Cis 501 midterm and final exam – strayer new

CIS 501 Midterm and Final Exam – Strayer NEW
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Chapters 1 Through 18
Chapter 1
Introduction to DecisionSupport Systems
True-False Questions
1. The role of a DSS is to provide support to the decision-maker during the process of
making a decision.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 3
2. A DSS is used only for unstructured decisions.
3. The purpose of a DSS is to replace the decision maker.
4. The DSS should always be under the ultimate control of the user.
5. A DSS facilitates learning on the part of the decision maker.
6. The most powerful classification of DSSs is the Universal DSS.
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 6
7. A DSS is normally designed to be wide in its scope of application.
8. A highly unstructured decision is one where the objectives of the situation are often
conflicting, the alternatives available to the decision maker are difficult to isolate or
determine, and the effect of a particular course of action or selection of an alternative
carries with it a high degree of uncertainty.
9. The user interface of a DSS performs activities related to problem recognition and
generation of interim or final solutions.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: p. 9

10. The data management component of a DSS is where the activities associated with the
retrieval, storage and organization of the relevant data for the particular decision
context are managed.
11. The data management component of a DSS is responsible for maintaining the logical
independence of the data.
12. The model library stores and manages all solver algorithms within a DSS.
13. Model acquisition is the process by which new information is derived from a
combination of existing or previously derived information.
14. Rules, heuristics and constraints are stored within a knowledge base of a DSS.
15. A model is a simplification of some event or process constructed for the purpose of
studying the phenomenon and thus developing a better understanding of it.
16. Internal data normally comes from an organization’s transaction processing systems
as a normal course of conducting the daily affairs of the organization.
17. Knowledge engineers are specially trained to interact with domain experts for the
purposes of acquiring all of the knowledge the expert has in a particular domain and
all of the relationships among that knowledge.
18. The model base contains the various statistical, financial, mathematical, and other
quantitative models used in performing the variety of analytical capabilities in a DSS.
19. Silver proposed a method of DSS classification based upon the attributes of the
problem-solving context.
20. Hypertext systems are useful for knowledge bases that are document based.

Multiple Choice Questions
21. The realization of the benefits to be derived from using a DSS is dependent upon
which of the following?
a. The decision maker
b. The context of the decision
c. The design of the DSS
d. All of the above.
22. Which of the following contributed to the development of the concept of decision
support systems?
a. J.P. Little
b. Gorry
c. Scott Morton
23. Limitations of a DSS include which of the following?
a. They cannot be designed to copy human imagination.
b. The language interface does not yet allow for natural language processing.
c. They are designed to be narrow in scope.
d. All of the above
24. Strategic planning refers to which of the following activities?
a. Where decisions related to the effective and efficient procurement and
deployment of the organizations assets are made.
b. Where decisions related to the objectives of the organization are made.
c. Where decisions relating to the day-to-day tasks and activities of the
organization are made.
25. Management control refers to which of the following activities?
a. Where decisions related to the objectives of the organization are made.
b. Where decisions related to the effective and efficient procurement and
deployment of the organization’s assets are made.
c. Where decisions relating to the day-to-day task and activities of the
organization are made.
d. None of the above.

26. Operational control is best associated with which of the following activities?
a. Making decisions related to the objectives of the organization.
b. Making decisions related to the effective and efficient procurement and
deployment of the organizations assets.
c. Making decisions relating to the day-to-day tasks and activities of the
organization.
d. Both b and c.
27. The components of a DSS can be classified into which of the following?
a. Data management system, data repository, knowledge engine, model
repository, user(s)
b. Data query facility, model management system, model execution processor,
user interface, user(s)
c. Data management system, model management system, knowledge engine,
user interface, user(s)
d. Data management system, model management system, knowledge engine,
internal data, external data
28. Which of the following is considered a subsystem within the data management
system?
a. Database(s)
b. Database management system
c. The data query facility
29. One of the most important characteristics of a model is that:
a. it is easy to construct.
b. it is commonly found in decision-making environments.
c. it is a simplified form of reality.
30. The two primary responsibilities of the MBMS are:
a. execution and integration of the models available to the DSS and the
modeling of user preferences.
b. execution and integration of the data available to the DSS and the
manipulation of the user interface.
c. execution of the user interface and the modeling of user preferences.
d. acquisition of the knowledge contained within the DSS and the modeling of
user preferences.

31. Which of the following best describes the function and purpose of the inference
engine?
a. It is the subsystem responsible for the acquisition and construction of
knowledge rules.
b. It is a component of a DSS that is specifically intended to allow the user to
access the internal components of that system in a relatively easy fashion and
without having to know specifically how everything is put together or how it
works.
c. It is a program module that activates domain knowledge and performs
inferencing to work toward a solution or conclusion based upon the values for
the facts given and the relationships or rules associated with them.
32. The person who may work closely with the decision maker to assist in
interpreting and explaining the DSS output is called the:
a. domain expert.
b. intermediary.
c. domain operator.
d. knowledge generator.
33. Which of the following are the two primary support orientations for a DSS?
a. Data-centric and model-centric
b. Procedural and non-procedural
c. Programmed and non-programmed
d. Simulated and actual
34. Which of the following is a characteristic of a DSS?
a. It is interactive and user-friendly.
b. It is generally developed using an iterative process.
c. I supports all phases of the decision-making process.
35. Which of the following is not a benefit of DSS use?
a. It shortens the time associated with making a decision.
b. The power of the DSS is based upon the system it is running on.
c. It encourages exploration and discovery on the part of the decision maker.
d. All of the above are benefits.

36. Gorry and Scott Morton’s framework for decision support classifies types of
decisions as:
a. simplified and complex.
b. structured, semi-structured, and unstructured.
c. supported, semi-supported, and unsupported.
37. Which of the following is a function of the presentation language of a DSS?
a. It allows for detailed report definition.
b. It allows for the creation of forms.
c. It provides for the presentation of data in multiple formats.
38. Which of the following is not a DSS usage category?
a. Terminal mode
b. Clerk mode
c. Query mode
d. Subscription mode
39. Which of the following is the DSS classification proposed by Donovan and
Madnick?
a. Structured and unstructured
b. Mechanical and decisional
c. Formal and ad-hoc
40. Which type of decision support system keeps track of a large amount of disparate
documents?
a. Hypertext system
b. Document encyclopedia
c. Silver junction system

Essay Questions
41. Describe the general functions of the Model Base Management System.
42. What are some of the common characteristics of a decision support system?
43. List the five components of a DSS
44. Is a “universal DSS” possible? Why or why not?
45. List the general functions of the DBMS.
46. What are the benefits of DSS use?
47. What are the two main responsibilities of the DBMS?
48. How does knowledge get into the DSS? How can it be retrieved and organized
as useful information?
49. Compare and contrast data-centric versus model-centric systems, formal
versus ad-hoc systems, and directed versus non-directed systems. What are
the advantages and disadvantages of each type?
50. Compare the benefits and limitations of highly procedural languages and
low/non-procedural languages.
Chapter 2
Decisions and Decision Makers
21. The decision maker is considered both an element and participant in the decision.
22. All decisions in an organization are ultimately made by a single individual.

23. A problem is defined as the perception of a difference between the current state of
affairs and a desired state of affairs.
24. A typical decision is often made using the exact order suggested by a normative
model of decision making and tends to use all of the steps contained in the model.
25. Two examples of group decision making are organizational committees and juries.
26. The manner in which a decision is made is referred to as decision style.
27. Decision style is affected by the perception of the problem.
28. The reason there are so many different types of DSSs is that there are many different
types of decisions.
29. Policies and procedures can affect organizational decision making.
30. Simon proposed to classify problems from procedural to non-procedural.
31. Programmed decisions are more difficult to automate in a DSS than non-programmed
decisions.
32. When conflict exists in either goals or approaches to the decision then Delbecq
would classify that as the need for a creative decision.
33. When a novel approach is needed to handle the complexity of the problem, then
Delbecq would classify that as the need for a negotiated decision.
34. Mintzberg classifies adaptive activities as characterized by high risk and motivated
by the proactive and reactive considerations.
35. According to Thompson, his classification scheme differentiates decisions based
upon the type of activities with which the decision is most associated.
36. The most clear-cut phase in the decision making process is the design phase.

