1. Karen’s Practice Exam
Laws and Definitions
A. 1906 Food and Drug Act
B. 1914 Harrison Tax Act
C. 1938 Food, Drug and Cosmetic (FDC) Act
D. 1951 Durham-Humphrey Amendment
E. 1962 Kefauver-Harris Amendment
F. 1970 Controlled Substances Act (CSA)
G. 1984 Hatch-Waxman Act
H. 1990 Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (OBRA)
I. 1996 Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
J. 2005 Combat Meth Act
1. ______ Requires pharmacists to offer counseling to Medicaid patients.
2. ______ Requires legend on drug label: “Caution: Federal Law prohibits
dispensing without a prescription” or “Rx Only”.
3. ______ The Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) was established to enforce.
Classifies controlled substances in five schedules according to abuse potential.
4. ______ Requires government pre-approval of drugs. Prohibits interstate
commerce in adulterated or misbranded drugs.
5. ______ Regulates transfer of patient health information, protecting their right to
privacy.
6. ______ Requires prescribers of narcotics to be licensed and taxed.
7. ______ Allows for extensions of drug patents to help cover time lost during
process of FDA approval.
8. ______ Regulates sales of pseudoephedrine.
9. ______ Requires manufacturers to show safety of a new drug before marketing.
10. ______ Requires manufacturers to prove both safety and effectiveness before
marketing a drug. Put into effect due to tragic consequences of thalidomide
complications.
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3. Karen’s Practice Exam
Multiple Choice
1. Which drug would not be handled in a biological safety cabinet?
a. Fluorouracil
b. Cisplatin
c. Antineoplastic agents
d. Fluticasone
2. Which reference has a chapter on Pharmaceutical Compounding – Sterile
Preparations?
a. USP-NF
b. MSDS
c. NABP
d. PDR
3. What drug is stored at 2 – 8 degrees C?
a. Estradiol
b. Humulin
c. Lisinopril
d. Ativan
4. What drug interacts with vitamin K?
a. Benicar
b. Coumadin
c. Simethicone
d. Neurontin
5. Tk ii t po tid x 10 days. How many tablets need to be dispensed?
a. 20
b. 30
c. 60
d. 40
6. Actiq (fentanyl) comes in what formulation?
a. Transdermal patch
b. Oral pill
c. Buccal
d. Sublingual
7. The drug clotrimazole 3 vaginal cream 2%, Walgreens manufacturer, has an NDC
11917-0035-86. Which of the following is true?
a. 0035 tells us that it is made by Walgreens
b. 11917 represents the strength of the drug
c. 86 means that it is OTC
d. 11917 is the Walgreens manufacturer number
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4. Karen’s Practice Exam
8. Augmentin (amoxicillin/clavulanate pot) was prescribed as 400 mg bid x 10 days.
Which of the following would be correct to dispense? (Assuming patient will
discard the remainder of the medication after 10 days.)
a. 125 mg/tea, 150 ml. Tk 2.5 ml po bid x 10 days.
b. 200 mg/tea, 100 ml. Tk 1 tea po bid x 10 days.
c. 400 mg/tea, 50 ml. Tk 1 ml po bid x 10 days.
d. 600 mg/tea, 75 ml. Tk 3.3 ml po bid x 10 days.
9. Which of the following is false about NTG?
a. This medication can be dispensed with a snap cap.
b. A common strength is 1/150 grain which is 0.6 mg.
c. It comes in ointments, patches, sublingual tablets and injections.
d. All of the above is true.
10. Which of the following is false about Phenergan?
a. It comes in many strengths including 25 mg, 50 mg or 100 mg.
b. The generic is promethazine.
c. It comes in syrup, tablet or suppository form.
d. It can be used as an antiemetic or an antihistamine.
11. Which drug is commonly used for glaucoma?
a. Metoprolol
b. Methylcellulose
c. Pilocarpine
d. Patanol
12. Which drug is commonly used in combination with other diuretics?
a. HCTZ
b. INH
c. MAOI
d. PTU
13. Which term describes the process of grinding particles to reduce particle size?
a. Spatulation
b. Trituration
c. Sonification
d. Levigation
14. Which is a solution that contains intravenous fat emulsion?
a. PPI
b. TPN
c. TNA
d. PCA
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5. Karen’s Practice Exam
15. Which agency is responsible for assuring the quality of medication and published
the National Formulary?
a. JCAHO
b. ASHP
c. FDA
d. USP
16. Which of the following drugs require Restricted Distribution or Controlled
Access Programs?
a. Clozaril
b. Adderall
c. Propafol
d. Vancomycin
17. Diovan (losartan) is used for:
a. Hyperglycemia
b. Hyperlipidemia
c. Hypertension
d. Hypercapnia
18. I’m afraid to use an injection. I’m worried about coring. What should I do?
a. Use a 13 gauge.
b. Use a longer needle.
c. Use a filter needle.
d. Use a Leur-lok.
