1. [10 points] Show that if there exists a pseudorandom function family F = { F } N , where the family F consists of functions from { 0 , 1 } to { 0 , 1 } then there exist one way functions. 2. [10 points] Does the implication still hold if the family F consists of functions from { 0 , 1 } to { 0 , 1 } ?.