37. Simon referred to the process of search-limiting strategies as inferencing.
38. Symptoms of a problem are identical to the problem itself.
39. Stereotyping is a common perceptual block.
40. The tendency to view alternatives as mutually exclusive events is a bias of individual
decision makers.

21. Which of the following is not part of the decision-making process?
a. Stimulus
b. Alternative selection
c. Decision maker
d. All of the above are part of the decision making process.
Difficulty: Easy Reference: pp. 36-37
22. Which of the following is not a category of decision makers within an organization?
a. Individual decision makers
b. Team decision makers
c. Group decision makers
d. All of the above are categories of decision makers.
23. Which of the following is not a factor that affects decision style?
a. Context
b. Inference
c. Values
d. Perception
24. Which of the following is not a decision style behavior?
a. Analytical
b. Behavioral
c. Conceptual
d. All of the above are decisions style behaviors.
25. According to Mintzberg, which of the following is not a decision typology?
a. Entrepreneurial activities
b. Knowledge activities
c. Adaptive activities
d. Planning activities

26. According to Delbecq, which of the following is not a classification scheme for
negotiation?
a. Inferred decisions
b. Routine decisions
c. Creative decisions
d. Negotiated decisions
Difficulty: Medium Reference: pp. 54-55
27. According to Thompson, which of the following is not a type of strategy based
decision scheme?
a. Inspirational strategies
b. Judgmental strategies
c. Conversational strategies
d. Compromise strategies
28. The perception of a problem context is typically caused by one or more:
a. crisis.
b. stimuli.
c. telephone calls.
d. catastrophes.
29. The term used to describe the manner in which a manager makes decisions is called:
a. decision methodology.
b. decision model.
c. decision style.
d. cognitive style.
30. In any problem context, before any effective investigation of alternative solutions can
be conducted, the decision maker must first:
a. establish the available resources.
b. determine the best solution.
c. define the problem.

31. A decision in which many people may serve to influence the final decision but only
one decision maker has the authority and responsibility to make the decision is called
a:
a. unilateral decision.
b. bilateral decision.
c. negotiated decision.
d. unanimous decision.
32. Which of the following involves factors relating to the forces acting on the decision
maker in the course of making the decision?
a. Problem space
b. Problem style
c. Problem context
d. Decision style
33. Which of the following best describes the basic characteristics of the directive
decision style? A directive decision style is characterized by:
a. a high need for structure in the problem context combined with a relatively low
tolerance for context ambiguity and a tendency to function best in a verbal setting
rather than through written communication or other multichannel media.
b. a relatively greater tolerance for context ambiguity, a tendency toward the need for
greater volumes of information and the consideration of large sets of alternatives,
and a preference for written communication media.
c. a long-term thinker with a high tolerance for ambiguity and a tendency to be much
more of a “people person”.
d. conflict-averse with a tendency to rely on meetings and consensus for
communicating to and organizing subordinates.

34. Which of the following best describes the basic characteristics of the analytical
decision style? An analytical decision style is characterized by:
rather than through written communiqué or other multichannel media.
35. Which of the following best describes the basic characteristics of the conceptual
decision style? The conceptual decision style is characterized by:
36. Which of the following best describes the basic characteristics of the behavioral
decision style? The behavioral decision style is characterized by:

37. Simon classified problems on a continuum that ranged from:
a. structured to unstructured.
b. parallel to perpendicular.
c. discrete to obtuse.
d. 1 to 10.
38. Which of the following is not included in the Keen and Scott Morton classification of
decision-making perspectives?
a. Process-oriented perspective
b. Knowledge-engineer perspective
c. Political perspective
d. Rational manager perspective
39. Which of the following is not a satisficing strategy?
a. Simulation
b. “What-if” analysis
c. Markov analysis
d. Linear programming
40. Which of the following is not an optimizing strategy?
a. Goal programming
b. Environmental impact analysis
c. Investment models
d. Transportation models

Essay Questions
41. Define a ‘good decision’.
42. List 10 common types of support provided by a DSS.
51. Define Mintzberg’s activity-based decision typology.
52. Define what is meant by the term bounded rationality.
53. List the major components of the decision-making process.
54. In which portion of the decision-making process is a DSS most helpful for
decisionmakers? Why?
55. List and briefly describe the classes of decision-makers.
56. Describe the three forces that affect a particular individual’s decision style.
The three factors of context, perception, and values intertwine in their relationship to
decision style. The problem context involves factors relating to the forces acting on
the decisionmaker in the course of making the decision. Organizational and
environment forces such as government regulation, new technologies, market
competition, internal power struggles, etc. all serve to reform or affect the problem
context. Further, forces of a more individual nature such as skill set, energy,
motivation, and perceived abilities, among others can also serve as forces that shape
the problem context for the decisionmaker. The totality of these forces must be
balanced and managed by the decisionmaker during the problem-solving process.
57. List and briefly describe the forces that can act on a problem context and on
a decisionmaker during the course of making a decision.
58. List the advantages of using heuristics.
Chapter 3
Decisions in the Organization

41. An organization includes issues of structure and resources.
42. Organizations can be said to be defined by the decisions that they make.
43. Group norms are not a dimension of organizational decision making.
44. All organizational decisions are strategic in their nature.
45. Strategic decisions are typically made at the middle management level and approved
by senior management.
46. The competence of decision-making ability at each level within an organization can
affect the design of a DSS.
47. Cultural fit is a method of viewing the relationship between organizational culture
and decision making.
48. An organization can either have an internal fit or external fit but may not have both
simultaneously.
49. Organizational culture can be a determinant of an organization’s willingness to
change.
50. While an organization may be greater than the sum of its parts, it does not allow its
members to collectively pursue and achieve greater goals than they could by acting
individually.
51. The line personnel who make decisions regarding day-to-day activities relating to
production or services are called operations personnel.
52. A good external fit suggests a culture that is shaped to both the organization’s
strategy and its marketplace.
53. Internal fit refers to the match between an organization’s culture and its leaders.

54. Informal power is the term used to define how a manager exercises authority and
whether he or she wishes to exercise the power available to them.
55. Organizational politics influences organizational power.
56. Organizational politics is always a disruptive factor in organizations.
57. In the design of a DSS, organizational politics should be considered.
58. The distinguishing characteristic of an ODSS over a GDSS is managerial control.

19. Which of the following is not a dimension of organizational decision making?
a. Group roles
b. Group processes
c. Group structure
d. All of the above are dimensions.
20. Which of the following is not an organizational decision level?
a. Operations
b. Tactical
c. Directing
d. Strategic
21. Which of the following is not a characteristic of organizational culture?
a. Risk tolerance
b. Fault tolerance
c. Conflict tolerance
d. Communication patterns
22. Which of the following is not a characteristic of organizational culture?
a. Direction
b. Control
c. Reward system
d. Personnel system
23. The concept of viewing an organization as a “nexus of decisions” suggests that:
a. an organization is a unified system of resources defined and structured by a
collective of functional and political subsystems bound by a set of stated goals
and functioning within a set of loosely defined environments.
b. the organization’s purpose is to make decisions within a business environment; it
is defined by its decision opportunities, authorities, and responsibilities.
c. an organization is a chaotic environment where decisions occur both randomly
and without purpose.

