real estate broker examination reviewer

1. REB Examination Reviewer:
REAL ESTATE BROKER(REB) EXAMINATION REVIEWER 2014 EDITION RA 9646 An Act Regulating the
Real Estate Service Practice of The Philippines Also Includes Coverage on Some Topics Given In the REB
Licensure Examination

2. INTRODUCTION This book is structured for takers of Real Estate Broker Licensure Examination. The
coverage of the topics was based on the RA 9646 (RESA Law). Real Estate Service Practice is a new
Profession under PRC and all who practice and those who will enter into the practice of real estate needs to
take a licensure examination. Hopefully this book could assists those who will take the examination to gain
necessary confidence in taking the examination and help them in journey to become a licensed real estate
service practitioner.
“ Per Aspera Ad Astra” The rough road leading to the stars

3. TABLE OF CONTENTS (Based on RESA 9646) Real Estate Service Act
PAGE GENERAL / FUNDAMENTALS
 Fundamentals of property ownership
 Code of ethics and responsibilities
 Legal requirements for real estate service practice
 Real estate laws and taxation
05-16 17-26 27-34 35-43
SPECIAL AND TECHNICAL KNOWLEDGE
 Subdivision development
 Condominium concept and other types of real estate holdings
 Legal aspect of sale, mortgage and lease
 Documentation and registration
43-52 53-61 62-70 71-81
PROFESSIONAL PRACTICE
 Real estate brokerage practice
 Real estate finance and economics
 Urban and rural land use
 Planning, development and zoning
 Basic principles of ecology
 Basic appraisal for real estate brokers
82-90 91-99 100-109 110-117 118-125 126-137
ANSWER KEYS
138

4. 4
FUNDAMENTALS OF PROPERTY OWNERSHIP
1. Percent of Filipino ownership in a foreign corporation or partnership that are allowed to acquire land in the
Philippines.
a. 60%.
b. b. 50%
c. c. 75%
2. The surface of the earth which was unimproved.
a. Land
b. Building
c. Estate
3. The land with all improvement and the rights on it.
a. Real property
b. Real estate
c. Land
4. Also known as personality, or anything portable and movable.
a. Personal property
b. Movable property
c. Private property
5. Personal property that will become real estate.
a. Fixture
b. Real property
c. Real estate
6. A fixture use for trade or business.
a. Trade fixture
b. Business fixture
c. Furniture
7. Form of ownership with complete rights. a. Fee simple b. Life estate c. Leasehold 8. The land with natural
and artificial improvement on it.
a. Real estate
b. Land
c. Real property
9. Fee simple where title won’t pass from one person to another until a condition is met.
a. Condition precedent
b. Conditional
c. Condition subsequent
10. Title remains with new owner while the condition is met.
a. Determinable
b. Conditional
c. Subsequent
11. Ownership on the property for the duration of the life of the possessor or another.
a. Life state
b. State for life
c. State in perpetuity
12. Husband’s right on the property of wife.
a. Curtesy
b. Capital
c. Paraphernal
13. The wife right on the property of the husband.
a. Dower
b. Capital
c. Paraphernal

5. 5
14. Protection of a family home against creditor on being ______.
a. Foreclose
b. Collateral
c. Homestead
15. Landlord interest on the real property.
a. Lease fee
b. Leasehold
c. Lease rent
16. Only this classification of land can be subject to alienation.
a. Agricultural
b. Special
c. Commercial
17. Right granted to owner of property bordering a bay, lake or sea.
a. Littoral
b. Riparian
c. Public
18. Right granted to owner of property abutting river and streams.
a. Riparian
b. River right
c. Water right
19. Right granted by special agreement with owner and government.
a. Water right
b. Riparian right
c. Littoral
20. Right to build on the piece of land
a. Development right
b. Building right
c. Improvement right
21. Right to take mineral out of the ground
a. Mineral right
b. Mining right
c. Golden right
22. Having interest on the piece of real estate.
a. Tenancy
b. Ownership
c. Possession
23. Person who administer property in behalf of the beneficiary.
a. Trustee
b. Agent
c. Owner
24. Two or more people or companies join together to do a single project.
a. Joint venture
b. Partnership

6. c. Corporation
25. Two or more people or companies join together to do business.
a. Partnership b. Joint venture c. Corporation
26. Right to use a property for a limited period of time each year.
a. Timeshare b. Rent c. Lease
27. Financial claims against someone property. a. Lien b. Adverse claim c. Collateral
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28. Lien on property with unpaid taxes. a. Tax lien b. Mortgage lien c. Mechanic lien 29. Lien on property for
nonpayment of work done on property. a. Mechanic b. Debt c. Mortgage 30. Right to use someone else
property for his benefit. a. Easement b. Lease c. Borrow 31. Easement that benefit another person than the
property. a. Gross b. Net c. Personal 32. Temporary right to do something on someone’s property. a. License
b. Leasehold c. Tenant 33. Power of the state to take private property with just compensation. a. Eminent
Domain b. Police Power c. Foreclosure 34. Restriction or regulation on the uses of a particular area. a. Zoning
b. Traffic c. Ordinance 35. A code that refers to specification of heights and setbacks. a. Building Code b.
Height Code c. Fire Code 36. Evidence of ownership such as tax declaration, tax receipts, deed of sale and
others. a. Title b. Torrens c. Paper 37. Population of the following that can be considered urban areas of a
central district. a. 500 b. 1000 c. 800 38. Dual allegiance is _____ to the national interest. a. Inimical b.
Beneficial c. Dangerous 39. Former Filipino born citizen can acquire their citizenship by _______. a. Oath of
allegiance to the republic b. Act of allegiance to Philippines c. Allegiance to Philippines 40. Dual citizen
Filipinos can be allowed to be candidate in a national election upon. a. Renunciation of foreign citizenship b.
Filing of candidacy c. Order of the court 41. Grant of agricultural land to tenant farmer through land reform. a.
