Question 1 This characteristic allows fungi to withstand heat .docx

Question 1
This characteristic allows fungi to withstand heat and drought
conditions.
A.
cell walls
B.
mycelia
C.
hyphae
D.
specialized organelles
E.
spores
5 points
Question 2
Green algae such as Ulva demonstrate an alteration of
generations. The diploid phase is called the
A.
embryo.
B.
sporophyte generation.
C.
gametophyte generation.

D.
diploid generation.
E.
zygote.
5 points
Question 3
In general, mammals are not good at dispersing chili plant seeds
because
A.
the seeds die as they pass through the digestive tract.
B.
chili seeds are dispersed mainly by the wind.
C.
the mammals do not travel very far before they release the chili
seeds.
D.
the chili seeds do not stick to the mammals’ fur.
E.
the mammals are the main pollinators for the chili plant.
5 points
Question 4
Cnidarians and ctenophores are similar in that they both have
A.
nematocysts.
B.
mesoderm.

C.
radial symmetry.
D.
a pseudocoel.
E.
a digestive tract with two openings.
5 points
Question 5
Which of the following characteristics is not shared by typical
birds and mammals?
A.
milk production
B.
four limbs
C.
four-chambered heart
D.
endothermy
E.
insulating skin structures
5 points
Question 6
Plants have adapted to dry land by evolving all of the following
except
A.

secreting a waxy coating to prevent water loss.
B.
forms of chlorophyll more efficient at capturing light.
C.
structures to protect reproductive cells and embryos.
D.
association with mycorrhizae to improve mineral uptake.
E.
tissues to conduct water through the plant.
5 points
Question 7
In cnidarians, nematocysts are important in
A.
excretion of wastes.
B.
obtaining prey.
C.
obtaining oxygen from the water.
D.
food digestion.
E.
movement.
5 points
Question 8
It is generally thought that four critical innovations arose

during the evolution of our ape-like ancestors into humans. All
of the following are innovations except
A.
use of brain power for abstract thought.
B.
expansion of the human brain.
C.
development of the opposable thumb.
D.
toolmaking.
E.
bipedalism.
5 points
Question 9
Fungi exhibit certain characteristics. One of these
characteristics is that they
A.
reproduce using seeds and pollen.
B.
are capable of carrying on photosynthesis.
C.
lack cell nuclei.
D.
are prokaryotes.
E.

reproduce using spores.
5 points
Question 10
Which of the following is not a characteristic differentiating
Neanderthals from modern humans?
A.
Neanderthals were shorter.
B.
Neanderthals had projecting brow ridges.
C.
Neanderthals were stronger.
D.
Neanderthals had larger noses.
E.
Neanderthals had smaller brains.
5 points
Question 11
Which of the following are adaptations to land of both
gymnosperms and angiosperms but are lacking in ferns and
mosses?
A.
roots, stems, and leaves
B.
fruits and flowers
C.
vascular system

D.
spores
E.
pollen and seeds
5 points
Question 12
It is generally thought that animals have undergone four major
physiological and anatomical innovations during their
evolution. These are (in no particular order)
A.
development of the versatile forelimb, multicellularity, origin
of patterns of embryonic development, development of tissues.
B.
multicellularity, bilateral symmetry, origin of patterns of
embryonic development, development of tissues.
C.
origin of patterns of embryonic development, development of
the versatile forelimb, origin of the multichambered heart,
multicellularity.
D.
bilateral symmetry, development of tissues, origin of the
multichambered heart, origin of patterns of embryonic
development.
E.
development of tissues, photosynthesis, bilateral symmetry,
multicellularity.
5 points
Question 13

In plants, the secondary metabolites are primarily responsible
for
A.
protection against ultraviolet radiation.
B.
food gathering.
C.
overcoming air pollutants.
D.
nutrition.
E.
defense.
5 points
Question 14
Lichens are
A.
only found growing on living matter.
B.
insensitive to changes in the environment.
C.
symbiotic associations between a fungus and an alga.
D.
capable of causing some obscure diseases.
E.

parasitic interactions between a fungus and an alga.
5 points
Question 15
The segmented worms of the phylum Annelida
A.
have an open circulatory system.
B.
possess setae on each segment.
C.
move by use of flagella.
D.
are acoelomate.
E.
display radial symmetry.
5 points
Question 16
All of the following are parts of a flower except the
A.
cuticle.
B.
fruit.
C.
carpel.
D.
ovary.

