NDA (National Defence Academy) is a premier institute that trains the cadets (candidates) to get selected for Indian Armed Forces (Indian Army, Indian Air Force and Indian Navy) as officers. Candidates may approach the academy by qualifying a national level entrance examination (NDA 2020) which is organized by the UPSC (Union Public Service Commission). The examination is conducted two times in a year. NDA (I) 2017 will be organized
on 19th April, 2020 and NDA (II) 2020 will be organized on 10th September, 2020.
1. About NDA
National Defence Academy
MOB: 8907305642
By
Professor AJAL A J
Founder Chairman & Chief Mentor of Ekalavya Academy
2. HIGHLIGHTS
• INTRODUCTION
• ELIGIBILITY
• HOW TOAPPLY
• APPLICATION FEE
• EXAM DATE
• EXAM CENTER
• PAPER PATTERN
• SYLLABUS
• SUBJECT WISEANYLISIS
• ADMIT CARD
• RESULT
• SELECTION PROCEDURE
• NDA BATCH INFORMATION
3. INTRODUCTION :
NDA (National Defence Academy) is a premier
institute that trains the cadets (candidates) to get
selected for Indian Armed Forces (Indian Army, Indian
Air Force and Indian Navy) as officers. Candidates
may approach the academy by qualifying a national
level entrance examination (NDA 2020) which is
organized by the UPSC (Union Public Service
Commission). The examination is conducted two
times in a year. NDA (I) 2017 will be organized
on 19th April, 2020 and NDA (II) 2020 will be
organized on 10th September, 2020.
4. NDA Eligibility Criteria
Citizenship The appearing candidate must be a citizen of India, Nepal or Bhutan. A Tibetan refugee came
India before 01 January, 1962 with mind-set to become a permanent residence of India are also eligible. A
person of Indian origin who has migrated from Burma, SriLanka, Pakistan & East African Countries of Kenya,
Uganda, the United Republic of Tanzania, Zambia, Malawi, Zaire and Ethiopia or Vietnam with the intention of
permanently settling in India are also eligible to apply.
Candidates other than the citizen of India and Gorkha subjects of Nepal are required a certificate of eligibility
issued by the Government of India.
Qualification Criteria The minimum qualification required for Indian Army wing, Navy and
Air Force is as follows:
Eligibility for Indian Army: The candidates want to apply for Indian Army must have
completed 12th or its equivalent exam from a well-recognized board. The appearing candidates
can also apply.
Eligibility for Indian Navy and Air Force: Those seeking for Indian Navy and Air
Force must have passed their 12th/appearing from a recognized board or University
with Physics and Mathematics as a compulsory subject.
Note: Students who have debarred by the Ministry of Defence from holding any type
of Commission in the Defence Services are not eligible to apply. Those candidates
have failed INSB/PABT earlier are not eligible for Air Force.
5. Age Limit, Gender & Marital Status
For NDA (1) 2017: The candidates possessing age between 2nd July, 1998 to 1st
July, 2001 are eligible for the examination. If born before 2nd July, 1998 and after 1st
July, 2001 then not eligible for NDA (1) 2017 exam.
For NDA (2) 2017: Those who have age between 2nd January 1999 to 1st January
2002 are permitted to write the exam. If the candidate bears the age before 2nd
January, 1999 and after 1st January 2002, then he/she is not allowed to appear the
exam.
Only unmarried male candidates are eligible for NDA examination. Girls are not
allowed for the NDA entrance examination.
Note-1: The DOB mentioned in the Matriculation/Higher Secondary Examination
Certificate available or an equivalent certificate will be considered by the commission.
Note-2: Candidates are informed not to marry until they complete their full training. A
candidate who marries subsequent to the date of his application though successful at
this or any subsequent exam will not be selected for training. A candidate who marries
during the training shall be discharged and will be liable to refund all expenditure
incurred on him by the Government.
6. Physical Standards
Candidates must be physically and mentally fit as per the physical standards
maintained by the National Defence Academy and Naval Academy Examination
(II), 2017.
The detailed physical standards are mentioned here:
Candidates are required to avoid the following minor defects at the time of
medical examination:
•Wax (Ears).
•Deviated Nasal Septum.
•Hydrocele/Phimosis.
•Overweight/Underweight.
•Under Sized Chest.
•Piles.
•Tonsillitis.
•Gynaecomastia.