24. Of the various factors affecting organizational decisions, the concept of group
structure is best defined as:
a. the relationships between the actual point of decision and the participants in the
decision-making process.
b. each member of a decision-making body has one or more specified roles that can
affect both the nature of the decision strategy employed as well as the scope of
decision types assigned.
c. the process employed be a decision-making body can impact the type of
decisions that can be effectively made by that body which can conversely affect
the method or process that must be used to make those types of decisions.
d. issues related to shared meaning among the constituents, individual and
collective social pressures, genres, and prescriptions regarding behavior,
personal beliefs, and potential sanctions.
25. Of the various factors affecting organizational decisions, the concept of group roles
is best described as:
a. the relationships between the actual point of decision (the person or persons
actually making the decision) and the participants in the decision-making
process.
b. each member of a decision-making body has one or more specified purposes that
can affect both the nature of the decision strategy employed as well as the scope
of decision types assigned.
c. the process employed by a decision-making body can impact the type of
d. issues relating to shared meaning among constituents, individual and collective
social pressures, genres and prescriptions regarding behavior, personal beliefs,
and potential sanctions.

26. Of the various factors affecting organizational decisions, the circular nature of group
process is best described as:
process.
d. issues relating to shared meaning among the constituents, individual and
collective social pressures, genres and prescriptions regarding behavior, personal
beliefs, and potential sanctions.
27. Of the various factors affecting organizational decisions, the concept of group norms
is best defined as:
process.
d. issues relating to shared meaning among the constituents, individual and
collective social pressures, genres and prescriptions regarding behavior, personal
beliefs, and potential sanctions.
28. An organization, when viewed from a decision-making perspective, can be
conceptualized by which of the following three discrete levels of hierarchy?
a. Planning, controlling, doing
b. Management, labor, stakeholders
c. Operations, planning, and strategic
d. Tactical, political, social

29. Cultures that tend to minimize individual initiative and risk taking, such as those of
a product-driven orientation:
a. tend to support a more centralized decision-making emphasis where operating
procedures, policies, schedules, etc. are all prescribed from a central authority.
b. tend to adopt more routine technologies that provide additional stability to the
organization.
c. tend to adopt nonroutine technologies that require adaptability.
d. Both a and b.
30. Cultures where initiative, creativity, and risk-taking are supported or rewarded:
a. tend to support a more centralized decision-making emphasis where operating
procedures, policies, schedules, etc. are all prescribed from a central authority.
b. tend to adopt more routine technologies that provide additional stability to the
organization.
c. tend to adopt nonroutine technologies that require adaptability.
d. Both a and b.
31. Which of the following would not be considered a characteristic of an organization’s
culture?
a. Degree of individual initiative
b. Degree of risk tolerance
c. Degree of market share
d. Ccommunication patterns
32. Which of the following is considered a characteristic of excellent companies?
a. They are hands-on and value driven.
b. They recognize that productivity is based on people.
c. They have a bias towards action.
33. The concept which states that an individual will eventually be promoted to their
level of incompetence is known as the:
a. Law of Incompetence.
b. Parretto Principle.
c. Peter Principle.

34. The distinguishing characteristic of an ODSS over a GDSS is that of
a. size.
b. managerial control.
c. application.
d. Both b and c.
35. Which of the following is not one of the five factors of power?
a. Judgment
b. Authority
c. Informal power
36. Which of the following is true of organizational politics?
a. Politics can often serve to ensure an objective hearing of all sides of an issue.
b. Politics can facilitate the decision-making process.
c. Politics can facilitate organizational change.
d. All of the above are true.
37. The ________________ level of an organization focuses on the implementation of
decisions made at the highest level of the organization as well as decisions involving
the acquisition of resources necessary to maintain desired capacities and outputs at
the operations level.
a. operations
b. planning
c. strategic
d. tactical
or d Difficulty: Easy Reference: p. 91
38. The members of the ___________________ level of an organization include the
senior executives of the largest industrial and service firms in the world, the top
administrators of the largest government agencies, and the generals and senior
officers in the military.
a. operations
b. planning
c. strategic

Essay Questions
39. Provide a definition for the term organization.
40. Identify and describe the three levels of organizational decision making.
41. Define organizational culture.
42. List ten characteristics of organizational culture.
59. List 10 of 12 significant elements of managerial decision-making power, as defined
by Harrison (1995).
Chapter 4
Modeling Decision Processes
59. The typical decision-maker, more often than one might imagine, fails to formally and
concisely identify the problem at hand before beginning the process of solving it.
60. A problem is defined as the difference between the current state of affairs and the
desired state of affairs.
61. A common error when creating a problem statement is to prematurely focus on the
possible solutions.
62. One way to determine what the real underlying problem is to expore the reasons why
an alternative is viable.
63. The priorities of a decision maker are determined by the size of the solution.
64. The priorities of a decision maker are affected by the scope of the problem.

65. A designer must never revise a decision made at one point in the process to account for
a change made in another.
66. There are always at least two possible alternative problem solutions.
67. Problem structures can be described in terms of three fundamental components: (1)
choices, (2) uncertainties, and (3) objectives.
68. Implicit in the concept of choice is the existence of multiple alternatives.
69. In an influence diagram, the three components of a problem structure are represented by
specific shapes and are combined and connected to represent the problem being
modeled.
70. Although the solution may be obvious, problem structures always have a clear
beginning.
71. An optimal solution is always guaranteed when using a simulation model.
72. Conceptual models can be thought of as analogies to the problem context.
73. In a deterministic model, a variable can have multiple values and must therefore be
described by a probability function.
74. In a stochastic model, no variable can take on more than one value at a given time.
75. According to Howard’s test of clarity, the events of every model should be fully
determined without interpretation.
76. Decisions made in conditions of certainty are the most difficult.
77. Hayes Model Base Rule is used to determine the appropriate forecasting technique
for DSSs.

78. Odds forecasting is a common technique for eliciting subjective probability.

21. Which of the following is not a component of a problem statement?
a. The desired state of affairs
b. The current state of affairs
c. The past state of affairs
22. Which of the following is not part of the design of a problem structure?
a. The relationship between elemental details and the final appearance of the
solution
b. The interim solution
c. The final problem solution
23. Which of the following is not a tool for modeling the structure of a problem?
a. Problem analysis case
b. Decision tree
c. Influence diagram
24. Which of the following is not a decision tree rule?
a. The branches represent all possible outcomes.
b. The branches are structured to allow for multiple choices per branch.
c. All possible alternatives are fully mapped.
25. Which of the following is not a decision model classification?
a. Domain-specific models
b. Abstract variation models
c. Stochastic models

26. Which of the following is not a requirement of probability?
a. All probabilities must be within the range of -1 to 1.
b. The probabilities of all individual outcomes of an event must add up to the
probability of their union.
c. The total probability of the complete set of outcomes must be equal to 1.
d. All of the above are requirements of probability.
27. Probability can be expressed as:
a. long-run.
b. subjective.
c. logical.
28. Which of the following is not a technique for forecasting probability?
a. Logical forecasting
b. Direct forecasting
c. Odds forecasting
d. Comparison forecasting
29. Models that do not explicitly acknowledge time are called:
a. static models.
b. dynamic models.
c. simulation models.
d. stochastic models.
30. The concept of __________ suggests that while a probability may be derivable,
its accuracy may not be acceptable under any circumstances.
a. subjective probability
b. logical probability
c. long-run probability
d. stochastic probability
31. Which of the following affects the selection of a forecasting technique?
a. Problem structure
b. Availability
c. Problem size

32. Which of the following affects the selection of a forecasting technique?
a. Precision
b. Complexity
c. DSS designer preference
33. Rather than a single probability estimation we might benefit from an estimation
of the worst-case scenario and the best-case scenario. Properly constructed, we
can say that the actual probability estimate lies somewhere between these two
values. This range of values is referred to as a ________.
a. probability estimation
b. t-test
c. logical probability
d. confidence interval
34. A method used to determine the degree to which the alteration of an underlying
assumption has a material effect on the results obtained from a model is known
as:
a. simulation.
b. sensitivity analysis.
c. discriminant validity.
35. Which of the following is not a suitable technique for eliciting numerical
subjective probability estimations that can then be combined with other estimates
using the laws of probability?
a. Direct forecasting
b. Odds forecasting
c. Ad hoc forecasting
d. Comparison forecasting
36. A model in which at least one of the variables in the model is uncertain and must
be described by some probability function is known as a:
a. static model.
b. stochastic model.
c. deterministic model.
d. dynamic model.