Emancipation patent b. Homestead patent c. Free patent
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42. A will written and signed by the testator himself. a. Holographic will b. Oral will c. Notarial will 43. Property
where easement is created. a. Servient b. Dominant c. Gross 44. Prescription of easement take almost how
many years. a. 10 to 21 years b. 5 to 10 years c. 3 to 5 years 45. Easement that allow electrical wires or
pipelines to pass across. a. Utility easement b. Road right of way c. Easement 46. Extension of property
physical structure over property line of other owner. a. Encroachment b. Illegal entry c. Over reaching 47. Deed
that conveys title from trustor to trustee. a. Deed of trust b. Trustees deed c. Reconveyance deed 48. Voluntary
conveyance of title. a. Voluntary alienation b. Foreclosure c. Voluntary transfer 49. Clause that limits ownership
rights such as prohibiting act of gambling and drinking. a. Habendum clause b. Limitation clause c. Prohibiting
clause 50. Formal declaration in the presence of a notary public or official designated by law. a.
Acknowledgement b. Complaint c. Filing 51. Property is sold to satisfy debt. a. Foreclosure b. Payment c.
Redeem 52. Grant of land by person through will of owner. a. Devise b. Decedent c. Devisee 53. Element
present for adverse possession except. a. Perpetual b. Open c. Notorious 54. Claim when land titled in the
name of owner but another claims ownership of the same. a. Adverse claim b. Valid claim c. Invalid claim 55.
Foreigners are allowed to acquire real estate in the Philippines under the following condition, except. a.
Acquisition after 1935 constitution b. By hereditary succession c. Acquisition before 1935 constitution
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56. Former natural born Filipino citizen are allowed to acquire urban land for residential purpose for a
maximum area of _______. a. 1000 sqm b. 5000 sqm c. 1 hectare or 3 hectares 57. Former Filipino citizen can
acquire land for purposes, except ______. a. Buy and Sell b. Business c. Agriculture 58. The right to own real
property in the Philippines is governed by _____. a. 1987 Philippine Constitution. b. 1935 Philippine
Constitution. c. 1988 Philippine Constitution. 59. Acquiring land adjoining the banks of rivers due to the gradual
deposit of soil as a result of the river current. a. Accretion b. Avulsion c. Reclamation 60. Acquisition of
alienable lands of the public domain by homestead patent, free patent or other government awards. a. Public
grant b. Private grant c. Government grant 61. System of real estate ownership applied in the Philippines. a.
Torrens system b. Open system c. Closed system 62. The right to recover is ______. a. Jus vindicandi. b. Jus
abutendi. c. Jus disponendi. 63. Property goes to the government because of no heir and no will. a. Escheat b.
Eminent domain c. Foreclosure 64. A principle in ownership wherein the state owns all such as the forest,
timber, mineral lands and etc. a. Regalian b. Democratic c. Communal 65. A concept where a person property
is not just for his own exclusive used or benefit but for the good and general welfare of all a. Steward concept
b. Sharing concept c. Ownership concept 66. A kind of ownership that includes all rights. a. Full b. Naked c.
Sole 67. Belong the ownership of the hidden treasure. a. Owner b. Government c. Finder 68. Land of public

7. domain are the following, except. a. Commercial b. Agricultural c. National park
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69. Filipino citizens may lease not more than ______. a. 500 hectares b. 1000 hectares c. 800 hectares 70.
Maximum area allowed for purchases, homestead or grant. a. 12 hectares b. 3 hectares c. 5 hectares 71.
Foreigner may lease land in the Philippines for an allowable initial period of ____. a. 50 years b. 25 years c. 30
years 72. Right given so that an owner of the adjoining land can pass through. a. Road right of way b. Road
allowance c. Access road 73. Property relation of married couple is absolute community of property effectivity.
a. August 3, 1988 b. September 1, 1972 c. August 8, 1988 74. Property regime of couple without being
married. a. Co-ownership b. Single ownership c. Shared ownership 75. Decision on the administration of
conjugal properties if couple has disagreement. a. Husband b. Wife c. Son or daughter 76. If a husband is
incapacitated who has the power of administration of their properties. a. Wife b. Son or Daughter c. Court 77.
Recourse to the court by wife on the decision of husband on conjugal property can be availed within _____. a.
5 years b. 3 years c. 4 years 78. Properties of a wife is known as a. Paraphernal b. Capital c. Exclusive 79. All
of the following can be part of absolute community property except. a. Property from previous marriage b.
Donated property c. Brought exclusively by any spouse 80. Separation of properties of couple married after
1988 can be done through. a. Judicial separation of property b. Will of the spouses c. Will of siblings 81.
Properties that belonging to no one. a. Res Nullius b. Res Communies c. Res Alicujus 82. The right to
consume is. a. Jus abutendi b. Jus vindicandi c. Jus utendi
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83. Supreme law of the land. a. The welfare of the people b. The welfare of the nation c. The welfare state 84.
Limitation imposed by the state are the following, except. a. Right of way b. Police power c. Eminent domain
85. Fruits through cultivation or labor. a. Industrial b. Commercial c. Agricultural 86. A process where a soil is
deposited. a. Accretion b. Reclamation c. Alluvium 87. Soil added or deposited to the land adjoining the rivers.