E.
stamen.
5 points
Question 17
Which of the following adaptations to life on land is found in
both insects and modern reptiles?
A.
metamorphosis from a larval form
B.
tracheae to distribute oxygen
C.
ability to fly
D.
two pairs of walking legs
E.
body surfaces that resist evaporation
5 points
Question 18
All members of the phylum Chordata share
A.
tails present throughout their lives.
B.
a notochord present sometime in their lives.
C.
gills present throughout their lives.

D.
exoskeletons.
E.
a vertebral column.
5 points
Question 19
Mammals have two traits that set them apart from all other
animals. These are
A.
four-chambered heart and milk production.
B.
body hair or fur, and milk production.
C.
body hair or fur, and being homeothermic.
D.
amniotic eggs and milk production.
E.
four-chambered heart and body hair or fur.
5 points
Question 20
In bryophytes, the rhizoids
A.
serve as attachment structures.
B.
are involved in reproduction.

C.
obtain nutrients.
D.
obtain water.
E.
lure possible prey.
Title
ABC/123 Version X
1
Case Study – Election Results
When an election for political office takes place, the television
networks cancel regular programming and instead, provide
election coverage. When the ballots are counted, the results are
reported. However, for important offices such as president or
senator in large states, the networks actively compete to see
which will be the first to predict a winner. This is done through
exit polls, wherein a random sample of voters who exit the
polling booth is asked for whom they voted. From the data, the
sample proportion of voters supporting the candidates is
computed. Hypothesis testing is applied to determine whether
there is enough evidence to infer the leading candidate will
garner enough votes to win.
Suppose in the exit poll from the state of Florida during the
2000 year elections, the pollsters recorded only the votes of the
two candidates who had any chance of winning: Democrat Al
Gore and Republican George W. Bush. In a sample of 765
voters, the number of votes cast for Al Gore was 358 and the

number of votes cast for George W. Bush was 407. The network
predicts the candidate as a winner if he wins more than 50% of
the votes. The polls close at 8:00 P.M. Based on the sample
results, conduct a one-sample hypothesis test to determine if the
networks should announce at 8:01 P.M. the Republican
candidate George W. Bush will win the state. Use 0.10 as the
significance level (α).Case Study – SpeedX
SpeedX, a large courier company, sends invoices to customers
requesting payment within 30 days. The bill lists an address,
and customers are expected to use their own envelopes to return
their payments. Currently, the mean and standard deviation of
the amount of time taken to pay bills are 24 days and 6 days,
respectively. The chief financial officer (CFO) believes
including a stamped self-addressed envelope would decrease the
amount of time. She calculates the improved cash flow from a
2-day decrease in the payment period would pay for the costs of
the envelopes and stamps. You have an MBA from the
University of Phoenix, and work for SpeedX as a business
analyst. One of your job duties is to run analytics and present
the results to the senior management for critical decision-
making. You see this as an opportunity to utilize some of the
skills you gained in the Statistics course. Because of your
strong understanding and background in inferential statistics,
you decide to take up this important assignment. You have
learned any analysis in inferential statistics starts with
sampling. To test the CFO’s belief, you decide to randomly
select 220 customers and propose to include a stamped self-
addressed envelope with their invoices. The CFO accepts your
proposal and allows you to run a pilot study. You then record
the numbers of days until payment is received. Using your
statistical expertise and skills you gained in the class, conduct a
one-sample hypothesis test and determine if you can convince
the CFO to conclude that the plan will be profitable. Use 0.10
and the significance level (α).

Copyright © XXXX by University of Phoenix. All rights
reserved.
Copyright © 2017 by University of Phoenix. All rights reserved.
Question 1
Oxygen built up in the atmosphere approximately 2 billion years
ago and
A.
helped to form the ozone layer that is so important to life today.
B.
could not have occurred without the oxygen coming from outer
space.
C.
occurred due to carbon dioxide being split by lightning strikes.
D.
destroyed ozone forming more oxygen.
E.
occurred because aerobic organisms required the oxygen.
5 points
Question 2
Prions are composed of
A.
DNA.
B.
protein.
C.

DNA and protein.
D.
DNA, RNA, and protein.
E.
RNA.
5 points
Question 3
The endosymbiont hypothesis suggests that the mitochondria of
eukaryotic cells are descended from captured
A.
chemoautotrophic bacteria.
B.
cyanobacteria.
C.
archaebacteria.
D.
aerobic bacteria.
E.
eukaryotic algae.
5 points
Question 4
When taxonomists classify organisms using a phylogenetic
approach, they are most concerned with
A.
ingroups.

