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1. PAPER ONE : READING COMPREHENSION B ( 60 minutes )
SECTION A :
In this section you must choose the word or phrase which best completes each sentence. Circle
the letter A, B, C or D against the number of each item 1-20 for the word or phrase you choose.
(20 points)
1. Robert………….in three movies already. I'm sure he'll be a star some day.
A. appeared B. had appeared C. has appeared D. has been appearing
2. The child hurt himself badly when he fell………….the bedroom window.
A. out of B. out from C. down D. over
3. Is Dr Brown the person………….you wish to speak ?
A. that B. whom C. to that D. to whom
4. Have you finished ………….the office for that new client ?
A. to design B. designing C. designed D. having designed
5. He advised his daughter not………….at an early age.
A. marrying B. being married C. to marry D. to have been married
6. If you could read a book during the traffic jam, it………….be so bad, but of course
it………….impossible.
A. wouldn't/is B. won't/ is C. couldn't/were D. can't was
7. My little sister won't go with us………….our mother goes too.
A. if B. if not C. unless D. otherwise
8. The…………is full of hot jasmine tea. It smells………….
A. teacup/ good B. teacup/ well C. cup of tea/ good D. cup of tea/ well
9. " When can I have my car back ?" - " I think it'll…………late this afternoon..
A. finish B. be finished C. have finished D. be finish
10. I think I………….better go now.
A. had B. would C. did D. am
11. Would you mind………….these plates a wipe before………….them in the cupboard ?
A. giving/ putting B. doing / laying C. to give/ to put D. to do/ to lay
12. We have to leave before six and so…………
A. have you B. you have C. you do D. do you
13. I had to drive home to pick up my brother,…………car wouldn't start.
A. who his B. who C. who's D. whose
14. You…………a hard life when you were a child.
A. must have B. had to C. were to have D. must have had
15. The…………of days in a week is seven.
A. amount B. number C. figure D. sum
16. Don't …………such a lie to me. I can see you through.
A. say B. speak C. talk D. tell
17. This is the most expensive car I have…………driven.
A. always B. often C. sometimes D. ever
18. Can you buy me a copy of the newspaper…………your way to work ?
A. on B. by C. along D. for
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ĐiểmCHỮ KÝ GIÁM KHẢO 1 CHỮ KÝ GIÁM KHẢO 2

2. 19. Is he going to…………the meal ?
A. pay B. bite C. feel D. pay for
20. I need the frying pan so that I can make the…………
A. salad B. toast C. omelette D. honey
SECTION B :
In this section you will find after the reading passage a number of questions of unfinished
statements about the passage , each with four suggested answers or ways of finishing . You must
choose the one which you think fits best (10 points)
The trumpet player Louis Armstrong , or Sachem, as he usually called, was among the first
jazz musicians to achieve international fame. He is known for the beautiful, clear tone of his
trumpet-playing and for his singing voice. Armstrong was born into a poor family in New
Orleans. He first learned to play the cornet at the age of 13, taking lessons while living in a
children's home. As a teenager, he played in a number of local jazz bands in New Orleans.
In 1922, Armstrong moved to Chicago to play in Joe "King" Olive's band. Two years later,
he joined Fletcher Henderson' s band. Then, from 1925 to 1928, Armstrong made a series of
records with groups called the Hot Five, the Hot Seven, and the Savoy Ballroom Five. These
records rank among the greatest recordings in the history of jazz.
Armstrong led a big band during the 1930s and 1940s, but in 1947 returned to play with
small jazz groups. He performed all over the world and made a number of hit records, such as
Hello, Dolly and Mack the Knife . Armstrong also appeared in a number of movies, first in New
Orleans in 1947, High Society in 1956 and Hello, Dolly in 1969.
21. What was Armstrong' s nickname ?
A. Louis B. Sachem C. Hot Five D. King Olive
22. Which of the following best describes Armstrong ?
A. He was a poor musician. B. He was an international-known jazz musician.
C. He was a famous actor. D. He played the trumpet.
23. In what city was Joe "King" Olive's band based ?
A. In New Orleans. B. In Savoy C. In Chicago D. In Armstrong's birth place
24. Which of the following is not a movie ?
A. New Orleans B. High Society C. Hello, Dolly D. Mack the Knife
25. What was the first movie Armstrong appeared in ?
A. High Society B. Mack the Knife C. New Orleans D. Hello, Dolly
PAPER TWO : USE OF ENGLISH ( 60 minutes )
SECTION A : PASSAGE FOR GAP-FILL
In this section you must find a word to complete the numbered blanks in the passage below. Use
only ONE word for each blank. (15 points )
Hypatia was (26)…………….in Alexandria , in Egypt, in 370 A.D . For many centuries,
she was (27)…………….only woman scientist to have a place in the history books.
Hypatia's father was director of Alexandria University, and he (28)…………….sure his
daughter (29)…………….the best education available. This was unusual, as most woman then
had few (30)…………….to study.
After studying in Athens (31)…………….Rome, Hypatia returned
(32)…………….Alexandria (33)…………….she began teaching mathematics. She soon became
famous (34)…………….her knowledge of new ideas.
We have no copies of her books, (35)…………….we know that she wrote several
important mathematical works. Hypatia was also interested in technology and
(36)…………….several scientific tools to help with (37)…………….work.

