
Osvaldo Bernardo Muchanga
Gastrointestinal Infections
GASTROINTESTINAL INFECTIONS result from the ingestion of pathogens that cause infections at the level of this tract, generally being transmitted by food, water and hands contaminated by microorganisms such as E. coli, Salmonella, Shigella, Vibrio cholerae, Campylobacter, Staphylococcus, Rotavirus among others that are generally contained in feces, thus configuring a FECAL-ORAL type of transmission.
Among the factors that lead to the occurrence of gastrointestinal infections are the hygienic and sanitary deficiencies that characterize our markets and other places where raw or cooked food is sold, poor environmental sanitation in communities, deficiencies in water treatment (or in the process of its plumbing), risky hygienic-sanitary habits (not washing hands after major and/or minor needs), among others.
These are generally consequences (signs and symptoms) resulting from gastrointestinal infections: diarrhea, vomiting, fever and malaise, among others.
The treatment consists of replacing lost liquids and electrolytes (drinking drinking water and other recommended liquids, including consumption of juicy fruits such as papayas, apples, pears, among others that contain water in their composition).
To prevent this, it is necessary to promote health education, improve the hygienic-sanitary conditions of markets and communities in general as a way of promoting, preserving and prolonging PUBLIC HEALTH.
Gastritis and Gastric Health
Gastric Health is one of the most relevant concerns in human health, with gastrointestinal infections being among the main illnesses that affect humans.
Among gastric problems, we have GASTRITIS AND GASTRIC ULCERS as the main public health problems. Gastritis and gastric ulcers normally result from inflammation and corrosion of the walls of the stomach (gastric mucosa) and are generally associated (caused) by the bacterium Helicobacter pylor, which, according to the literature, this bacterium settles on these walls (of the stomach) and starts to release urease that ends up altering the normal pH of the stomach (acid), which leads to inflammation and corrosion of the mucous membranes and consequent gastritis or ulcers, respectively.
In addition to bacterial infections, gastritis and gastric ulcers are associated with several factors, with emphasis on prolonged fasting, chemical substances including drugs, alcohol, foods with strong seasonings including chilli, which ends up causing inflammation of the stomach walls and/or corrosion. of the same, resulting in the appearance of wounds and consequent gastritis or ulcers, respectively.
Among patients with gastritis and/or ulcers, one of the dilemmas is associated with the foods to consume in order to minimize the sensation of pain and discomfort.
TEST BANK For Brunner and Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing, 14...Donc Test
TEST BANK For Brunner and Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing, 14th Edition (Hinkle, 2017) Verified Chapter's 1 - 73 Complete.pdf
TEST BANK For Brunner and Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing, 14th Edition (Hinkle, 2017) Verified Chapter's 1 - 73 Complete.pdf
TEST BANK For Brunner and Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing, 14th Edition (Hinkle, 2017) Verified Chapter's 1 - 73 Complete.pdf
The biomechanics of running involves the study of the mechanical principles underlying running movements. It includes the analysis of the running gait cycle, which consists of the stance phase (foot contact to push-off) and the swing phase (foot lift-off to next contact). Key aspects include kinematics (joint angles and movements, stride length and frequency) and kinetics (forces involved in running, including ground reaction and muscle forces). Understanding these factors helps in improving running performance, optimizing technique, and preventing injuries.
“Environmental sanitation means the art and science of applying sanitary, biological and physical science principles and knowledge to improve and control the environment therein for the protection of the health and welfare of the public”.The overall importance of sanitation are to provide a healthy living environment for everyone, to protect the natural resources (such as surface water, groundwater, soil ), and to provide safety, security and dignity for people when they defecate or urinate .Sanitation refers to public health conditions such as drinking clean water, sewage treatment, etc. All the effective tools and actions that help in keeping the environment clean come under sanitation. Sanitation refers to public health conditions such as drinking clean water, sewage treatment. All the effective tools and actions that help in keeping the environment clean and promotes public health is the necessary in todays life.
Pictorial and detailed description of patellar instability with sign and symptoms and how to diagnose , what investigations you should go with and how to approach with treatment options . I have presented this slide in my 2nd year junior residency in orthopedics at LLRM medical college Meerut and got good reviews for it
After getting it read you will definitely understand the topic.
Microbiology & Parasitology Exercises Parts of the Microscope
ID_7156_Questions General Neurology_English_sem_1-rtf (11 files merged).pdf
1. Назва наукового напрямку (модуля): Семестр: 1
Questions General Neurology
Опис:
8 term
Перелік питань:
1. ?Slow tonic extension of great toe and adduction of other toes as a response on irritation of sole is
called the reflex of:
A. Shaffer
B. Oppenheim
C. Shtrumphel
D. Gordon
E. * Babinski
2. Strong straining of muscles on the side of paresis at straining of healthy side muscles (pressing of
doctor’s hand) is called:
A. Imitation synkinesis
B. * Global synkinesis
C. Coordinating synkinesis
D. Protective reflexes
E. None of the list
3. Symptom of lesion of precentral gyrus:
A. Central hemiparesis on opposite side
B. Monoanesthesia
C. Hemianesthesia
D. * Central monoparesis on opposite side
E. Central hemiparesis on the same side
4. Symptom of lesion of upper part of precentral gyrus:
A. * Central monoplegia of feet
B. Spastic hemiparesis
C. Sensory Jackson epilepsy
D. Spastic upper paraplegia
E. Central paresis of mimic muscles
5. Symptoms of lesion of Cortico-muscular tract:
A. Ataxia
B. Abasia
C. * Paralysis
D. Anesthesia
E. Aphasia
6. Synkinesis are the signs of lesion of:
A. Tractus spino-muscularis
B. * Tractus cortico-spinalis
C. Tractus cortico-nuclearis
D. Tractus nucleo-muscularis
E. None of the list
7. The central part of pupil reflex is:
A. Pons
B. Upper part of oblong brain
C. Lower part of oblong brain
D. * Midbrain
2. E. Segments C1-C2
8. The main symptom of peripheral paresis:
A. Pathological reflexes
B. * Fasciculation of muscles
C. Muscular hypotonia
D. Areflexion
E. Decrease of muscles strength
9. The main symptom of central paresis:
A. Synkinesis
B. Hyperreflexion
C. * Pathological reflexes
D. Clonus
E. Protective reflexes
10. The main symptom of lesion of peripheral motoneuron:
A. Atrophy of muscles
B. Areflexion
C. * Fasciculation of muscles
D. Muscular hypotonia
E. Decrease of active movement
11. The most common sign of Pyramid pathways lesion is:
A. Spastic gait
B. High amplitude deep reflexes
C. * Pathological reflexes
D. Micturition
E. Protective reflexes
12. The most frequent pathological reflexes:
A. Oppenheim`s sign
B. Gordon`s sign
C. Shtrumpel`s sign
D. * Babinski sign
E. Shaffer sign
13. The most frequent symptom of lesion of central motoneuron is:
A. Spastic hypertonus
B. Hyperreflexion
C. * Pathological reflexes
D. Micturition
E. Protective reflexes
14. The pathological flexing pain phenomena are:
A. Oppenheim, Gordon
B. Oppenheim, Gordon, Shtrumphel
C. * Oppenheim, Gordon, Shaffer
D. Babinski, Rossolimo, Shaffer
E. Oppenheim, Shaffer, lower Brudzinski sign
15. The symptom of the lesion of the cortical-nuclear tract:
A. * Paresis of the lower mimic muscles
3. B. Paresis of the upper mimic muscles
C. Loss of pupil reflex
D. Trophic disorder of tongue muscles
E. Paresis of the all mimic muscles
16. The symptom of lesion of nuclear-muscular tract:
A. Paresis of the lower mimic muscles
B. Paresis of the chewing muscles
C. Loss of pupil reflex
D. Trophic disorder of tongue muscles
E. * Paresis of the all mimic muscles on the same side
17. The upper border of spinal cord is:
A. * .The level of pyramid decussating
B. The place of first cervical roots leaving the spinal cord
C. The place of second cervical roots leaving the spinal cord
D. Lower edge of foramen Occipitalis Magnum
E. Upper edge of foramen Occipitalis Magnum
18. To the signs of unconditioned reflexes belong all, except:
A. Are closed in brain cortex
B. Need support
C. Acquired
D. * Are inborn
E. All is correct
19. To the signs of unconditioned reflexes belong all, except:
A. Are closed on the level of segments of spinal cord
B. Are inborn
C. Do not need supporting
D. * Are closed in brain cortex
E. Are the base for conditioned reflexes
20. To the signs of unconditioned reflexes do not belong:
A. Are closed on the level of segments of spinal cord
B. Are inborn
C. * Need support
D. All is correct
E. Are the base for conditioned reflexes
21. Tr. Cortico-spinalis doesn’t go through:
A. Corona radiata
B. Anterior 2/3 of posterior thigh of internal capsule
C. * Posterior 1/3 of posterior thigh of internal capsule
D. Lateral columns of spinal cord
E. None of indicated
22. Tr. Cortico-spinalis goes through:
A. Lateral columns of spinal cord
B. Anterior columns of spinal cord
C. Anterior 2/3 of posterior thigh of internal capsule
D. Brain stem
4. E. * All of indicated
23. Where is the center of conditioned reflexes arch:
A. Limbic system
B. Cerebellum
C. Segmental apparatus of brain steam
D. Segmental apparatus of spinal cord
E. * Brain cortex
24. Where does Cortical-nuclear tract responsible for the facial innervation begin?
A. At the posterior part of lower frontal gyrus
B. * At the lower part of precentral gyrus
C. At the 2/3 upper part of precentral gyrus
D. At the posterior part of lower temporal gyrus
E. At the lower part of postcentral gyrus
25. Where does Cortical-spinal tract responsible for extremities innervation begin?
A. At the posterior part of lower frontal gyrus
B. At the lower part of precentral gyrus
C. * At the middle part of precentral gyrus
D. At the posterior part of lower temporal gyrus
E. At the lower part of postcentral gyrus
26. Where are the fibers of Cortical-nuclear tract finished?
A. In the lateral horns of spinal cord
B. In the anterior horns of spinal cord
C. In. the dorsal horn of spinal cord
D. * In the motor nuclei of cranial nerves
E. In the sensory nuclei of cranial nerves
27. What are signs of upper part of precentral gyrus lesion?
A. * Central monoplegia of leg
B. Spastic monoplegia
C. Focal Jackson epilepsy
D. Spastic upper paraplegia
E. Central paresis of mimic muscles
28. What are the peculiarities of spastic hypertonia?
A. * Increased tone in legs’ extensors and arm’s flexors
B. Increased tone in legs’ arm’s flexors
C. Increased tone in legs’ and arm’s extensors
D. None of the list
E. All above
29. What are the signs of conus lesion?
A. Flaccid legs’ paresis, pelvic disorders according to the central type
B. Flaccid feet paresis, pelvic disorders according to the peripheral type
C. Pelvic disorders according to the central type
D. * Pelvic disorders according to the peripheral type
E. None of the list
30. What are the signs of epiconus lesion?
A. * Flaccid feet paresis, pelvic disorders according to the central type
5. B. Flaccid feet paresis, pelvic disorders according to the peripheral type
C. Central feet paresis, pelvic disorders according to the central type
D. Central feet paresis, pelvic disorders according to the peripheral type
E. None of the list
31. What are the signs of horse tail lesion?
A. Flaccid feet paresis, pelvic disorders according to the central type
B. Flaccid feet paresis, pelvic disorders according to the peripheral type
C. * Flaccid legs’ paresis, pelvic disorders according to the peripheral type
D. Central legs’ paresis, pelvic disorders according to the central type
E. None of the list
32. What are the signs of lower part of Brachial plexus lesion?
A. Flaccid paresis of proximal part of arm
B. * Flaccid paresis of distal part of arm
C. Total arm paresis
D. Central arm paresis
E. None of the list
33. What are the signs of upper part of Brachial plexus lesion?
A. * Flaccid paresis of proximal part of arm
B. Flaccid paresis of distal part of arm
C. Total arm paresis
D. Central arm paresis
E. None of the list
34. What are the symptoms of lesion of Cortico-muscular tract?
A. Ataxia
B. Abasia
C. * Paralysis
D. Anesthesia
E. Aphasia
35. What happens at lesion of tractus Cortico-muscularis on different levels?
A. Ataxia
B. Abasia
C. * Paralysis
D. Anesthesia
E. Aphasia
36. What is the afferent part of pupil reflex?
A. Oculomotor nerve
B. * Optic nerve
C. Trigeminal nerve
D. Nervus Abducens
E. All ANSWERs are incorrect
37. What is the efferent part of pupil reflex?
A. * Oculomotor nerve
B. Optic nerve
C. Trigeminal nerve
D. Abducens
6. E. All ANSWERs are incorrect
38. What is the gait of patient with hemiparesis?
A. Spastic
B. Cock’s like
C. Duck’s like
D. * Circumdative
E. Shuffling, small steps
39. What is the level of decussating of the main Pyramidal pathway?
A. Midbrain
B. Pons
C. * The border between oblong brain and spinal cord
D. Oblong brain
E. anterior white commissure of spinal cord
40. What is the sign of spastic hypertonia?
A. Muscle tone is increased at passive movements
B. Positive sign of “cogged wheel”
C. * Positive sign of “clasp-knife”
D. Positive sign of Noika-Ganeva
E. None of the list
41. What is the sign of spastic hypertonia?
A. Muscle tone is increased at passive movements
B. * Muscle tone is decreased at passive movements
C. Positive sign of “cogged wheel”
D. Positive sign of “Lead tight”
E. The patient has flexing posture
42. What muscles receive bilateral cortical innervation?
A. Masseter
B. Pharyngeal muscles
C. Perineum
D. Eye movements’ muscles
E. * All above
43. What muscles receive bilateral cortical innervation?
A. * Masseter
B. Lower mimic muscles
C. Arm muscles
D. Leg muscles
E. None of the list
44. What muscles receive unilateral cortical innervation?
A. Masseter
B. Eye movements’ muscles
C. * Tongue muscles
D. Upper mimic muscles
E. All above
45. What muscles receive unilateral cortical innervation?
A. Pharyngeal muscles
7. B. * Lower mimic muscles
C. Perineum
D. Eye movements’ muscles
E. Masseter
46. What segments innervate muscles of diaphragm?
A. C1-C4
B. * C3-С4
C. C4-C5
D. C8-D1
E. C7-D2
47. What segments innervate muscles of lower extremities?
A. * L1-S2
B. D12-L1
C. L2-L5
D. L1-S1
E. D12-L4
48. What segments innervate muscles of trunk?
A. Th1-Th7
B. Th2-L1
C. * Th2-Th12
D. Th3-Th10
E. Th3-Th11
49. What segments innervate muscles of upper extremities?
A. C1-C4
B. * C5-Th2
C. C1-C6
D. C8-Th1
E. C7-Th2
50. What segments innervate neck muscles?
A. * C1-C4
B. C5-Th2
C. C4-C8
D. C8-Th1
E. C7-Th2
51. What segments of spinal cord form cervical thickness?
A. C1-C4
B. * C5-Th2
C. C4-C8
D. C8-Th1
E. C7-Th2
52. What segments of spinal cord form cone of spinal cord?
A. C1-C4
B. * S3-S5
C. S1-S2
D. L1-S2
8. E. S1-S3
53. What segments of spinal cord form epicone of spinal cord?
A. C1-C4
B. S3-S5
C. * S1-S2
D. L1-S2
E. S1-S3
54. What segments of spinal cord form Lumbar thickness?
A. Th12-L4
B. * L1-S2
C. L2-L5
D. C8-Th1
E. C7-Th2
55. What segments of spinal cord innervate muscles of perineum?
A. S1-S2
B. S2-S3
C. * S3-S5
D. S1-S3
E. S2-S5
56. What structures form anterior root of spinal cord?
A. The axons of anterior horn cells
B. The axons of posterior horn cells
C. The axons of lateral horn cells
D. * The axons of anterior and lateral horns’ cells
E. The axons of lateral and posterior horns’ cells
57. What structures form dorsal root of spinal cord?
A. Axons of the cells of anterior horn
B. Axons of the cells of lateral horn
C. Axons of the cells of posterior horn
D. * Axons of the cells of dorsal root ganglion
E. Dendrites of the cells of lateral horn
58. What structures form a horse tail?
A. Anterior and posterior roots of spinal cord
B. Lower thoracic radices
C. Lumbar and sacral radices
D. * Lumbar, sacral and coccygeal roots
E. Sacral and coccygeal roots
59. What structures form spinal nerve?
A. Axons of the cells of anterior horn
B. Axons of the cells of posterior horn
C. Axons of the cells of lateral horn
D. * Axons of the cells of posterior and anterior horn
E. Axons of the cells of posterior and lateral horn
60. Where do the Tractus Cortico-spinalis begin?
A. Posterior part of lower frontal gyrus
9. B. Lower part of precentral gyrus
C. * Upper 2/3 of precentral gyrus
D. Posterior part of upper temporal gyrus
E. Lower part of postcentral gyrus
61. Where is first neuron of superficial sensation pathway?
A. * In the dorsal root ganglia
B. In Thalamus
C. In spinal ganglion
D. In internal capsule
E. In oblong brain
62. Where is third neuron of superficial sensation pathway?
A. In the dorsal root ganglia
B. * In Thalamus
C. In spinal ganglion
D. In internal capsule
E. In oblong brain
63. Where is second neuron of superficial sensation pathway?
A. * In the dorsal horn of spinal cord
B. In Thalamus
C. In spinal ganglion
D. In internal capsule
E. In oblong brain
64. Anesthesia of what type of sensation is observed at complete lesion of peripheral nerve?
A. Only pain and temperature
B. * All types
C. Only tactile
D. Only deep muscle-joint sense
E. Only vibration
65. There are signs of spinal cord lesion on the L4 level. Where is the pathological focus
A. Th9 vertebra
B. Th10-Th12 vertebra
C. * L1 vertebra
D. L4 vertebra
E. L2 vertebra
66. There are signs of spinal cord lesion on the Th10 level. Where is the pathological focus?
A. Th1 vertebra
B. Th2 vertebra
C. Th3 vertebra
D. Th4 vertebra
E. * Th8 vertebra
67. There are signs of spinal cord lesion on the Th3 level. Where is the pathological focus?
A. * Th1 vertebra
B. Th2 vertebra
C. Th3 vertebra
D. Th4 vertebra
10. E. Th7 vertebra
68. Lesion of cerebellar lower peduncles can cause:
A. * Bulbar syndrome, cerebellar ataxia
B. Pyramidal and sensory hemisyndrome on the opposite side
C. Trochlear Nerve lesion
D. Cerebellar ataxia in the opposite extremities, resting tremor
E. Cerebellar ataxia in the side of lesion
69. Cerebellar upper peduncles lesion can cause:
A. Pyramidal and sensory hemisyndrome on the opposite side
B. Cerebellar-sensitive ataxia, bulbar syndrome
C. Cerebellar ataxia in the opposite extremities, resting tremor
D. * Cerebellar ataxia in the side of lesion, Trochlear Nerve lesion
E. Bulbar syndrome
70. Complicated sensation includes all except:
A. Discrimination sense
B. * Trichoesthesia
C. Localization sense
D. Graphism
E. Stereognosis
71. Conductive types of sensory disturbances include all, except:
A. Spinal
B. Cerebral
C. Descending
D. Ascending
E. * Segmental-radicular
72. Deep sensation includes all except:
A. Vibration sense
B. * Discrimination sense
C. Joint sense
D. Feeling of pressure
E. Feeling of mass
73. Deep sensation includes all except:
A. Vibration sense
B. Joint sense
C. * Localization sense
D. Feeling of pressure
E. Feeling of mass
74. Deep sensation includes all except:
A. Vibration sense
B. Feeling of mass
C. Joint sense
D. Feeling of pressure
E. * Stereognosis
75. Deep sensation includes all except:
A. Vibration sense
11. B. * Feeling of tickling
C. Feeling of mass
D. Joint sense
E. Feeling of pressure
76. Lesion of right Medial closed loop in middle and upper parts can cause:
A. * Hemianestesia of all of types of sensation on the left
B. Hemianestesia of all of types of sensation business
C. Hemianestesia of only superficial types of sensation on the left
D. Hemianesthesia only superficial types of sensation business
E. Hemianestesia of deep types of sensation on the left
77. Exteroceptive types of sensation are checked by all methods, except:
A. Touching of skin by piece of cotton
B. Touching of skin by tube with cold water
C. Touching of skin by tube with hot water
D. Touching of skin by pin or other sharp object
E. * Touching of skin by tuning fork that vibrates
78. How many decussation do the Cerebellum correction pathway contain?
A. 4
B. 2
C. 5
D. * 3
E. 1
79. What passes in the posterior column of spinal cord?
A. Fleksig`s pathway
B. Hovers`s pathway
C. Burdakh`s pathway
D. Fleksig`s and Hovers`s pathway
E. * Holl`s and Burdakh`s pathway
80. What passes in the anterior leg of Internal capsule?
A. Tractus cortico-nuclearis
B. Tractus cortico-spinalis
C. Tractus thalamo-corticalis
D. * Tractus fronto-pontinus
E. Tractus occipito-temporo-pontinus
81. Isolated lesion of cerebellar hemispheres can cause
A. * Intentional tremor, adiadochokinesis, dysmetria
B. Adiadochokinesis, dysmetria, unsteadiness in Romberg’s pose
C. Dysmetria
D. Muscular hypotonia
E. Macrographia
82. Isolated lesion of cerebellar vermix can cause:
A. Intentional tremor, adiadochokinesis, dysmetria
B. Adiadochokinesis, dysmetria, unsteadiness in Romberg’s pose
C. Dysmetria
D. * Muscular hypotonia
12. E. Macrographia
83. Isolated lesion of cerebellar vermix can cause:
A. Intentional tremor, adiadochokinesis, dysmetria
B. Adiadochokinesis, dysmetria, muscular hypotonia
C. Dysmetria
D. * Unsteadiness in Romberg’s pose
E. Macrographia
84. Lesion of Spinal-thalamic tract in the lateral column of spinal cord at C5 level on the left side leads
to:
A. Loss of superficial sense from C5 level on the left side
B. Loss of superficial sense from C5 level on the right side
C. Loss of deep sense from C5 level on the right
D. Loss of deep sense from C7 level of on the left
E. * Loss of superficial sense from C7 level on the right side
85. Lesion of Spinal-thalamic tract in the lateral column of spinal cord at C6 level on the left side leads
to:
A. Loss of superficial sense from C8 level on the left
B. Loss of deep sense from C8 level on left side
C. Loss of deep sense from C6 level on right side
D. Loss of deep sense from C7 level on the left
E. * Loss of superficial sense from C8 level on right side
86. Lesion of Spinal-thalamic tract in the lateral column of spinal cord at C7 level on the left side leads
to:
A. Loss of superficial sense from C7 level on the left
B. * Loss of superficial sense from Th1 level on the right side
C. Loss of deep sense from Th1 level on the left side
D. Loss of superficial sense from Th1 level on the left
E. Loss of deep sense from C7 level on the left side
87. Lesion of Spinal-thalamic tract in the lateral column of spinal cord at Th12 level on the right side
leads to:
A. * Loss of superficial sense from L2 level on the left side
B. Loss of superficial sense from L3 level on the right
C. Loss of deep sense from L3 level on the left side
D. Loss of deep sense from L1 level on the left
E. Loss of superficial sense from L1 level on the left
88. Lesion of the Holl`s and Burdah`s tracts at C5 level on left side leads to the loss of joint sensation:
A. In right a hand and leg
B. In a left arm
C. * In left hand and leg
D. In a right foot
E. In a right arm
89. Lesion of the Holl`s and Burdah`s tracts at C5 level on right side leads to the loss of joint sensation:
A. * In right hand and leg
B. In a left arm
C. In left hand and leg
13. D. In a right foot
E. In a right foot
90. Lesion of the Holl`s and Burdah`s tracts at Th12 level on left side leads to the loss of joint sensation:
A. In right hand and leg
B. In a left arm
C. In right hand and leg
D. In a right foot
E. * In left leg
91. Lesion of the Holl`s and Burdah`s tracts at Th12 level on right side leads to the loss of joint
sensation:
A. In right hand and leg
B. In left arm
C. * In right leg
D. In right arm
E. In left hand and leg
92. Lesion of Spino-thalamic tract in lateral column of spinal cord at C4 level on the left side causes:
A. Loss of superficial sense from C2 level on the left side
B. Loss of superficial sense from C2 level on the right side
C. Loss of deep sense from C4 level on the left side
D. Loss of deep sense from C6 level on the right side
E. * Loss of superficial sense from C6 level on the right side
93. Lesion of Spino-thalamic tract in lateral column of spinal cord at Th2 level on the left side causes:
A. Loss of superficial sense from Th4 level on the left side
B. Loss of superficial sense from C8 level on the right side
C. Loss of deep sense from C8 level on the left side
D. Loss of deep sense from Th2 level on the right side
E. * Loss of superficial sense from Th4 level on the right side
94. Lesion of Spino-thalamic tract in lateral column of spinal cord at Th5level on the left side causes:
A. Loss of superficial sense from Th7 level on the left side
B. Loss of superficial sense from Th3 level on the right side
C. Loss of deep sense from Th5 level on the left side
D. Loss of deep sense from Th7 level on the right side
E. * Loss of superficial sense from Th7 level on the right side
95. Lesion of Spino-thalamic tract in lateral column of spinal cord at Th9 level on the left side causes:
A. Loss of superficial sense from Th11 level on the left side
B. Loss of superficial sense from Th7 level on the right side
C. Loss of deep sense from Th11 level on the left side
D. Loss of deep sense from Th7 level on the right side
E. * Loss of superficial sense from Th11 level on the right side
96. Lesion of Spino-thalamic tract in lateral column of spinal cord at Th4 level on the right side causes:
A. Loss of superficial sense from Th2 level on the left side
B. Loss of superficial sense from Th2 level on the right side
C. Loss of deep sense from Th6 level on the left side
D. Loss of deep sense from Th6 level on the right side
E. * Loss of superficial sense from Th6 level on the left side
14. 97. Lesion of Spino-thalamic tract in lateral column of spinal cord at C7 level on the right side causes:
A. Loss of superficial sense from C7 level on the left side
B. Loss of superficial sense from C7 level on the right side
C. * Loss of superficial sense from Th1 level on the left side
D. Loss of deep sense from C7 level on the right side
E. Loss of deep sense from C7 level on the left side
98. Lesion of Spino-thalamic tract in lateral column of spinal cord at C5level on the right side causes:
A. * Loss of superficial sense from C7 level on the left side
B. Loss of superficial sense from C5 level on the right side
C. Loss of deep sense from C7 level on the left side
D. Loss of deep sense from C5 level on the right side
E. Loss of superficial sense from C5 level on the left side
99. Lesion of Spino-thalamic tract in lateral column of spinal cord at C6 level on the right side causes:
A. Loss of superficial sense from C7 level on the right side
B. * Loss of superficial sense from C7 level on the left side
C. Loss of deep sense from C6 level on the left side
D. Loss of deep sense from C4 level on the right side
E. Loss of superficial sense from C6 level on the right side
100. Lesion of Spino-thalamic tract in lateral column of spinal cord at Th10 level on the right side causes:
A. Loss of deep sense from Th12 level on the right side
B. Loss of superficial sense from Th12 level on the right side
C. Loss of deep sense from Th8 level on the left side
D. * Loss of superficial sense from Th12 level on the left side
E. Loss of superficial sense from Th8 level on the left side
101. Lesion of what structure of nervous system leads to torsion spasm:
A. * Nucleus caudatus
B. Putamen
C. Nucleus of Thalamus
D. Red nucleus
E. Luis body
102. Lesion of what structure of nervous system leads to astereognosis:
A. Dorsal horns of spinal cord
B. * Parietal lobe
C. Frontal lobe of brain
D. Dorsal column of spinal cord
E. Lateral column of spinal cord
103. Lesion of what structure of nervous system leads to hemianesthesia, hemiataxia, hemianopsia:
A. Medial closed loop
B. Postcentral gyrus
C. * Thalamus
D. Precentral gyrus
E. Optic chiasma
104. Lesion of what structure of nervous system leads to loss of all sorts of sensation:
A. Dorsal column of spinal cord
B. Anterior gray soldering
15. C. Dorsal horn of spinal cord
D. * Dorsal root
E. Lateral column of spinal cord
105. Lesion of what structure of nervous system leads to loss of all sorts of sensation:
A. Anterior gray soldering
B. * Spinal ganglion
C. Dorsal horn of spinal cord
D. Dorsal column of spinal cord
E. Lateral column of spinal cord
106. Lesion of what structure of nervous system leads to segmental type of sensory disorder:
A. * Dorsal horn of spinal cord
B. Capsule internal
C. Thalamus
D. Medial closed loop
E. Peripheral nerve
107. Lesion of what structure of nervous system leads to segmental type of sensory disorder:
A. Medial closed loop
B. Capsule internal
C. Thalamus
D. * Front gray soldering
E. Peripheral nerve
108. Lesion of what structure of nervous system lead to segmental type of sensory disorder:
A. * Spinal nerve
B. Capsule internal
C. Thalamus
D. Medial closed loop
E. Peripheral nerve
109. Lesion of what structure of nervous system leads to loss of sensation according to
segmental-dissociated type:
A. * Frontal gray soldering
B. Spinal ganglion
C. Internal capsule
D. Dorsal column of spinal cord
E. Lateral column of spinal cord
110. Lesion of what structure of nervous system lead to loss of sensation according to
segmental-dissociated type:
A. Internal capsule
B. Spinal ganglion
C. * Dorsal horn of spinal cord
D. Dorsal column of spinal cord
E. Lateral column of spinal cord
111. The main features of cerebellar ataxia include all below, except:
A. Intentional tremor, adiadochokinesis, dysmetria
B. Adiadochokinesis, dysmetria, unsteadiness in Romberg’s pose
C. Dysmetria
16. D. Muscular hypotonia
E. * Acheirokinesis
112. The main features of cerebellar ataxia include all below, except:
A. Intentional tremor, adiadochokinesis, dysmetria
B. Adiadochokinesis, dysmetria, unsteadiness in Romberg’s pose
C. Muscular hypotonia
D. Dysmetria
E. * Micrographia
113. The main features of cerebellar ataxia include all below, except:
A. Intentional tremor, adiadochokinesis, dysmetria
B. Adiadochokinesis, dysmetria, unsteadiness in Romberg’s pose
C. * Central lower hemiparesis
D. Muscular hypotonia
E. Dysmetria
114. The main features of cerebellar ataxia include all below, except:
A. * Sensory disorders
B. Intentional tremor, adiadochokinesis, dysmetria
C. Adiadochokinesis, dysmetria, unsteadiness in Romberg’s pose
D. Muscular hypotonia
E. Dysmetria
115. The main function of the extrapyramidal nervous system:
A. * Myostatic
B. Provide automatic motions
C. Support of muscular tone
D. Support of posture
E. Provide emotional reactions
116. Medial closed loop in middle and upper parts consists of:
A. Cells of second neurons of all of types of sensitiveness on opposite side
B. Fibers of second neurons of all of types of sensitiveness on the same side
C. * Fibers of second neurons of all of types of sensitiveness on opposite side
D. Fibers of second neurons only superficial types of sensitiveness on opposite side
E. Fibers or second neurons of only deep sensitiveness on opposite side
117. Medial closed loop passes to:
A. Sensitive area of cortex
B. * Thalamus
C. Posterior horn of spinal cord
D. Sub thalamic area
E. Upper humps
118. Name afferent pathway of cerebellum :
A. Spino- cerebellaris Fleksig`s
B. Spino- cerebellaris Govers`s
C. Vestibulo- cerebellaris
D. * Dentato-rubralis
E. Fronto-ponto-cerebellaris
119. Name efferent pathway of cerebellum:
17. A. Vestibulo- cerebellaris
B. Olivo- cerebellaris
C. Reticulo- cerebellaris
D. * Cerebello-tegmentalis
E. Spino-thalamicus
120. Name the first neuron of Cerebellar correction pathway:
A. Tr. Rubrospinalis
B. Tr. Spinomuscularis
C. Tr. Cerebello-dentatus
D. * Tr. Fronto-temporo-occipito-pontinus
E. Tr. Dentorubralis
121. Name the fifth neuron of Cerebellar correction pathway:
A. * Tr. Rubrospinalis
B. Tr. Pontocerebellaris
C. Tr. Cerebello-dentatus
D. Tr. Fronto-temporo-occipito-pontinus
E. Tr. Dentorubralis
122. Name the forth neuron of Cerebellar correction pathway:
A. Tr. Rubrospinalis
B. Tr. Pontocerebellaris
C. Tr. Cerebello-dentatus
D. Tr. Fronto-temporo-occipito-pontinus
E. * Tr. Dentorubralis
123. Name the second neuron of Cerebellar correction pathway:
A. Tr. Rubrospinalis
B. * Tr. Pontocerebellaris
C. Tr. Cerebello-dentatus
D. Tr. Fronto-temporo-occipito-pontinus
E. Tr. Dentorubralis
124. Name the third neuron of Cerebellar correction pathway:
A. Tr. Rubrospinalis
B. Tr. Pontocerebellaris
C. * Tr. Cerebello-dentatus
D. Tr. Fronto-temporo-occipito-pontinus
E. Tr. Dentorubralis
125. Name the sixth neuron of Cerebellar correction pathway:
A. * Tr. Rubrospinalis
B. Tr. Pontocerebellaris
C. Tr. Cerebello-dentatus
D. Tr. Fronto-temporo-occipito-pontinus
E. Tr. Dentorubralis
126. Name the functions of cerebellum hemispheres:
A. Active movements
B. * Coordination
C. Equilibrium
18. D. Muscular tone
E. Complicated sensation
127. Name the function of cerebellum hemispheres:
A. Active movements
B. * Synergy
C. Equilibrium
D. Muscular tone
E. Complicated sensation
128. Name the function of cerebellum vermix:
A. Active movements
B. Synergy
C. * Equilibrium
D. Coordination
E. Complicated sensation
129. Name the function of cerebellum vermix:
A. Active movement
B. Synergy
C. * Muscular tone regulation
D. Coordination
E. Emotional control
130. Name the convincing sign of lesion of intervertebral ganglion:
A. Segmental anesthesia
B. Dissociation of sensation
C. Pain
D. Loss of sensation
E. * Herpes zoster
131. Name the convincing sign of lesion of dorsal horn on C8 level:
A. * Loss of Triceps reflex
B. Paroxysmal pain in arm
C. Hypoalgesia at the ulnar side of arm and forearm
D. Anesthesia on the elbow edge of arm and forearm
E. Paresis of abductors of fingers
132. Name the sign of lesion of dorsal horn of spinal cord:
A. Stretch symptoms
B. * Segmental anesthesia of pain and temperature sensation
C. Herpes zoster
D. Radicular pain
E. Segmental anesthesia of all of types of sensation
133. Name the sign of lesion of upper part of postcentral gyrus:
A. Hemianestesia on opposite side
B. Hemiplegia on opposite extremities
C. Motor Jackson epileptic attack
D. Sensory Jackson epileptic attack
E. * Monoanesthesia on opposite leg
134. Name the sign of irritation in upper part of postcentral gyrus:
19. A. * Sensory Jackson attack in the opposite leg
B. Hemianestesia on opposite side
C. Motor Jackson attack in the opposite leg
D. Monoanesthesia on the opposite leg
E. Hemiplegia on opposite extremities
135. Name the sign of irritation of postcentral gyrus:
A. Monoanesthesia on the opposite hand
B. Hemianestesia on opposite side
C. * Sensory Jackson epileptic attack
D. Hemiplegia on opposite extremities
E. Monoanesthesia on opposite leg
136. Name the simplest test which find out hidden plastic tone of muscles:
A. Hordon 2
B. Vestfal test
C. * Noika-Ganeva
D. Shin Tevenar-Fua test
E. Babinsky symptom
137. Name the structure of brain, which belongs to extrapyramidal system:
A. * Nucleus caudatus
B. Holl and Burdakh nuclei
C. Anterior horns of spinal cord
D. Precentral gyrus
E. Thalamus
138. Name the structure of brain, which belongs to the extrapyramidal system:
A. Precentral gyrus
B. Holl and Burdakh nuclei
C. Anterior horns of spinal cord
D. * Red nucleus
E. Thalamus
139. Name the structure of brain, which belongs to the Pallidum:
A. * Black substance
B. Putamen
C. Claustrum
D. 4,6,8 area of brain cortex (according to Brodman)
E. Nucleus caudatus
140. Name the structure of brain, which belongs to the striatum
A. Black substance
B. Globulus pallidum
C. Reticular formation
D. Red nucleus
E. * Nucleus Caudatus
141. Name the structure of brain, which belongs to the extrapyramidal system:
A. Holl and Burdakh nuclei
B. * Claustrum
C. Anterior horns of spinal cord
20. D. Precentral gyrus
E. Thalamus
142. Name the symptom of Thalamus lesion:
A. * Hemiataxia in opposite extremities
B. Hemiplegia on opposite extremities
C. Sensory Jackson epileptic attack
D. Monoanesthesia
E. Segmental dissociative anesthesia
143. Name the symptom of Thalamus lesion:
A. * Hemianestesia on opposite side
B. Hemiplegia on opposite extremities
C. Sensory Jackson epileptic attack
D. Monoanesthesia
E. Segmental dissociative anesthesia
144. Name the symptom of Thalamus lesion:
A. * Hemianopsia
B. Hemiplegia on opposite extremities
C. Sensory Jackson epileptic attack
D. Monoanesthesia
E. Segmental dissociative anesthesia
145. Name the symptom of Thalamus lesion:
A. * Hemialgia on opposite side
B. Hemiplegia on opposite extremities
C. Sensory Jackson epileptic attack
D. Monoanesthesia
E. Segmental dissociative anesthesia
146. Name the symptoms of lesion of lateral column of spinal cord:
A. Batyanesthesia
B. * Conductive anesthesia of superficial types of sensation on opposite side
C. Anestesia of all types of sensation (polyneuritic type)
D. Segmental anesthesia of all of types of sensation
E. Radicular pain at the level of lesion
147. Name the symptoms of the isolated lesion of cerebellum vermix:
A. Intentional tremor, adiadochokinesis, dysmetria
B. Adiadochokinesis, dysmetria, ataxia in Romberg test
C. Dysmetria
D. * Instability in the Romberg test
E. Macrography
148. Nucleus ruber lesion can cause:
A. * Cerebellar ataxia in the opposite side
B. Pyramidal and sensory hemi syndrome on the opposite side
C. Trochlear nerve lesion
D. Bulbar syndrome
E. Cerebellar ataxia in the side of lesion
149. Nucleus ruber lesion can cause:
21. A. Bulbar syndrome
B. Pyramidal and sensory hemisyndrome on the opposite side
C. Trochlear nerve lesion
D. * Cerebellar ataxia in opposite extremities, resting tremor
E. Cerebellar ataxia in the side of lesion
150. Ponto-cerebellar angle lesion can cause:
A. * Pyramidal and sensory hemisyndrome on the opposite side, cerebellar disorders
B. Cerebellar-sensitive ataxia, bulbar syndrome
C. Cerebellar ataxia in opposite extremities, resting tremor
D. Cerebellar ataxia in the side of lesion, Trochlear nerve lesion
E. Bulbar syndrome, Webber’s syndrome
151. Ponto-cerebellar angle lesion can cause:
A. Cerebellar-sensitive ataxia, bulbar syndrome
B. Cerebellar ataxia in the opposite extremities, resting tremor
C. Cerebellar ataxia in the side of lesion, Trochlear nerve lesion
D. * Pathology of V, VI, VII, VIII CNs at the side of lesion
E. Bulbar syndrome, Webber’s syndrome
152. Superficial sensation includes all listed below, except:
A. Tactile sensation
B. Superficial pain
C. Hydroesthesia
D. Feeling of tickling
E. * Feeling of mass
153. Superficial sensation includes all listed below, except:
A. Tactile sensation
B. Superficial pain
C. Hydroesthesia
D. Feeling of tickling
E. * Feeling of pressure
154. Superficial sensation includes all listed below, except:
A. Sensation of electrical current
B. * Vibration sense
C. Hydroesthesia
D. Feeling of tickling
E. Trichoesthesia
155. Superficial sensation includes all except:
A. Sensation of electrical current
B. Hydroesthesia
C. * Joint sense
D. Feeling of tickling
E. Trichoesthesia
156. Superficial sensation includes all listed below, except:
A. Sensation of electrical current
B. Temperature sensation
C. Hydroesthesia
22. D. * Graphism
E. Trichoesthesia
157. Test which is not used for examination of cerebellum pathology:
A. Romberg test
B. Stuart-Holms test
C. Adiadochokinesis
D. Thoma test
E. * Budda test
158. What is typical for the lesion of Internal capsule?
A. Hemianesthesia
B. Hemiataxia
C. Hemianopsia
D. Hemiplegia
E. * Vernike-Mann`s posture
159. What sign is typical for the lesion of postcentral gyrus:
A. Hypoalgesia on face and hand
B. * Attacks of paresthesia that spread from the face to the hand
C. Thermohypoesthesia on the face and hand
D. Disorders of sense of localization
E. Loss of graphoesthesia on a hand
160. The exteroceptive types of sensitiveness are checked by all listed methods except:
A. Touch to the skin with a piece of cotton wool
B. Touch to the skin with a tube with cold water
C. Touch to the skin with a tube with warm water
D. Touch to the skin with a needle or other sharp object
E. * Use vibrating tuning fork
161. The exteroceptive types of sensitiveness are checked by all listed methods except:
A. * Checking of passive movement
B. Touch to the skin with a tube with cold water
C. Touch to the skin with a tube with warm water
D. Touch to the skin with a needle or other sharp object
E. Touch to the skin with a piece of cotton wool
162. The exteroceptive types of sensitiveness are checked by all listed methods except:
A. * Movement of dermal fold
B. Touch to the skin with a tube with cold water
C. Touch to the skin with a tube with warm water
D. Touch to the skin with a needle or other sharp object
E. Touch to the skin with a piece of cotton wool
163. The largest part of intermediate brain is:
A. Hypothalamus
B. Epithalamus
C. Subthalamus
D. Methatalamus
E. * Thalamus
164. The main sign of the extramedular lesion of spinal cord in Thoracic part:
23. A. Central paresis of leg in the same side