19. Humulin NPH 10 ml vial. Use 10 U qam, 15 U with lunch and 20 U qpm. How
long will this medication last?
a. 2 days
b. 22 days
c. 28 days
d. 222 days
20. I have hyperlipidemia. Which of the following is false?
a. I have diabetes.
b. I have high blood pressure.
c. I have low blood pressure.
d. I have high cholesterol.
21. In regards to the previous question, which medication might the doctor put me
on?
a. Verapamil
b. Lisinopril
c. Digoxin
d. Pravachol
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6. Karen’s Practice Exam
22. Which of the following is not a technician responsibility?
a. Abiding by HIPAA guidelines
b. Recommending an OTC product
c. Troubleshooting insurance rejection problems
d. Compounding under the supervision of an RPh
23. The doctor ordered ¼ grain Phenobarbital. What strength would you dispense?
a. 60 mg
b. 60 gram
c. 15 mg
d. 15 gram
24. You have 2 liters of Normal Saline. You need to compound prescriptions each
with 4 ounces NS. How many prescriptions can you fill?
a. 16
b. 4
c. 3
d. 20
25. The doctor has ordered Rocephin IM for acute bacterial otitis media. 1 to 2 g given IM
in equally divided doses twice daily.
You have a 500 mg vial. How many vials do you need for a 10 day supply assuming the
patient will need the maximum dosage?
a. 10 vials
b. 20 vials
c. 30 vials
d. 40 vials
26. The recommended dose for rifaximin 200 mg for Traveler's diarrhea:
200 mg 3 times a day for 3 days.
The doctor ordered 12 mg/kg/day x 3 days for a woman that weighs 100 pounds. Which
statement is true?
a. rifaximin is not for traveler’s diarrhea
b. the doctor is overdosing the patient
c. the dosage is just under the recommended dose
d. More than 2 grams of rifaximin is needed to fill this prescription
27. D5W comes in a 10 ml syringe. How much dextrose is in the syringe?
a. 500 mg
b. 0.5 mg
c. 50mg
d. 5 mg
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7. Karen’s Practice Exam
28. Which is true of a laminar flow hood?
a. Cleaning should be done with 50% ethanol
b. The hood should be turned on 5 minutes before use
c. The hood should be cleaned from front to back
d. Compounding should be done 6 inches inside the flow hood
29. What is a DEA 222 form used for?
a. To order all controlled medications
b. To report stolen/lost C-II medications
c. To return recalled medications
d. To order C-II medications
30. Which of the following could be a valid DEA number?
a. AB1231248
b. AB1235956
c. AB1237462
d. AB1238294
31. Dyazide (triamterene/HCTZ) is a combination drug used to treat hypertension. Which
two classes of drugs are represented?
a. potassium-sparing diuretic and a thiazide
b. ace-inhibitor and a thiazide
c. calcium channel blocker and a loop diuretic
d. beta-blocker and a loop diuretic
33. I’ve never taken Sudafed before. Suddenly I feel so sleepy but the pharmacist
warned me of insomnia if I took it too close to bedtime. What kind of adverse
reaction am I having?
a. Hypersensitivity
b. Synergism
c. Additive
d. Idiosyncrasy
34. Ibuprofen 100 mg/5 ml. Tk i tea po tid pc. QS for 1 month. How much liquid
needs to be dispensed?
a. 30 ounces
b. 2 pints
c. 450 ml
d. 300 cc
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8. Karen’s Practice Exam
35. A patient is notified that her prescription has been recalled. It is a level III recall.
She is frantic and wants to know if this is life threatening. What might the
pharmacist tell the patient?
a. The FDA is closing down the manufacturer due to health issues.
b. The FDA has requested a recall due to an event not likely to cause adverse
effects.
c. The recall means that there is a good chance that there are serious health
risks if she took the medication.
d. The recall will be published on the DEA website.