3. At the time many rulers were afraid (38)…………….science, and
(39)…………….connected with it was in danger. One day in March 415, Hypatia
(40)…………….attacked in the street and killed.
SECTION B : SENTENCE BUILDING
Make all changes and additions necessary to produce, from the following sets of words and
phrases, sentences which together make a complete letter. (10 points)
Ward 23
Great Northern Hospital
Manchester
Dear Bill,
I / expect / you be surprised / get / letter / me.
41. …………………………………………………………………………………..
As / can see/ address above / I be / hospital.
42. …………………………………………………………………………………..
Last Wednesday / I have / accident / when I drive / work
43. …………………………………………………………………………………..
Child / run out / front / my car / and I / have / stop / suddenly / that / car behind / crash / me
44. …………………………………………………………………………………..
Luckily / I wear / seatbelt / so I / not injured badly / although / have / stay / here / next Friday.
45. …………………………………………………………………………………..
It be / very boring / I be please / see / if you / have spare time.
46. …………………………………………………………………………………..
It be all right / you send / books / read/ you not come.
47. …………………………………………………………………………………..
Visiting hour / be / 7.00 to 9.00 / evening
48. …………………………………………………………………………………..
I / hope / able / come.
49. …………………………………………………………………………………..
Give / regards / family.
50. …………………………………………………………………………………..
Yours sincerely,
John
SECTION C : SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION
Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the
sentence printed before it. (5 points)
EXAMPLE : I expect that he will get there by lunch time.
ANSWER : I expect him to get there by lunch time.
51. " When did you leave school ?" the interviewer asked me.
The interviewer asked me……………………………………………………..
52. They spend half an hour to watch the news on T.V every day.
It takes…………………………………………………………………………
53. She was seriously ill but she enjoyed life very much.
Although………………………………………………………………………
54. You didn't forget to mail the letter, did you ?
You remembered to……………………………………………………………
55. He hasn't visited his parents for ages.
It is ages……………………………………………………………………….

4. COMPOSITION
In about 120 words, write a passage describing the person you love most. (10 points )
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5. PAPER THREE :LISTENING COMPREHENSION B (30 minutes)
PART 1 : You will hear an organiser talking on the radio about the Language Study
Fair. For each question , fill in the missing information ( 10 points )
The Language Study Fair
Dates : 17th to 19th (1)…………………..
Place : National Education (2)…………………..
Fair includes : - Stands with self-study (3)…………………..
- (4)…………………..by educational speakers
- Exhibition of furniture
- Demonstration of latest (5)…………………..programmes
Opening hours 9.30a.m. - 5.00 p.m. on Thursday and (6)…………………..
9.30 a.m. - 4.00 p.m. on (7)…………………..
Tickets £ (8)…………………..
Or £3 for (9)…………………..
Tickets can be booked by ringing the hotline on (10)…………………..
PART 2 : Listen and decide whether the following statements are true (T) or false (F)
( 10 points )
1. Mr. Leonard did not have a wife.
2. He lived in a big house in a city.
3. He went to the countryside for a holiday every summer.
4. He liked clean places.
5. He and his friend went to the Tower Hotel together .
6. The Tower Hotel was not very nice but clean.
7. The manager took Mr. Leonard to his room.
8. The room looked very nice and clean.
9. The sheets on Mr. Leonard's bed were dirty.
10.The sheets on Mr. Leonard' s bed were not dry.
T
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F
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ĐiểmCHỮ KÝ GIÁM KHẢO 1 CHỮ KÝ GIÁM KHẢO 2

6. KEYS TO TEST LEVEL B (INTERMIDIATE )
PAPER ONE : READING COMPREHENSION
SECTION A
1. C 6. A 11. A 16. D
2. A 7. C 12. D 17. D
3. D 8. C 13. D 18. A
4. B 9. B 14. D 19. D
5. C 10. A 15. B 20. C
One mark for each correct answer . Total : 20
SECTION B
21. B 22. B 23. C 24. D 25. C
Two marks for each correct answer. Total : 10
Total marks for paper one : 30
PAPER TWO :USE OF ENGLISH
SECTION A
26. born 31. and 36.invented
27.the 32.to 37.her
28.made 33.where 38.of
29.had 34.for 39.anyone
30.opportunities 35.but 40.was
One mark for each correct word. Total : 15
SECTION B
One mark for each correct sentence. Total : 10
SECTION C
51. The interviewer asked me when I had left school.
52. It takes them half an hour to watch the news on TV every day.
53. Although she was serious ill, she enjoyed life very much.
54. You remembered to mail the letter, didn't you ?
55. It is ages since he last visited his parents.
One mark for each correct sentence. Total : 5
COMPOSITION : 10 marks
Total marks for paper two : 40
PAPER THREE : LISTENING COMPREHENSION
PART 1 :
1. March 6.Friday
2. Centre 7.Saturday
3. textbooks 8.5/Five
4. talks 9.(full- time ) students
5. computer 10.9847711
One mark for each correct answer. Total : 10
PART 2 :

7. 1.T 2.F 3.F 4.T 5.F 6.F 7.T 8.T 9.F 10.F
One mark for each correct answer. Total : 10
Total mark for paper three : 20
PAPER 4 : INTERVIEW : 10 marks
Total marks for the Test : 100