B. * Radicular pain in this segment
C. Hypalgesia in the opposite side
D. Sensitive ataxia in the same side
E. Batyanesthesia in the opposite side
165. The main sign of Mesencephalon lesion:
A. * Syndrome Parino
B. Hypersomnia
C. Parkinson syndrome
D. Diplopia
E. Anisokoria
166. The main sign of Pons lesion:
A. Central tetraparesis
B. Alternating hypalgesia
C. Babinski symptom on both sides
D. Segmental hypalgesia on the face
E. * Hyperreflexion on feet
167. The main symptom of Pallidum lesion:
A. * Bradykinesia
B. Hypomimia
C. Muscular hypertonus
D. Monotonous speech
E. Micrographia
168. The most frequent symptom of lesion of striatum:
A. * Chorea
B. Atetosis
C. Choreatetosis
D. Hemibalismus
E. Myoclonus
169. The most frequent symptom of the striatum lesion:
A. * Chorea
B. Muscular hypotonia
C. Muscular hypertonia
D. Shuffling gait
E. Hypomimia
170. The most reliable clinical sign of parkinson syndrome is:
A. * Oligobradykinesia
B. Shuffling gait
C. Monotonous speech
D. Static tremor
E. Micrographia
171. The pathway of cerebellum correction consists of:
A. * 6 neurons
B. 8 neurons
C. 5 neurons
24. D. 7 neurons
E. 4 neurons
172. There are two kinds of cerebellar ataxia:
A. * Static and dynamic
B. Vestibular and static
C. Cortical and dynamic
D. Sensitive and cerebellar
E. Dynamic and sensitive
173. To the Thalamus belong:
A. Medial closed loop
B. Lateral closed loop
C. * All is correct
D. Trigeminal loop
E. Optic tract
174. Types of sensory disturbances include all, except:
A. Peripheral
B. Conductive
C. Segmental-radicular
D. Segmental-dissociated
E. * Cortical
175. What is convincing sign of irritation of Postcentral gyrus:
A. Attack of tactile paresthesia
B. Attack of pain
C. Cold hemiparesthesia
D. Hemialgia
E. * Sensory Jackson attacks
176. What hyperkinesis is the rarest one at lesion of striatum
A. * Hemiballismus
B. Myoclonus
C. Torsion dystonia
D. Choreoatetosis
E. Chorea
177. What is the diagnostic criteria of Brown-Sequar syndrome:
A. Segmental and conductive disorders
B. Paresis and loss of deep sensation in the same side
C. * Paresis in the same side and opposite hypoalgesia
D. Alternation of deep and superficial hypoesthesia
E. Alternation of segmental hypoesthesia and hyperesthesia
178. What is the important symptom of Thalamus lesion?
A. Hemianopsia
B. Hemiataxia
C. Hemianesthesia
D. * Hemialgia
E. Hemiambliopia
179. What is the important symptom of the lesion of posterior horn of spinal cord:
25. A. Pain
B. Loss of deep reflexes
C. Paresthesia
D. * Segmental hypoalgesia
E. Disesthesia
180. What is the most important early symptom of extramedular tumor:
A. * Projective pain
B. Parestesia
C. Total anesthesia
D. Fasciculation
E. Pripheral paresis
181. What is the most important sign of Cerebellar аtaxia:
A. Ataxic gait
B. * Intentional tremor
C. Instability in the Romberg test
D. Muscular hypotonia
E. Nystagmus
182. What is the main sign of sensitive аtaxia:
A. Seismoanesthesia
B. Loss of vibration sense
C. * Visual dependence
D. Pain paresthesia
E. Athetosis
183. What pathway of cerebellum is afferent one:
A. Cortico-spinalis
B. Cerebello-tegmentalis
C. * Fronto-ponto-cerebellaris
D. Spino-thalamicus
E. Dentato-rubralis
184. What pathway of cerebellum is afferent one:
A. Cortico-spinalis
B. Cerebello-tegmentalis
C. Spino-thalamicus
D. * Spino-cerebellaris ventralis (Hover’s)
E. Dentato-rubralis
185. What pathway of cerebellum is afferent one:
A. Cortico-spinalis
B. * Spino-cerebellaris dorsalis (Flexig’s)
C. Spino-thalamicus
D. Cerebello-tegmentalis
E. Dentato-rubralis
186. What pathway of cerebellum is afferent one:
A. Cortico-spinalis
B. Cerebello-tegmentalis
C. * Occipito-temporo-ponto-cerebellaris
26. D. Spino-thalamicus
E. Dentato-rubralis
187. What pathway of cerebellum is afferent one:
A. Cortico-spinalis
B. * Fibre arcuate externe
C. Cerebello-tegmentalis
D. Spino-thalamicus
E. Dentato-rubralis
188. What pathway of cerebellum is efferent one:
A. Olivo-cerebellaris
B. Reticulo-cerebellaris
C. Ponto-cerebellaris
D. Vestibulo-cerebellaris
E. * Dentato-rubralis
189. What pathway passes through the lower leg of cerebellum?
A. Spino-cerebellaris ventralis (Hover’s)
B. Dentato-rubralis
C. Ponto-cerebellaris
D. Cerebello-tegmentalis
E. * Spino-cerebellaris dorsalis (Flexig’s)
190. What pathway passes through the lower leg of cerebellum?
A. * Spino- cerebellaris (Flexig`s)
B. Rubro-spinalis
C. Dento-rubralis
D. Spino- cerebellaris (Hovers`s)
E. Fronto-ponto-cerebellaris
191. What pathway passes through the lower leg of cerebellum:
A. * Olivo-cerebellaris
B. Dentato-rubralis
C. Ponto-cerebellaris
D. Cerebello-tegmentalis
E. Spino-cerebellaris ventralis (Hover’s)
192. What pathway passes through the lower leg of cerebellum?
A. Spino-cerebellaris ventralis (Hover’s)
B. Dentato-rubralis
C. Ponto-cerebellaris
D. * Fibre arcuate externe
E. Cerebello-tegmentalis
193. What pathway passes through the lower leg of cerebellum?
A. Spino-cerebellaris ventralis (Hover’s)
B. * Vestibulo-cerebellaris
C. Ponto-cerebellaris
D. Dentato-rubralis
E. Cerebello-tegmentalis
194. What pathway passes through the middle leg of cerebellum?
27. A. Dento-rubralis
B. * Fronto-ponto-cerebellaris
C. Rubro-spinalis
D. Spino-cerebellaris
E. Vestibulo-cerebellaris
195. What pathway passes through the upper leg of cerebellum?
A. Olivo-cerebellaris
B. Reticulo-cerebellaris
C. * Dentato-rubralis
D. Ponto-cerebellaris
E. Vestibulo-cerebellaris
196. What pathway passes through the upper leg of cerebellum?
A. Olivo-cerebellaris
B. Reticulo-cerebellaris
C. * Dentato-rubralis
D. Ponto-cerebellaris
E. Vestibulo-cerebellaris
197. What pathway passes through the upper leg of cerebellum?
A. Olivo-cerebellaris
B. Reticulo-cerebellaris
C. Ponto-cerebellaris
D. * Cerebello-tegmentalis
E. Vestibulo-cerebellaris
198. What speech disorder occurs at lesion of cerebellum:
A. Monotonous speech
B. Aphasia
C. * Scanning speech
D. Nasal
E. Mutism
199. Where are Holl’s and Burdach’s nuclei located?
A. In Pons Varolii
B. In Thalamus
C. In Cerebellum
D. * In Oblong brain
E. In black substance
200. Where is Burdach’s nucleus located?
A. In pons Varolii
B. * In oblong brain
C. In Thalamus
D. In cerebellum
E. In black substance
201. Where is the first neuron of deep sensation pathway located?
A. * In the dorsal root ganglia
B. In Thalamus
C. In cortex
28. D. In internal capsule
E. In oblong brain
202. Where is the first neuron of superficial sensation pathway located?
A. * In the dorsal root ganglia
B. In thalamus
C. In dorsal horn of spinal cord
D. In internal capsule
E. In oblong brain
203. Where is Holl’s nucleus located?
A. * In oblong brain
B. In pons Varolii
C. In Thalamus
D. In cerebellum
E. In black substance
204. Where is the second neuron of deep sensation pathway located?
A. In pons Varolii
B. In Thalamus
C. * In oblong brain
D. In cerebellum
E. In black substance
205. Where is the second neuron of deep sensation pathway located?
A. In Thalamus
B. In posterior horn of spinal cord
C. In internal capsule
D. * In oblong brain
E. In the dorsal root ganglia
206. Where is the second neuron of superficial sensation pathway located?
A. * In the dorsal horn of spinal cord
B. In Thalamus
C. In spinal ganglion
D. In internal capsule
E. In oblong brain
207. Where is the third neuron of deep sensation pathway located?
A. In the dorsal root ganglia
B. * In Thalamus
C. In cortex
D. In internal capsule
E. In oblong brain
208. Where is the third neuron of superficial sensation pathway located?
A. In the dorsal root ganglia
B. * In thalamus
C. In dorsal horn of spinal cord
D. In internal capsule
E. In oblong brain
209. At alternating syndrome of Awellis (as a result of oblong brain lesion on the left) one can observe:
29. A. * Lesion of ІХ, Х nerves on the left, hemiparesis on the right
B. Lesion of ІХ, Х nerves on the left, hemiparesis on the left
C. Lesion of Х, ХI nerves on the left, hemiparesis on the right
D. Lesion of ІХ, ХI nerves on the left, hemiparesis on the right
E. Lesion of ІХ, Х nerves on the left
210. At alternating syndrome of Schmidt (as a result of oblong brain lesion on the left) one can observe:
A. * Lesion of ІХ-ХII nerves on the left, hemiparesis on the right
B. Lesion of ІХ, Х nerves on the left, hemiparesis on the left
C. Lesion of Х-ХII nerves on the left, hemiparesis on the right
D. Lesion of ІХ, ХI nerves on the left, hemiparesis on the right
E. Lesion of ІХ-ХI nerves on the left, hemiparesis on the right
211. At complete one side lesion of nucleus tractus spinalis nervi Trigemini one can observe:
A. loss of all types of sensation on homolateral side of face
B. loss of all types of sensation on contralateral side of face
C. * dissociated loss of sensation on homolateral side of face
D. dissociated loss of sensation on contralateral side of face
E. loss of deep sensation on homolateral side of face
212. At homonymous upper quadrant hemianopsia focus can be located in:
A. Temporal lobe
B. Parietal lobe
C. only Occipital lobe
D. * Temporal and Occipital lobes
E. Thalamus
213. At Jackson syndrome (as a result of oblong brain lesion on the right) one can observe:
A. * Deviation of tongue to the right, hemiparesis on the left
B. Deviation of tongue to the left, hemiparesis on the left
C. Deviation of tongue to the right, hemiparesis on the right
D. Deviation of tongue to the left, hemiparesis on the right
E. Deviation of tongue to the right
214. At Jackson syndrome (as a result of oblong brain lesion on the left) one can observe
A. Deviation of tongue to the left, hemiparesis on the left
B. * Deviation of tongue to the left, hemiparesis on the right
C. Deviation of tongue to the right, hemiparesis on the right
D. Deviation of tongue to the right, hemiparesis on the left
E. Deviation of tongue to the left
215. At lesion of midbrain one can observe:
A. Horizontal nystagmus
B. Rotatory nystagmus
C. Vertical nystagmus
D. Diagonal nystagmus
E. * Converge nystagmus
216. At lesion of oblong brain one can observe:
A. Horizontal nystagmus
B. Vertical nystagmus
C. Diagonal nystagmus
30. D. * Rotatory nystagmus
E. Converge nystagmus
217. At lesions of upper parts of Pons one can observe:
A. Horizontal and rotatory nystagmus
B. Horizontal nystagmus
C. Rotatory nystagmus
D. * Vertical and diagonal nystagmus
E. Converge nystagmus
218. At lesion of the border between Oblong brain and Pons one can observe
A. * Horizontal nystagmus
B. Rotatory nystagmus
C. Vertical nystagmus
D. Diagonal nystagmus
E. Converge nystagmus
219. At one side peripheral lesion of Glossopharyngeal nerve the patient suffers from hypoagesia:
A. * homolaterally on posterior 1/3 of tongue
B. contralaterally on posterior 1/3 of tongue
C. homo laterally on anterior 2/3 of tongue
D. contralaterally on anterior 2/3 of tongue
E. on the tip of tongue
220. At one side supra nuclear lesion of Facial nerve one can observe:
A. Contra lateral paresis of all mimic muscles
B. * contralateral paresis of lower mimic muscles
C. homolateral paresis of all mimic muscles
D. homolateral paresis of lower mimic muscles
E. contralateral paresis of upper mimic muscles
221. At one side lesion of lower parts of nucleus tractus spinalis nervi Trigemini one can observe:
A. Loss of all types of sensation on half of the face
B. Loss of superficial sensation on half of the face
C. Dissociated sensory disorders in internal zones of Zelder
D. * Dissociated sensory disorders in external zones of Zelder
E. Loss of deep sensation on half of the face
222. ?Upper olives take part in realization
A. * hearing function
B. Accurate voluntary movements
C. equilibrium
D. all previous
E. all previous, except hearing function
223.