36. The PI for Enbrel says to store at 36 to 46 degrees F. Which of the below is true?
a. Enbrel must be stored in the freezer.
b. Enbrel is kept at room temperature.
c. Enbrel must be stored at 78 to 95 degrees C.
d. Enbrel must be kept in the refrigerator.
37. Enbrel’s monograph states that Rare reports of pancytopenia, including aplastic
anemia exists from using Enbrel. This is an example of what type of effect?
a. Neurological
b. Nephrotoxicity
c. Psychological
d. Hematological
38. My store manager made a killing off of those plastic singing bass fish things. He
bought them for $2.45 each and sold them for $9.99. What percentage markup is
this based on the retail selling price?
a. About 75% markup
b. About 3% markup
c. About 131% markup
d. About 25% markup
39. Rx is for azithromycin 200/5, tk 1 and ½ tea x 1 day, ¾ tea qd x 4 days. What
volume needs to be dispensed?
a. 82.5 ml
b. 22.5 ml
c. 15 ml
d. 17.5 ml
40. In question #39 above, the strength is 200mg/tea. How many total mg is needed
for this therapy?
a. 900 gm
b. 4500 mg
c. 3300 mg
d. 900 mg
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9. Karen’s Practice Exam
41. A formulary is:
a. A list of goods or items a business uses in its normal operations.
b. A list of goods or items purchased from a wholesaler.
c. A list of medications purchased directly from the manufacturer.
d. A list of medications approved for use.
42. In a hospital, who decides the formulary?
a. The Pharmacy and Therapeutics committee
b. The Drug Enforcement Agency
c. The Department of Public Health
d. The State Board of Pharmacy
43. Equivalents that produce the same effects in patients are:
a. Pharmaceutical equivalents
b. Therapeutic equivalents
c. Bioequivalent
d. Biocompatible
44. What can happen during online adjudication:
a. A prescription can be rejected.
b. A prescription can be approved.
c. Communication between computers can timeout.
d. All of the above.
45. Why might a prescription be rejected?
a. Invalid date of birth.
b. NDC not covered.
c. Patient not covered.
d. All of the above.
46. Dopamine is infusing at 20 ml/hour. The IV bag contains 400 mg in 0.33 liter of
D5W. How many grams of dopamine is the patient receiving in 4 hours?
a. 0.024 gm
b. 24 gm
c. 97 mg
d. 97 gm
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10. Karen’s Practice Exam
47. Cyclophosphamide is an antineoplastic agent. The IV tubing infuses at a rate of
60 gtts/ml. If the 500 mg vial was to be reconstituted in 25 ml sterile water and
infused over 8 hours, how many drops per minute?
a. 3 gtt/ml
b. 3 gtt/min
c. 0.3 gtt/min
d. 30 gtt/min
48. The ongoing treatment for cyclophosphamide is about 15 mg/kg/day given once a
week. If the patient weighs 150 pounds, about how many milliliters will he need
for 2 weeks? (Use chart above).
a. 25 ml
b. 50 ml
c. 100 ml
d. 200 ml
49. The non-premixed Albuterol sulfate inhalation solution is 1:2 strength
concentrated. Directions say to mix 0.5 cc with 3 cc NS. What is the new percent
strength?
a. 0.083%
b. 0.071%
c. 8.3%
d. 7.1%
50. You need a liter of D5W but all you have is D70W and some sterile water. How
much of each can you use?