•Varicocele
7. How to apply
The NDA 2020 Application Form can be filled and submitted via
online process through the website.
(https://upsconline.nic.in/upsc/mainmenu2.php)
The application form has been released from 7th June, 2020
(for NDA II).
Candidates are suggested to fill the application form carefully.
No change will be permitted after final submitting the application
form.
Candidates should keep ready the scanned images of
photograph & signature in prescribed size and format before filling
the application form.
Candidates must note down that there is no need to send the
printed application form to the authority.
9. Application Fee
The application fee for general & OBC candidates is 100/-.
SC/ST candidates and wards of JCOs/NCOs/ORs are
exempted from examination fee.
The application fee payment can be done via cash payment in
any branch of SBI Bank or through SBI Bank net banking,
visa/master/debit card.
10. NDA 2020 Exam Dates
NDA 2017 notification for exam dates and academic calendar has been released by
UPSC. As NDA exam 2017 will be held twice in the year 2017. The authority has been
released the exam dates for both exam session. The exam date is the subject to change
by the conducting body, students are suggested to visit this page regularly for latest
updates.
NDA 2017 Exam Dates are mentioned below:
Events Dates(NDA I) Dates(NDA II)
Notification release 18th January, 2017 7th June2017
Application form release 18th January, 2017 7th June2017
Lastdate to submit the applicationform 10th February, 2017 30th June2017
Admit cardrelease one or two weeks before exam one or two weeks before exam
Examdate 23rd April, 2017 10th September 2017
Result declaration May, 2017 October, 2017
12. Paper Pattern
Exam mode – UPSC will be conducting NDA/ NA (II) 2017 in pen paper based
offline mode.
Number of papers – Candidates appearing NDA II 2017 paper will have to answer
questions from two papers– Mathematics and General Ability Test.
Exam duration – The candidates can attempt questions in NDA II exam within a
specified time duration of five hours (two hours and thirty minutes for each paper)
Total marks – According to NDA exam pattern, the question paper of NDA/ NA
(II) 2017 will carry 900 marks in total.
Marking Scheme – UPSC follows a negative marking policy according to the NDA
exam pattern and as many as 0.33 of the total marks assigned to that question will be
deducted as penalty. Moreover, if a candidate reponses with moe than one answer
option, it’ll be treated as wrong answer, even if the other one of the options deem to
be correct and negative marking will be applicable to that question. If any question
is left unanswered, no marks will be awarded or deducted against that question of
NDA exam.
13. NDA Paper Pattern 2020: Subjects
The UPSC administered NDA examination paper will have questions from two
subjects– Mathematics and General Ability Test.
Mathematics question paper of NDA/ NA (II) 2020 examination will comprise various
sections including Algebra, Matrices, Determinants, Trigonometry, Analytical
Geometry of two and three dimensions, Differential Calculus, Integral Calculus, Vector
Algebra, Statistics and Probability.
The General Ability Test paper will have questions from English, General Knowledge
sections including Physics, Chemistry, General Science, Social Studies, Geography and
Current Events.
NDA 2020 Paper Pattern: Subject-wise distribution of marks
S.No. Subjects Marks
1 Maths 300
2 English 200
3 Physics 100
4 Chemistry 60
5 General Science 40
6 History, Freedom Movement, etc. 80
7 Geography 80
8 Current Events 40
Total 900
14. The NDA 2020 exam pattern is mentioned below
Subject Code Duration Maximum Marks
Mathematics 1 2 1/2 Hours 300
General Ability Test 2 2 1/2 Hours 600
SSB Test/Interview 900
Total 1800
15. SYLLABUS
The NDA syllabus has been divided into two
sections Mathematics and General Ability Test.
The General Ability Test section will contain
questions from different topics such as English,
General Knowledge, Physics, Chemistry,
General Science, Geography and Current
Events. For better preparations candidates can
prepare for the exam from the above mentioned
topics.
