SSC CGL Tier-I Model Test for General Intelligence & Reasoning

SSC COMBINED GRADUATE LEVEL (Tier-I)
: 1 :
MODEL TEST
GENERAL INTELLIGENCE AND REASONING
1. When the bus reaches Shivani’s house, it faces South. After starting from Shivani’s house to
the school, it turns twice to its left and once to its right. In which direction it is running now?
1) North 2) West 3) East 4) South
2. A man travels 12 km West, then 3 km towards South and then 8 km towards East. How far is
he from the start?
1) 23 km 2) 20 km 3) 15 km 4) 5 km
3. Sanjeev walks 10 m towards the South. Turning to the left, he walks 20 m and then moves to
his right. After moving a distance of 20 m, he turns to the right and walks 20 m. Finally, he
turns to the right and moves a distance of 10 m. How far and in which direction is he from the
starting point?
1) 10m. North 2) 20m. South 3) 10m. South 4) 20m. North
4. If in a certain code, GLAMOUR is written as IJCNMWP and MISRULE is written as OGUSSNC,
then how will TOPICAL be written in that code?
1) VMRJECN 2) VMRHACJ 3) VMRJACJ 4) VNRJABJ
5. From the given alternative words, select the one which can be formed using the letters of the
given word EXAMINATION.
1) ANIMAL 2) EXAMINER 3) NATIONAL 4) ANIMATION
6. From the given alternative words, select the one which cannot be formed using the letters of
the given word OBSTETRICIAN.
1) SOBER 2) TERMITE 3) RETAIN 4) SIREN
7. If ACNE can be coded as 3, 7,29,11, then BOIL will be coded as
1) 5, 29,19, 27 2) 5, 29,19, 25 3) 5, 31, 21, 25 4) 5, 31,19, 25
8. In an examination, a student scores 4 marks for every correct answer and losses 1 mark for
every wrong answer. If he attempts in all 60 questions and secures 130 marks, the number of
questions he attempts correctly, is
1) 35 2) 38 3) 40 4)
Directions (Q.Nos. 9-17) Select the related letter/word/number/figure from the given
alternatives.
9. 3 : 24 :: 5 : ?
1) 100 2) 110 3) 120 4) 130
10. Sorrow : Joy :: Pleasure : ?
1) Anger 2) Pain 3) Jealousy 4) Malice
11. Oasis : Desert:: ? : Sea
1) Island 2) Peninsula 3) Back waters 4) Cliff
12. South : North-East:: ? : North-West
1) North 2) South-East 3) West 4) North-West
13. QPRS : TUVW :: JIKL : ?
1) NMOP 2) NMPO 3) MNPO 4) MNOP
14. ACEG : IKMO :: QSUW : ?
1) XBDF 2) MOQS 3) YACE 4) BDFH
15. EHGI : LONP :: ? : ORQS
1) GJIK 2) GIHJ 3) HKJL 4) HJIK
16. R26 : Z18 :: P24 : ?
1) Q12 2) M13 3) X16 4) W22
17. 7584 : 5362 :: 4673 : ?
1) 2367 2) 2451 3) 2531 4) 2485