37. A model which focuses on the mathematical precision with which various
outcomes can be predicted is referred to as a(n):
a. static models.
b. dynamic models.
c. simulation models.
d. abstract models.
38. Which of the following is true of Howard’s Test of Clarity?
a. The influence diagram contains at least three alternatives.
b. All of the components of the context model are clearly defined.
c. Long-run probability is utilized.
39. In any choice there is a(n) _____ probability of at least one alternative being
selected and there is an ____ probability of any particular one being selected.
a. unequal, equal
b. 0%, unequal
c. 100%, equal
d. 100%, unequal
40. Which type of forecasting presents the decision maker with a choice between
participating in one or two lottery-type games?
a. Comparison forecasting
b. Odds forecasting
c. Direct probability forecasting
d. Calibration forecasting

Essay Questions
41. Identify the steps in creating a simulation model.
42. Briefly describe the disadvantages of simulation modeling.
60. List and briefly describe the types of abstract models.
61. Define sensitivity analysis and state its value to decisionmakers.
62. List and briefly describe the various types of probabilities.
Chapter 5
Group Decision Support and Groupware Technologies
79. A group can be defined as a simple collective entity that is independent of its
members.
80. A group can be defined by the structure of the problem context.
81. MDM is defined as an activity conducted by a collective entity composed of two or
more individuals and characterized in terms of both the properties of the collective
entity as well as its individual members.
82. MDMs can be classified in terms of the degree of centralization characterized by
each of the four network structures.
83. In a chain network, each participant can communicate with the decision maker at the
center but not with each other.
84. In a wheel network, the decision maker can communicate with anyone.

85. In a circle network, all members have an equal opportunity for communication.
86. The completely connected network structure is the least restrictive structure.
87. The chain network displays a high degree of centrality and is appropriate for routine
or recurring decisions with high-probability outcomes.
88. The circle network serves as the basis for the group and committee MDM structures and
is often employed in situations where negotiation or consensus must be the basis for the
final decision.
89. When the expertise of the decision maker is critical, then the most appropriate
decision structure is a committee.
90. In group decision making, the factor that has the greatest impact is the size of the
group.
91. Think-tank is the term referred to as a mode of thinking that people engage in when
their desire to fit in overrides their decision-making ability.
92. One common method used to control sources of potential conflict is participant
anonymity.
93. A GDSS is a collective of computer-based technologies used to aid multiparticipant
efforts directed at identifying and addressing problems, opportunities, and issues.
94. An ODSS is a complex system of computer-based technologies, including those that
facilitate communication that provides support for decision makers spanning the
range of organizational roles and functional levels, and accommodates decision
contexts that cut across organizational units.
95. Process structure of an MDM involves various mechanisms focused on facilitating
participant interaction.
96. Groupware is focused on issues related to collaborative processes among people.

97. E-mail would not be considered a type of groupware because it is an asynchronous
process.
98. Nominal group techniques works best when there is a single decision maker
structure.

21. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a highly centralized network
structure?
a. They are efficient for routine and recurring decisions.
b. They tend to produce lower average levels of satisfaction among the
participants.
c. They promote innovative solutions.
d. They tend to result in a stable set of interactions among the participants.
22. Which of the following is true of a completely connected network structure?
a. They tend to produce lower average levels of satisfaction among the
participants.
b. They tend to strengthen the leadership position of the central members.
c. They promote creative solutions.
d. They tend to result in a stable set of interactions among the participants.
23. Which of the following is a factor used in determining decision structure?
a. The degree of structuredness of the problem structure
b. The probability of acceptance of an autocratic decision
c. The importance of the quality of the decision
24. Which of the following is not true regarding the relationship between group size
and its affect on MDM?
a. Participant interaction increases as the size increases.
b. Affective relationships tend to decrease as size increases.
c. Central leadership tends to increase as size increases.
25. Which of the following communication networks displays a high degree of
centrality and is appropriate for routine or recurring decisions with high-
probability outcomes?
a. Wheel
b. Chain
c. Circle
d. Completely connected

26. Which of the following is not considered one of the four basic types of
communication networks?
a. Wheel
b. Chain
c. Circle
d. Semi-connected
27. Which of the following networks is most appropriate when routine or recurring
decisions are being made?
a. Wheel
b. Chain
c. Circle
28. Which of the following network structures serves as the basis for the group and
committee MDM structure and is often employed in situations where negotiation or
consensus must be the basis for the final decision?
a. Wheel
b. Chain
c. Circle
29. A mode of thinking that people engage in when they are deeply involved in a
cohesive ingroup, where the members’ striving for unanimity overrides their
motivation to realistically appraise alternative courses of action is known as:
a. structured decision making.
b. groupthink.
c. team MDM.
d. MDM analysis.
30. A(n) _____ is a complex system of computer-based technologies, including those
that facilitate communication, that provides support for decision-makers spanning
the range of organizational roles and functional levels and accommodates
decision contexts that cut across organizational units.
a. ODSS
b. GSS
c. GDSS
d. DSS

31. A(n) ____ is a collective of computer-based technologies used to aid
multiparticipant efforts directed at identifying and addressing problems,
opportunities and issues.
a. ODSS
b. GSS
c. GDSS
d. DSS
32. A(n) ___ is a collective of computer-based technologies that are specifically
designed to support the activities and processes related to multiparticipant
decision making.
a. ODSS
b. GSS
c. GDSS
d. DSS
33. A(n) ____ is a system under the control of one or more decision makers that
assists in the activity of decision making by providing an organized set of tools
intended to impart structure to portions of the decision-making situation and to
improve the ultimate effectiveness of the decision outcome.
a. ODSS
b. GSS
c. GDSS
d. DSS
34. Which of the following is not one of the four basic approaches that have been
identified through which MDM support can be provided?
a. Process support
b. Process structure
c. Task support
d. Organizational structure

35. ______ involves providing various mechanisms focused on facilitating
participant interaction, communication, knowledge gathering, and memory.
These mechanisms are omnipresent in all current deployments of GSS and
groupware applications.
a. Process support
c. Task support
d. Task structure
36. ______ focuses on mechanisms that serve to govern the various communication
activities among participants including the pattern of interaction, the timing, and
sometimes even the content.
a. Process support
c. Task support
d. Task structure
37. ______ involves the application of mechanisms that can select, organize, or even
derive information and knowledge that is specifically relevant to the task or
decision at hand.
a. Process support
c. Task support
d. Task structure
38. The _____________ MDM system is primarily intended to focus on facilitation
of communication among the participants. Its main objective is to hasten and
stimulate the exchange of messages and to reduce or remove the inherent barriers
to communication associated with MDM activities.
a. Level 1
b. Level 2
c. Level 3

39. The _____________ MDM systems are designed to reduce uncertainty that can
evolve from an MDM problem-solving activity. Both process and task
structuring mechanisms are typically found in this class of MDM support.
a. Level 1
b. Level 2
c. Level 3
40. The _____________ system contains all of the features of its predecessors and
expands the support mechanisms through an increase in process structuring
techniques intended to control participant interaction.
a. Level 1
b. Level 2
c. Level 3