a. Alluvium b. Erosion c. Land deposit 88. Rights of the lessee of property. a. Leasehold b. Lease fee c. Lease
89. Action to remove cloud on the title. a. Quieting of title b. File in the ROD c. Redeem title 90. Ownership on
an undivided thing by different person a. Co-ownership b. Common ownership c. Shared ownership 91. Co-
ownership are presume to be. a. Equal b. Unequal c. Maybe equal or not 92. Unities satisfied to create joint
tenancy, except. a. Ownership b. Possession c. Interest 93. Donor can prohibit partition of given property for a
period not exceeding. a. 20 years b. 10 years c. 25 years 94. Party wall or fence use commonly by parties are
expense by. a. All party b. Party who build c. All or one party 95. Years does prescription to claim title in bad
faith take place. a. 30 years b. 10 years c. 5 years 96. Tenancy which has no right of survivorship. a. Tenancy
in Common b. Tenancy in severalty c. Tenancy by Entirety
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97. Tenancy where interest cannot unilaterally transfer be transferred. a. Tenancy by Entirety b. Tenancy in
severalty c. Tenancy in Common 98. Tenancy available to married couple. a. Tenancy by Entirety b. Tenancy
in severalty c. Tenancy in Common 99. Any act, omission, establishment, business, condition of property, or
anything else which endangers the health or safety of others. a. Nuisance b. Negligence c. Denial 100. Owner
of fruits that fall on the adjacent land. a. Owner of land where the fruit fell b. Owner of the tree c. The finder
101. Right of the owner of lot where branches of trees of adjacent lot extended. a. Demand the owner to cut off
the branches b. Cut off the branches c. Cut off the trees 102. Right of the owner land where roots of trees of
adjacent trees extended. a. Cut off the roots b. Demand to the owner to cut off the roots c. Cut off the tress
103. Who provide right of way whenever a piece of land acquired by sale, exchange or partition, is surrounded
by other estates of the vendor, exchanger, or co-owner. a. Owner b. Buyer c. Seller 104. gives a right to enjoy
the property of another with the obligation of preserving its form and substance, unless the title constituting it or
the law otherwise provides a. Unsufruct b. loan c. Foreclosure 105. The holding of a thing or the enjoyment of
a right. a. Possession b. Ownership c. Bundle of right 106. Owner of a spring or brook that arises. a. Owner of
the land b. Public c. Government 107. All of the following are special properties, except. a. Trees b. Water c.
Minerals 108. Shoulder expenses on demolition ordered by government on building in danger of falling. a.
Owner b. Government c. None 109. Belong the lakes, navigable and floatable rivers. a. State b. Owner of
adjacent land c. Government
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110. The spontaneous products of the soil, and the young and other products of animals. a. Natural b. Artificial
c. industrial 111. The following are immovable property, except. a. Shares of Stock b. Trees c. Statues 112.
Not considered citizen of the Philippines a. Whose parents are Alien b. Father is a Filipino citizen c.
Nonresident Filipino parents 113. Its goals are more equitable distribution of opportunities, income, and wealth.

8. a. National economy b. Government c. State 114. Foreign corporation may lease not more than ______. a.
1000 hectare b. 500 hectare c. 200 hectare 115. Citizen of the Philippines may not own more than ______. a.
12 hectare b. 5 hectare c. 3 hectare 116. Share of the wife on property of couple whose husband died with one
son left. a. ½ plus ½ of the remaining property b. ½ of the property c. 1/3 of the property 117. Share of the son
on the property if the mother died and father is alive. a. ¼ of the property b. 1/3 of the property c. ½ of the
property 118. Share of an illegitimate child a. ½ of the share legitimate siblings b. ½ of share of mother c. 1/3 of
the share 119. Marital consent on sale of properties is needed in all of the following, except. a. Absolute
separation of property b. Absolute community property c. Co-ownership 120. Filing of submerge land. a.
Reclamation b. Construction c. seashore 121. In a 50 door unit subdivision an alien are allowed to buy and
own a unit up to a. 40% b. 50% c. 60% 122. Right to enjoy the property of another with the obligation of
preserving its form and substance. a. Usufruct b. Lease c. Rent 123. Owner of a hidden treasure which is of
science or art interest. a. Can be acquired by the state at their price b. Can be sold by finder at heir price c.
Can be acquired by buyer at their price
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124. Property which was segregated and transfer to other property is still own by the original owner up to ____.
a. 2 years b. 5 years c. 10 years 125. Trees which was been uprooted and carried belong to the owner up to
____. a. 6 months b. 12 months c. 1 year 126. Donation that take effect after death of the donor. a. Donation
mortis causa b. Donation inter vivos c. Onerous donation 127. Holding of a thing or enjoyment of the right. a.
Possession b. Ownership c. Bundle of right 128. Failure or neglect for an unreasonable and unexplained length
of time, to do that which, by exercising due diligence, could or should have been done earlier. a. Laches b.
Lapses c. prescription 129. Private corporation shall lease for an initial period not exceeding ____. a. 25 years
b. 50 years c. 10 years 130. Lands acquired through free patent or homestead cannot be sold for a period. a. 5
years b. 10 years c. 15 years 131. Foreshore land can be lease up to ____. a. 144 hectare b. 50 hectare c. 20
hectare 132. Fruits on the exclusive property of wife shall be ____. a. Conjugal property b. Property of wife c.
Paraphernal 133. Termination of conjugal partnership of gains, except. a. Separation b. Death of spouse c.
Annulled married 134. Administrator of a conjugal property. a. Husband b. Wife c. Appointed by court 135. In
case of annulment of marriage, whose share in conjugal properties are forfeited. a. Spouse acted in bad faith
b. Couple c. Spouse acted in good faith 136. Is the dwelling house where a person and his family reside, and
the land on which it is situated. a. Family home b. Residence c. Dwelling
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137. Family home can be setup also by ____. a. An unmarried head of the family b. Only by the married couple
c. Only by the husband 138. Share of stock are considered. a. Movable property b. Commercial property c.
Business property 139. Use of public water is acquired by all, except. a. By prescription of 5 years b.
Administrative concession c. By prescription of 10 years 140. Object of possession. a. Only things that are
susceptible to being appropriated b. All real estate c. All things and property 141. Prohibits the owner of the
servient estate from doing something which he could lawfully do if the easement did not exist. a. Negative
easement b. Positive easement c. Netraul easement 142. Imposes upon the owner of the servient estate the
obligation of allowing something to be done or of doing it himself. a. Positive easement b. Negative easement
c. Netraul easement 143. Easement that are established by law. a. Legal easement b. Involuntary easement c.