Directions (Q.Nos. 18-22) Find the odd number/letter/figure/number pair from the given
alternatives.
18. 1) Wool 2) Feather 3) Hair 4) Grass
19. 1) Sport: Ground 2) Cinema : Screen 3) Drama : Stage 4) Rubber : Erase
20. 1) 32-41 2) 62-44 3) 46-28 4) 33-56
21. 1) EDHG 2) LKON 3) UVWX 4) QPTS
22. 1) IJNR 2) QTWZ 3) ZCFI 4) GJMP
23. Find out the set of number amongst the four sets of numbers given in the alternatives which is
: 2 :
the most like the set given in the question.
Given set (23, 51,17)
1) (29, 57,13) 2) (24, 53,17) 3) (29, 57,14) 4) (21, 51,17)
24. Find out the number that does not belong to the group of numbers for lack of common property.
1) 131 2) 151 3) 161 4) 171
25. In the following question, number of letters are skipped in between by a particular rule. Which
of the following series observes the rule?
1) NPRT 2) PQNS 3) ORTV 4) LNPS
26. Arrrange words alphabetically as in a dictionary order.
1. Animate 2. Animosity 3. Anguish
4. Ankle 5. Announce
1) 3,l,4,5,2 2) 3,1,2, 4, 5 3) 1, 2, 5, 3, 4 4) 4, 2, 5,1, 3
27. Arrange the following words as per order in the dictionary.
1. Preach 2. Praise 3. Precinct
4. Precept 5. Precede
1) 2,1, 5, 4, 3 2) 2,1, 3, 4, 5 3) 1, 2, 5, 4, 3 4) 2, 5,1, 4, 3
28. Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall
complete it?
_b_bca_a_ab_
1) acbca 2) babac 3) abbca 4) accbc
Directions (Q.Nos. 29-32) A series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative
from the given ones that will complete the series.
29. 544, 509, 474, 439, ?
1) 404 2) 414 3) 420 4) 445
30. 80, 10, 70, 15, 60, ?
1) 20 2) 25 3) 30 4) 50
31. J14, L16, ?, P20, R22, T24
1) S24 2) N18 3) M18 4) V26
32. AZ, CX, FU, ?
1) IR 2) IV 3) JQ 4) KP
33. Find the wrong number in the series.
4,10,22,46,46,190,382
1) 4 2) 10 3) 96 4) 382
34. Ravi’s brother is 3 yr senior to him. His father was 28 yr of age when his sister was born while
his mother was 26 yr of age when he was born. If his sister was 4 yr of age when his brother
was born, what were the ages of Ravi’s father and mother respectively when his brother was
born?
1) 32 yr, 23 yr 2) 32 yr, 29 yr 3) 35 yr, 29 yr 4) 35 yr, 33 yr
35. Shyam ranked ninth from the top and thirty-eigth from the bottom in a class. How many
students are there in the class?
1) 45 2) 46 3) 47 4) 48
36. If Ajay’s son is the uncle of Sunn’s son, what is the relationship between Ajay and Sunil?
1) Cousin 2) Brother 3) Father and son
4) Grandfather and grandson
37. If you write down all the numbers from 1 to 100, then how many times do you write 3?
1) 11 2) 18 3) 20 4) 21
38. A player holds 13 cards of four suits, of which seven are black and six red. There are twice as
many diamonds as spades and twice as many hearts as diamonds. How many cards does he
hold?
1) 4 2) 5 3) 6 4) 7

: 3 :
39. If + means –, – means x, x means  and  means +, then
48 x 4  7 + 8 – 2 = ?
1) 3 2) - 5 3) 35 4) 16
40. If February 1, 2004 is Wednesday, what day is March 3, 2004?
1) Monday 2) Sunday 3) Saturday 4) Friday
Directions (Q.Nos. 41-42) Select the missing number from the given responses.
41.
85 20 5
126 24 6
175 ? 7
1) 22 2) 24 3) 26 4) 28
42.
12 (47) 21
10 (52) 4
64 (?) 24
1) 16 2) 40 3) 62 4) 83
43. Complete the given figure/pattern/design by choosing the correct alternatives.
(1) (2) (3) (4)
44. At what time between 5 and 5 : 30 are the hands of a clock 5 min apart?
1) 20
4
11 min past 5 2) 21
7
11 min past 5
3) 20
8
11 min past 5 4) 21
9
11 min past 5
45. Going 50 m to the South of her house, Radhika turns left and goes another 20 m. Then,
turning to the North, she goes 30 m and then starts walking to her house. In which direction
is she walking now?
1) North-West 2) North 3) South-East 4) East
46. Which of the following diagram represents of relationship between Flowers, Cloths and White?
(1) (2) (3) (4)
47. How many triangles are there in the given figure?
1) 5 2) 4 3) 3 4) 8

48. From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded.
: 4 :
(1) (2) (3) (4)
49. Which of the following is the correct mirror image of the given figure?
(1) (2) (3) (4)
50. A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the question figures. From the given
answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.
(1) (2) (3) (4)
GENERAL AWARENESS
51. Postal voting is otherwise called :
(1) plural voting (2) proxy voting
(3) weighted voting (4) sceret voting
52. Stability of the Government is assured in :
(1) Parliamentary Form of Government.
(2) Presidential Form of Government.
(3) Plural Executive System (4) Direction Democracy
53. According to the Indian Constitution, the vacancy in the office of the President of India shall be
filled within :
(1)1 month (2) 6 months (3) 3 months (4) 1 year
54. Who is the Tennis star to become World No. 1 seed at the youngest age?
(1) Steffi Graf (2) Monica Seles (3) Chris Evert (4) Martina Hingis
55. What is “Vishva Mohini”?
(1) Name for India’s Beauty Queen
(2) The title given to Lata Mangeshkar for her contribution to music
(3) An Indian ship
(4) A famous book on Indian dances
56. The main function of the World Trade Organisation (WTO) is :
(1) enforcing of Uruguay Round Agreements
(2) facilitating multilateral trade relations of member countries and reviewing trade policies
(3) administering trade dispute settlement procedures (4) None of the above
57. Name the author of the book A Passage to England :
(1) E.M. Forster (2) Nirad C. Choudhary
(3) Vikram Seth (4) Eric Segal
58. Which is the long-range missile that was tested by Pakistan in the wake of India testing Agni II
?(
1) Ghauri II (2)Shaheen 1 (3) Hatf I (4) Hatf II
59. The Indian Naval Ship being converted into a maritime museum is :
(1) Sagar Samrat (2) Kanishka (3) Samrat Ashoka (4)Vikrant