A. Oculomotorius, trochlear, abducens
B. Onle oculomotorius
C. * Only abducens
D. Oculomotorius and trochlear
E. abducens and trochlear
224. The base of pons is represented by
31. A. * Middle crus of cerebellum
B. Piramydal ways
C. Spinothalamic ways
D. Lower crus of cerebellum
E. Bulbothalamic ways
32. Назва наукового напрямку (модуля): Семестр: 1
Tasks Inflammatory diseases
Опис:
8 term
Перелік питань:
1. ?What is the most complete picture of tuberculosis meningitis?
A. * prodromal period, sub acute beginning, meningeal signs, sub febrile temperature, lesion of eye
movements CN’s
B. slow beginning, meningeal signs, sub febrile temperature
C. prodromal period, sub febrile temperature, lesion of basal CN’s
D. slow development of the disease, hectic temperature, sub febrile temperature, lesion of eye
movements CN’s
E. sub febrile temperature, meningeal signs
2. Patient 23years old suddenly felt severe headache nausea, pain in the neck. Body temperature is 39,2°
С, hemorrhagic rash on the skin; light, tactil and pain hyperesthesia, well expressed meningeal signs.
Blood analysis: Le-25x109/l. Which diagnostic method is the most informative in this case?
A. EEG
B. CT
C. * LP
D. TCDG
E. EchoEG
3. The highest percentage of complications is observed after vaccination against
A. Diphtheria
B. Viral hepatitis
C. Measles
D. German measles
E. * Rabies
4. The most important sign of general cerebral syndrome at secondary purulent meningitis is
A. * Headache
B. Dizziness
C. Nausea
D. General hyperesthesia
E. Vomiting
5. The most reliable sign of serous CSF inflammation is
A. Opalescent
B. Transparence
C. Fibrin plate
D. Pleocytosis more then 2000
E. * Lymphocytic pleocytosis
6. The most reliable signs of purulent CSF is
A. Not quite clear
B. Green color
C. Fibrin plate
D. Pleocytosis more then 2000
E. * Neutrophil pleocytosis
7. Treatment of purulent meningitis in case of unknown cause we start with
A. * Pennicilinum
B. Ampiox
33. C. Levomicitinum
D. Gentamicinum
E. Cephatoxim
8. The patient was diagnosed purulent meningitis. Which antibiotic should be used in the beginning of
treatment?
A. * Pennicilinum
B. Ampiox
C. Levomicitinum
D. Gentamicinum
E. Cephatoxim
9. Where are the patients with meningococcal meningitis being treated?
A. In neurological department
B. Intensive care unit at neurological department
C. Intensive care unit at somatic department
D. * Infectious department
E. In separate ward of neurological department
10. Which form of meningococcal meningitis is associated with Waterhause – Friderixen syndrome?
A. Very acute
B. Septic
C. * Fulminate
D. Recidive
E. Exhausting
11. Early complication of meningococcal meningitis is
A. Lesion of cranial nerves
B. Seizures
C. Central paresis
D. Meningococcemia
E. * Infectious toxic shock
12. Early complication of meningococcal meningitis is
A. Lesion of cranial nerves
B. Seizures
C. Central paresis
D. Meningococcemia
E. * Brain edema
13. Optimal day dose of pennicilinum for the patient with meningococcal meningitis (per 1 kg) is
A. 50 000 unites
B. 100 000 unites
C. 150 000 unites
D. 200 000 unites
E. * 400 000 unites
14. Reliable signs of meningococcal meningitis are
A. Widened retina veins
B. General cerebral symptoms
C. Blood leucocytosis and increased SR
D. Meningeal signs
34. E. * Neutrophil pleocytosis in CSF
15. Typical changes of CSF at tuberculosis meningitis
A. * Opalescent, lymphocytic neutrophil pleocytosis, decreased level of sugar and chlorides, fibrin plate
B. Xantochromic, lymphocytic – neutrophil pleocytosis
C. Opalescent, lymphocytic – neutrophil cytosis, decreased level of sugar
D. Opalescent, CSF pressure is increased, decreased level of sugar and chlorides, fibrin plate
E. Xantochromic, CSF pressure is increased, decreased level of chlorides, lymphocytic – neutrophil
cytosis
16. What is the most typical development of tuberculosis meningitis?
A. * Subacute
B. Acute
C. Chronic
D. Recidive
E. Fulminant
17. What are the most effective antituberculosis medications in the treatment of tuberculosis meningitis?
A. * Izoniazid, riphampicinum, pirazinamid
B. Izoniazid, riphampicinum, streptomicinum
C. Izoniazid, riphampicinum
D. Riphampicinum, streptomicinum
E. Riphampicinum, etambutolum
18. What are the most common residual effects after tuberculosis meningitis in children?
A. * Psychomotor development delay, epileptic attacks
B. Eye movements disorders
C. Deafness
D. Hemiparesis
E. Neuroendocrine disturbances
19. According to localization there are such forms of arachnoiditis except
A. Convex
B. Interpeduncular
C. Optic – chiasmal
D. * Pontine
E. Ponto – cerebellar
20. At lumbar puncture CSF flows under pressure 300 mm. It is transcendent, with slight opalescence.
After 24 hours fibrin plate fell down, protein level is 1,4 g/l, lymphocytes content is 600 in 1 mm3,
sugar – 0,3 mmol/l. What is previous diagnosis?
A. Lymphocytic meningitis of Armstrong
B. Meningococcal meningitis
C. * Tuberculosis meningitis
D. Syphilitic meningitis
E. Parotid meningitis
21. For convex arachnoiditis all sings are typical except
A. Hemi , mono- , paresis
B. Hemihypoesthesia
C. Jackson attack
D. * Hemianopsia
35. E. Headache
22. Optimal day dose of pennicilinum for the patient with meningococcal meningitis (per 1 kg) is
A. 50 000 unites
B. 100 000 unites
C. 150 000 unites
D. 200 000 unites
E. * 400 000 unites
23. Reliable signs of meningococcal meningitis are
A. Widened retina veins
B. General cerebral symptoms
C. Blood leucocytosis and increased SR
D. Meningeal signs
E. * Neutrophil pleocytosis in CSF
24. Typical changes of CSF at tuberculosis meningitis
A. * Opalescent, lymphocytic neutrophil pleocytosis, decreased level of sugar and chlorides, fibrin plate
B. Xantochromic, lymphocytic – neutrophil pleocytosis
C. Opalescent, lymphocytic – neutrophil cytosis, decreased level of sugar
D. Opalescent, CSF pressure is increased, decreased level of sugar and chlorides, fibrin plate
E. Xantochromic, CSF pressure is increased, decreased level of chlorides, lymphocytic – neutrophil
cytosis
25. What is the most typical development of tuberculosis meningitis?
A. * Subacute
B. Acute
C. Chronic
D. Recidive
E. Fulminant
26. What are the most effective antituberculosis medications in the treatment of tuberculosis meningitis?
A. * Izoniazid, riphampicinum, pirazinamid
B. Izoniazid, streptomicinum
C. Izoniazid, riphampicinum
D. Riphampicinum, streptomicinum
E. Riphampicinum, etambutolum
27. What are the most common residual effects after tuberculosis meningitis in children?
A. * Psychomotor development delay, epileptic attacks
B. Eye movements disorders
C. Deafness
D. Hemiparesis
E. Neuroendocrine disturbances
28. According to localization there are such forms of arachnoiditis except
A. Convex
B. Interpeduncular
C. Optic – chiasmal
D. * Pontine
E. Ponto – cerebellar
29. For convex arachnoiditis is typical everything except
36. A. Hemi , mono- , paresis
B. Hemihypoesthesia
C. Jackson attack
D. * Hemianopsia
E. Headache
30. At lumbar puncture CSF flows under pressure 300 mm. It is transcendent, with slight opalescence. In
a day fibrin plate fell down, protein is 1,4 g/l, lymphocytes 600 in 1 mm3, sugar – 0,3 mmol/l. What
is the previous diagnosis?
A. Lymphocytic meningitis of Armstrong
B. Meningococcal meningitis
C. * Tuberculosis meningitis
D. Syphilitic meningitis
E. Parotid meningitis
31. For optic – chiasmal arachnoiditis is typical everything except
A. Ambliopia
B. Anopsia
C. Optic nerve atrophy
D. * Hypoakusis
E. Scotoma
32. For arachnoiditis in ponto – cerebellar angel all sings are typical everything except
A. Ear noise
B. Hypoakusis
C. Dizziness
D. * Hypoosmia
E. Prosoplegia
33. What type of arachnoiditis is associated with well – expressed CSF – hypertensive syndrome?
A. Convex
B. Optic – chiasmal
C. Ponto – cerebellar
D. * Large cysterna
E. Interpeduncullar
34. A 12-year-old girl on the fourth day of the disease was diagnosed tuberculosis meningitis. Which
sugar content in CSF will be found while examination in this girl?
A. 2,5 mmol/l
B. 3,8 mmol/l
C. * 2,0 mmol/l
D. 4,1 mmol/l
E. 4,4 mmol/l
35. 37-year-old patient suddenly noticed fever (39,8 ° С), chilling, severe headache, nausea, vomiting. In
neurological state – unconsciousness, paresis of convergence, neck stiffness – 4 fingers, positive
Kernig and Brudzinski sign on both sides. Doctor suspect meningitis. What additional methods can
prove the diagnosis?
A. EEG
B. Eye ground investigation
C. * Lumbar Puncture
D. EchoES
37. E. CT – scan
36. 32-year-old patient with chronic otitis in anamnesis was diagnosed abscess of temporal part of the
brain. Which department the patient should be hospitalized in?
A. Surgical
B. * Neurosurgical
C. Otolaryngological
D. Neurological
E. Emergency
37. The disease in 5-year-old child has started rapidly. She complains on severe headache, vomiting,
temperature is 39,5° С. Positive meningeal signs. In CSF analysis present neutrophil pleocytosis. It
was diagnosed purulent meningitis. What is the main cause of the disease?
A. Pneumococcal
B. Staphilococcal
C. Hemophilus influenza
D. Intestinal coccus
E. * Meningococcal
38. The patient with meningococcal meningitis receives penicilinum during 7 days. During the last 4
days the temperature is normal. Meningeal signs are absent. When should be the antibiotic treatment
refused?
A. * At cytosis in CSF 100 and less, lymphocytes dominate
B. At absence of leucocytosis
C. At cytosis in CSF 100 and less, neutrophils dominate
D. At cytosis in CSF 150, lymphocytes dominate
E. At once
39. The disease in 3 years old child started rapidly. There is fever up to 39,5° С, severe headache,
vomiting, positive meningeal signs. CSF – is not quite clear, flows out under the pressure, protein –
1,8 g/l, positive Pandi reaction (+++), sugar – 2,2 mmol/l, chlorides – 123 mmol/l, cytosis
2350х106 (neutrophils – 80 %, lymphocytes – 20 %). What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Brain tumor
B. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
C. Serous viral meningitis
D. * Purulent meningitis
E. Serous tuberculosis meningitis
40. Which form of meningococcal meningitis is associated with severe endotoxic shock?
A. Very acute
B. Septic
C. * Fulminate
D. Recidive
E. Exhausting
41. Early complication of meningococcal meningitis is
A. Lesion of cranial nerves
B. Seizures
C. Central paresis
D. Meningococcemia
E. * Infectious toxic shock
42. Early complication of meningococcal meningitis is
38. A. Lesion of cranial nerves
B. Seizures
C. Central paresis
D. Meningococcemia
E. * Brain edema
43. Optimal day dose of pennicilinum for the patient with meningococcal meningitis (per 1 kg) is
A. 50 000 unites
B. 100 000 unites
C. 150 000 unites
D. 200 000 unites
E. * 300 000 unites
44. Reliable signs of meningococcal meningitis are
A. Widened retina veins
B. General cerebral symptoms
C. Blood leucocytosis and increased SR
D. Meningeal signs
E. * Neutrophil pleocytosis in CSF
45. Typical changes of CSF at tuberculosis meningitis
A. * Opalescent, lymphocytic neutrophil pleocytosis, decreased level of sugar and chlorides, fibrin plate
B. Xantochromic, lymphocytic – neutrophil pleocytosis
C. Opalescent, lymphocytic – neutrophil cytosis, decreased level of sugar
D. Opalescent, CSF pressure is increased, decreased level of sugar and chlorides, fibrin plate
E. Xantochromic, CSF pressure is increased, decreased level of chlorides, lymphocytic – neutrophil
cytosis
46. What is the most typical development of tuberculosis meningitis?
A. * Subacute
B. Acute
C. Chronic
D. Recidive
E. Fulminant
47. What are the most effective antituberculosis medications in the treatment of tuberculosis meningitis?
A. * Izoniazid, riphampicinum, pirazinamid
B. Izoniazid, riphampicinum, streptomicinum
C. Izoniazid, riphampicinum
D. Riphampicinum, streptomicinum
E. Riphampicinum, etambutolum
48. At lumbar puncture CSF flows under pressure 300 mm. It is transcendent, with slight opalescence. In
a day fibrin plate fell down, protein is 1,4 g/l, lymphocytes 600 in 1 mm3, sugar – 0,3 mmol/l. What
is the previous diagnosis?