Essay Questions
41. Identify the factors used in determining decision structure.
42. What are the potential consequences of groupthink?
63. Define the term multiparticipant decision maker (MDM).
64. Define groupware. Where is it applicable?
65. List the forces that describe groupware development.
Chapter 6
Executive Information Systems
99. An EIS is a special type of DSS designed to facilitate the analysis of information to
support strategic decision-making.
100. An EIS is designed to support the CEO of a firm
101. An EIS is a unique DSS designed exclusively to analyze the operations of a firm.
102. An EIS can be designed and built quickly because it only deals with summarized
information.
103. A sales report showing revenue against forecast targets along with projections for the
next two quarters is an example of an EIS output.
104. The ability to perform drill down analysis is an important feature of an EIS.
105. A well designed EIS will replace the need for MIS applications

106. A well designed EIS replaces the need for all other DSSs within an organization
107. Executives spend more time on disturbance management than organizational staffing.
108. The majority of executive time is spent in some form of disturbance management
activity.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: pp. 178-179
109. The total study method, critical success factor method or key indicator method could
be used to define an EIS
110. An EIS normally requires unique hardware configurations, making them expensive to
build.
111. An EIS normally requires unique software components.
112. An organization that does not wish to build their own EIS can purchase one “off-the-
shelf”.
113. In the structural perspective of the EIS development framework, the focus is on
people and data as they relate to the EIS.
114. The structural perspective of the EIS development framework builds upon the elements
and their relationships contained within the structural model and adds a time dimension
to the framework. In this component, the various activities and sequences of events are
delineated and actual project management issues relating to time, critical path, and
milestones are established.
115. The dialog system of an EIS contains an action language where the user is directed in
how to use the system, and learns where the various commands and elements of
manipulation are contained and processed.
116. The knowledge base in an EIS is the sum of what the executive knows about using
the system and all of the support mechanisms designed to assist in its use.
117. Two organizational limitations of an EIS are time bias and loss of managerial
synchronization.

118. The development framework of an EIS is used to establish development guidelines.

21. Which of the following is a computer-based system intended to facilitate and
support the information and decision-making needs of senior executives by
providing easy access to both internal and external information relevant to
meeting stated goals of the organization?
a. EIS
b. ES
c. DSS
d. Data Warehouse
22. Which of the following is a characteristic of an EIS?
a. Tailored to individual executives
b. Can present information in multiple formats
c. Provides tools to extract, filter and track critical information
23. Which of the following is an activity performed by managers?
a. Staffing
b. Directing
c. Organizing
24. Which of the following is not a common characteristic of executives?
a. They are future-oriented and focus on strategic activities.
b. They have narrow spans of control.
c. They are responsible for establishing policies.
d. They are concerned with internal and external issues.
25. Which of the following is not a method for determining executive information
needs?
a. Null method
b. Normal method
c. By-product method
d. Total study method

26. Which method for determining executive needs primarily uses traditional TPS
and MIS applications as it source of information?
a. Null method
b. Normal method
27. Which method for determining executive needs could best be described by the
phrase management by walking around?
a. Null method
b. Normal method
28. Which method for determining executive needs gathers information from a
sample of top-level executives concerning the totality of information needs?
a. Null method
b. Normal method
29. Which method for determining executive needs is the most comprehensive?
a. Normal method
b. Key indicators method
c. Case study method
d. Critical success factors method
Difficulty: Method Reference: p. 183
30. The _______________ method for determining executive information needs is
based on three basic notions: 1) The health of an organization can be determined
by comparison to a set of key financial indicators; 2) organizations can be
managed based on exception reporting where only those areas operating outside
of a preestablished set of norms are of interest; 3) and technology is available to
allow for flexible display of key indicator information in graphical form.
a. key indicator
b. critical success factor
c. normal
d. by-product

31. Using an EIS to explore the underlying data used to compile the current ratio
would be an example of which of the following activities?
a. Compilation
b. Aggregation
c. Drill down analysis
32. When something unexpected occurs, particularly something that could materially
and negatively impact the financial health of the organization, the immediate
attention of executives and the deployment of resources are usually warranted.
Executive activity during these periods is called:
a. entrepreneurial.
b. disturbance management.
c. resource allocation.
d. negotiation.
33. Which of the following is not a component of an EIS development framework?
a. Structural perspective
b. Intelligent knowledge base
c. User-system dialog
34. Which of the following would not be considered a benefit of a client/server
environment?
a. Reduction of investment costs in new computer hardware
b. Establishment of a more flexible and responsive platform
c. Increased control over locally stored data
d. Multiple views of geographically dispersed data
35. The ____________ portion of the EIS development framework builds upon the
elements and their relationships contained within the structural model and adds a
time dimension to the framework. In this component, the various activities and
sequences of events are delineated and actual project management issues relating
to time, critical path, and milestones are established.
a. structural
b. development process
c. dialog system
d. knowledge base

36. The _______________ portion of an EIS contains an action language where the
user is directed in how to use the system, and learns where the various commands
and elements of manipulation are contained and processed. The action language
element can be thought of as the incoming communication channel from the
executive to the EIS.
a. structural
c. dialog system
d. knowledge base
37. The _________________ portion of an EIS is the sum of what the executive
knows about using the system and all of the support mechanisms designed to
assist in its use.
a. structural
c. dialog system
d. knowledge base
38. _______________ activities fall under the general heading of strategic planning
tasks. Executives spent a significant portion of their time focusing on the
selection, design, and implementation of improvements and projects intended to
improve performance and initiate controlled change within the organization.
a. Entrepreneurial
b. Disturbance management
c. Resource allocation
d. Negotiation
39. Managers at various levels are given authority to manage and deploy assets from
a predetermined allocation and based upon a control mechanism such as a budget
or operational plan. The authority to deploy those assets and the various behind
the scenes activities to obtain them normally performed by top executives is
associated with which of the following activities?
a. Entrepreneurial
b. Disturbance management
c. Resource allocation
d. Negotiation

40. Executives are charged with the responsibility of representing the organization in
both internal and external disputes. Typically, this role involves the resolution of
disputes and conflicts and, thus, involves a significant amount of negotiation
among the parties. This type of activity is called:
a. entrepreneurial.
b. disturbance management.
c. resource allocation.
d. negotiation.

Essay Questions
41. List the characteristics of an Executive Information System.
42. Define an Executive Information System.
66. List the Common Characteristics of Executives.
67. List and briefly describe several EIS limitations.
68. Briefly describe the EIS of tomorrow.
Chapter 7
Expert Systems and Artificial Intelligence
119. An Expert System is designed to solve a specific knowledge domain problem.
120. Artificial Intelligence can be defined as the study of how to make computers do
things that people do better.
121. Reverse reasoning begins with a series of subproblems and builds into one cohesive
problem statement.
122. All expert systems are based upon the use of reverse reasoning.
123. The first artificial intelligence system was referred to as LISP.
124. Categorization involves the creation of a loose set of hierarchies where lower-level
pieces of information inherit characteristics from a higher-level category.
125. Reasoning by expectations uses components of heuristics and categorization.