: 5 :
60. Prof. Amartya Sen is these days in the news because :
(1) he is internationally known as a leading social economist
(2) he has been awarded ‘Bharat Ratna’
(3) he is a recipient of Nobel Prize. (4) All of the above
61. The first country to legalize medically assisted suicide is :
(1) Australia (2) United States (3) Netherlands (4) Switzerland
62. The Baisakhi Festival of the year 1999 is of great historical significance to Punjab because :
(1) it commemorates the tercentenary of the foundation of Khalsa Panth
(2) it being the last such fef ! tival of the twentieth century
(3) of participation by a large number of Punjabis who are non resident Indians
(4) None of the above
63. Exobiology deals with the study of:
(1) external characters of living organisms (2) life on the surface of the earth
(3) life in the outer layers of atmosphere (4) life in other planets and space
64. The Social System of the Harappans was :
(1) Fairly egalitarian (2) Slave-Labour based
(3) Colour (Varna) based (4) Caste based
65. Which of the following Vedas provides information about the civilisation of the Early Vedic
Age?
(1) Rig-veda (2) Yajur-veda (3) Atharva-veda (4) Sama-veda
66. The university which became famous in the post-Gupta Era was :
(1)Kanchi (2)Taxila (3) Nalanda (4) Vallabhi
67. Banabhatta was the court poet of which emperor ?
(1) Vikramaditya (2) Kumaragupta (3) Harshavardhana (4) Kanishka
68. The first Indian ruler, who established the supremacy of Indian Navy in the Arabian Sea was :
(1) Rajaraja I (2) Rajendra 1 (3) Rajadhiraja I (4) Kulottunga I
69. The Mughal painting reaches its / zenith during the reign of:
(1)Akbar (2) Jahangir (3) Shahjahan (4) Aurahgzeb
70. Permanent Revenue settlement of Bengal was introduced by: ;
(1)Clive (2) Hastings (3) Wellesley (4) Cornwallis
71. The father of extremist movement in India is :
(1) Motilal Nehru (2) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(3) Vallabhbhai Patel (4) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
72. The World Bank normally gives :
(1) short-term loans (2) medium-term loans
(3) long-term loans (4) medium and long-term loans
73. The International Monetary Fund (IMF) came into existence with :
(1) Berlin Conference (2) London Conference
(3) Brettonwoods Conference (4) Rome Conference
74. Multiplier process in economic theory is conventionally taken to mean :
(1) the manner in which prices increase
(2) the manner in which banks create credit
(3) income of an economy grows on account of an initial investment
(4) the manner in which government expenditure increases
75. Structural adjustment loans given by the World Bank are meant for :
(1) increasing employment in agriculture
(2) increasing export-earning capacity of the borrower country
(3) reducing inequalities of income distribution
(4) encouraging capital-intensive industries
76. A financial instrument is called a ‘primary security’ if it represents the liability of :
(1) some ultimate borrower (2) the Government of India
(3) a primary cooperative bank (4) a commercial bank
77. Service cooperatives are :
(1) single purpose societies (2) credit societies
(3) marketing societies (4) multi-purpose societies