a. 658.6 ml of water and 341.4 ml of D70W
b. 341.4 ml of water and 658.6 ml of D70W
c. 71.4 ml of water and 928.6 ml of D70W
d. 928.6 ml of water and 71.4 ml of water
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Reconstitution of Cyclophosphamide
Vial size Volume of diluent
500 mg 25 mL
1 g 50 mL
2 g 100 mL
11. Karen’s Practice Exam
Match drug with class
a. proton pump inhibitor ____1. albuterol
b. H2 antagonist ____2. propranolol
c. ACE inhibitor ____3. hydromorphone
d. antipsychotic/antimanic ____4. naproxen
e. calcium channel blocker ____5. temazepam
f. bronchodilator ____6. fluoxetine
g. diabetic ____7. phenytoin
h. anticoagulant ____8. erythromycin
i. antihyperlipidemic ____9. cimetidine
j. opioid/narcotic ____10. prochlorperazine
k. tricyclic antidepressant ____11. estradiol
l. analgesic ____12. amitriptyline
m. antifungal ____13. valacyclovir
n. electrolyte ____14. verapamil
o. antibiotic ____15. furosemide
p. antiemetic ____16. dextromethorphan
q. steroid ____17. ketoconazole
r. antiviral ____18. triamcinolone
s. antianxiety/sedative ____19. enalapril
t. diuretic ____20. pravastatin
u. beta-blocker ____21. alpha interferon
v. antiepileptic ____22. lamotrigine
w. hormone ____23. pantoprazole
x. OTC ____24. heparin
y. antineoplastic ____25. calcium gluconate
z. SSRI ____26. metformin
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12. Karen’s Practice Exam
Match medication with formulation/route of administration. Some drugs may come in
more than one formulation. You might be surprised at how many different routes of
administration one drug can come in! (Hint: Use Facts & Comparisons)
a. topical ______1. NTG
b. oral ______2. nuvaring
c. sublingual ______3. humulin
d. transdermal ______4. MTX
e. intramuscular ______5. triamcinolone
f. subcutaneous ______6. fluticasone
g. intravenous ______7. fentanyl
h. rectal ______8. promethazine
i. buccal ______9. metronidazole
j .intradermal ______10. enoxaparin
k. vaginal ______11. misoprostol
l. inhalation ______12. epinephrine
m. nasal ______13. lidocaine
n. ophthalmic ______14. pseudoephedrine
o. otic ______15. digoxin
______16. cyanocobalamin
______17. atropine
______18. salmeterol
______19. olanzapine
______20. PTU
______21. nystatin
______22. diazepam
______23. polyethylene glycol
______24. timolol
______25. cholestyramine
______26. prednisone
______27. prednisolone
______28. sulfacetamide
______29. desmopressin
______30. potassium chloride
______31. morphine
______32. sumatriptan
______33. calcitonin-salmon
______34 dexamethasone
______35. neomycin
______36. estradiol
______37. progesterone
______38. testosterone
______39. sodium chloride
______40. etanercept
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13. Karen’s Practice Exam
Match Brands and Generics:
A. Synthroid ____1. metformin
B. Questran ____2. butalbital/apap/caffeine
C. Prevacid ____3. quinapril
D. Toprol ____4. acyclovir
E. Lopressor ____5. omeprazole
F. Efudex ____6. phenytoin
G. Haldol ____7. interferon beta-1A
H. Glucophage ____8. levothyroxine
I. Lidex ____9. metoprolol tartrate
J. Tagamet ____10. metoprolol succinate
K. Atacand ____11. lansoprazole
L. Accupril ____12. flourouracil
M. Fioricet ____13. cholysteramine
N. Zocor ____14. fluconazole
O. Rocephin ____15. haloperidol
P. Avonex ____16. isotretinoin
Q. Dilantin ____17. oxycodone/apap
R. Diflucan ____18. cimetidine
S. Zovirax ____19. potassium
T. Prilosec ____20. candesartan cilexetil
U. Bactrim ____21. ceftriaxone
V. Percocet ____22. simvastatin
W. Demerol ____23. sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim
X. Accutane ____24. fluocinonide
Y. Klor-con ____25. valproic acid
Z. Depakote ____26. phenytoin
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14. Karen’s Practice Exam
Match reference with description.
a. USP-NF _____1. Has 3 volumes including “orange book”
b. PDR _____2. Most widely used. Information on dx/txt.
a. Red Book _____3. Bi-monthly journal with CE programs
b. MSDS _____4. Has product ID section w/pictures of pills
c. Merck Manual _____5. Monographs w/concentration, stability, etc.
d. Facts and Comparisons _____6. Loose leaf, online or annual CDs
e. USP DI _____7. Medication information and prices
f. Remington _____8. Privacy standards compliance manual
g. Pharmacy Times _____9. Required by OSHA
h. Today’s Technician _____10. Practice of Pharmacy textbook
i. Handbook on Injectable Drugs _____11. Divided into chapters, enforced by FDA
j. HIPAA _____12. Trade journal published for pharmacists
k. Goodman & Gilman’s _____13. Lists drug names and country of origin
l. Martindale _____14. Principal pharmacy text
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