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1. [10 points] Show that if there exists a pseudorandom function family F = { F } N , where the
family F consists of functions from { 0 , 1 } to { 0 , 1 } then there exist one way functions. 2. [10
points] Does the implication still hold if the family F consists of functions from { 0 , 1 } to { 0 ,
1 } ?

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