Voluntary easement 144. Easement that is established by will of the owners. a. Voluntary easement b. Legal
easement c. Involuntary easement 145. Ownership can be acquire by all, except. a. Force b. Law c. Donation
146. The scientist or technologist has the ownership of his discovery or invention. a. Even before patented b.
After patented c. During patenting 147. Acknowledgement of will before a notary public. a. Does not require
copy b. Require copy of notarized will c. It depends 148. Is an act by virtue of which a testator designates in his
will the person or persons who are to succeed him in his property and transmissible rights and obligations a.
Institution of heir b. Institution of beneficiary c. Institution devisee 149. Is the appointment of another heir so
that he may enter into the inheritance in default of the heir originally instituted a. Substitution b. Proxy c.
Legitime
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150. Substitution by virtue of which the fiduciary or first heir instituted is entrusted with the obligation to
preserve and to transmit to a second heir the whole or part of the inheritance, shall be valid and shall take
effect. a. Fideicommisary b. Substitution c. Fiduciary 151. Part of the testator's property which he cannot
dispose of because the law has reserved it for certain heirs who are, therefore, called compulsory heirs. a.
Legitime b. Inheritance c. Devise 152. Existing between persons who have the same father and the same
mother. a. Full blood relation b. Brother c. Half blood relation 153. Right created by fiction of law, by virtue of
which the representative is raised to the place and the degree of the person represented a. Representation b.
Proxy c. Replacement 154. Order of intestate succession a. Descending line b. Ascending line c. Sideward line

9. 155. In the absent of descendant and ascendant, the property goes to ____. a. Spouse b. Government c.
Charity 156. Right by virtue of which, when two or more persons are called to the same inheritance, devise or
legacy, a. Accretion b. Common c. Sharing 157. Act of liberality whereby a person disposes gratuitously of a
thing or right in favor of another, who accepts it. a. Donation b. Gift c. Giveaways 158. Existing between
persons who have the same father, but not the same mother, or the same mother, but not the same father. a.
Half blood Relation b. No blood relation c. Full blood relation 159. Right of possession that returns to the
grantor after the expiration of a limited or contingent estate. a. Reversion b. Escheat c. Conversion 160. Right
of possession that goes to a third party upon the expiration of a limited or contingent estate. a. Remainder b.
Excess c. Beneficiary
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CODE OF ETHICS AND RESPONSIBILITIES 1. A noble profession, calling or an occupation dedicated to the
promotions, development and conservation of land and natural resources. a. Realty Service Practice b.
Brokerage Service Practice c. Consulting 2. Since realty service practice is an honorable practice, those who
practice are bounded to follow a ________. a. Code of ethics b. Code of conduct c. Government code 3.
Utmost fidelity, sincerity, respect for colleagues in the profession, and honesty shall be observed. a. At all
times b. Special times c. Any time 4. Level of knowledge, competence and expertise in real estate
development and management that shall be maintained. a. Adequate b. Sufficient c. Complete 5. Upgrading of
the standards of practice shall be effected. a. When the need arises b. At all times c. Even when it is not
needed 6. The spirit of camaraderie, cooperation and professional relationship by respecting the rights of other
practitioners shall be ____. a. Promoted b. Practiced c. Observed 7. Level of integrity, honesty and
competence in the profession of realty service practice. a. High b. Highest c. Average 8. High level of integrity,
honesty and competence in the profession for the best interest of the community and ____. a. The nation b.
The state c. The country 9. Level of professional and respect relationship with colleagues in the Realty Service
Practice. a. High b. Highest c. Average 10. Fair, honest and just dealing of realty service practice with each
other. a. Always b. All times c. Anytime 11. Shall be observed in all the dealings and relation of the
practitioners with clients, fellow practitioners, the organization to which they belong, and the general public. a.
Treat others as you like them to treat you b. Do not treat others as you like them to treat you c. Treat others as
you do not like them to treat you. 12. Threat others as you like them to treat you is known as the ______. a.
Golden rule b. Golden mean c. Supreme rule
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13. Shall embrace and include all persons, partnerships or corporations who are duly licensed by the
Department of Trade and Industry. a. Realty service practice b. Brokerage service practice c. Real estate
service 14. He should pay any and all taxes. a. Government relation b. Organization relation c. Public relation
15. The practitioner should secure all the necessary licenses, permits and authority. a. Government relation b.
Organization relation c. Public relation 16. Support government projects & land development activities. a.
Government relation b. Organization relation c. Public relation 17. He should not encourage, abet, tolerate or
participate in the evasion or illegal reduction in the payment of all taxes. a. Government relation b.
Organization relation c. Public relation 18. He should not offer or agree to pay to, split or rebate any
commission, fee or valuable consideration to unlicensed realty service practitioner. a. Government relation b.
Organization relation c. Public relation 19. He should indicate the license number of the certificate issued by
the Department of Trade and Industry in his letterhead. a. Government relation b. Organization relation c.
Public relation 20. The practitioner should be imbued with a social conscience for he does not live by himself
and his family alone but he is a part of society with definite social responsibilities; a. Public relation b. Client
relation c. Customer relation 21. He should ensure the highest and the best use of the land and the equitable
distribution of ownership. a. Public relation b. Client relation c. Customer relation 22. He should keep himself
well informed as to any movement affecting real estate in his community, city or province. a. Public relation b.
Client relation c. Customer relation 23. He should cooperate with the government in protecting the public
against deceptive, unfair and unconscionable acts and practices. a. Public relation b. Client relation c.
Customer relation 24. He should ascertain all pertinent facts concerning every property, and avoid error,
exaggeration, misrepresentation or concealment of pertinent facts in dealing with the general public concerning
real estate transactions; a. Public relation b. Client relation c. Customer relation 18
25. He should not be instrumental in introducing in a neighborhood a certain character or use of property which
will tend to impair or erode property values within that neighborhood; a. Public relation b. Client relation c.