A. Lymphocytic meningitis of Armstrong
B. Meningococcal meningitis
C. * Tuberculosis meningitis
D. Syphilitic meningitis
E. Parotid meningitis
49. For convex arachnoiditis all sings are typical except
39. A. Hemi , mono- , paresis
B. Hemihypoesthesia
C. Jackson attack
D. * Hemianopsia
E. Headache
50. For optic – chiasmal arachnoiditis all sings are typical except
A. Ambliopia
B. Anopsia
C. Optic nerve atrophy
D. * Hypoakusis
E. Scotoma
51. For arachnoiditis in ponto – cerebellar angel all sings are typical except
A. Ear noise
B. Hypoakusis
C. Dizziness
D. * Hypoosmia
E. Prosoplegia
52. What type of arachnoiditis is associated with well – expressed CSF – hypertensive syndrome?
A. Convex
B. Optic – chiasmal
C. Ponto – cerebellar
D. * Large cysterna
E. Interpeduncullar
53. 12-years-old girl on the fourth day of the disease was diagnosed tuberculosis meningitis. Which sugar
content in CSF will be found while examination in this girl?
A. * 2,0 mmol/l
B. 2,5 mmol/l
C. 3,8 mmol/l
D. 4,1 mmol/l
E. 4,4 mmol/l
54. 37-year-old patient suddenly noticed fever (39,8° С), chilling, severe headache, nausea, vomiting. In
neurological state unconsciousness, paresis of convergence, neck stiffness 4 fingers, positive
Kernig and Brudzinski sign on both sides. Doctor suspect meningitis. What additional methods can
prove the diagnosis?
A. EEG
B. Eye ground investigation
C. * LP
D. EchoES
E. CT – scan
55. 32 years old patient with chronic otitis in anamnesis was diagnosed abscess of temporal part of the
brain. Which department the patient should be hospitalized in?
A. Surgical
B. * Otolaryngological
C. Neurosurgical
D. Neurological
40. E. Emergency
56. The disease in 5 years old child started rapidly. It complains on severe headache, temperature is
39,5°С, there is vomiting. Positive meningeal signs. In CSF neutrophil pleocytosis. It was
diagnosed purulent meningitis. What is the main cause of the disease?
A. Pneumococcal
B. Staphylococcal
C. Hemophilus influenza
D. Intestinal coccus
E. * Meningococcal
57. The disease in 3 years old child started rapidly. There is fever up to 39,5° С, severe headache,
vomiting, positive meningeal signs. CSF is not quite clear, flows out under the pressure, protein
1,8 g/l, positive Pandi reaction (+++), sugar 2,2 mmol/l, chlorides 123 mmol/l, cytosis 2350х106
(neutrophils 80 %, lymphocytes 20 %). What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Brain tumor
B. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
C. Serous viral meningitis
D. * Purulent meningitis
E. Serous tuberculosis meningitis
58. The patient with meningococcal meningitis receives penicilinum during 7 days. During the last 4
days the temperature is normal. Meningeal signs are absent. When should be the antibiotic treatment
refused?
A. * At cytosis in CSF 100 and less, lymphocytes dominate
B. At absence of leucocytosis
C. At cytosis in CSF 100 and less, neutrophils dominate
D. At cytosis in CSF 150, lymphocytes dominate
E. At once
59. 25 years old patient was hospitalized by emergency car to the infectious department with complains
on fever (39,0° С), general weakness, severe headache with vomiting on height. General state is
severe, unconsciousness, neck stiffness. Lungs are clear while percussion and auscultation. In general
blood analysis leucocytosis 10,0х109/l. What investigation should be prescribed first of all for
diagnostics?
A. * LP
B. Immunological
C. Biochemical blood investigation
D. X – ray chest
E. EEG
60. In 21 years old girl the disease started with fever 39,0° С, headache, chilling, vomiting. Objectively
the temperature is 39,3 0С, pulse rate 76. Neck stiffness 4 fingers. Reflexes are increased. At LP
CSF flows under high pressure. It is not quite clear. Cytosis 1237 in 1 ml (84 % of neutrophils, 16
% of lymphocytes, Pandi reaction (++), protein 0. 66 g/l. Bacterioscopy revealed Gram coccus,
morphologically similar with meningococcus. Your diagnosis?
A. * Meningococcal infection purulent meningitis
B. Serous meningitis
C. Infectious mononucleosis
D. Secondary purulent meningitis
E. Meningococcal infection – serous meningitis
41. 61. 33 years patient with lung tuberculosis in anamnesis has sub febrile temperature, headache, nausea.
The disease lasts 3 weeks. In neurological state – sopor, meningeal syndrome, lesion of ІІІ, VІ, VІІ
CN’s. After LP he was diagnosed – tuberculosis meningitis. Which changes of CSF help us to put
diagnosis?
A. * Fibrin plate after 12 hours
B. High CSF pressure (600 mm)
C. Lymphocytic pleocytosis (500 cells in 1 mm3)
D. Cell – protein dissociation
E. Xantochromic color of CSF
62. What are the most common clinical signs of nervous system disturbances at primary HIV?
A. HIV – demention
B. Acute meningoencephalitis
C. * Atypical aseptic meningitis
D. Myelopathy
E. Sensory neuropathy
63. What is the preventive measure at tick encephalitis?
A. Insectophungicides
B. * Vaccination
C. Individual protective measures
D. Repellents
E. Ticks finding on skin
64. 10 years old girl after rheumatic myocarditis became inattentive tired. Objectively – she moves all
around all the time. Movements are quick, change each the other. Gate is similar to dancing. Put the
diagnosis.
A. * Small chorea
B. Hentington chorea
C. Viral encephalitis
D. Willson-Konovalov disease
E. Disseminated encephalomyelitis
65. 13-year-old patient noticed jerking movements of mimic muscles. The parents noticed that she
grimace all the time. In anamnesis there are often catching cold (throat diseases). Objectively:
reflexes are decreased, hyperkinesis present. Gate is dancing, speech is interrupting. Positive Cherni
sign. In blood – C – reactive protein (+++). What complication has developed in patient?
A. * Small chorea
B. Epileptic attack
C. Spasmophilia
D. Hysteria
E. Hepatocerebellar dystrophy
66. 35-year-old patient is being treated in infectious department. There is rash jn skin, conjunctive
enantema (Kiari – Avcina symptom). BP – 90/60. pulse – 110 per 1 min. temperature 38,2. on 5th
day appeared dysarthria, deviation of the tongue to the right, light paresis of left extremities, positive
meningeal signs. Titter of PA with riccetsia diagnosticum 1:160. What complication developed in
patient?
A. Ischemic stroke
B. * Acute meningoencephalitis
C. Acute infectious – toxic encephalopathy
D. Cerebral vasculitis
42. E. CSF – hypertensive syndrome
67. In patient developed lower paraplegia with anesthesia from umbilicus level on the background of
fever up to 38,3° С and chest pain. Blood analysis – ESR – 32 mm per hour, leucocytes 14,6·109.
What is the previous diagnosis?
A. Spinal tumor
B. Spinal ischemic stroke
C. * Acute myelitis
D. Spinal form of MS
E. Acute disseminated encephalomyelitis
68. In 3-year-old child developed clonic seizures on the background of fever up to 39° С and signs of
catching cold. CSF is without pathological changes. In 2 days after critical decreasing of temperature
all described symptoms disappeared.
A. * Encephalitic reaction on respiratory infection
B. Meningitis
C. Brain edema, respiratory infection
D. Seizures
E. Residual encephalopathy with epileptic attack
69. 5 years old child was observed due to measles. On the 8th day of the disease the temperature
increased up to 40°С,the child became sleepy, then lost her consciousness, appeared seizures, ptosis,
strabismus. What is the most probable cause of state worsening?
A. Meningitis
B. Febrile seizures
C. * Measles encephalitis
D. Association of respiratory infection
E. Neurotoxicosis
70. Typical amyotrophic signs of residual period at tick encephalitis?
A. Atrophy of supra – and subostal muscles
B. * Hanging head
C. Atrophic tongue
D. Atrophy of interostal hand muscles
E. shoulders’ atrophy
71. 6 months old baby with seizures, hyperthermia and darkened consciousness on the 2nd day of the
disease was diagnosed unknown etiology encephalitis. Which pharmaceutical medication should be
the first in this case?
A. Gentamicinum
B. Dexamethasonum
C. Immunoglobulin
D. Seduxenum
E. * Zovirax
72. 10-year-old child with rheumatism noticed quick involuntary movements in facial and extremities
muscles looking like grimacing. Which complication should we think about?
A. * Encephalitis
B. Meningitis
C. Autonomic – vascular dystonia
D. Neurosis
E. Cerebral palsy in children
43. 73. Typical clinical form of tick encephalitis is
A. Bulbar
B. * Poliomyelitic
C. Polioencephalomyelitic
D. Meningoencephalitic
E. Meningeal
74. 37-year-old patient during 3 months noticed developing of muscle and motor reaction slowness,
decreased memory on names, addresses, there are disturbances of cognitive functions, sleepiness,
untidiness, indifference to the people around him and his state. He lost 12 kg in weight. He noticed
intermittent fever. While examination there is generalized lymphadenopathy. Put clinical diagnosis.
A. * HIV
B. Herpetic encephalitis
C. Tuberculosis
D. Syphilis
E. Lympholeucosis
75. 34-year-old patient is being treated in traumatological department due to scull trauma. The state of
patient is very severe. Meningeal symptoms are positive. There is neck stiffness. CSF is not quite
clear, pressure – 600, protein – 0,9 g/l, cytosis 1200 (neutrophils 85 %, lymphocytes – 15 %). What
complication is developed in patient?
A. Meningoencephalitis
B. Viral meningitis
C. * Bacterial meningitis
D. Brain abscess
E. Intracranial hematoma
76. To the hospital was admitted 53 years old patient. She is afraid of light. There is neck stiffness – 3
sm, well – expressed Kernig sign, Brudzinski sign. Which additional method is the best one for this
disease diagnosis?
A. * LP
B. Bacterioscopy of “thick” drop
C. General blood analysis
D. Nasal and throat analysis
E. Serological investigation
77. 47 years old patient. Thoughts are not productive, elementary knowledge is absent, arithmetical tasks
(from 1 to 10) he performs with rough mistakes. Emotions are flat, interests are limited with
satisfying biological needs. While neurological examination there is anizokoria, Argil – Robertson
symptom, coordination disorders, tongue and eye lids, fingers tremor. Laboratory diagnostics has
shown positive Wasserman reaction in blood and CSF, RIF and RIBT, “paralytic curve”, reaction of
Lange. What type of dementia is in this patient?
A. Traumatic
B. Vascular (aterosclerosis)
C. * Syphilitic
D. Cerebral – atrophic (Pick disease, Alzhaimer disease)
E. Dissociative (pseudo dementia)
78. Typical feature of postencephalitic Parkinson disease is:
A. Myosis
B. Anizokoria
C. Paresis of vertical sight
44. D. * Vice verse Argil Robertson symptom
E. Bilateral ptosis
79. What viruses usually cause primary multi seasonal encephalitis?
A. * Coxacci enter viruses (А9, В3, В6), ЕСНО (2, 11, 24)
B. Unknown viruses
C. Herpes virus
D. Flu viruses
E. Cytomegalovirus
80. 14-year-old boy week after catching cold with fever suddenly noticed recurring fever up to 39 °С,
weakness of upper extremities and back pain. Positive meningeal signs, painful palpation of neck and
back muscles. Muscle force and tone is decreased in upper extremities. Reflexes on arms are low.
Pathological signs are absent. After 10 days weakness increased and hypotrophy of upper extremities
has developed. What is the most possible diagnosis in this child?
A. Myositis
B. * Poliomyelitis
C. Myeloradiculopolineuritis
D. Polimyositis
E. Cervico – thoracic radiculitis
81. Whay is the most common clinical signs of herpetic encephalitis?
A. * Fever, meningeal signs, epileptic attacks, focal signs
B. Prodromal period during 2 3 weeks, fever, meningeal signs
C. Fever, epileptic attacks, mono hemiparesis
D. Fever, hyperkinesis, lymphocytic pleocytosis in CSF up to hundreds cells in 1mcl.
E. fever, Kernig sign, Jackson attack
82. Name the most effective medications in the treatment of herpetic encephalitis.
A. Dehydration
B. DNA- za, interferonum
C. Interferonum, glucocorticoids
D. * Acyclovirum, virolex, zovirax, idoksiridinum, interferonum, glucocorticoids
E. Immunomodulators (Ig, T – activinum, Timalinum, Timozinum).
83. 11-year-old girl complains on headache, weakness. She became irritable, started grimacing. Signature
became worse. There is tachycardia, heart tone is weak. On the top the heart there is systolic
murmurs. In blood there is neutrophil leucocytosis, CRP (+++), ERS is 30mm per hour, seromucoid
content is 0,6 mmol/l, increased titter of ASL-0. Which disease is the most probable in this case?
A. * Rheumatism. Small chorea
B. Inertly progressed encephalitis
C. Neuroses of obtrusive movements
D. Asteno – vegetative syndrome
E. Non – rheumatic myocarditis
84. 1-year and a half old child has acute beginning of the disease. Temperature is 38,5° C. There is
headache, general weakness. On the fifth day of disease temperature decreased, in the right leg
appeared muscle pain. Active movements and reflexes in right leg are absent. Sensation is preserved.
What is the previous diagnosis?