: 6 :
78. Output at break-even point is that output at which the producer is able to :
(1) recover only operating costs (2) recover total costs
(3) wipe out earlier losses (4) earn a normal profit
79. India’s share in world trade since 1950.
(1) has been rising (2) has been constant
(3) has been declining (4) has shown a mixed trend
80. Animals do not have enzyme systems which enable them to make use of the energy from :
(1)fat (2) water (3) protein (4) carbohydrate
81. A clone is a colony of :
(1) cells having different shapes (2) cells having similar shape
(3) cells having similar genetic constitution
(4) cells having different genetic constitutions
82. The pollen grains of flowers pollinated by insects are :
(1) smooth and dry (2) rough and sticky (3) rough and dry (4) large and showy
83. Which one of the following substances is used for preservation of food grains?
(1) Sodium benzoate(2) Vinegar
(3) Sodium chloride (4) Potassium permanganate
84. The disease caused by Asbestos is :
(1) Emphysema (2) Paralysis (3) Diarrhoea (4) Dysentery
85. In the eye, colour vision is effected by the presence of:
(1) Choroid coat (2) Sclerotic coat (3) Rods (4) Cones
86. The famous Lagoon lake of India is : .
(1) Dal Lake (2) Chilka Lake (3) Pulicat Lake (4) Mansarover
87. The splitting of different colours of light in a prism is :
(1) Reflection of light (2) Disperson of light
(3) Diffraction of light (4) Refraction of light
88. Where are most of the earth’s active volcanoes concentrated :
(1) Europe (2) Pacific Ocean (3) Africa (4) South America
89. The deflection of the winds to the right in the northern hemisphere is caused by :
(1) revolution of the earth (2) rotation of the earth
(3) uneven heating of the earth (4) All the above
90. Which of the following is NOT one of the important steps in processing tea leaves?
(1) Rolling (2) Drying (3) Fermenting (4) Withering
91. The Grand Canyon is located on the :
(1) Colorado River (2) Rhine River
(3) Tapi River (4) Niger River
92. The Savannah finds its ideal conditions of growth in :
(1) mild and humid climate
(2) dry summer arid wet winter climate
(3) hot humid climate with long dry season
(4) hot summer and cool winter climate
93. What should be the proportion of forest cover for India to maintain her ecological balance?
(1) 11.1 percent (2) 22.2 percent (3) 33.3 percent (4) 44.4 percent
94. Match List I with List II and find out the correct answer from the codes given below the Lists :
List I List II
[Thermal Power Plants) [Locations)
(a) Kahalgaon 1. West Bengal
(b) Farakka 2. Bihar
(c) Ramagundam 3. Gujarat
(d) Gandhar 4. Andhra Pradesh
Codes:
a b c d a b c d a b c d a b c d
(1) 1 2 3 4 (2) 4 3 1 2 (3) 2 1 4 3 (4) 3 2 1 4
95. Which one of the following States/Union Territories of India recorded the lowest density of
population in 1991 Census?
(1) Sikkim (2) Nagaland (3) MizOram (4) Arunachal Pradesh

: 7 :
96. Three of the following pairs are wrong. Find out the correct one :
(1) Written Constitution — England (2) Unitary State — USA
(3) UN General Assmbly — Veto power (4) SAARC — No bilateral issues
97. In Indian Republic the real executive authority rests with the:
(1) Prime Minister (2) President (3) Bureaucrats (4) Council of Ministers
98. The Secretary: General of the UNO is appointed by the :
(1) General Assembly (2) Security Council
(3) Trusteeship Council (4) World Bank
99. Through which principle or device did Gandhiji strive to bridge economic inequalities?
(1) Abolition of machinery
(2) Establishment of village industries
(3) Trusteeship theory (4) None of the above
100. Governance through trade union organisations is known as :
(1) Guild Socialism (2) Fabian Socialism (3) Syndicalism (4) Liberalism
QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
101. 5 – [4 – {3 – (3 – 3 – 6))] is equal to :
(1)10 (2)6 (3)4 (4)0
102. Simplify :1 11 2 2 31 4
5




(1)
111
17 (2)
1 5
7 (3)
1 6
17 (4)
111
17
103. Assume that 13 = 3.605 (approximately) 130 = 11.40 (approximately) Find the value of :
1.3  1300  0.013
(1)36.164 (2)37.304 (3)36.304 (4)37.164
104. On simplification of
 2.644 2 
 2.356
2 0.288
we get:
(1)1 (2)4 (3) 5 (4) 6
9 | 3  5 |  5 | 4 | 
10
 3 5  2  4 
2
105. Evaluate:  
(1)
9
10 (2)
8
17
 (3)
16
19
 (4)
4
7
106. By how much does 12  18 exceed 3  2 ?
(1) 2 3  2  (2) 2 3  2 (3) 3  2 2 (4) 2  4 3
107. The Value of
5 2 6 1
5 2 6
 
 is
(1) 2 2 (2) 2 3 (3) 1 5 (4) 5 1
108. The value of (243)0.16 x (243)0.04 is equal to :
(1)0.16 (2)3 (3)
1
3 (4) 0.04