Customer relation 26. He should not be a party to the naming of a false consideration in a deed of instrument.
a. Public relation b. Client relation c. Customer relation 27. He should keep a special bank account separate
and distinct from his own funds. a. Public relation b. Client relation c. Customer relation 28. In his
advertisements, brochures or announcements, he should present a true picture of the property, its
improvements, or rights and interests therein including whatever liens or encumbrances it may have. a. Public

10. relation b. Client relation c. Customer relation 29. He should see to it that all agreements, terms and conditions,
financial obligations and commitments in a real estate transaction are in writing, duly signed by all parties
concerned. a. Public relation b. Client relation c. Customer relation 30. The practitioner, in accepting an
appointment or authority to act for and in behalf of a client or customer, should pledge himself with utmost
fidelity and good faith. a. Costumer relation b. Public relation c. Practitioner relation 31. For the sake of justice
and fairness to his client who have reposed confidence in him, the Practitioner should endeavor to be well
informed of current legislation, policies and programs of the government. a. Costumer relation b. Public relation
c. Practitioner relation 32. He should not accept any commission, fee or any valuable consideration from any
party in any transaction except from his client. a. Costumer relation b. Public relation c. Practitioner relation 33.
He should charge or collect only such fees or commissions as are fair and reasonable in accordance with
usual schedule of commission. a. Costumer relation b. Public relation c. Practitioner relation 34. He should not
advertise any property without authority and in any offering, the price quoted should be in accordance with the
price agreed with the owners as the offering price. a. Costumer relation b. Public relation c. Practitioner relation
35. In the event that more than one formal offer on a specific property is made before the owner has accepted
a proposal, all written offers should be presented to the owner for his decision; a. Costumer relation b. Public
relation c. Practitioner relation
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36. He should endeavor to make his client and customer conclude a fair contract advantageous to both; a.
Costumer relation b. Public relation c. Practitioner relation 37. He should assist his customer acquire
possession and ownership of the real property bought in accordance with the terms and conditions agreed
upon; a. Costumer relation b. Public relation c. Practitioner relation 38. In case he is called upon to act as
witness in a court proceeding he should give his testimonies in the most unbiased, honest, truthful and
professional manner; a. Costumer relation b. Public relation c. Practitioner relation 39. As a real estate
appraiser, he should not render an opinion without careful and thorough analysis and interpretation of all
factors affecting the value of the property. a. Costumer relation b. Public relation c. Practitioner relation 40. As
an appraiser, he should not undertake to make an appraisal or render an opinion that is outside the field of his
experience and competence. a. Costumer relation b. Public relation c. Practitioner relation 41. He should not
solicit a listing which is currently listed exclusively with another broker unless the listing agreement has expired
or revoked by the owner and the owner offers to list the same to the new broker without soliciting the same; a.
Relation to fellow practitioner b. Relation to the organization c. Relation to costumer 42. When he accepts a
listing from another broker, the agency of the broker who offers the listing should be respected until it has
expired. a. Relation to fellow practitioner b. Relation to the organization c. Relation to costumer 43. Signs
giving notice of a property for sale, rent, lease or exchange should not be placed on any property by more than
one broker and only if authorized by the owner; a. Relation to fellow practitioner b. Relation to the organization
c. Relation to costumer 44. He should not use information obtained by him from a listing broker through offers
to cooperate or received through multiple listing services or other sources authorized. a. Relation to fellow
practitioner b. Relation to the organization c. Relation to costumer 45. He should cooperate with other brokers
on property listed and share the commission on an agreed basis. a. Relation to fellow practitioner b. Relation to
the organization c. Relation to costumer 46. He should not solicit or use the services of an employee or
salesman of another practitioner without the knowledge of the employer; a. Relation to fellow practitioner b.
Relation to the organization c. Relation to costumer
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47. He should not criticize publicly a competitor nor volunteer an opinion of a competitor's transaction. a.
Relation to fellow practitioner b. Relation to the organization c. Relation to costumer 48. The practitioners
should seek no unfair advantage over his fellow practitioners and should willingly share with them the lessons
of his experience and study; a. Relation to fellow practitioner b. Relation to the organization c. Relation to
costumer 49. He should conduct his business properly to avoid any controversy with his fellow practitioners. a.
Relation to fellow practitioner b. Relation to the organization c. Relation to costumer 50. If the controversy is
between practitioners belonging to different organizations or associations, it should be submitted to an
Arbitration Board consisting of one member from each organization or association chosen by each of the
parties to the controversy. a. Relation to fellow practitioner b. Relation to the organization c. Relation to
costumer 51. In case the practitioners in a controversy are not members of any duly recognized organization or
the Arbitration Boards cannot settle the controversy, the Department of Trade and Industry shall assume
jurisdiction over said controversy; a. Relation to fellow practitioner b. Relation to the organization c. Relation to
costumer 52. In case a complaint is filed against a practitioner with his organization or association for unethical
or unfair practice, he should voluntarily submit all pertinent facts. a. Relation to fellow practitioner b. Relation to
the organization c. Relation to costumer 53. In the interest of society and his own profession, calling or
occupation, the practitioner should abide by the Constitution and By-Laws of his association or organization
and the National Association to which it is affiliated; a. Relation to organization b. Relation to fellow practitioner

11. c. Relation to the public 54. Election as officer or member of the governing body of the organization or
association carries with it the moral obligation to serve honorably, unselfishly, diligently and efficiently. a.
Relation to organization b. Relation to fellow practitioner c. Relation to the public 55. He should support his
organization morally and financially and actively support its plans, programs and projects for the benefit of all
the members of the organization or association; a. Relation to organization b. Relation to fellow practitioner c.
Relation to the public 56. Any practitioner should first exhaust all administrative remedies available under
existing laws, rules and regulations. a. Relation to organization b. Relation to fellow practitioner c. Relation to
the public 57. Practitioner should indicate in his letterhead, dry seal, signboard, billboard, advertisement or
other announcement. a. License number b. Voter ID number c. CTC Number
21
58. He should not offer or agree to pay to, split or rebate any commission to ____. a. Unlicensed practitioner b.
Unlicensed broker c. Unlicensed salesman 59. Should secure all the necessary licenses, permits and authority.
a. The practitioner b. The broker c. The appraiser 60. Evasion or illegal reduction in the payment of all taxes,
fees, dues, levies or charges that may be imposed by the government. a. Should not be encourage b. Should
be encourage c. Is discourage 61. The practitioner should be imbued with a social conscience for he does not
live by himself and his family alone but he is a part of society with ____. a. social responsibility b. ethical
responsibility c. political responsibility 62. Level of use of the land and the equitable distribution of ownership.
a. Highest and best used b. Highest used c. Best used 63. In order that he may be able to contribute to public
thinking on matters of taxation, land use, city planning, zonification and other programs of the government. a.