B.
cladists.
C.
outgroups.
D.
ancestral traits.
E.
derived traits.
5 points
Question 5
Atmospheric chemists think that Earth’s first atmosphere
A.
was very similar to today’s atmosphere.
B.
consisted of carbon in the form of carbon monoxide.
C.
contained no oxygen atoms.
D.
consisted of carbon in the form of carbon dioxide.
E.
contained nitrogen in the form of ammonia and nitrogen gas.
5 points
Question 6
What term is used to indicate a characteristic that is shared and
inherited from a common ancestor?

A.
analogous trait
B.
outgroups
C.
cladistic trait
D.
homologous trait
E.
derived trait
5 points
Question 7
Most bacteria are
A.
symbionts.
B.
chemoautotrophs.
C.
heterotrophs.
D.
photoautotrophs.
E.
microbial predators.
5 points
Question 8

During which geological era did Pangea break apart?
A.
Cenozoic
B.
Paleozoic
C.
Proterozoic
D.
Archean
E.
Mesozoic
5 points
Question 9
What is the main difference between protists and bacteria?
A.
Bacteria have DNA, protists do not.
B.
Bacteria are always gram-negative, protists are gram-positive
C.
Protists are unicellular, bacteria are multicellular.
D.
Protists cannot cause infections, bacteria can
E.
Protists have a nucleus, bacteria do not
5 points

Question 10
All but one of the following are false regarding protists.
Identify the true statement.
A.
Most protists are single-celled organisms; some are
multicellular.
B.
All protists are single-celled organisms.
C.
Protists have cell walls composed mainly of peptidoglycans.
D.
Protists are prokaryotic.
E.
Protists do not have the ability to move on their own.
5 points
Question 11
The Cambrian Explosion provided a wealth of fossil remains for
scientists to uncover. Many of the animals from this time period
had tough skins or shells. This would
A.
make these animals more desirable to predators.
B.
protect the animal from osmotic pressure.
C.
allow the animals to move into different environments easily.

D.
be a disadvantage for these organisms and lead to their death
and fossil formation.
E.
protect the animal from predators.
5 points
Question 12
Endospores form
A.
to produce two offspring from every one parental cell.
B.
in response to adverse conditions.
C.
as a means of genetic recombination.
D.
when the environmental conditions are favorable.
E.
during binary fission.
5 points
Question 13
Eukaryotic cells are thought to have
A.
appeared about 2.1 billion years ago.
B.
first appeared with tough cell walls.

C.
developed when mitochondria grew much larger in size that
they had been previously.
D.
evolved before prokaryotic cells.
E.
first appeared as parts of multicellular organisms.
5 points
Question 14
Some bacteria can form resting structures called ___________
that can withstand extremes in temperature, moisture, and
radiation.
A.
prions
B.
viroids
C.
endospores
D.
capsids
E.
symbionts
5 points
Question 15
Kelps are a form of what group of protists?
A.

brown algae
B.
water molds
C.
slime molds
D.
dinoflagellates
E.
ciliates
5 points
Question 16
Paleontologists have found fossils dating back 3.6 billion years.
These closely resemble
A.
nothing alive today.
B.
blue-green algae present today.
C.
today’s simplest plants.
D.
fungi.
E.
small invertebrate animals.
5 points
Question 17

Of the following, which kingdom contains the most diversity in
terms of DNA sequences?
A.
Protista
B.
Plantae
C.
All of these are approximately equivalently diverse.
D.
Animalia
E.
Fungi
5 points
Question 18
In bacteria, the cell wall is composed mainly of
A.
various polysaccharides.
B.
peptidoglycans.
C.
glycoproteins.
D.
proteins.
E.
lipids.

5 points
Question 19
Which form of bacterial cells is rod shaped?
A.
spirilla
B.
bacilli
C.
rhodius
D.
vibrios
E.
cocci
5 points
Question 20
Rickettsias belong to which major group of bacteria?
A.
cyanobacteria
B.
Archaea
C.
spirochetes
D.
proteobacteria

E.
viruses
Question 1
Random changes in gene frequency that occur in small
populations describes the concept of
A.
convergent evolution.
B.
sympatric speciation.
C.
parapatric speciation.
D.
adaptive radiation.
E.
genetic drift.
5 points
Question 2
Immature eggs are called
A.
oocytes.
B.
blastocysts.
C.
basal cells.