A. Osteomyelitis
B. Coxal arthritis
45. C. Polineuropathy
D. * Poliomyelitis
E. Viral encephalitis
85. 18 years old girl got sick rapidly: running nose, coughing, abdominal pain, Temperature up to 38,5°
С. To the third day of disease those symptoms decreased. Temperature 36,6° С. On the fourth day
of disease weakness in right leg appeared. Objectively – active movements are absent, passive
movements are very painful. Hip muscles are flaccid. There is painful palpation of nervous trunks.
Knee and Achille reflexes on right leg are absent. In blood – leucocytes are 4,2*109, SR – 6 mm per
hour. What is the previous diagnosis?
A. * Poliomyelitis, spinal form
B. Poliomyelitis, pontine form
C. Botulism
D. Encephalomyelitis
E. Tick encephalitis
86. At chronic luetic meningitis usually is involved
A. * Optic nerve
B. Acoustical
C. Abducens
D. Oculomotorius
E. Trigeminal
87. The patient with diagnosis viral meningitis was admitted to the hospital. What meningitis belongs to
viral according to the etiology?
A. * Meningitis at infectious mononucleosis
B. Meningococcal epidemic meningitis
C. Pneumococcal meningitis
D. Streptococcal meningitis
E. Staphylococcal meningitis
88. The patient with diagnosis viral meningitis was admitted to the hospital. What meningitis belongs to
viral according to the etiology?
A. * Meningitis at epidemic parotitis
B. Meningococcal epidemic meningitis
C. Pneumococcal meningitis
D. Streptococcal meningitis
E. Staphylococcal meningitis
89. The patient with diagnosis viral meningitis was admitted to the hospital. What meningitis belongs to
viral according to the etiology?
A. * Tuberculosis meningitis
B. Meningococcal epidemic meningitis
C. Pneumococcal meningitis
D. Streptococcal meningitis
E. Staphylococcal meningitis
90. The patient with diagnosis serous meningitis was admitted to the hospital. What meningitis belongs
to serous according to the character of inflammatory process?
A. * Lymphocytic choriomeningitis
B. Meningococcal epidemic meningitis
C. Pneumococcal meningitis
46. D. Streptococcal meningitis
E. Staphylococcal meningitis
91. The patient with diagnosis serous meningitis was admitted to the hospital. What meningitis belongs
to serous according to the character of inflammatory process?
A. * Herpetic meningitis
B. Meningococcal epidemic meningitis
C. Pneumococcal meningitis
D. Streptococcal meningitis
E. Staphylococcal meningitis
92. The patient with diagnosis serous meningitis was admitted to the hospital. What meningitis belongs
to serous according to the character of inflammatory process?
A. * Enteroviral meningitis
B. Meningococcal epidemic meningitis
C. Pneumococcal meningitis
D. Streptococcal meningitis
E. Staphylococcal meningitis
93. The patient with diagnosis purulent meningitis was admitted to the hospital. What meningitis belongs
to purulent according to the character of inflammatory process?
A. * Meningococcal epidemic meningitis
B. Enteroviral meningitis
C. Herpetic
D. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis
E. Fungal
94. The patient with diagnosis purulent meningitis was admitted to the hospital. What meningitis belongs
to purulent according to the character of inflammatory process?
A. * Pneumococcal meningitis
B. Enteroviral meningitis
C. Herpetic
D. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis
E. Fungal
95. The patient with diagnosis purulent meningitis was admitted to the hospital. What meningitis belongs
to purulent according to the character of inflammatory process?
A. * Streptococcal meningitis
B. Enteroviral meningitis
C. Herpetic
D. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis
E. Fungal
96. The patient with diagnosis purulent meningitis was admitted to the hospital. What meningitis belongs
to purulent according to the character of inflammatory process?
A. * Staphylococcal meningitis
B. Enteroviral meningitis
C. Herpetic
D. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis
E. Fungal
97. The patient with diagnosis ALS is being treated in neurological hospital. What structure is involved
in pathological process?
47. A. * Anterior horns of spinal cord
B. Subcortical nuclei
C. Thalamus
D. Cerebellum
E. Hemispheres of brain
98. The patient with diagnosis ALS is being treated in neurological hospital. What structure is involved
in pathological process?
A. * Motor nuclei of ІХ, Х, ХІ, ХІІ Cranial nerves
B. Subcortical nuclei
C. Thalamus
D. Cerebellum
E. Hemispheres of brain
48. Назва наукового напрямку (модуля): Семестр: 1
Test Inflammatory diseases
Опис:
8 term
Перелік питань:
1. A 25-year old patient got sick gradually. Тemperature raised up to 37-37,6 С. She suffers from
moderate headache, rough dry coughing, pain in throat, dysphonia. While examination the patient is
slow. She has photobia, neck stiffness, mild expressed Kernig and Brudzinski signs. What diagnostic
method is the most important in this case?
A. * LP
B. Bacterioscopy of “thick” drop
C. General blood analysis
D. nasal and pharynx smear
E. Serologic exam
2. A 16-year old patient has complains on headache in frontal and temporal parts, subeyebrow arches,
vomiting on the top of headache, pain while movements of eye bulbs, pain in joints. Objectively –
she is excited. The temperature is 39 °C. Pulse is 110 per min. There are tonic and clonic seizures.
Meningeal signs are mild expressed. What is your diagnosis?
A. * Flu with brain edema
B. Flu, classic course of the disease
C. Respiratory-syncytial infection
D. para-flu
E. adenovirus infection
3. A 40-year old patient suffers from meningococcal meningitis. He receives huge doses of penicillin
during 7 days. During the last 4 days the temperature is 36,6-36,8 ° C. Meningeal signs are absent.
What are the most optimal conditions for antibiotic refusing?
A. Hypertermia is absent; CSF is cloudy, increased cellular and protein content
B. There is no leucocytosis and increased quantity of cones in blood
C. At cytosis 100 and less in CSF, neutrophils dominate
D. * At cytosis 100 and less in CSF, lymphocytes dominate
E. At cytosis 150 in CSF, lymphocytes dominate
4. The patient with chronic otitis complains on severe headache, shivering. Pulse is 58 per min,
temperature is 38,2 °C. Patient is in spoor. While examination it was found neck stiffness, positive
meningeal signs on both sides. In general blood analysis leucocytes account is 19х109/l, ERS is 32
mm per hour. CSF is cloudy, cytosis is 60 (neutrophils 85 %, lymphocytes – 15 %). What
complication has this patient?
A. * Meningitis
B. Meningoencephalitis
C. Encephalitis
D. Meningism
E. CSF hypertension
5. At summer a 8-years old child after being on the beach got sick. In the evening there is vomiting,
headache, fever. Meningeal signs are positive. At LP – CSF is transparent, that flows under high
pressure. Cytosis is 350 cells in 1 mm3, polinuclears - 20 %, lymphocytes - 80 %, sugar - 2,21
mmol/l, protein - 0,66 g/l, Pandi reaction ++. What is your diagnosis?
A. Tuberculosis meningitis
B. Purulent meningitis
C. * Serous meningitis of enteroviral etiology
D. Food Toxic infection
E. Acadian encephalitis
49. 6. A 17-year old boy got sick. The beginning of the disease was acute. In the morning he noticed severe
headache, vomiting, fever up to 39,9 °C. He used some anti fever drugs, but the state got worse. In
the evening he lost his consciousness. Meningeal signs are well expressed. What is your diagnosis?
A. Sepsis, infectious-toxic shock
B. Typhus
C. Viral meningoencephalitis
D. * Meningococcal infection, meningitis
E. Staphilococcal food intoxication
7. The patient was diagnosed meningococcal meningitis. According to the prescription he has got huge
doses of Benzilpeniccilinum. During the last 4 days his temperature is 36,6-36,8 °C. Meningeal signs
are absent. What is the criteria for discontinuation of antibiotics?
A. * 100 cells and less in CSF, lymphocytes dominate
B. 10 days of antibiotic therapy is enough
C. 7 days of antibiotic therapy is enough if there is no eukocytosis in blood and cones are not
increased in blood
D. 100 cells and less in CSF, neutrophils dominate
E. 7 days of antibiotic therapy is enough if cytosis in CSF is 120 cells and less, lymphocytes dominate
8. A 25-year old woman suddenly felt severe headache, nausea, neck pain, low back pain. She was
hospitalized to the clinics. Objectively: hemorrhagic rash, temperature is 39,0° C. Meningeal signs
are well expressed. There is light, tactile, pain hyperesthesia. General blood analysis: leucocytes
content is 25*109/l, ESR-29 mm per hour. CSF is cloudy. There is neutrophil pleocytosis,
meningococus in CSF. What is your diagnosis?
A. Staphylococcal meningitis
B. * meningococcal meningitis
C. Tuberculosis meningitis
D. Viral meningitis
E. Pneumococcal meningitis
9. A 45-year old patient with open cranial trauma is in traumatology department. His state is severe.
Meningeal signs are well expressed. There is neck stiffness. CSF is cloudy, pressure is 600 mm,
protein is 0,9 gram per l, cytosis is 1200 (neutrophils -85 %, lymphocytes-15 %). What complication
developed in patient?
A. Meningoencephalitis
B. Viral meningitis
C. * Bacterial meningitis
D. Brain abscess
E. Intracranial hematoma
10. The patient is 31 years old. The disease developed with headache, vomiting, fever. In the evening he
noticed neck stiffness, Kernig sign. On mucosa membrane of nose and lips are herpetic vesicles.
There are no focal signs. What disease can be suspected?
A. * meningococcal meningitis
B. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
C. Herpetic encephalitis
D. Brain abscess
E. Brain hemorrhage
11. A 27-year old patient is being treated in tuberculosis hospital. During the last 3 weeks he suffers from
severe headache. There are positive meningeal signs. There is no paresis. What is your previous
diagnosis?
50. A. * Meningitis
B. Encephalitis
C. Brain tumor
D. Cerebral arachnoiditis
E. Brain vessels endarteritis
12. Young man with exacerbation of chronic otitis suffers from headache, vomiting, fever. In the evening
he noticed neck stiffness, positive Kernig sign. There are no focal signs. What disease can be
suspected?
A. Brain abscess
B. subarachnoid hemorrhage
C. encephalitis
D. * secondary meningitis
E. Brain hemorrhage
13. A 32-year old patient had flu with bronchitis, fever, severe headache, nausea, vomiting, and pain in
muscles of abdomen, chest pain, ulcers on pharynx. While examination there are positive Kernig
sign, neck stiffness. CSF: cytosis up to 400 cells in 1 mm3. What is your diagnosis?
A. * Aseptic acute meningitis (Coxaki)
B. quinsy
C. Epidemic encephalitis
D. subarachnoid hemorrhage
E. Diphtheria
14. The patient was diagnosed meningococcal meningitis. Fever raised up to 38,2 °C. Patient is slow.
While examination there is neck stiffness, positive meningeal signs on both sides. In general blood
analysis: content of leucocytes is 19х109/l, SR - 32 mm per hour. What changes of CSF are typical
for this pathology?
A. * Neutrophil pleocytosis
B. Lymphocyte pleocytosis
C. Fibrin plate
D. Xantochromic CSF
E. Protein-cellular dissociation
15. The patient was made LP. CSF is transparent liquid under high pressure. Cytosis is 350 cells in 1
mm3, polinuclears are 20 %, lymphocytes are 80 % , sugar is 1,21 mmol per l, protein is 0,66 g per l,
Pandi reaction ++. What meningitis is associated with such changes of CSF?
A. Meningococcal
B. Staphylococcal
C. Pneumococcal
D. * Tuberculosis
E. Streptococcal
16. The patient suffers from severe headache, nausea, low back pain and neck pain. There is hemorrhagic
rash. Fever is up to 39,0 C. There are positive meningeal signs, pain, light and tactile hyperesthesia.
General blood analysis: leucocytes content is 20х109/l, ERS-27 mm per hour. CSF is purulent, there
is neutrophil pleocytosis. What can cause such disease?
A. Staphylococcus
B. * Meningococcus
C. Streptococcus
D. Bacillus of Koh
E. Spirochete pallidum
51. 17. Young man suffers from headache, vomiting, fever. In the evening the doctor diagnosed meningeal
syndrome. There is herpetic rash on mucosa membrane of lips and nose. There are no focal
neurological signs. What symptom did the doctor find?
A. * Kernig sign
B. lower paraplegia
C. segmental type of sensory disorders
D. true urine incontinence
E. motor aphasia
18. A 35-year old patient got sick acutely. In the morning he noticed severe headache, vomiting, fever.
The state got worse during the day. In the evening he lost consciousness. Objectively – there is well
expressed neck stiffness, positive Kernig sign. In general blood analysis blood leucocytes content is
18,0х109/l. What changes of CSF is typical for this patient?
A. Bloody
B. Xantochromic
C. * purulent
D. Opalescent
E. transparent
19. A 23-year old patient is being treated in tuberculosis department with complains on headache, neck
stiffness, positive Kernig sign, Brudzinski sign, and eye movements’ disorders. After LP the
headache decreased. What changes of CSF will be typical for this patient?
A. Bloody
B. Xantochromic
C. purulent
D. * Opalescent
E. Transparent
20. The teacher asked student about late complications of meningococcal meningitis. The student made
one mistake. What was the mistake?
A. CSF hypertension
B. Focal signs
C. Cognitive disorders
D. * Seizure
E. Acute brain edema
21. The teacher asked student about early complications of meningococcal meningitis. The student made
one mistake. What was the mistake?
A. Acute Brain edema
B. Bacterial endotoxic shock
C. Cutting – in syndrome
D. Syndrome of disseminated inner coagulation
E. * Seizure
22. The patient was diagnosed meningococcal meningitis. Objectively there are general-infectious,
general-cerebral, meningeal syndromes and changes in CSF. What symptom does not belong to
general-cerebral syndrome?