: 8 :
109. The simplification of
0.06 0.06 0.06 0.05 0.05 0.05
0.06 0.06 0.06 0.05 0.05 0.05
    
     gives :
(1)0.01 (2)0.001 (3)0.1 (4)0.02
110.
1 1 1 1 1 1
     2 4 7 14 28
is equal to :
(1)2 (2)2.5 (3) 3 (4) 3.5
111. The area of a circle is 38.5 sq. cm. Its circumference (in cm) is
22
7
use   
 
(1)22 (2)24 (3)26 (4)32
112. The breadth of a rectangular hall is three-fourths of its length. If the area of the floor is 768 sq.
m. then the difference between the length and breadth of the hall is :
(1) 8 metres (2) 12 metres (3) 24 metres (4) 32 metres
113. A metallic hemisphere is melted and recast in the shape of a cone with the same base radius
(R) as that of the hemisphere. If H is the height of the cone, then :
(1)H = 2R (2) H=
2
3 R (3) H = 3R (4)B = 3R
114. A conical vessle whose internal radius is 12 cm and height 50 cm is full of liquid. The contents
are emptied into a cylindrical vessel with radius (internal) 10 cm. The height to which the
liquid rises in the cylindrical vessel is :
(1) 25cm (2) 20cm (3) 24cm (4) 22cm
115. Two right circular cylinders of equal volume have their heights in the ratio 1:2. The ratio of
their radii is :
(1) 2 : l (2)2:1 (3)1:2 (4)1:4
116. A and B can do a work in 12 days. B and C in 15 days. C and A in 20 days. If A, B and C work
together, they will complete the work in :
(1)5 days (2) 7
5
6 days (3) 10 days (4) 15
2
3 days
117. A is thrice as good a workman as B and therefore, able to finish a job in 60 days less than B.
Working together they will do it in :
(1) 20 days (2) 22 days (3) 25 days (4) 30 days
118. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 20 minutes and 30 minutes respectively. If both pipes are
opened together, the time taken to fill the tank is :
(1)50 minutes (2) 12 minutes (3) 25 minutes (4) 15 minutes
119. If 6 men and 8 boys can do a piece of work in 10 days and 26 men and 48 boys can do the same
in 2 days, the time taken by 15 men and 20 boys to do the same type of work will be :
(1)5 days (2) 4 days (3) 6 days (4) 7 days
120. A and B can do a work in 18 and 24 days respectively. They worked together for 8 days and
then A left. The remaining work was finished by B in :
(1) 5 days (2) 5
1
3 days (3) 8 days (4) 10 days
121. If a man walks 20 km at 5 km/hr, he will be late by 40 minutes. If he walks at 8 km per hr, how
early from the fixed time will he reach?
(1) 15 minutes (2) 25 minutes (3) 50 minutes (4) 1
1
2 hours
122. A boy rides his bicycle 10km at an average speed of 12 km per hr-and again travels 12 km at an
average speed of 10 km per hr His average speed for the entire trip is approximately:
(1) 10.4 km/hr (2) 10.8 km/hr (3) 11.0 km/hr (4) 12.2 km/hr

123. A train 180 m long moving at the speed of 20 m/sec. over takes a man moving at a speed of
: 9 :
10m/sec in the same direction. The train passes the man in :
(1)6 sec (2) 9 sec (3) 18 sec (4) 27 sec
124. The distance between two cities A and B is 330 km. A train starts from A at 8 a.m. and travels
towards B at 60 km/ hr Another train starts from B at 9 a.m. and travels towards A at 75 km/
hr At what time do they meet?
(1) 10 a.m (2) 10 : 30 a.m. (3) 11 a.m (4) 11 : 30 a.m.
125. In covering a certain distance, the speeds of A and B are in the ratio of 3 : 4. A takes 30 minutes
more than B to reach the destination. The time taken by A to reach the destination is :
(1) 1 hour (2) 1
1
2 hours (3) 2 hours (4) 2
1
2 hours
Directions (126-130) : A survey of film-watching habits of people living in 5 caities, I, II, III, IV
and V is summarised below. The column (1) gives percentage of film-watchers in each city
who see only film a week. The column (2) gives the total number of film-watchers who see
more than one film per week. Read the table and answer the following questions.
City (1) (2)
I 50 3200
II 30 3500
III 65 7000
IV 25 5400
V 80 2900
126. How many film watchers in city II see only one film a week?
(1)900 (2)1500 (3) 1600 (4) 3200
127. Which city has the highest number of film watchers who see only one film a week?
(1)I (2)II (3) III (4) IV
128. The city with the lowest number of film watcher is
(1)I (2)II (3) IV (4) V
129. The city with the highest number of film watchers is
(1)I (2)V (3) IV (4)III
130. The total number of all film watchers in the five cities who see only one film a week is :
(1)31100 (2)29500 (3)28600 (4)28300
131. The simple interest on a certain sum at 5% per annum for 3 years and 4 years differ by Rs. 42.
The sum is :
(1)Rs. 210 (2)Rs. 280 (3) Rs. 750 (4) Rs. 840
132. Oranges are bought at 7 for Rs. 3. At what rate per hundred must they be sold to gain 33%?
(1)Rs. 56 (2)Rs. 60 (3)Rs. 58 (4)Rs. 57
133. The cost price of 36 books is equal to the selling price of 30 books. The gain is :
(1) 20% (2) 16
4
6 % (3) 18% (4) 82
2
6 % o
134. A man wanted to sell an article with 20% profit but he actually sold at 20% loss for Rs. 480. At
what price he wanted to sell it to earn the profit?
(1)Rs. 720 (2) Rs. 840 (3) Rs. 600 (4) Rs. 750
135. A person sells two machines at Rs. 396 each. On one he gains 10% and on the other he loses
10%. His profit or loss in the whole transaction is :
(1) no gain no loss (2) 1% loss (3) 1% profit (4) 8% profit
136. A trader bought 10 kg of apples for Rs. 405 out of which 1 kg of apples were found to be rotten.
If he wishes to make a profit of 10%, at what rate should he sell the remaining apples per kg?
(1) Rs.45 (2) Rs. 49.50 (3)Rs. 50 (4)Rs. 51
137. If a : b = 7 : 9 and b : c = 15:7, then what is a : c?
(1)5:3 (2)3:5 (3)7:21 (4)7:15