D.
follicles.
E.
ovaries.
5 points
Question 3
Embryonic development includes all of the following except
A.
cleavage.
B.
organogenesis.
C.
fertilization.
D.
gastrulation.
E.
growth.
5 points
Question 4
Negative feedback loops act to
A.
control sperm production.
B.
cause an erection of the penis when stimulated.

C.
cause expulsion of milk during breastfeeding.
D.
cause uterine contractions during childbirth.
E.
cause milk production after childbirth.
5 points
Question 5
The primary male hormone is
A.
estrogen.
B.
produced throughout a male’s entire lifetime.
C.
only involved in sperm production.
D.
produced in the brain.
E.
testosterone.
5 points
Question 6
Which of the following is the best description of an adaptation?
A.
an environmental change that selects for certain traits
B.

a trait that is of no advantage to survival
C.
a trait that was beneficial to survival in the past
D.
a trait that will be beneficial in the future
E.
a trait that is currently beneficial to survival
5 points
Question 7
Most mutations lead to a decreased chance of survival for the
mutant organism. Rarely, a mutation can provide an increased
chance of survival. These rare mutations provide a(n)
_____________________ for the mutant.
A.
environmental susceptibility
B.
directional shift
C.
adaptive
D.
selective advantage
E.
selective disadvantage
5 points
Question 8
On a molecular level, all organisms

A.
have the same bases in DNA and RNA, the same amino acids in
proteins, and use the same genetic code.
B.
use different means of storing genetic information.
C.
have the same bases in DNA and RNA, but different amino
acids in proteins.
D.
show no similarities.
E.
have the same bases in DNA and RNA, the same amino acids in
proteins, but use different genetic codes.
5 points
Question 9
A population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium
A.
consists of allele frequencies that are constantly changing.
B.
is very common in nature.
C.
consists of genotype frequencies that are constantly changing.
D.
is under no selective pressures.
E.

requires a small population size.
5 points
Question 10
Animals that possess both male and female sexual organs
A.
are dioecious and typically self-fertilize.
B.
are hermaphroditic and typically self-fertilize.
C.
are hermaphroditic and typically cross-fertilize.
D.
are parthenogenetic and typically self-fertilize.
E.
are dioecious and typically cross-fertilize.
5 points
Question 11
Vestigial organs
A.
must have evolved individually in different organisms.
B.
include the human appendix and wisdom teeth and a snake’s
hipbones.
C.
did not have a function when they first developed, but do so
today.

D.
are similar in many organisms.
E.
are not found in present-day organisms.
5 points
Question 12
After being produced in the seminiferous tubules, sperm mature
in the
A.
vas deferens.
B.
epididymis.
C.
ejaculatory duct.
D.
seminal vesicle.
E.
urethra.
5 points
Question 13
Which of the following is not true of the punctuated equilibrium
theory?
A.
It proposes that most evolutionary change is concentrated in
relatively brief episodes of change.
B.

It suggests that subgroups diverge and evolve at about equal and
constant rates.
C.
It suggests that most species undergo little phenotypic change
during most of their evolutionary duration.
D.
It was inspired in part by patterns observed in the fossil record.
E.
It appears to be well supported by the fossil record.
5 points
Question 14
Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
A.
acts as a hormone signaling menstruation.
B.
is produced by the amnion.
C.
can be used to reveal pregnancy.
D.
is needed to form the placenta.
E.
is stored in the ovaries.
5 points
Question 15
Luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone
(FSH) are

A.
only produced in female humans.
B.
produced in both male and female humans.
C.
produced in the testes.
D.
produced in the ovaries.
E.
constantly secreted into the bloodstream of males.
5 points
Question 16
Chemical compounds secreted by mammals and insects to
communicate sexual readiness are called
A.
hormones.
B.
estrogens.
C.
testosterones.
D.
pheromones.
E.
developers.
5 points

Question 17
Which of the following statements about natural selection is
true?
A.
Natural selection causes variations to arise within a population.
B.
Natural selection leads to increased likelihood of survival for
certain individuals based on variation. The variation must come
from outside the population.
C.
All individuals within a population have an equal likelihood of
survival. Survival is based on chance.
D.
Natural selection results in those individuals within a
population who are best-adapted surviving and producing more
offspring.
E.
Natural selection leads to extinction.
5 points
Question 18
As opposed to external fertilization, internal fertilization
ensures that
A.
sperm and egg will be released simultaneously.
B.
the number of sperm and eggs produced will be equal.