126. Once we have experienced a particular situation or phenomena enough, we begin to
expect it to appear in a certain manner or under a predictable set of conditions.
127. Rule-based reasoning is a process in which the computer is given the characteristics of
the problem space in the form of input values. It then uses the rules contained within its
knowledge base to methodically change the state of the problem space to the desired
condition.
Difficulty: Hard Reference: pp. 211-212
128. The form of knowledge that is formed from antecedents and consequents is referred
to as inferential knowledge.
129. The form of knowledge where the conditions take the form of a stated situation and
the operative becomes an action to take when the stated situation is logically true is
referred to as procedural knowledge.
130. The form of knowledge whereby a conclusion is reached as a result of one or more
premises being established is referred to as declarative knowledge.
131. In an object network, concepts are represented as nodes and the arcs connecting the
nodes represent their relationships.
132. Representations of objects that are typical of a category are referred to as frames.
133. In a frame, a trigger is a short procedure that can be triggered whenever a slot is
created, modified or accessed.
134. Frames are the most useful knowledge domain for analyzing legal precedent.
135. Genetic algorithms figure out which rules from prior cycles did not fire, which rules
from the prior cycle will not fire in the next cycle, and which rules from the prior
cycle that did not fire are most likely to fire next.
136. Neural networks are the branch of AI that most closely resemble how the human
brain operates.
137. The inference engine of an ES contains the specific knowledge collected from the
sample of domain experts.

138. The inference engine performs deductions or inferences based on rules or facts. In
addition, it is capable of performing inexact or fuzzy reasoning based on probability
or pattern matching.

21. Which of the following is not true of artificial intelligence?
a. AI focuses on how people think.
b. AI focuses on how people reason.
c. AI translates understanding into computer systems that can perform the same
actions.
d. All of the above are true.
22. Which of the following is not a type of reasoning?
a. Heursitics
b. Past experience
c. Cognitive idealism
23. Which reasoning type is the most common?
a. Categorization
b. Specific rules
c. Expectations
24. Which type of reasoning uses components of heuristics and categorization?
a. Specific rules
b. Expectations
c. Past experience
d. Cognitive idealism
25. Which of the following forms of knowledge can be encoded via a rule set?
a. Procedural knowledge
b. Declarative knowledge
c. Inferential knowledge

26. Which of the following represents entities as nodes and the arcs that connect the
nodes represent relationships?
a. Object network
b. Frames
c. Knowledge network
27. Which Of the following is not a daemon?
a. If modified
b. If inquiry
c. If deleted
d. If necessary
28. The concept of frames is analogous to which human reasoning method?
a. Past experience
b. Heuristics
c. Categorization
29. Which of the following is most useful in a knowledge domain where precedence
reasoning is most appropriate?
a. Frames
b. Pattern recognition
c. Case-based reasoning
d. Rete algorithms
30. Which branch of AI most closely resembles how the human brain operates?
a. Genetic algorithms
b. Neural networks
c. Machine learning
d. Rete algorithms

31. Which classification of AI relies on learning from past experiences using
examples and analogies?
a. Machine learning
b. Frames
c. Pattern recognition
d. Genetic algorithms
32. Which component of an ES contains the domain-specific knowledge collected
from the sample of domain experts during the design stage?
a. User interface
b. Knowledge base
c. Inference engine
33. Which of the following is not an example of a heuristic?
a. If the meal includes red meat, then chose a red wine.
b. If the Los Angeles Lakers are playing at home, they will be favored to win.
c. Bonds always hits a home run following an intentional walk.
d. Tuesday always follows Monday.
34. The _____________ performs deductions or inferences based on rules or facts. In
addition, it is capable of performing inexact or fuzzy reasoning based on
probability or pattern matching.
a. inference engine
b. dialog system
c. database
d. knowledge base
35. Chaining is a simple method used by most IEs to produce a line of reasoning.
Using this method the set of rules are organized in a recursive manner such that a
fact concluded by one rule is used as the premise for the next. The two types of
chaining bases which are possible in an ES are:
a. straight and link.
b. forward and backward.
c. upward and downward.
d. inside and outside.

36. The ES component which provides the ES user with an area of working memory
to use as a workspace for the various other components of the ES is the:
a. dialog system.
b. user interface.
c. knowledge base.
d. blackboard.
37. Which of the following is not a candidate situation for ES opportunities?
a. Need to define a repetitive process to automate a manufacturing process
b. Need to evaluate a process
c. Need to control or govern a particular activity
d. Need to understand the nature of a given situation
38. Which of the following is a candidate situation for ES opportunities?
a. Need for diagnosis of a problem situation
b. Need to predict the outcome of a current or future event
c. Need to evaluate and assess a prior event
39. Which of the following is not a criterion for the evaluation of an expert system?
a. The system should be responsive and easy to use.
b. The knowledge base should contain generally accepted knowledge.
c. The explanatory facility should be user-friendly.
d. All of the above are criteria.
40. Which of the following is a limitation associated with common ES task
categories?
a. Data may be inaccurate.
b. Data may be missing.
c. Multiple symptoms can confound diagnosis.
d. All of the above are limitations.

Essay Questions
41. Provide a definition for the term Expert System.
42. List and explain the different types of human reasoning processes.
43. What are the benefits of expert systems?
44. Identify eight problems or limitations associated with expert systems.
45. Define each of the following terms:
approach of the life sciences of “taking apart” living organisms to see how
they work, AL attempts to “put together” systems that behave like living
organisms.
Chapter 8
Knowledge Engineering and Acquisition
139. Both knowledge engineers and system analysts have the same goal; to create a
thorough specification of an information system that can be successfully
implemented.
140. Knowledge engineers need to have a high degree of domain knowledge combined
with a broad set of system development skills.
141. Each expert system is a one-of-a-kind system and its success is predicated on the skill
of the KEs to extract knowledge that is deeply hidden in the mind of a human expert.
142. Data are facts, measurements, or observations with or without context.
143. Apples and oranges are an example of data.
144. Information is knowledge organized in a manner as to render it useful and relevant to
a problem solver in making decisions.

145. Knowledge is the application of a combination of instincts, ideas, rules, procedures,
and information to guide the actions and decisions of a problem solver within a
particular problem context.
146. Knowledge is an interpretation made by the mind.
147. If a system contains a knowledge representation, such as a model or rule set, of
something, then the system itself can also be said to have knowledge, namely the
knowledge embodied in that representation about that thing.
148. In the knowledge representation perspective, knowledge is seen as a set of stocks or
inventories in which items are transferred from one stock to another based on process
or external event.
149. As the state of knowledge is increased, the chance for information overload is
diminished and the quality of the knowledge is extended.
150. In knowledge acquisition (KA), the elicitation, gathering, organizing, and
formalization of the knowledge of experts in a specific domain is conducted with the
goal of transforming that knowledge into some computer-usable representation.
151. Descriptive knowledge may be analyzed using procedural knowledge.
152. The acquisition of knowledge from external sources must be an active process.
153. The primary functions of the performance model are to fully define the task under
study, assist in the selection of the expert(s), establish the user characteristics and
performance criteria for the system, and to function as an interpretive framework for
protocol analysis of the experts’ responses.
154. Knowledge engineer-driven acquisition is considered the most common approach to
information gathering.
155. Kim and Courtney proposed that knowledge be classified across strategic and
performance dimensions.
156. When using the expert-driven approach to KA, the expert encodes his or her own
expertise and knowledge and enters it directly into the computer system.

157. Interviewing is probably the most widely used and familiar of all KA techniques.
158. Validation is concerned with whether or not the system we built conforms to its
original specifications.