16. SUBJECT WISE ANYLISIS & QUESTIONS
• Maths
• Biology
• Physics
• Chemistry
• Social Science
• English
20. Academic Session 2017-18
NDA Previous Year Paper Analysis
SUBJECT – BIOLOGY
2015(I) 2015(II) 2016(I) 2016(II) 2017(I)
No. Of Questions 11 9 6 9 8
Total Marks 600 600 600 600 600
% weightage 7.33% 6% 4% 6% 5.33%
Topics:-
1. Difference between the living and
non-lving
- 1 - - -
2. Basis of life-Cell, Protoplasm 1 1 1 1 1
3. Tissue 1 2 - - 1
4. Growth 1 - - -
5. Reproduction in Plants and Animals 2 - 1 - 1
6. Human body and its important
organs
2 2 1 1 2
7. Common diseases 1 2 2 4 2
8. Food and balanced Diet 2 - - - 1
9. Environment - 1 - 2 -
10. Control and coordination 1 - - - -
11. Diversity of the living worlds - - 1 1 -
21. Q. Within an animal cell, the most
abundant inorganic constituent of
protoplasm is ?
(a) Sodium and Potassium Salt
(b) Water
(c) Iron
(d) Phosphate
[NDA 2014(I)]
Some previous yearquestions
25. Q. Which of the following cell organelles isabsent in animal cells?[NDA 2014 (I)]
(a) Cell membrane
(b) Endoplasmic reticulum
(c) Cell wall
(d) Mitochondria
35. Q. The seeds of flowering plants are made
up of
[NDA 2015 (I)]
(a) Ovary and ovary wall
(b) Embryo, food reserves and coat
(c) Cotyledon
(d) Zygotes
36. Q. The seeds of flowering plants are made
up of
[NDA 2015 (I)]
(a) Ovary and ovary wall
(b) Embryo, food reserves and coat
(c) Cotyledon
(d) Zygotes
42. Q. Precursor of which one of the following
vitamins comes from beta-carotene?
(a) Vitamin A
(b) Vitamin C
(c) Vitamin D
(d) Vitamin K
[NDA 2015(I)]
48. Q. To prevent heart problems, blood of a
normal healthy person should have
(a) Low cholesterol level
(b) High HDL level
(c) High VLDL level
(d) High LDL level
[NDA 2016(I)]
50. Q. Which of the following statements are correct? In
honey bees
1. Males are haploid.
2. Workers are sterile and diploid.
3. Queen develops from diploid larvae that feed on royal
jelly.
4. Honey is collected by/made by males.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1,2,3 and 4
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1,2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 4 only
[NDA 2016(I)]
52. Q. Which of the following statements are correct? In
honey bees
1. Males are haploid.
2. Workers are sterile and diploid.
3. Queen develops from diploid larvae that feed on royal
jelly.
4. Honey is collected by/made by males.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1,2,3 and 4
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1,2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 4 only
[NDA 2016(I)]
54. Q. Which of the following statements about DNA is/arecorrect?
1. DNA is the hereditary material of all living organisms.
2. All segments of DNA code for synthesis of proteins.
3. Nuclear DNA is double helical with two nucleotide chains
which run anti-parallel.
4. DNA is also found in mitochondria.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1,2 and 3 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1,3 and 4 only
(d) 4 only
[NDA 2016(I)]
56. Q. Dengue virus causes high fever, rashes
and reduces the number of a particular
type of blood cells. These blood cells are
(a) Monocytes
(b) Platelets
(c) Eosinophils
(d) Neutrophils
[NDA 2017(I)]
58. Q. Kidney secretes an enzyme, which
changes plasma protein angiotensinogen
into angiotensin. The enzyme is
[NDA 2017 (I)]
(a)Renin
(b)Nitrogenase
(c)Hydrolase
(d)Mono-oxygenase
60. Q. Sleeping sickness is a parasitic
diseases
of humans and other animals. It
iscaused by
(a) Histomonas
(b) Trypanosomas
(c) Angomonae
(d) Naegleria
[NDA 2017(I)]
64. PAPER STRUCTURE
Most important subject in science for NDA is Physics.
It covers almost 45 to 50 % of General Science or
16.67% of Total Paper.
In physics this exam covers almost 7-8 topics.
The questions are very basic and related to simple
knowledge of physics subject.
Now we can divide paper into two parts Theoretical
Questions
Numerical Questions
65. Some previous year questions
1. An optical illusion which occurs mainly in deserts during hot summer is based on the
principle of
(a) Reflection
(c) Dispersion
(b) interference
(d) total internal
reflection Ans. – D.
2.The S.I. unit of acceleration is
(a) ms-1 (b) ms-2
(c) cms-2 (d) kms-2
Ans. – B.