C.
sperm will be protected until they can unite with the eggs.
D.
only the fittest of sperm and egg combinations will survive.
E.
all of the sperm will fertilize eggs.
5 points
Question 19
This type of selection favors both extremes of the phenotype
spectrum within a population.
A.
stabilizing
B.
directional
C.
disruptive
D.
natural
E.
neutral
5 points
Question 20
Up until the late eighteenth and early nineteenth centuries,
many naturalists believed that all species of living organism(s)
had been created separately and had remained unchanged since
the creation. Around that time, scientific research provided
findings that were contradictory to that idea. All of the

following are findings that contradict the idea of a single
creation. Choose the exception.
A.
As scientists explored more of the earth, they found that
different groups of organisms were found in the different
regions.
B.
Some fossils of extinct organisms are quite different from living
organisms.
C.
The limbs of some mammals serve the same purpose but their
bone patterns are very different.
D.
Even though the limbs of various mammals carry out different
functions (swimming, gliding, running, holding, etc.), the bone
patterns are very similar.
E.
The platypus is only found in Australia and the dodo was only
found on Madagascar.
Question 1
DNA replication of a single DNA molecule is referred to as
semiconservative because
A.
all the DNA strands in the two DNA molecules will have both
parental and newly synthesized DNA.
B.

of the two DNA molecules, one is made up totally of parental
DNA, while the other is entirely newly synthesized DNA.
C.
it results in two nonidentical DNA molecules.
D.
each of the two DNA molecules will consist of one parental
strand and one newly synthesized strand.
E.
one DNA strand is replicated continuously, while the other must
be replicated discontinuously.
5 points
Question 2
In DNA, cytosine bonds to guanine. In RNA, cytosine bonds to
A.
adenine.
B.
thymine.
C.
cytosine.
D.
uracil.
E.
guanine.
5 points
Question 3
The most important experimental results that suggested to

Watson and Crick that DNA was in the form of a helix was
A.
the findings of Chargaff that DNA always had equal amounts of
A and T and equal amounts of G and C.
B.
the discovery that DNA is wound around histone proteins.
C.
X-ray data from Rosalind Franklin.
D.
understanding DNA replication.
E.
Griffith’s results with transformation.
5 points
Question 4
Normal human body cells contain how many chromosomes?
A.
23
B.
44
C.
42
D.
22
E.
46

5 points
Question 5
What step in DNA replication precedes the pairing of
complementary bases?
A.
polymerization of DNA.
B.
joining of the two strands.
C.
formation of the histone core.
D.
mitotic division.
E.
separation of the two strands.
5 points
Question 6
The two subunits of the ribosome join during
A.
termination of transcription.
B.
initiation of translation.
C.
elongation.
D.
promotion of transcription.

E.
termination of translation.
5 points
Question 7
DNA replication
A.
is constantly happening in a cell.
B.
occurs in the cytoplasm of the cell.
C.
occurs in G1 of interphase.
D.
takes place in the nucleus of the cell.
E.
does not require proteins.
5 points
Question 8
The bases are bonded to what part of the backbone of the DNA
molecule?
A.
the 5’ carbon atom of the sugar molecule.
B.
C.

D.
E.
5 points
Question 9
A component of bacteria that are often used in biotechnology
are
A.
operons.
B.
exons.
C.
introns.
D.
plasmids.
E.
polypeptides.
5 points
Question 10
In recombinant DNA technology, enzymes used to precisely cut
DNA are called
A.
DNA polymerases.
B.

RNA polymerases.
C.
DNA ligases.
D.
vectors.
E.
restriction enzymes.
5 points
Question 11
Hershey and Chase performed an experiment in which they used
radioactive isotopes to phosphorus and sulfur to label different
components of bacterial viruses. Their results clearly showed
that
A.
protein was entering into the infected bacteria.
B.
genetic material normally contains radioactive isotopes.
C.
the viruses did not contain DNA.
D.
DNA was entering into the infected bacteria.
E.
the viruses did not contain protein.
5 points
Question 12
In eukaryotes, transcription occurs in the

A.
mitochondria.
B.
cytoplasm.
C.
nucleus.
D.
ribosome.
E.
cell membrane.
5 points
Question 13
We refer to the DNA code as being redundant or repetitive. This
means that
A.
some codons code for the same amino acid.
B.
a single triplet may code for more than one amino acid.
C.
each triplet codes for one amino acid.
D.
each triplet codes for a different amino acid.
E.
one codon codes for one amino acid.
5 points

Question 14
Base pairing
A.
takes place between sugars and phosphates on the two strands in
a helix.
B.
explains the X-ray results from Rosalind Franklin.
C.
occurs between A and C.
D.
occurs between identical bases.
E.
requires hydrogen bonds.
5 points
Question 15
The anticodon of the tRNA molecule base pairs with
A.
DNA.
B.
rRNA.
C.
amino acids.
D.
mRNA.