: 10 :
138. By mistake, instead of dividing Rs. 117 among A, B and C in the ratio
1 , 1 , 1
2 3 4 it was divided in
the ratio of 2 : 3 : 4. Who gains the most and by how much?
(1)A, Rs. 28 (2)B, Rs. 3 (3) C, Rs. 20 (4) C, Rs. 25
139. A and B have money in the ratio 2:1. If A gives Rs. 2 to B, the money will be in the ratio 1:1.
What were the initial amounts they had?
(1)Rs. 12andRs. 6 (2) Rs. 16 and Rs. 8 (3) Rs. 8 and Rs. 4 (4) Rs. 6 and Rs. 3
140. The incomes of A, B and C are in the ratio 3:7:4 and their expenses in the ratio 4 :3:5. If A saves
Rs. 300 out of an income of Rs. 2,400, the savings of B and C are :
(1) Rs. 4.025 and Rs. 575 (2) Rs. 1.575 and Rs 2.625
(3) Rs. 2.750 and Rs. 1.525 (4) Rs. 3.725 and Rs. 1.525
141. If
x 1 2,
8x 1
  find the value of 3
2x
3
x

1) 48 2) 88 3) 40 4) 44
x 1
142. If x2 – 3 x+1 =0, then the value of 3
 is
3
x
1) 9 2) 18 3) 27 4 1
143. ABCD is a cyclic parallelogram. The angle B is equal to :
(1)30° (2)60° (3) 45° (4) 90°
144. If x + y + z = 0, then
x2 y2 z2   
?
yz zx xy
1) (xyz)2 2) x2 + y2 + z2 3) 9 4) 3
145. Each interior angle of a regular polygon is 18° more than eight times an exterior angle. The
number of sides of the polygon is
(1) 10 (2) 15 (3) 20 (4) 25
146. The length of the diagonal BD of the parallelogram ABCD is 18 cm. If P and Q are the centroid
of the  ABC and  ADC respectively then the length of the line segment PQ is
(1) 4 cm (2) 6 cm (3) 9 cm (4) 12 cm
  
8sin 5cos
147. If tan 1, then the value of 3 3
     is
sin 2cos 7cos
1) 2 2)
2 1
2 3) 3 4)
4
5
148. The value of cot 100. cot200.cot600.cot700.cot800 is
1) 1 2) –1 3) 3 4)
1
3
149. The minimum value of 2 sin2  + 3 cos 2  is
1) 0 2) 3 3) 2 4) 1
150. Two poles of equal heights are standing opposite to eachother on either side of a road which is
100 m wide. From a point between them on road angles of elevation of their tops are 300 and
600. The height of each pole in metre is
1) 25 3 2) 20 3 3) 28 3 4) 30 3
ENGLISH COMPREHENSION
Directions (Q.Nos.151-155): Out of the four alternatives, choose the meaning of the given
151. Remorse
1) Warmth 2) Delight 3) Repentance 4) Satisfaction
152. Stigma
1) credit 2) Pride 3) Shame 4) Clarity
153. Blemish
1) Adornment 2) Blank 3) Embellishment 4) Flaw
154. Deteriorate
1) Boost 2) Improve 3) Build 4) Descend
155. Knave
1) Fraud 2) Angel 3) Ugly 4) Perfect
Directions (Q.Nos. 156-160) Choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word and
mark it in the answer sheet.