3.A pencil is placed upright at a distance of 10 cm from a convex lens of focal length 15
cm. The nature of the image of the pencil will be
(a) Real, inverted and magnified (b) real, erect and
magnified
(c) Virtual, erect and reduced (d) virtual, erect and
magnified
Ans. – D.
4. Three resistors with magnitudes 2, 4 and 8 ohm are connected in parallel. The
equivalent resistance of the system would be
(a) Less than 2 ohm
(c) 4 ohm
(b) More than 2 ohm but less than 4 ohm
(d) 14 ohm
Ans. –A.
66. 5. A given conductor carrying a current of 1 A produces an amount of heat equal to
2000 J. If the current through the conductor is doubled, the amount of heat produced
will be
(b) 4000 J (c) 8000 J(a) 2000 J
(d) 10000 J
Ans. – C.
6. The impulse on a particle due to a force acting on it during a given time interval is
equal to the change in its
(b) momentum (c) work done(a) Force
(d) energy
Ans. – B.
7. The absolute zero, i.e., temperature below which is not achievable, is about. (A)
0ºC (B) –173 K (C) –273ºC
(D) –300ºC
Ans. - C.
8. A person stands on his two feet over a surface and experiences a pressure P.
Now the person stands on only foot. He would experience a pressure of
magnitude. (B) P
(D) 2 P
(A) 4P
(C) ½P
Ans. – D.
68. 12. Along a streamline flow of fluid
(A) The velocity of all fluid particles at a given instant is constant
(B) The speed of a fluid particle remains constant
(C) The velocity of all fluid particles crossing given position is constant
(D) The velocity of a fluid particle remains constant
Ans. - C.
13. If the radius of the earth were to shrink by 1% , its mass remaining the same, ‘g’ would
increase by nearly
(A) 1% (B) 2% (C) 3% (D) 4%
Ans.- B.
14. A particle is executing simple harmonic motion. Which one of the following statements about
the acceleration of the oscillating particle is true?
(A) It is always in the opposite direction to velocity
(B) It is proportional to the frequency of oscillation
(C) It is minimum when the speed is maximum
(D) It decreases as the potential energy increases
Ans. - C
15. Ultrasonic waves of frequency 3 × 105 Hz are passed through a medium where speed of
sound is 10 times that in air (Speed of sound in air is 300 m/s). The wavelength of this wave
in the medium will be of the order of
(D) 0.1 cm(A) 1cm (B) 10 cm (C) 100 cm
Ans. – A.
16. The displacement-time graph of a particle acted upon by a constant force is
(B) a circle
(D) any curve depending
(A) A straight line
(C) A parabola
upon initial
conditions Ans.
70. Academic Session 2017-18
NDA Previous Year Paper Analysis
SUBJECT – CHEMISTRY
2015(I) 2015(II) 2016(I) 2016(II) 2017(I)
No. Of Questions 17 15 17 16 17
Total Marks 68 60 68 64 68
% weightage 11.30% 10% 11.30% 10.30% 11.30%
Topics:-
1. properties of air and water 2 3 2 - 3
2. Elements,mixture and compounds,symbols & formula 2 3 4 2 5
3. Acids,bases and salts 1 2 4 2 2
4. Carbon and its different forms 3 1 1 1 2
5.Preparation and properties of H2, O2, N2 and Co2 2 - - - -
6. Oxidation and reduction 1 1 1 1 -
7. Simple chemical equations, law of chemical combinations - - 1 3 2
8. Materials used in the preperation of substances like soap, glass, ink,
paper, cement, paint, safety matchstick and gun powder
6 1 2 3 1
9. Elementary ideas about the structure of atom, atomic, eq. wt., mol.wt.,
Valency - 4 1 4 2
10. Physical and chemical changes - - 1 - -
71. PAPER STRUCTURE
• Chemistry Part comes in “General Aptitude
Test” which is a 600 MM paper with total
150 Questions.
• Out of 150, 17 or 16 questions comes from
chemistry section.