E.
polypeptides.
5 points
Question 16
The fact that the two strands composing a DNA molecule are
called antiparallel has to do with the orientation of the
A.
sugar molecules.
B.
sulfide bonds.
C.
phosphate molecules.
D.
hydrogen bonds.
E.
bases.
5 points
Question 17
When looking at a table depicting the genetic code, the base
sequences signify
A.
mRNA.
B.
mtDNA.
C.
rRNA.

D.
DNA.
E.
tRNA.
5 points
Question 18
A package of histones with DNA wrapped around them forms
spherical structures called
A.
chromatin.
B.
ribosomes.
C.
lysosomes.
D.
nucleoli.
E.
nucleosomes.
5 points
Question 19
What enzyme is used to “glue” together the ends of cut pieces
of DNA?
A.
DNA ligase
B.

restriction enzymes
C.
protease
D.
RNA polymerase
E.
DNA polymerase
5 points
Question 20
What form of RNA carries instructions from the nucleus to the
ribosome?
A.
bRNA
B.
rRNA
C.
sRNA
D.
mRNA
E.
tRNA
Question 1
Which of the following statements is true:

A.
The dominant allele is masked in homozygous dominant
individuals.
B.
With dominant genetic disorders, the mother and/or father of an
affected individual must also be affected.
C.
With recessive genetic disorders, if both parents are carriers,
the offspring will all be affected.
D.
In recessive genetic disorders, the mother and/or father of an
affected individual must also be affected.
E.
In carriers, the recessive allele causes an intermediate
phenotype.
5 points
Question 2
Sickle cell anemia is an example of what type of inheritance?
A.
codominance
B.
incomplete dominance
C.
complete dominance
D.
recessive dominance

E.
multiple alleles
5 points
Question 3
Tall corn plants (T) are dominant to dwarf plants (tt). Solid
green leaves (G) are dominant to leaves with a white tip (gg). A
cross between two corn plants yielded the following
phenotypes: 51 tall plants with a white tip on their leaves; 43
dwarf plants with solid leaves; 48 dwarf plants with white tips
on their leaves; 45 tall plants with solid leaves. What are the
genotypes of the parents that produced these plants?
A.
ttGG x TTgg
B.
None of the above
C.
TtGg x TtGg
D.
TtGg x Ttgg
E.
TtGg x ttgg
5 points
Question 4
Consider two traits for an organism, determined by two genes,
each of which is governed by at least two alleles. In the case of
a dihybrid individual, the gametes formed will be of either the
parental type or the recombinant type. Recombinant type
gametes are formed because of

A.
incomplete dominance.
B.
the principle of dihybrids.
C.
heterozygosity.
D.
independent assortment.
E.
multiple alleles.
5 points
Question 5
If an organism’s diploid chromosome number is 18, how many
different possible combinations of homologous chromosomes
lining up during meiosis exist for the eggs or sperm produced
by that organism?
A.
36
B.
128
C.
9
D.
512
E.
18

5 points
Question 6
Skin cancers typically develop in the
A.
subcutaneous layer.
B.
lower layers of the epidermis.
C.
upper layers of the dermis.
D.
upper layers of the epidermis.
E.
lower layers of the dermis.
5 points
Question 7
The segregation principle states that in sexually reproducing
diploid organisms the two copies of each gene
A.
must always be the same allele.
B.
separate from each other during mitosis.
C.
move together as a unit during meiosis.
D.
will both wind up in either the sperm or egg.

E.
segregate from each other during meiosis.
5 points
Question 8
After the DNA is replicated, and it condenses in prophase, two
identical rods of DNA are seen. These are
A.
kinetochores.
B.
spindle fibers.
C.
chromatids.
D.
chromatin.
E.
centromeres.
5 points
Question 9
If you view a cell in which the genetic material is beginning to
be visible as separate bodies, and the nucleus has disappeared
from view, you may surmise that the cells is in
A.
metaphase.
B.
telophase.