He should keep himself well informed. b. He should attained seminar c. He should study 64. Protecting the
public against deceptive, unfair and unconscionable acts the practitioner should. a. Cooperate with government
b. Participate with government c. Assist the government 65. He should not be _____ in introducing in a
neighborhood a certain character or use of property which will tend to impair or erode property values within
that neighborhood. a. Instrumental b. Part c. Participative 66. He should not be a party to the naming of a false
consideration in a ______. a. Deed of instrument b. Official document c. Government document 67. All money
receive for other person should be put in _____ a. Separate bank account b. Buyer’s bank account c. Seller’s
bank account 68. In his advertisements, brochures or announcements, he should present a true picture of
_____. a. Property b. Himself c. Building 69. He should see to it that all agreements, terms and conditions,
financial obligations and commitments in a real estate transaction are in _____. a. Writing b. Order c.
Compliance
22
70. All agreements, terms and conditions, financial obligations and commitments in a real estate transaction
are duly signed by all parties concerned and if necessary to be properly authenticated by ____ . a. the Notary
public b. the Broker c. the Appraiser 71. The practitioner, in accepting an appointment or authority to act for
and in behalf of a client or customer, should pledge himself with utmost fidelity and ____ a. Good faith b. Faith
c. Faithfulness 72. Fee or any valuable consideration from any party in any transaction except from his client
unless with the full knowledge and consent of all the parties in the transaction the broker shall ___ a. Not
accept any commission b. Shall accept commission c. Anytime accept 73. He should charge or collect only
such fees or commissions as are fair and reasonable in accordance with usual ____ a. Schedule of
commission b. Fee c. Commission 74. An ethical practice describe that practitioner. a. He should not advertise
any property without authority and in any offering b. He should not charge or collect only such fees or
commissions as are fair and reasonable c. He should accept any commission, fee or any valuable
consideration from any party in any transaction 75. In the event that more than one formal offer on a specific
property is made before the owner has accepted a proposal, all written offers should be ___. a. Presented to
the owner for his decision b. Presented to the owner for his reference c. Not presented at all 76. He should
endeavor to make his client and customer conclude a ____. a. Fair contract b. Equitable contract c. Fairest
contract 77. Practitioner should ____ his customer acquire possession and ownership of the real property
bought in accordance with the terms and conditions agreed upon. a. Assist b. Help c. Support 78. In case he is
called upon to act as witness in a court proceeding he should give his testimonies in the ___. a. Most unbiased
manner b. Unbiased manner c. Objective manner 79. He should not render an opinion without careful and
thorough analysis and interpretation of all factors affecting the value of the property. a. The appraiser b. The
seller c. The broker 80. As a real estate appraiser, he should not render an opinion without careful and
thorough ____. a. analysis and interpretation of all factors b. inspection of all factors c. weighing of all factors
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81. Should not undertake to make an appraisal or render an opinion that is outside the field of his experience
and competence. a. The appraiser b. The broker c. The buyer 82. In case when an appraiser undertake to
make an appraisal or render an opinion that is outside the field of his experience and competence he should.

12. a. obtains the assistance of another practitioner familiar with such type of property b. obtains assistance of
another buyer familiar with such type of property c. obtains assistance of another seller familiar with such type
of property 83. In case when practitioner solicit a listing which is currently listed exclusively with another broker
he should not accept it unless. a. owner revoke the agreement and the owner offers to list the same to the new
broker without soliciting the same. b. owner did notrevoke the agreement and the owner offers to list the same
to the new broker without soliciting the same. c. Agreement did not expire 84. Signs giving notice of a property
for sale, rent, lease or exchange should not be placed on any property by more than ___. a. One broker b. Two
broker c. Three broker 85. He should not solicit or use the services of an employee or salesman of another
practitioner ___ a. Without knowledge of the employer b. Without informing the employer c. Without permission
of the employer 86. If his opinion is sought, it should be rendered with a. professional integrity and courtesy b.
objectivity c. without bias 87. The practitioners should seek no unfair advantage over his fellow practitioners
and should willingly share with them the lessons of his ____. a. experience and study b. study c. experience
88. In the event of a controversy between practitioners belonging to the same organization or association, such
controversy should be submitted for arbitration to ____. a. Organization b. PRC c. court 89. If the controversy
is between practitioners belonging to different organizations or associations, it should be submitted to __. a.
Arbitration board b. PRC c. DTI 90. In case a complaint is filed against a practitioner with his organization or
association for unethical or unfair practice, he should voluntarily submit all pertinent facts before an
investigating body that may be formed by ___. a. Organization b. PRC c. Court 91. Any practitioner should first
exhaust all administrative remedies available under existing laws, rules and regulations before taking any
____. a. judicial or quasi-judicial action b. judicial action c. quasi judicial action
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92. The Real Estate Service Practitioners shall adhere to the strict compliance to the ____. a. National Code of
Ethics and Responsibilities b. Organization Code of Ethics c. Laws 93. To have adequate education, value
formation, knowledge, competence and expertise in real estate service. a. Required b. Not required c. It
depends 94. The spirit of unity, harmony, camaraderie, cooperation and professional relationship among the
practitioners is essential, and shall be promoted under the principle of __. a. Solidarity b. Unity c. Harmony 95.
The Practitioner shall be imbued with a social responsibility and conscience being part of society with duties
and responsibilities for the promotion of the __. a. Common good b. Common welfare c. Common benefit 96.
The Practitioner shall abide the articles of incorporation and by-laws of the ___. a. AIPO b. Organization c.