• Total marks – 600
Chemistry questions marks – 68
Percentage – 11.3%
72. Que.1 The bond which is present between water
molecule.
a) Electrovalent Bond
b) Covalent Bond
c) Hydrogen Bond
d) Vander Waals Bond (NDA2015-Sept)
Ans - (c)
Que.2 The principle of cleaning by soap
a) Surface Tension
b) Floatation
c) Viscosity
d) Elasticity (NDA 2015-April)
Ans – (a)
Some previous year questions
73. Que.3. The absolute zero, i,e, temperature below
which is not achievable, is about
a) 0o C
b) -273 K
c) -273 o C
d) -300 o C (NDA2015-April)
Ans – (c)
Que.4. The main constituent of vinegar
a) Acetic acid
b) Ascorbic acid
c) Citric acid
d) Tartaric acid (NDA2015-April )
Ans – (a)
74. Que.5. Temperory hardness in water is due to
which one of the following of Calcium and
Magnesiuma) Hydrogencarbonates
b) Carbonates
c) Chlorides
d) Sulphates (NDA 2017-Sept )
Ans- (a)
Que.6.Which of the following element is least reactive
with water
a) Lithium
b) Sodium
c) Pottasium
d) Cesium (NDA 2017-Sept )
Ans – (a)
75. Que.7. Glasses are
a) Liquid
b) Colloid
c) Non-Crysttaline amorphous solid
d) Crysttaline Solid (NDA 2017-Sept )
Ans – (c)
Que.8. A homogenous mixture contains two
liquids. How are the seperated?
a) By Filtration
b) By Evaporation
c) By Distillation
d) By Condensation (NDA 2017-Sept )
Ans – (c)
76. Que.9. Match List-1 with List-2
List-1 List-2
(Element)
A. Sulphur
B. Phosphorus
C. Lead
D. Silver
(Highest valency)
1. Five
2. Six
3. Two
4. Four
a) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
b) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
c) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
d) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2 (NDA2016-April)
Ans – (b)
77. Que.10. Which one of the following statements is
correct
a) Covalent Bonds are directional
b) Ionic bonds are directional
c) Both Covalent and ionic bonds are directional
d) Both Covalent and ionic bonds are non-
directional
Ans – (a)
(NDA2016-April)
78. Que.11. Which one among the following is used
in making Gun-powder
a) Magnesium sulphate
b) Pottasium Nitrate
c) Sodium Stearate
d) Calcium Sulphate (NDA 2015-Sept )
Ans- (b)
Que.12.An atom of carbon has 6 protons. It’s
mass no is 12. How many neutrons are present
in an atom of Carbon
a) 12
b) 6
c) 10
d) 14 (NDA 2016-Sept )
Ans – (b)
79. Que.13. Which of the following is a reduction reaction.
S + O2 → SO2
a) 2Mg + O2 → 2MgO
b)
c)
d)
2HgO → 2Hg + O2
Mg + S → MgS (NDA 2016-Sept )
Ans - (c)
Que.14. 20 g of common salt is dissolved in 180 g of
water. What is the mass % of the salt in the solution
a) 5%
b) 9%
c) 10%
d) 15% (NDA 2017-Sept )
Ans – (c)
80. Que.15. Suppose you have 4 test tubes labelled
as A, B, C and D. A contains plain water, B
contains solution of an alkali, C contains solution
of an acid and D contains solution of sodium
chloride. Which one of these solutions will turn
phenophthalene solution pink?
a) Solution A
b) Solution B
c) Solution C
d) Solution D (NDA 2016-Sept )
Ans – (b)
81. Que.16. Which one of the following has different
number of molecules?(All are kept at NTP)
a) 3 g of Hydrogen
b) 48 g of Oxygen
c) 42 g of Nitrogen
d) 2 g of Carbon (NDA 2016- April )
Ans – (d)
Que.17. Identify the element having zero valency
a) Sulphur
b) Phosphorus
c) Lead
d) Radon (NDA 2016-April )
Ans – (d)
82. Que.18. Which one of the following species is not
capable of showing disproportionation reaction
-
ClO3
-
a) ClO-
b) ClO2
c)
d) ClO4
- (NDA2016-April)
Ans – (d)
Que.19. Which one of the following elements will not
react with dil. HCl to produce H2
a) Hg
b) Al
c) Mg
d) Fe (NDA 2016- Sept)
Ans – (a)
83. Que.20. Which one of the following carbon
compounds will not give a sooty flame
a) Benzene
b) Hexane
c) Napthalene
d) Anthracene (NDA 2016- Sept)
Ans.- (b)
86. Some previous year questions
1. The Nagarjuna-Sagar Project is located on which one of the following rivers ?
(2016-I)
(a)Godavari (b) Krishna (c) kavery (d) Mahanadi
Ans. (b) Krishna
2. Who among the following is/was associated with ‘Maharashtra
Andhashraddha Nirmoolan Samiti’?