21. Which of the following is an example of data?
a. 23, 24, 25
b. 30, 13, 12
c. John, Adam, Kim
22. Which of the following includes the application of a combination of instincts,
ideas, rules and procedures to guide actions and decisions?
a. Data
b. Information
c. Knowledge
23. Data organized in such a manner as to render it useful and relevant to a problem
solver in making decisions is referred to as:
a. Knowledge
b. Expertise
c. Information
d. Wisdom
24. The ____________ perspective suggests that learning is a form of knowledge
production and that knowledge is “manufactured” as well as acquired.
Knowledge is seen as a set of stocks or inventories in which items are transferred
from one stock to another based on process or external event.
a. Knowledge representation
b. Production
c. Knowledge states
25. Which of the following is not a predominant knowledge perspective?
a. Representation
b. Analysis
c. Production
d. States

26. According to van Lohuizen, which of the following is not a knowledge state?
a. Data
b. Insight
c. Intuition
d. Decision
27. According to van Lohuizen, which of the following is not a knowledge state?
a. Structured information
b. Wisdom
c. Judgment
28. According to Holsapple and Whinston, which of the following is a primary
knowledge type?
a. Linguistic
b. Presentation
c. Procedural
29. According to Holsapple and Whinston, which of the following is a secondary
knowledge type?
a. Descriptive
b. Assimilative
c. Reasoning
30. The process by which elicitation, gathering, organizing, and formalization of the
knowledge of experts in a specific domain is conducted with the goal of
transforming that knowledge into some computer-usable representation is called:
a. Knowledge inference.
b. Requirements determination.
c. Knowledge acquisition.
d. Performance modeling.

31. According to Kim and Courtney, knowledge acquisition can be classified across
which two dimensions?
a. Statistical, tactical
b. Operational, stochastic
c. Strategic, tacit
32. The primary vehicle by which the information necessary to construct the
performance model is gathered is through verbalization by the expert, often
referred to as
a. political analysis.
b. knowledge engineering.
c. protocol analysis.
d. machine-driven learning.
33. Which knowledge acquisition technique requires a significant amount of up-front
planning?
a. Structured interviews
b. Unstructured interviews
c. General interviews
34. When using the ___________ approach to KA, the expert encodes his or her own
expertise and knowledge and enters it directly into the computer system. In this
regard, the expert is serving two roles: expert and KE.
a. expert-driven
b. KE-driven
c. machine-driven
35. _____________is that part of the evaluation process that focuses on the
performance aspects of the knowledge base.
a. Verification
b. Efficiency
c. Validation
d. Criterion measurement

36. _____________ is concerned with whether or not we built a system that performs
with an acceptable level of competence and accuracy.
a. Verification
b. Efficiency
c. Validation
d. Criterion measurement
37. Which of the following is not part of a preinterview checklist?
a. Decide what you need to know.
b. Determine the appropriate degree of structure for the interview.
c. Determine that an interview is the best method for obtaining this information.
d. All of the above are part of a preinterview checklist.
38. Which of the following is a necessary task condition for successful concurrent
protocols?
a. Each task must have a clearly defined conclusion.
b. The task must be able to be completed within two protocol sessions.
c. All data must be presented to the expert in a familiar form.
39. The knowledge validation measure that defines how credible the knowledge is is
referred to as:
a. depth.
b. breadth.
c. face validity.
d. robustness.
40. The knowledge validation measure that defines the impact of changes in the
knowledge base on the quality of the outputs is referred to as:
a. sensitivity.
b. appeal.
c. adaptability.

Essay Questions
41. What are the three primary challenges to obtaining valid knowledge?
42. Compare KE-driven KA with expert-driven KA. What are the advantages and
disadvantages of each method?
69. What are the primary functions of the task model?
70. What are the benefits and limitations of the repertory grid method of
knowledge gathering?
71. Define validity and verification in the context of the knowledge base.
Chapter 9
Machines That Can Learn
159. Neural computing involves processing information by means of changing states of
networks formed by interconnecting extremely large numbers of simple processing
elements that interact with one another by exchanging signals.
160. Fuzzy logic allows for the partial description of a rule.
161. Fuzzy logic is key to developing computers that can think.
162. The human language has evolved to allow for the conveyance of meaning through
semantic approximation rather than precise content
163. Fuzzy logic deals with the likelihood that something has a particular property while
probability deals with the degree to which a particular property is present in
something
164. Fuzzy logic is a new development in the computing industry that emerged as a result
of the development of Internet search engines.
165. Fuzzy logic can deal with any degree of change in input.

166. When continuous variables are involved, traditional rule-based systems tend to
provide more accurate results than fuzzy logic.
167. Fuzzy logic allows for the modeling of contradiction within a knowledge base.
168. One of the limitations of a fuzzy logic system is that each rule is dependant upon all
of the other rules in the knowledge base.
169. Under highly complex situations, fuzzy logic rules are highly verifiable.
170. Artificial neural networks are simple computer-based programs whose primary
function is to construct models of a problem space based upon trial and error.
171. The transmission of signals from one neuron to another in an artificial neural network
occurs at the neural synapse via a complex chemical process in which specific
substances, called neurotransmitters, are released from one side of the synaptic
junction.
172. The ANN involves an interconnected system of nodes called neurodes that are
associated with one or more weighted connections that are equivalent to human
neural synapses, inside the memory of a digital computer. The construction of the
ANN is one of multiple layers with the connections running between the layers.
173. The basic structure a typical neurode consists of is a set of weighted input
connections, a bias input, a state function, a nonlinear transfer function, and an output
connection.
174. The purpose of a state function is to consolidate the weights of the various inputs to
the neurode into a single value that can be passed to the transfer function for
processing.
175. The primary purpose of the learning paradigm is to serve as the vehicle by which the
summed information is passed on as output.
176. An advantage of automated neural nets is the elimination of the need for direct input
from experts.

177. The GA’s smallest unit is called a chromosome. The chromosome represents the
smallest unit of information in the problem domain and can be thought of as the basic
building block for a possible solution.
178. The GA’s smallest unit is called a gene. The gene represents the smallest unit of
information in the problem domain and can be thought of as the basic building block
for a possible solution.

21. ______________ is a method of reasoning that allows for the partial description
of a rule. Combining this approach to reasoning with the realm of digital
processors has results in a class of computer applications that can “learn” from
their mistakes and can “understand” the vagaries commonly found in human
thought.
a. Backward propagation
b. Forward propagation
c. Fuzzy logic
d. Neural computing
22. Which of the following is not true of fuzzy logic?
a. Fuzzy logic focuses on gradation.
b. Fuzzy logic utilizes precise distinction.
c. Fuzzy logic allows for the partial description of a rule.
23. Which of the following is an advantage of fuzzy systems?
a. Allows for increased association amongst the rules of the system
b. Supports modeling of contradiction
c. Increase system verification capability
24. Which of the following is a disadvantage of fuzzy systems?
a. Fuzzy systems decrease system autonomy.
b. Objects in a fuzzy system can belong to multiple sets.
c. Fuzzy systems lack memory.
25. A simple computer-based program whose primary function is to construct models
of a problem space based upon trial and error is called a(n):
a. artificial neural network.
b. genetic algorithm.
c. decision support system.
d. data warehouse.

26. In the human brain, the transmission of signals from one neuron to another occurs
at a junction referred to as the:
a. transmitters.
b. neurides.
c. neurodes.
d. synapses.
27. The ANN involves an interconnected system of nodes called _________that are
associated with one or more weighted connections that are equivalent to human
neural synapses, inside the memory of a digital computer.
a. transmitters
b. neurides
c. neurodes
d. synapses
28. Which of the following is part of the basic structure of a neurode?
a. Bias input
b. State function
c. Nonlinear transfer function
29. The ANN layer that receives the data is referred to as the?
a. input layer.
b. output layer.
c. hidden layer.
d. neural layer.
30. The ANN layer that relays the final results of the net is referred to as the:
a. input layer.
b. output layer.
c. hidden layer.
d. neural layer.