C.
prophase.
D.
interphase.
E.
anaphase.
5 points
Question 10
In what phases is the genetic material in the cell correctly
referred to as chromatids?
A.
anaphase and metaphase
B.
interphase and prophase
C.
interphase and telophase
D.
metaphase and prophase
E.
metaphase and telophase
5 points
Question 11
What structure holds the sister chromatids to the spindle fibers?
A.
cyclin

B.
chromatin
C.
kinetochore
D.
MPF
E.
centromere
5 points
Question 12
The genetic makeup of a particular trait in an individual is its
A.
phenotype.
B.
genotype.
C.
filial.
D.
heterozygosity.
E.
dominance.
5 points
Question 13
Special cells found in the gonads that give rise to gametes upon
division are called

A.
egg cells.
B.
germ cells.
C.
somatic cells.
D.
stem cells.
E.
basal cells.
5 points
Question 14
An allele is
A.
always recessive.
B.
the dominant form of a gene.
C.
the main factor determining a trait.
D.
always one of a pair.
E.
an alternate form of a gene.
5 points
Question 15

Mendel observed that dominant traits
A.
were the only traits seen in the F2 generation of pea plants in
his experiments.
B.
are only expressed in hybrids.
C.
were absent in the F1 generation of pea plants that he used in
his experiments.
D.
are expressed in all plants.
E.
are seen in all of the F1 hybrid pea plants in his experiments.
5 points
Question 16
Gregor Mendel was successful in his analysis of the genetics of
pea plants because
A.
pea plants have genetics different from other organisms.
B.
he decided to only look at his results in an objective manner.
C.
he examined and analyzed both the F1 and F2 generations.
D.
he studied a trait that had a strange inheritance pattern.

E.
he studied the parental plants to determine their differences.
5 points
Question 17
At the end of metaphase I, _______________ separate.
A.
germ cells
B.
sister chromatids
C.
homologous chromosomes
D.
centrioles
E.
haploid chromatids
5 points
Question 18
Duchenne muscular dystrophy (MD) is inherited from an X-
linked recessive allele. What is the probability that a son with
Duchenne MD inherited this disease from his biological father?
A.
1/4
B.
1/2
C.
0

D.
1/8
E.
1/16
5 points
Question 19
Cytokinesis in plant cells differs from cytokinesis in animal
cells because
A.
the contractile protein, actin, is important only in plant cells.
B.
in plant cells, the cell plate must also divide into two parts.
C.
plant cells have a rigid cell wall.
D.
a contractile ring forms only in plant cells.
E.
there is no difference.
5 points
Question 20
In humans, a gene that has been identified as causing a type of
skin cancer is the
A.
mutant superman.
B.

superwoman echidna.
C.
mutant mole rat.
D.
sonic hedgehog.
E.
superhero aardvark.
Set 1
Question 1
Because the shared electrons between hydrogen and oxygen
spend more time orbiting the oxygen than the hydrogen, water is
A.
a nonpolar molecule.
B.
a polar molecule.
C.
a neutral molecule.
D.
a charged molecule.
5 points
Question 2
The internal pH of most cells is near neutral. This allows
A.

the buffers produced within the body to affect these cells.
B.
enzymes within the cell to act at peak efficiency.
C.
enzymes outside of these cells to function.
D.
water to break down into H+ and OH-.
E.
rapid fluctuations between acidic and basic conditions within
the cells.
5 points
Question 3
During the Calvin-Benson cycle (carbon-fixing reactions), in
the red Columbine plant, high-energy electrons are transferred
into a newly made 3-carbon compound. Eventually, these
electrons will end up as part of glucose molecules. What was
the original source of these electrons in photosynthesis?
A.
oxygen
B.
glucose
C.
ATP
D.
carbon dioxide.
E.

water
5 points
Question 4
In a cell,
A.
energy-releasing reactions are coupled to energy-absorbing
reactions.
B.
energy-absorbing reactions and energy-releasing reactions are
unlinked.
C.
there are many more energy-absorbing reactions than energy-
releasing reactions.
D.
energy-absorbing reactions are coupled to energy-releasing
reactions via electron carriers.
E.
more energy is used up than is produced.
5 points
Question 5
Because of the atomic structure of carbon, it tends to form
A.
hydrogen bonds.
B.
covalent bonds.
C.