(2016-I)
(a) Chandi Prasad Bhatt
(c)G.D. Agrawal
(b) Narendra Dabholkar
(d) Kailash Satyarthi
Ans. (b) Narendra Dabholkar
3. Rain shadow effect is associated with (2015-I)
(a)Cyclonic rainfall
(c) Convectional rainfall
(b) Orographic rainfall
(d) Frontal rainfall
Ans. (b) Orographic rainfall
4. ‘Yakuts’ are the nomadic herders of
(a)Gobi (b) Sahara Ans. (c) Tundra
(2015-I)
(d) Kalahari(c) Tundra
87. 5. An emergency under Article 352 of the constitution of India can be declared only during :
(2015-II)
(a)War, external aggression or internal disturbance. (b)War, external aggression
or armed rebellion (c)Failure of Constitutional Machinery in the State.
(d)Financial instability in the country.
Ans. (b) war, external aggression or armed rebellion
6. Which of the following statements about the Livestock sector in India is/are correct ?
(2015-II)
(a)Livestock contributed about 25 per cent of gross value added in agriculture
(b)It provides self employment to a large segment of population
(c)Rapid growth of livestock sector can be egalitarian and inclusive
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a)3 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. C.
7. Who among the following invented the power loom that revolutionized the cotton textile
industry ?
(2016-II)
(a)Edmund Cartwright
(c)Richard Arkwright
(b) Samuel Crompton
(d) James Hargreaves
Ans. Edmund Cartwright
88. 8. Subsidiary Alliance was a system devised by
(2016-II)
a) Lord Wellesley
b) Lord Dalhousie
c) Lord canning
d) Lord Ripon
Ans. Lord Wellesley
9. The Headquarters of Eastern Railway Zone of Indian Railway is located at
(2017-I)
a) Bhubaneswar
b) Kolkata
c) Hajipur
d) Guwahati
Ans. Kolkata
10. Which one among the following countries is the largest trading partner of India in
external trade for the year 2015-2016?
(2017-I)
a) United states of America
b) United Kingdom
c) United Arab Emirates
d) China
Ans. China
90. Academic Session 2017-18
NDA Previous Year Paper Analysis
SUBJECT – English
2016(I) 2016(II) 2017(I)
No. Of Questions 50 50 50
Total Marks 200 200 200
% weight age 33.33% 33.33% 33.33%
91. (b) discern
(d) identity
(a) Discriminate
(c) distinguish
Ans. (c) distinguish
Selecting Words
1.The two boys looked so alike that it was impossible to ….......between them.
2016 (I)
2.I feel .............. for those who are cruel to their children.
2016 (II)
(a) sympathy
(c) admiration
(b) contempt
(d) caving
Ans. (b) contempt
Some previous year questions
92. Selecting Words
3. He ................ to listen to my arguments and walkedaway.
2017 (I)
(a) denied
(c) prevented
(b) disliked
(d) refused
Ans. (d) refused
4. The Government is encouraging village upliftment .............. in the
country.
2015 (II)
(a) programme
(c) talks
(b) designs
(d) propagnada
Ans. (a) programme
93. Antonyms
5. His timidity proved costly.
(a) Arrogance
(c) skilfulness
2016 (I)
(b) boldness
(d) cunning
Ans. (b) boldness
6. The culprit was sentenced by the Court. 2016 (II)
(a)Acquitted
(c) relieved
(b) punished
(d) pardoned
Ans. (a)Acquitted
94. Synonyms
9. Hewasgreatly debilitated by an attack of influenza. 2016 (I)
(b) weakened
(d) defeated
(a)
Depressed
(c) worried
Ans. (b)
weakened10. Hospitality is avirtue for which the natives of the Eastin general arehighly
2016 (II)
(b) generosity shown to guests
(d) kindness
admired.
(a) Duty of adoctor
(c) cleanliness in hospitals
Ans.(b) generosity shown toguests
11. His candid opinions have won him manyfriends. 2017 (I)
(b) courteous
(d) frank
(a) kind
(c)
generous
Ans. (d)
95. Synonyms
12. He was fired for negligence on duty. 2015 (I)
(a) relieved of his job (b) relieved of his job
(c) rebuked (d) attacked
Ans. (a) relieved of his job
13. He was exhilarated at the outcome of the election results. 2015 (II)
(a) satisfied (b) surprised
(c) disappointed (d) overjoyed
Ans. (d) overjoyed
96. Sentence Improvement
14. In a few minutes' time, when the clock strikes six, I would be
waiting here for an hour.