Corporation 97. The one who will assume jurisdiction in case the APO arbitration body cannot settle the
controversy. a. PRBRES b. Court c. Organization officer 98. Authority in putting signages or notices on a
property for sale, rent or lease should be in___. a. Writing b. Need not written c. Verbal or oral 99. Only
undertake consulting services or engagements in a conduct that is legal, ethical and ___. a. Moral b. Ethical c.
Fair 100. Publication of announcement is permitted only. a. New office b. Old office c. It depends 101. Violating
any provision of the Code of Ethics and Responsibilities for First Offense. a. Reprimand or Warning; b.
Suspension c. Cancellation 102. Violating any provision of the Code of Ethics and Responsibilities for second
offense. a. Suspension of APO membership for Two (2) months b. Suspension of APO membership for
three(3) months c. Cancellation 103. Violating any provision of the Code of Ethics and Responsibilities for third
offense. a. Suspension of APO membership for Four (4) months; b. Suspension of APO membership for
Five(5) months; c. Cancellation 104. Violating any provision of the Code of Ethics and Responsibilities for
fourth time. a. Recommended for Suspension of License at the Professional Regulatory Board of Real Estate
Service (PRBRES) and at the PRC b. Suspension of APO membership c. Cancellation
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105. Violating any provision of the Code of Ethics and Responsibilities for fifth time. a. Recommendation for the
Cancellation of License at the PRBRES and at the PRC. b. Recommended for Suspension of License at the
Professional Regulatory Board of Real Estate Service (PRBRES) and at the PRC. c. Suspension of APO
membership for Five(5) months; 106. Violating any provision of the Real Estate Service Act and its
implementing rules and regulations for first offense. a. Suspension of APO membership for Four (4) months; b.
Recommended for Suspension of License at the Professional Regulatory Board of Real Estate Service
(PRBRES) and at the PRC c. Cancellation 107. Violating any provision of the Real Estate Service Act and its
implementing rules and regulations for second time. a. Recommended for Suspension of License at the
Professional Regulatory Board of Real Estate Service (PRBRES) and at the PRC; b. Suspension of APO
membership for Four (4) months; c. Cancellation 108. Violating any provision of the Real Estate Service Act
and its implementing rules and regulations for third time. a. Recommendation for the Cancellation of License at
the PRBRES and at the PRC. b. Recommended for Suspension of License at the Professional Regulatory
Board of Real Estate Service (PRBRES) and at the PRC c. Suspension of APO membership 109. It is
unethical for a professional ____ to review the work of another Appraiser if he/she does not possesses the
competency pertaining to the nature of the work being reviewed. a. Peer reviewer b. Appraiser c. Consultant
110. It is unethical for a professional ____ to review the work of another consultant if he/she does not possess

13. the competency pertaining to the nature of the work being reviewed. a. Peer reviewer b. Appraiser c.
Consultant
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LEGAL REQUIREMENTS FOR REAL ESTATE SERVICE 1. Real Estate Service Act of the Philippines. a. RA
9646 b. RA 9464 c. RA 9626 2. Declaration of policy in RA 9646. a. Section 1 b. Section 2 c. Section 3 3. The
____ recognizes the vital role of real estate service practitioners in the social, political, economic development
and progress of the country. a. State b. Government c. Real Estate Practitioner 4. Also known as valuer,
person who conducts valuation / appraisal. a. Appraiser b. Assessor c. Seller 5. Official of LGU who perform
assessment and appraisal. a. Assessor b. Treasurer c. Appraiser 6. Development of land for residential,
commercial, industrial, agricultural and other purposes a. Real Estate Development project b. Improvement c.
Classification 7. Person engages in business of developing real estate project. a. Real Estate Developer b.
Developer c. Contractor 8. Licensed natural person offer professional advice related to real estate. a.
Consultant b. Adviser c. Broker 9. Acts as an agent of party in the real estate transaction to effect meeting of
mind on the sale of real estate. a. Broker b. Seller c. Buyer 10. Topics covered in the real estate broker
examination. a. Condominium b. Consulting tools c. Valuation procedure 11. Acted in behalf of the real estate
broker a. Salesperson b. Seller c. Consultant 12. National integrated organization of natural person duly
registered and licensed as Real Estate Practitioners a. AIPO b. IAPO c. APO 13. Accredited organization who
perform activities prior to the birth of AIPO a. Interim Accredited professional Organization b. Accredited
Professional Organization c. Temporary Accredited Professional Organization
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14. Creation and Composition of PRBRES a. Section 4 b. Section 5 c. Section 6 15. PRBRES are under the
administrative control of the _____. a. PRC b. President c. HLURB 16. Number of nominees per position
submitted by AIPO for PRBRES. a. 5 per position b. 3 per position c. 6 per position 17. Number of member in
the PRBES. a. 4 b. 5. c. 3 18. Qualification of chairperson and member of the board. a. Section 6 b. Section 4
c. Section 5 19. Examination paper, result and minutes shall be kept by. a. PRC b. Board c. AIPO 20. Subject
covered in the real estate appraisal. a. Methodology of appraisal b. Fundamental of real estate consulting c.
Fundamental of property ownership 21. Number year as licensed real estate service practitioner as
qualification for member and chairman of PRBRES. a. 10 b. 3 c. 5 22. Qualification for PRBRES membership
except one. a. 5 years as appraiser b. Member of good standing in AIPO c. 10 year experience as license
practitioner 23. Chairman of PRBRES will serve for ____. a. 3 years b. 2 years c. 6 years 24. Chairman and
Member of the board can be reappointed but in no case will serve more than ____. a. 6 years b. 5 years c. 9
years 25. Prior to assumption of office, the member of the board shall ____. a. Take proper oath b. Appointed
c. Elected 26. Removal of chairperson on these grounds except. a. Being moral b. Incompetence c. Neglect of
duty 27. All records of PRBRES shall be kept by. a. PRC b. Secretary c. Chairman 28
28. Power and function of the Board a. Section 5 b. Section 6 c. Section 7 29. Submission of report by
PRBRES. a. Annually b. Quarterly c. Monthly 30. Scope of examination of real estate brokers except. a. Land
management b. Planning, development and zoning c. Code of Ethics 31. Scope of examination of real estate
broker examination a. Legal aspect of sales b. Feasibility studies c. Case studies 32. Qualification to take
REBLEX. a. Holder of bachelors degree b. 60 credit units of training c. High school graduate 33. Consultant
should have at least ____ years of experience. a. 10 years b. 5 years c. 3 years 34. Average to pass the board
examination a. 75% b. 50% c. 80% 35. Average of 75% and no grade below ___ to pass the REBLEX a. 50%
b. 60% c. 65% 36. Result of the exam shall be release within. a. 10 days b. 5 days c. 30 days 37. Certificate of
registration shall bear the signature of _____. a. Chairman and Member b. Chairman only c. Member only 38.