: 11 :
156. Enormous
1) Soft 2) Average 3) Tiny 4) Weak
157. Commissioned
1) Started 2) Closed 3) Finished 4) Terminated
158. Artificial
1) Red 2) Natural 3) Truthful 4) Solid
159. Exodus
1) Influx 2) Home-coming 3) Return 4) Restoration
160. Mortal
1) Divine 2) Immortal 3) Spiritual 4) Eternal
Directions (Q.Nos. 161-165) Four alternatives are given for the idiom/phrase. Choose the
alternative which best expresses the meaning of idiom/phrase.
161. To be the question
1) To refer to 2) To take for granted 3) To raise objections 4) To be discussed
162. A piece of cake
1) A task that can be achieved very easily 2) A slice of a cake
3) A difficult goal 4) A result that is unclear
163. To pull one’s leg
1) To fight 2) To make fool of 3) To tolerate 4) Tit for tat
164. Cock and bull story
1) A story about a cock and bull 2) Verbally scold someone
3) An unbelievable tale 4) A true event
165. To cut to the chase
1) To chase someone 2) A duplicate
3) Raising an alarm 4) To get directly go to the point
Directions (Q.Nos. 166-170) A Sentence is given which may need improvement. Alternatives
are given 1) , 2) and 3) below which may be a better option. In case no improvement is needed,
then your answer is 4) .
166. The man whom I thought was thoroughly honest proved to be a swindler.
1) The man whom I thought was thoroughly honest proved to be a swindler
2) The man who I thought was thoroughly honest proved to be a swindler.
3) The man to whom I thought was thoroughly honest proved to be a swindler
4) No improvement
167. No sooner had the dividend been declared the notices were sent out.
1) The company had hardly declared the dividend till the notices were sent out
2) They had no sooner declared the dividend then the notices were sent out
3) Hardly had the dividend been declared than the notices were sent out
4) No improvement
168. Riding upon his horse, the tiger jumped at him.
1) Riding upon the tiger, the horse jumped at him
2) The tiger jumped at him while he was riding upon his horse
3) The tiger rode at him while he was jumping upon his horse
4) No improvement
169. I in black and white must have your terms down.
1) I must have in black and white your terms down
2) I must have your terms in black and white down
3) I must have your terms down in black and white
4) No improvement
170. When we came out of the restaurant, it was half past eleven.
1) When we had come out of the restaurant, it was half past eleven
2) After we came out of the restaurant, it was half past eleven
3) When we have come out of the restaurant, it was half past eleven
4) No improvement
Directions (Q.Nos. 171-175) Four alternatives are given in each group, one word is correctly
spelt. Find the correctly spelt word.
171. 1) Addvertise 2) Surender 3) Admiror 4) Pitiable
172. 1) Humilliation 2) Veterinary 3) Appology 4) Resturant
173. 1) Accute 2) Forstry 3) Personel 4) Ominous
174. 1) Diference 2) Homogenious 3) Greatful 4) Possession