31. The __________ in an ANN is where the processing and transformation of the
input signal takes place and where the type of output signal is determined.
a. input layer
b. output layer
c. hidden layer
d. neural layer
32. The _____________ is not normally connected to the ANN and is assumed to have an
input value of 1.0 for the state function. Its purpose is to allow for the individual
adjustment of the firing threshold of the neurode to facilitate the final adjustment of the
ANN following the learning process.
a. input layer
b. bias input
c. state function
d. output connection
33. The __________________’s purpose is the consolidation of the weights of the
various inputs to the neurode into a single value that can be passed to the transfer
function for processing. The value obtained determines the degree of impact the
combined inputs will have on the transfer function and, thus, on the final output
of the neurode.
a. input layer
b. bias input
c. state function
d. output connection
34. The function in an ANN which serves as the vehicle by which the summed
information is passed on as output is called the:
a. transfer function.
b. state function.
c. memory function.
d. neural function.
35. The actual procedure used by a neural network to find the appropriate weight
settings is referred to as its:
a. transfer function.
b. state function.
c. weight seeking function.
d. learning paradigm.

36. Which of the following is not a benefit derived from neural computing?
a. Reduced need for experts.
b. Allows for generalization from specific information content.
c. Highly verifiable, especially for complex problems.
d. All of the above are benefits.
37. Which of the following are limitations of neural computing?
a. ANNs cannot explain inferences.
b. The repetitive training process is often time consuming.
c. Neural computing technologies push the limits of their hardware.
38. A computer program that employs a set of adaptive processes that mimic the
concept of “survival of the fittest” by regenerating recombinants of itself in
response to a calculated difference between the network’s guess and the desired
solution state is known as a:
a. neural network.
b. artificial life system.
c. genetic algorithm.
39. In a genetic algorithm, the smallest unit of information in the problem domain is
called a:
a. chromosome.
b. gene.
c. neuron.
d. synapse.
40. Which of the following is not a genetic algorithm operational process?
a. Evaluation
b. Initialization
c. Mutation
Difficulty: Medium Reference: p. 277, 279

Essay Questions
41. Define neural computing.
42. Explain the similarities and the differences between fuzziness and probability.
72. List the benefits of neural computing.
73. List the limitations of neural computing.
74. What is the primary advantage that Genetic Algorithms have over Artificial
Neural Networks?
Chapter 10
The Data Warehouse
179. According to Inmon, a data warehouse is a subject-oriented, integrated database
designed to support DSS functions where the data is volatile and relevant.
180. A data warehouse is typically physically separated from transaction processing
systems.
181. Only a small fraction of the data that is captured, processed and stored in the
enterprise is actually ever made available to executives and decision makers.
182. The most common component of a data warehouse environment is the operational
data store.
183. A data mart is a subset of a data warehouse.
184. The essence of the data warehouse concept is a recognition that the characteristics
and usage patterns of operational systems used to automate business processes and
those of a DSS are fundamentally similar and symbiotically linked.

185. One difference between data warehouses and operational data stores is the presence
of metadata.
186. Metadata are data about data.
187. Metadata are detailed data that has been aggregated and condensed into a more useful
form.
188. The very essence of the DW environment is that the data contained within the
boundaries of the warehouse are integrated. This integration manifests itself through
consistency in naming convention and measurement attributes, accuracy, and
common aggregation.
189. The time horizon for data in the data warehouse is typically significantly longer than
operational data sores.
190. One of the benefits of integrated data is the establishment of a common unit of
measure for all synonymous data elements from dissimilar databases.
191. According to Inmon, because data warehouses are highly de-normalized, they are
highly redundant.
192. One objective of the data warehouse environment is to minimize the impact on
operational systems.
193. The end user in a data warehouse environment deals directly with the application
messaging layer.
194. The process management layer in a data warehouse can be thought of as a scheduler.
195. The processes needed to prepare the data to be loaded into a data warehouse are
performed in the data staging layer.
196. A data warehouse topology requires a centralized data warehouse that is accessed by
one or more decision support tools.

197. One of the most important factors in the development of a data warehouse is a
comprehensive architectural framework.
198. Transformation mapping metadata records how data from operational data stores and
external sources are transformed on the way into the warehouse.

21. The most common component in the DW environment is the _____________.
Its primary day-to-day function is to store the data for a single, specific set of
operational applications.
a. data mart
b. data warehouse
c. operational data store
d. data staging tables
22. Which of the following is not true of a data warehouse?
a. Implicit in its definition is that the data warehouse is physically separated
from all other operational systems.
b. The data warehouse replaces the need for all other reporting systems within
an organization.
c. The data warehouse holds aggregated data and atomic data for management.
23. An alternative to the data warehouse concept is a lower-cost, scaled-down version
referred to as a:
a. data mart.
b. metadata warehouse.
c. operational data store.
24. Which of the following is not true of a data mart?
a. The data mart is often viewed as a way to gain entry into the realm of data
warehouses and to make the mistakes on a smaller scale.
b. Vendors of data warehouse applications have found it easier to deal with a
small group of isolated users than with the IS department of an entire
organization.
c. The data mart is more efficient than a fully-developed data warehouse.
25. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a data warehouse?
a. Data integrated
b. Volatile
c. Subject oriented
d. Time variant

26. The essence of the data warehouse environment is that the data contained within
the boundaries of the warehouse are _____________
a. integrated
b. consistent
c. streamlined
d. accurate
27. The concept of time variant data implies which of the following statements?
a. Data are simply assumed to be accurate as of some moment in time and not
necessarily right now.
b. Data are assumed to be accurate at the moment they were loaded into the data
warehouse.
c. Data are assumed to vary over time.
d. Both a and b
28. Which of the following activities would not normally be associated with a data
warehouse?
a. Loading
b. Updating
c. Accessing
29. The _______________________ represents the source data for the DW. This
layer is comprised, primarily, of operational transaction processing systems and
external secondary databases.
a. information access layer
b. operational and external layer
c. data access layer
d. process management layer
30. Which layer of the data warehouse architecture does the end user deal directly
with?
a. Data access layer
b. Application messaging layer
c. Information access layer

31. The ______________ serves as a sort of interface or middleman between the
operational and information access layers and the data warehouse itself. This
layer spans the various databases contained within the DW and facilitates
common access by the DW users.
a. data access layer
b. application messaging layer
c. information access layer
d. none of the above
32. Which of the following would not be a good example of metadata?
a. the directory of where the data is stored
b. the rules used for summarization and scrubbing
c. where the operational data came from
d. all of the above are examples of metadata
33. Which layer within the data warehouse architecture focuses on scheduling tasks
that must be accomplished to build and maintain the data warehouse and data
directory information?
a. data access layer
b. process management layer
c. application messaging layer
d. none of the above
34. Which of the following is a valid data warehouse configuration?
a. Centralized data warehouse
b. Virtual data warehouse
c. Distributed data warehouse
35. The _____________________ has to do with transporting information around
the enterprise computing network. This layer is also referred to as the
"middleware,” but it can typically involve more that just networking protocols
and request routing.
a. application messaging layer
b. process management layer
c. data access layer
d. information access layer

36. The ____________________ is where the actual data used for decision
support throughout the organization are located.
a. information access layer
c. physical data warehouse layer
37. The final component of the DWA is the __________________. This layer
includes all of the processes necessary to select, edit, summarize, combine
and load data warehouse and information access data from operational and/or
external databases.
a. data staging layer
c. physical data warehouse layer
38. The process that records how data from operational data stores and external
sources are transformed on the way into the warehouse is referred to as:
a. summarization algorithms.
b. transformation mapping.
c. back propagation.
d. extraction history.
39. The _____________________ applied to the detail data are of importance to
any decision maker analyzing or interpreting the meaning of the summaries.
These metadata can also save time by making it easier to decide which level
of summarization is most appropriate for a given analysis context.
a. summarization algorithms
b. transformation mapping
c. back propagation
d. extraction history

40. Whenever historical information is analyzed, meticulous update records must be
kept. Often a decision maker will begin the process of constructing a time-based
report by reviewing the ________________ because any changes to the business
rules must be ascertained in order to apply the right rules to the right data.
a. summarization algorithms
b. transformation mapping
c. back propagation
d. extraction history

Cis 501 midterm and final exam – strayer new

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