A. Headache
B. nausea
C. Vomiting
D. Seizure
52. E. * paresis, plegia
23. The beginning of the disease in 5-year old child was acute. Objectively the child is excited,
complains on headache, vomiting. There is fever up to 39,5 С. It was diagnosed acute meningitis.
What syndrome is not typical for meningitis?
A. general infectious
B. Meningeal
C. CSF – changes
D. General – cerebral
E. * Focal
24. The beginning of the disease in 15-year old girl was acute. Objectively she is excited, has complains
on headache, vomiting. There is fever up to 39,5 С. Meningeal signs are positive. In CSF there is
neutrophil pleocytosis. It was diagnosed purulent meningitis. What symptom doesn’t belong to
general- infectious syndrome?
A. Fever
B. * Meningeal signs
C. Shivering
D. Tachicardia
E. Tachipnoe
25. The beginning of the disease in a 19-year old boy was acute. Objectively he complains on headache,
vomiting. There is fever up to 39,5 С. Meningeal signs are positive. In CSF there is neutrophil
pleocytosis. He was diagnosed purulent meningitis. What dose of Benzilpennicillinum is prescribed
for the treatment of purulent meningitis?
A. * 300 000 unites per kg
B. 500 000 unites per kg
C. 100 000 unites per kg
D. 1000 000 unites per kg
E. 10 000 unites per kg
26. The patient with meningococcal meningitis is being treated in neurological hospital. He has already
taken a course of Benzilpennicilinum. The state got better. Meningeal signs are absent. What are the
criteria of refusing from antibiotics in the course of treatment of purulent meningitis?
A. * Cells content in CSF is less then 100 cells, 75 % of them are lymphocytes
B. Cells content in CSF is less then 200 cells, 75 % of them are neutrophils
C. Cells content in CSF is less then 150 cells, 25 % of them are lymphocytes
D. Cells content in CSF is less then 10 cells, 50 % of them are neutrophils
E. Cells content in CSF is less then 1000 cells, 15 % of them are lymphocytes
27. A 38-year old patient was diagnosed Parkinson syndrome (chronic stage of epidemic encephalitis
Economo). What medicine does not belong to the pathogenetic treatment of this disease?
A. cyclodol
B. Romparkin
C. parkopan
D. Midantan
E. * Ridazini
53. 28. The disease started from fever up to 39,0 С, headache, shivering, vomiting. While examination neck
stiffness was observed. LP – muddy, CSF under high pressure, cytosis is 1237 cells in 1 ml (84 %
neutrophils, 16 % lymphocytes, Pandi reaction ++, protein is 0,66 g per l. Gram (-) coccus were
found. Morphologically it looked like meningococcal. The patient was prescribed adequate
etiological, pathogenetic and symptomatic treatment. What medication doesn’t belong to
desintoxication therapy?
A. Rheopoliglucin
B. Reosorbilact
C. Neohemodes
D. Hekodes
E. * Trental
29. The disease started from fever up to 39,5 С, headache, shivering, vomiting. Meningeal signs are
positive. LP was made. The previous diagnosis is meningococcal meningitis. The patient was
prescribed adequate etiological, pathogenetic and symptomatic treatment. What medication doesn’t
belong to dehydration therapy?
A. Lasix
B. Mannit
C. Manitol
D. Albumin
E. * Pentoxiphillinum
30. The disease started 1 week after flu. Objectively there is severe headache, fever up to 40 С, vomiting,
well expressed Kernig sign, Brudzinski sign, neck stiffness, hemorrhagic rash on skin of trunk and
arms. The patient was diagnosed meningococcal meningitis. He was prescribed adequate etiological,
pathogenetic and symptomatic treatment. What medication doesn’t belong to desensibilization
therapy?
A. Suprastin
B. Tavegil
C. Dimedrol
D. Lorantadin
E. * Kavinton
31. The patient is being treated in tuberculosis hospital with lung tuberculosis. New signs appeared –
headache, eye movements’ disorders. Neurologist diagnosed tuberculosis meningitis. What
localization is typical for tuberculosis meningitis?
A. * Basal
B. Convex
C. Generalized
D. Primary
E. Secondary
32. A 10-year old boy got sick. The disease developed rapidly. In the evening he noticed vomiting,
headache, fever. Meningeal signs are positive. LP – transparent liquid under high pressure, cytosis is
350 cells in 1 mm3, polinuclears – 20 %, lymphocytes – 80 % , sugar content is 1,21 mmol per l,
protein - 0,66 g per l , Pandi reaction ++.The patient was diagnosed enteroviral meningitis. What
medication belongs to antiviral medications?
A. * Acyclovir
B. Benzilpennicilinum
C. laferon
D. Ampiox
E. RNA
54. 33. A 6-month old boy with seizures, hyperthermia and consciousness disorders on the second day of
disease was diagnosed “Encephalitis of unknown origin”. What syndrome is not typical for
encephalitis?
A. general-infectious
B. General –cerebral
C. Focal
D. * Meningeal
E. All above
34. A 45-year old man works in the wood. He was diagnosed Acaridae encephalitis. What way of
contamination in this case is the most typical?
A. * usage of milk from wild goats
B. blood transfusion
C. contamination from sick person
D. contamination from viral carrier
E. hereditary way
35. A 40-year old patient was diagnosed Acaridae encephalitis. What medication belongs to the specific
treatment of Acaridae encephalitis?
A. RNA-asa
B. glucocorticoids
C. * gamma- globulin
D. vitamin therapy
E. dehydration
36. A 45-year old patient works in the wood. He was diagnosed Acaridae encephalitis. What medication
belongs to the nonspecific treatment of Acaridae encephalitis?
A. gamma- globulin
B. Serum immunoglobulin
C. Serum of reconvalescent
D. Blood transfusion from people that had acaridae encephalitis in anamnesis
E. * Glucocorticoids
37. A 12-year old patient has complains nsevere headache, shivering. In anamnesis presents chronic
otitis. Pulse is 54/min. Temperature is 38.2 C. There is neck stiffness, positive meningeal signs in
both sides. General blood analysis: content of leucocytes is 19x109
/l. ERS is 32 mm per hour. CSF is
cloudy, cytosis is 6000/ml3 (neutrophiles – 85%, lymphocytes – 15%). What complication has this
patient?
A. * Meningitis
B. Meningoencephalitis
C. Encephalitis
D. Meningism
E. CSF hypertension
38. The onset of the disease was rapid. In the morning there were severe headache, multiple vomiting,
temperature increased up to 39.9 C. The patient used antipyretics but the state was severe. In the
evening he lost his consciousness, was excited. There were well expressed meningeal signs. Put
diagnosis?
A. Sepsis, infectious – toxic shock
B. Typhus, spotted fever
C. Viral meningoencephalitis
D. * Meningococcal infection, meningitis
55. E. Staphylococcal food stuffs poisoning
39. A 12-year old patient complains on severe headache, nausea, lower back pain and neck pain. She was
hospitalized to the clinic. There is a hemorrhagic rash on the body. Temperature is 39 C. Well
expressed meningeal signs. Photophobia and phonophobia is present. General blood analysis:
leucocytes is 25x109/l, ERS - 31 mm per hour. CSF is cloudy, neutrophil pleocytosis, meningococci
are present. Put diagnosis.
A. Staphylococcal meningitis
B. * Meningococcal meningitis
C. Tuberculosis meningitis
D. Viral meningitis
E. Pneumococcal meningitis
40. A 34–year old patient is being treated in orthopedic department with diagnosis – Cranial trauma. His
condition is severe. Positive meningeal signs such as neck stiffness and Kernigs' symptom. CSF is
cloudy. CSF analysis: protein content is 0.9 g/l, cytosis is 1200 (neutrophils – 85%, lymphocytes –
15%). What complication is in patient?
A. Meningoencephalitis
B. Viral meningitis
C. * Bacterial meningitis
D. Brain abscess
E. Intracranial hematoma
41. The patient is suffering from shivering, headache and vomiting, increased temperature up to 38.5 C.
In the evening neck stiffness and positive Kernig sign appeared. On mucosal membrane is herpetic
rash, on the hips and abdomen - hemorrhagic rash. No focal neurological signs. previous diagnosis.
A. * Meningococcal meningitis
B. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
C. Herpetic encephalitis
D. Brain abscess
E. Brain hemorrhage
42. The patient is being treated from lung tuberculosis. He complains on severe headaches last 3 weeks.
Meningeal signs are positive. There is no paresis of extremities, sensory disorders. What is your
previous diagnosis?
A. * Meningitis
B. Encephalitis
C. Brain tumor
D. Cerebral arachnoiditis
E. Brain vessels endarteritis
43. A 27–year old patient was diagnosed respiratory infection with bronchitis. Temperature increased up
to 39 C. He complains on headache, nausea, vomiting, chest pain and abdominal pain. There are
ulcers on mucosal membrane. There is positive Kernig sign, neck stiffness. CSF: cytosis up to 400
cells. What is your previous diagnosis?
A. * Acute meningitis (Coxacci)
B. Quinsy
C. Epidemic encephalitis
D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
E. Diphtheria
56. 44. A 23–year old woman after psycho – emotional and physical straining suddenly noticed severe
headache, increased temperature up to 38, meningeal signs. What additional method of diagnostics
should be done in this case?
A. * LP
B. CT scan
C. Echo – EG
D. EEG
E. MRI
45. A 23–year old patient on the background of respiratory infection and chest pain suddenly noticed
increased temperature up to 38.5 C, severe headache and pain in eye balls, multiple vomiting.
Hyperesthesia and neck stiffness is present. Positive Kernigs' and Brudzinski signs. Papillar edema is
present. CSF analysis – transcendent, cytosis is 40 cells due to lymphocytes. Glucose level is 3.1
mmol/l. Wasserman reaction is negative. After LP - headache decreased. Put diagnosis
A. * Arachnoiditis
B. purulent meningitis
C. tuberculosis meningitis
D. encephalitis
E. serous meningitis
46. A 25-year old patient got sick gradually. Тemperature is 37.0-37,6° С, there is moderate headache,
rough dry coughing, throat pain. While examination patient is torpid, photophobia is present. There is
rigidity, slightly expressed Kernig sign, Brudzinski sign. Which additional method can help us to put
the diagnosis?
A. * Lumbar puncture
B. bacterioscopy of thick blood drop
C. General blood analysis
D. serological examination
E. Biochemical analysis
47. A 25-year old patient one week ago noticed general weakness, fever, headache, irritation. During the
last 2 days he suffered from severe headache. He became sleeping, tired, noticed double vision.
Objectively – temperature is 38,1. Contact is difficult. There is left eye lid ptosis, outward cross eye,
anizokoria S>D. Meningeal syndrome is well expressed. At LP – CSF flows out under the pressure
300 mm. CSF is transparent, with slight opalescention. After 24 hours cloth formation is visible.
Protein content is 1,4 g/l, lymphocytes content is 600 in mm3, sugar level is 0,3 mmol/l. What is the
previous diagnosis?
A. Lymphocytic meningitis of Armstrong
B. meningococcal meningitis
C. * .Tuberculosis meningitis
D. Syphilitic meningitis
E. parotid meningitis
48. The patient is 25 years old. Disease started rapidly. In the morning he noticed severe headache,
vomiting, fever (up to 39,9). He used some antipiretics, but his state got worse. In the evening he lost
consciousness. Objectively – well expressed neck rigidity, positive Kernigs' sign. There is
leucocytosis in blood (18,0x109/l). What is the most probable diagnosis in this patient?
A. Viral meningoencephalitis
B. * Bacterial meningitis
C. typhus
D. Sepsis, infectious – toxic shock
E. hypertoxic form of influenza
57. 49. A 16-year old patient was admitted to the hospital on the 6th day of disease. The disease started with
running nose and coughing. Temperature increased up to 37,7 °С. On the 5 th day of disease the
temperature increased up to 40 ° С. The state got worse, he noticed weakness, severe headache,
vomiting which was not associated with usage of meal. General state is severe, coma, pupils are
dilated, and there is no reaction to the light. Positive meningeal signs. Heart tones are not clear,
tachicardia. BP is 100/50. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. * Meningococcal meningitis
B. Adenoviral infection
C. Infectious mononucleosis
D. Enteroviral disease
E. Ornitosis
50. The patient is 27 years old. On the second day of the disease he started to complain of severe
headache, vomiting. Temperature is 39,5 C°. Pulse is 120 per min., BP is 130/80. State is severe. The
patient is in consciousness. In bed he is lying in enforced position with his head backwards. Skin is
clear. There is well expressed rigidity, positive Kernig sign and Brudzinski sign. What is the main
cause of the this syndrome?
A. Lesion of nuclei of CN’s
B. CSF hypotension
C. * CSF hypertension
D. Suprarenal glands hemorrhages
E. Hyperthermia
51. A 33-year old woman complains from headache, nausea, vomiting, and seizures. Disease started
yesterday after catching cold. Temperature is 40 0С. Somnolence. There is rigidity, positive Kernigs'
sign on both sides, general hyperesthesia. General blood analysis: leucocytosis, increased ERS. CSF
is not quite clear, yellow. What changes of CSF is the most typical?
A. * Neutrophil pleocytosis
B. Lymphocytic pleocytosis
C. protein – cell dissociation
D. Bloody CSF
E. Xantochromic CSF
52. A 6-month old baby with seizures, hyperthermia and unconsciousness on the second day of the
disease was diagnosed Encephalitis of unknown etiology. Which medication should be given the first
in this case?
A. Seduxen
B. Immunoglobulin
C. * Zovirax
D. Hentamicinum
E. Dexamethasone
53. A 12-year old boy on the fifth day of measles complains on delirium, generalized epileptic attack,
and right – side hemiparesis, choreoathetoid hyperkinesis. What treatment is the most effective?
A. Vascular therapy
B. Antibiotics
C. * Hormonal treatment
D. Desensibilization
E. Analgetics