: 12 :
175. 1) Committee 2) Commentery 3) Involuntry 4) Anxiety
Directions (Q.Nos. 176-180) Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be
substituted for. the given words/sentences.
176. To examine ones own thoughts and feelings
1) Introspection 2) Retrospection 3) Euthanasia 4) Circumspection
177. The custom of having more than one husband at a time
1) Polygamy 2) Polyandry 3) Debauchery 4) Bigamy
178. Murder of a brother
1) Patricide 2) Regicide 3) Homicide 4) Fratricide
179. Study of mankind
1) Pathology 2) Physiology 3) Philology 4) Anthropology
180. Through which light cannot pass
1) Dull 2) Dark 3) Obscure 4) Opaque
Directions (Q.Nos. 181-190) Some of the words have been left out. First read the passage over
and try, to understand what it is about. Then, fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives
given. Something has happened in the last twenty years that surely must (181) anything that
has happened before. Some historians are already saying that thrust (182) space represents a
vital turning point in history. Moon flights are considered (183) less than steps in human
evolution (184) to the time when life on earth emerged from the sea and established itself on
land. Of course, not everyone (185) enraptured by space. Critics have often said that space
flight has been an (186) use of resources that should have (187) to feeding, clothing and housing
people. There is, however, no proof that if we had (188) been working on space, we would have
done anything of great human value. In fact, research and exploration have a (189) spin-offs,
quite apart from the fact that they demonstrate that (190) is alive and insatiably curious.
181. 1) terminate 2) transcend 3) precede 4) recede
182. 1) on 2) upon 3) in 4) into
183. 1) nothing 2) certainly 3) sufficiently 4) probably
184. 1) exceeding 2) contrasting 3) comparable 4) matching
185. 1) was 2) has been 3) had been 4) being
186. 1) economical 2) extravagant 3) appropriate 4) benevolent
187. 1) devoted 2) allotted 3) reserved 4) gone
188. 1) not 2) occasionally 3) seldom 4) possibly
189. 1) renowned 2) renounced 3) remarkable 4) relevant
190. 1) one 2) man 3) human 4) individual
Directions (Q.Nos. 191-195) Some of the sentences have errors and some are correct.
Find out which part of a sentence has an error and corresponding to the appropriate letter 1)
, 2) and (3) If the sentence is free from error, then mark (4) .
191. You will not(1) /get well until(2) /you take medicine regularly. (3) /No error(4)
192. You must either(1) / inform the police else be(2) / prepared to suffer any loss.(3) / No error(4)
193. Both the rich along with the poor(1) / are responsible for a great many vices(2) /with which
our society as well as country is inflicted.(3) / No error(4)
194. Have you ever(1) / met such a boy(2) / who has hot travelled by train? (3) / No error(4)
195. The robber had hardly(1) / put the ornaments in his bag(2) / than the house wife woke up.(3)
/ No error(4)
Directions (Q.Nos. 196-200) Sentences are given with blanks to be filled with an appropriate
word. Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative.
196. I wish my bus.........so late, then I could have reached home before breakfast
1) had not arrived 2) does not arrive 3) has not arrived 4) arrived
197. .........you examine it carefully you will notice some flaws.
1) Despots 2) If 3) Unless 4) Until
198. The contractor did not keep his promise that the work......... be finished before the end of the
week.
1) shall 2) could 3) would 4) may
199. If you come across my umbrella anywhere bring it to me, .........?
1) is not it 2) do not you 3) will you 4) let you
200. Miss Pillai teaches very well.........?
1) did not she 2) does not she 3) was not it 4) would not she
***

1.3 2.4 3.3 4.3 5.4 6.2 7.4 8.2 9.3 10.2 11.1 12.4 13.3 14.3 15.3
16.3 17.2 18.4 19.4 20.4 21.3 22.1 23.3 24.3 25.1 26.2 27.1 28.4 29.1 30.1
31.2 32.3 33.3 34.1 35.2 36.3 37.3 38.3 39.1 40.3 41.4 42.4 43.4 44.4 45.1
46.1 47.4 48.3 49.4 50.1 51.2 52.2 53.2 54.4 55.4 56.2 57.2 58.1 59.4 60.4
61.3 62.1 63.4 64.1 65.1 66.3 67.3 68.1 69.2 70.4 71.4 72.4 73.3 74.3 75.4
76.2 77.3 78.2 79.4 80.2 81.3 82.2 83.1 84.1 85.4 86.2 87.2 88.2 89.2 90.3
91.1 92.3 93.3 94.3 95.4 96.4 97.4 98.1 99.3 100.3 101.1 102.1 103.3 104.3 105.3
106.3 107.1 108.2 109.1 110.1 111.1 112.1 113.1 114.3 115.1 116.3 117.2 118.2 119.2 120.2
121.3 122.2 123.3 124.3 125.3 126.2 127.3 128.2 129.4 130.1 131.4 132.4 133.1 134.1 135.2
136.2 137.1 138.4 139.3 140.1 141.3 142.2 143.4 144.4 145.3 146.2 147.1 148.4 149.2 150.1
151.3 152.3 153.4 154.4 155.1 156.3 157.4 158.2 159.1 160.2 161.4 162.1 163.2 164.3 165.4
166.4 167.3 168.2 169.3 170.4 171.4 172.2 173.4 174.4 175.4 176.1 177.2 178.4 179.4 180.4
181.2 182.4 183.1 184.3 185.2 186.2 187.4 188.1 189.3 190.2 191.2 192.2 193.1 194.3 195.3
196.1 197.2 198.3 199.3 200.2
: 13 :
SSC COMBINED GRADUATE LEVEL (Tier-I) - Key

SSC CGL Tier-I Model Test for General Intelligence & Reasoning

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