This document contains 30 multiple choice pathology questions covering topics like hematology, coagulation, oncology, and cytogenetics. The questions test knowledge of topics like causes of anemia, leukemia subtypes and immunophenotypes, coagulation factor deficiencies, myelodysplastic syndrome criteria, and abnormal cytogenetic findings.
2. 1.Which of the following appear in the red cells
of Ivemark syndrome/asplenic individuals?
a. Macroovalocytosis
b. Basophilic stippling
c. Howell-Jolly bodies
d. Target cells
3. 2. The life span of platelets in circulation is
about?
a. 1 to 3 days
b.3 to 5 days
c. 5 to 7 days
d. 7 to 10 days
4. 3. A 13 yr old child suffered from dysentery one
week ago, currently complaining of hematuria
and raised serum creatinine. PBS examination
is expected to show:
a. Target cell
b. Spherocyte
c. Schistocyte
d. Bite cell
5. 4. HbC is best illustrated
as?
a. Α2ß2
3Glu→Lys
b. Α2ß2
4Glu→Lys
c. Α2ß2
5Glu→Lys
d. Α2ß2
6Glu→Lys
6. 5. The 4T ‘s scoring system for pre-test
probability of HIT includes all except:
a. Thrombocytopenia
b. Timing of platelet count fall
c. Thrombosis
d. Treatment dose
7. 6.In comparison to myeloma,which is more
frequent in plasma cell leukemia:
a. Osteolytic lesion
b. Bone pain
c. Renal failure
d. All of the above
8. 7. Leukaemia with t(15;17)(q22;q12) usually has
the immunophenotype:
a. CD13,CD33,CD15,CD117
b. CD13,CD33,CD117,HLADR
c. CD13,CD33,CD117,cMPO
d. CD13,CD33,CD15,cMPO
9. 8. Match the following with respect to iron deficiency
anaemia:
a. Red cell zinc
protoporphyrin (ZPP)
b. Serum transferrin
receptor
c. Transferrin saturation
d. Hepcidin
1. Increases
2. Decreases
3. Increases
4. Decreases
10. 9. Which of the following is safe in therapeutic
doses in patients with G6PD deficiency:
a. Primaquine
b. Acetaminophen
c. Sulfamethoxazole
d. Dapsone
11. 10. The affinity of haemoglobin for Oxygen is
decreased by all except:
a. Fever
b. Alkalosis
c. Binding of CO2
d. Binding of 2,3-DPG
12. 11. An Increased percentage of HbA2 is
expected in :
a. αthal trait
b. ßthal trait
c. δßthal trait
d. All of the above
13. 12. A 15 yr old child presents with fever and generalised
petechiae, lab investigation reveal:
• Hb 6gm% MCV = 105fl MCH = 30pg
• WBC = 1.2 X 109 /L PC = 10 X 109 /L
• LYMP%- 73%, GRAN%-25%,MID%-2%
• BM: Hypo cellular. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a. Severe aplastic anemia
b. Very severe aplastic anemia
c. Nonsevere aplastic anemia
d. Hypoplastic MDS
14. 13. All are direct thrombin inhibitors except:
a. Fondaparinux sodium
b. Bivalirudin
c. Argatroban
d. Lepirudin
15. 14. For the given coagulation work up results which is the
most probable diagnosis:
• BT- 5 min
• PT- 11 sec ( 10 sec)
• APTT- 50sec (32 sec)
• Mixing study with factor IX deficient plasma: APTT – 40
sec
a. Hemophilia A
b. Hemophilia B
c. Hemophilia C
d. Factor VIII inhibitor positive
16. 15. Regarding febrile nonhemolytic transfusion
reaction false is:
a.More common in multiply transfused patients
b.HLA antibodies are most common
c. Leucodepletion of blood products is not
helpful
d.Due to transfusion of cytokines
17. 16. Which is not a GpIIb/IIIa inhibitor:
a. Abciximab
b. Eptifibatide
c. Tirofiban
d. Argatroban
18. 17.Haemolytic disease of new
born(erythroblastosis fetalis ) is an example
of:
a. Type I hypersenstivity
b. Type II hypersenstivity
c. Type III hypersenstivity
d. Type IV hypersenstivity
23. 22. For diagnosis of Smoldering Myeloma, false
is:
a. BM plasma cells ≤ 10%
b. Absence of anemia
c. Serum monoclonal protein ≥ 3g/dl
d. None of the above
24. 23. IPSS for MDS includes all except:
a.Marrow blast %
b.Karyotype
c. Cytopenias
d.Age
25. 24. Hairy cell leukaemia , immunophenotype:
a. Bright CD20,CD10,CD25,CD103
b. Dim CD20,CD10,CD25,CD103
c. Bright CD20,CD11c,CD25,CD103
d. Dim CD20,CD11c,CD25,CD103
26. 25. WHO definition of anaemia in pregnancy
requires Hb below:
a. 10g%
b. 11g%
c. 12g%
d. 13g%
27. 26. Albino child with repeated
infection
most probable diagnosis:
a. Grescilli syndrome
b. Chediac Higashi syndrome
c. Dohle bodies
d. Toxic granules