bonds only with hydrogen.
D.
sulfide bonds.
E.
ionic bonds.
5 points
Question 6
The most common energy-carrying molecule in the cell is
A.
adenine.
B.
ATP.
C.
AMP.
D.
DNA.
E.
ADP.
5 points
Question 7
A stone is pushed from the top of a hill. Halfway to the bottom
of the hill, this rolling stone
A.
is constantly gaining more energy.
B.

has potential energy only.
C.
has kinetic energy only.
D.
has both potential energy and kinetic energy.
E.
is using up chemical energy.
5 points
Question 8
A hummingbird is “drinking” nectar containing sugar from a red
columbine flower. Arrange the following events to occur in the
hummingbird in order from the first to last:
Glucose sugar is converted to pyruvate.
Energy from high-energy electrons is released from an electron
transport chain. This energy is used to make ATP.
The hummingbird exhales carbon dioxide and energy is stored
in electron carriers.
The hummingbird has the ability to beat its wings 40 – 80 times
a second.
A.
1, 4, 3, 2
B.
1, 2, 3, 4
C.
2, 3, 4, 1
D.
1, 3, 2, 4

E.
2, 1, 3, 4
5 points
Question 9
Surface tension of water is due to
A.
water molecules repelling each other.
B.
ionization of water.
C.
hydrogen bonding.
D.
the ability of water to act as a solvent.
E.
ionic bonding.
5 points
Question 10
All enzymes act by
A.
breaking and forming ionic bonds between ions.
B.
allowing products to be changed during the chemical reactions.
C.
breaking hydrogen bonds between molecules.
D.

lowering the activation energy of specific chemical reactions.
E.
raising the activation energy of specific chemical reactions.
5 points
Question 11
With few exceptions, organic compounds are those that contain
A.
all of the above.
B.
hydrogen.
C.
nitrogen.
D.
carbon.
E.
oxygen.
5 points
Question 12
Most cells are small. When they reach a certain size, cells
typically divide. This has to do with the
A.
inability to produce more components of the cell membrane.
B.
fact that they cannot possess sufficient numbers of organelles
for normal cell functioning.

C.
surface-to-volume ratio.
D.
differences between viral particles and eukaryotic cells.
E.
amount of genetic material.
5 points
Question 13
As one form of energy is converted into another, there is always
some energy lost as
A.
light.
B.
chemical energy.
C.
activation energy.
D.
heat.
E.
kinetic energy.
5 points
Question 14
In photosynthesis, the light-dependent reactions
A.
produce ADP and carbon dioxide.

B.
can take place day or night.
C.
are uncoupled from the light-independent reactions.
D.
produce ATP and energy stored in electron carriers.
E.
lead to carbon fixation.
5 points
Question 15
Rank the following chemical bonds from weakest to strongest:
A.
ionic, covalent, hydrogen
B.
hydrogen, ionic, covalent
C.
hydrogen, covalent, ionic
D.
ionic, hydrogen, covalent
E.
covalent, ionic, hydrogen
5 points
Question 16
What method is often used by cells to move large solid material
into the cell?

A.
facilitated diffusion.
B.
phagocytosis.
C.
active transport.
D.
simple diffusion.
E.
exocytosis.
5 points
Question 17
This element is prominent in both living organisms and in the
Earth’s surface.
A.
silicon
B.
carbon
C.
aluminum
D.
hydrogen
E.
oxygen
5 points
Question 18

The majority of ATP produced in cellular respiration is
produced during
A.
fermentation.
B.
the Krebs cycle.
C.
glycolysis.
D.
anaerobic processes.
E.
the electron transport chain.
5 points
Question 19
The role of oxygen in cellular respiration is to
A.
aid in the transport of pyruvate into the mitochondria.
B.
supply an energy molecule.
C.
act as the final electron acceptor.
D.
combine with carbon atoms to form carbon dioxide.
E.

allow glycolysis to continue.
5 points
Question 20
The atomic nucleus consists of
A.
neutrons and electrons.
B.
protons and electrons
C.
neutrons only.
D.
neutrons and protons.
E.
protons only.

Question 1 This characteristic allows fungi to withstand heat .docx

Recommended

Recommended

More Related Content

Similar to Question 1 This characteristic allows fungi to withstand heat .docx

Similar to Question 1 This characteristic allows fungi to withstand heat .docx (20)

More from makdul

More from makdul (20)

Recently uploaded

Recently uploaded (20)

Question 1 This characteristic allows fungi to withstand heat .docx