2016 (I)
(a) Shall be waiting on
(c) shall wait
(b) shall have been waiting
(d) no improvement
Ans. (b) shall have been waiting
14. If he had listening to me he would not have got lost.
2016 (II)
(a) listened me
(c) listen me
(b) listened to me
(d) no improvement
Ans. (b) listened to me
97. Sentence Improvement
15. Last evening I went to the optician and bought spectacles. 2017 (I)
(b) two spectacles
(d) No improvement
(a) a spectacle
(c) a pair of spectacles
Ans. (c) a pair of spectacles
16. Due to these reasons we are all in favor of universal compulsory education.
2015 (I)
(b) for these reasons
(d) No improvement
(a) out of these reasons
(c) by the reasons
Ans. (b) for these reasons
17. Until you don’t finish the work, you won’t be given leave.
(a) until you must finish (b) until finishing
(c) until you finish (d) No improvement
Ans. (c) until you finish
2015 (II)
98. Spotting Errors
19. As I prefer coffee than tea (a) my friends always take the trouble (b) to get me
a cup of coffee whenever I visit them. (c) No error (d) 2016 (II)
Ans. (a) As I prefer coffee than tea
20. Never (a) I have (b) seen such a town. (c) No error (d) 2017 (I) Ans. (b)
I have
21. Having read a number of stories (a) about space travel (b) his dream
now is about to visit the moon. (c) No error (d) 2015 (I)
Ans. (c) his dream now is about to visit the moon.
22. We were able to make it (a) in spite of (b) a bad weather (c). No error (d)
2015 (II)
Ans. (c) a bad weather
99. Ordering of Words in a Sentence
23.The small boy who broke his leg, (P) fell down (Q) and (R) climbed the
wall (S)
2016 (II)
The proper sequence should be
(a) PSRQ (b) SQRP (c) QSRP (d) SPRQ
Ans. (a) PSRQ
24.They (P) should implant (Q) in the minds of young children (R) sound
principles (S) 2017 (I)
The proper sequence should be
(a) PQRS (b) PQSR (c) RPQS (d) PRQS
Ans. (b) PQSR
100. NDA 2020 ADMIT CARD
The NDA 2020 Admit Card will be released by the
authority before two or three weeks from the
examination date. Candidates can download the
admit card through the official portal of UPSC. There
is not any other method except online will be
entertained to get the admit card available.
Candidates note down it is mandatory to bring the
admit card at the examination center.
101. RESULT
The NDA 2020 Result will be provided to students
after one month from the examination. Candidates
can check the result through the official site of
UPSC. Candidates are advised to take printout of
the result and keep it safe till the selection
procedure. NDA 2020 written result and final result
of selected candidates will be declared separately.
Before SSB round, the written result will be
declared. Selected candidates in written
examination will be called for further admission
process.
102. Selection Procedure (SSB Interview)
Candidate’s selection will be based on the marks scored by the
candidates in the written test and SSB interview. The SSB interview
2020 consist of two stages i.e. stage I and stage II. The stage (I) will
consist of Officer Intelligence Rating (OIR) and Picture Perception &
Description Test (PP & DT). The stage (II) will comprise of Interview,
Group Testing Officer Tasks, Psychology Tests and the Conference.
These test will be organized over 4 or 5 days. Entire process will carry
900 marks.
103.
104. Course Concept
Vibrant Edge Division announces NDA Batch
for
the preparation of NDA (National Defence
Academy).
Target NDA (National Defence Academy)
Eligibility XII Appearing and XII Pass Students
Course Commencement 22nd June’17
Course End 31st August’17
Subject Covered
Mathematics & General Ability (English, General Knowledge,
Physics, Chemistry, General Science, Geography and Current
Events)
Timing
Batch-1 10:00 AM to 11:30 AM
Batch-2 4:30 PM to 6:00 PM
Schedule 6 Days a weak
Venue Vibrant Academy , 1-14-(A) Road No-1 IPIA, Kota
Features
Target Oriented Classes.
Classes will be taken by experienced faculties.
Mock Test for academic evaluation.
Doubt Solving facility.
Rs-10,000/- For Non Vibrant Students
NDA BATCH INFORMATION