Term of office of PRBRES a. Section 7 b. Section 8 c. Section 9 39. Aside from the certificate of registration
issuance. a. Issuance of PRC ID b. Rating Card c. Attendance Sheet 40. PRC ID shall be renewed. a. Every 3
years b. Every 5 years c. Every 6 years 41. The PRC ID bear the following except a. Date of registration b.
Registration number c. Date of expiry
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42. The board can refuse to register on any successful candidate. a. If psychologically unfit b. If physically unfit
c. If socially unfit 43. Revocation or suspension from the practice of profession except. a. Passing the board
exam b. Violation of RA 9646 c. Unethical practice 44. Registration without examination a. Active broker who
passed the DTI exam as of July 2009 b. Inactive broker who passed the DTI exam. c. Active broker but did not
passed the DTI exam 45. CPE units to earn to register without examination of any DTI license broker. a. 15
units b. 24 units c. 60 units 46. CPE units to earned to register without examination to those who failed to
renew their DTI license broker prior to July 30, 2009. a. 24 units b. 15 units c. 60 units 47. CPE units to earn to
register without examination to those who passed 2008 and 2009 given by DTI. a. 24 units b. 15 units c. 60

14. units 48. Scope of Examination of board examination for Real estate practitioner. a. Section 13 b. Section 12 c.
Section 14 49. CPE units to earned to register without examination to those who passed 2007 given by DTI. a.
18 units b. 15 units c. 60 units 50. CPE units to earned to register without examination to those who passed
2006 and prior years given by DTI. a. 120 units b. 15 units c. 60 units 51. Assessor that can register without
examination a. If holding both of the below b. Hold permanent position for 5 years c. Passer of the RPAO exam
52. Registration without Examination in RA 9646. a. Section 20 b. Section 19 c. Section 21 53. Assessor that
can register without examination. a. 10 years experience plus 120 hours training. b. 5 years experience plus
120 units of training c. 10 years experience 54. The board can reinstate the revoke certificate of registration
after ____ . a. 2 years b. 5 years c. It depends
30
55. A board may issue temporary permit to practitioner if there is unavailability local real estate practitioner for
the purpose of. a. Enhancing the practice b. Enhancing the practitioner c. Enhancing the profession 56. All are
required to take an ____ before any board prior to entering into Real Estate Service Practice. a. Oath b. Pass
the board c. Register 57. Surety bond are required for Real Estate Broker and Appraiser. a. 20,000 b. 30,000
c. 10,000 58. The surety bond shall be renewable every. a. 3 years b. 1 year c. 5 years 59. On those Appraiser
working in the Government, in lieu of surety bond. a. Certificate of employment b. Cash c. Certificate of
Proficiency 60. Exemption from the acts constituting Real Estate Service, except. a. Selling b. Trustee c.
Attorney in fact 61. Person Exempted from act constituting the practice of real estate service. a. Public Officers
b. Buyer c. Seller 62. An Exception to the exemption of act constituting real estate service practice. a. Real
Estate Developers b. Consultant c. Appraiser 63. All position in the government requiring a registered real
estate practitioner shall be filled up only by a licensed practitioner within. a. 3 years b. 5 years c. 6 years 64.
Real estate salesman to be accredited shall be at least. a. 2 years in college b. 72 units credit c. 12 units 65.
Real estate salesmen shall have undergone seminar at least. a. 12 credit b. 120 hours c. 60 hours 66. Number
of real estate broker for every 40 salesman. a. 2 broker b. 1 broker c. 3 broker 67. Resignation of real estate
practitioner shall be reported by the employer to the board within. a. 15 days b. 10 days c. 20 days
31
68. When will the IRR of RESA will take effect. a. 15 days after publication b. 30 days after publication c. 10
days after publication 69. All of the following shall be displayed in the Place of Business, except. a. Passport b.
Certificate of Registration c. Professional ID 70. Number of AIPO to be recognized by the Board subject to the
approval of the PRC. a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 71. Adopt and promulgate the code of ethics and responsibilities of real
estate practitioner. a. Board b. AIPO c. PRC 72. CPE council shall be composed of the following from, except.
a. PRC b. Board c. AIPO 73. CPE council will composed one of the following. a. Academe b. Judiciary c. PRC
74. Prescribed and issued the code of ethics and responsibilities of real estate practitioner. a. AIPO b. PRC c.
Board 75. Other information to be indicated on the document to be signed by the real estate practitioner,
except. a. Voters ID Number b. PTR Number c. AIPO Number 76. When was the IRR of RESA Act was
Implemented. a. July 24, 2010 b. July 15, 2009 c. July 15, 2010 77. Exemption from the acts constituting real
estate service a. Section 28 b. Section 27 c. Section 29 78. Screen, issue and monitor permits to organizations
of real estate professionals in the conduct of seminars. a. Power of the board b. Power of PRC c. Power of
AIPO 79. Evaluate periodically the status of real estate service education and profession. a. Board b. PRC c.
AIPO 80. RA 9646 was signed on. a. June 29, 2009 b. July 15, 2009 c. July 30, 2010 81. RA 9646 was
published on. a. July 15, 2009 b. July 30, 2010 c. June 29, 2009 32
82. IRR of RESA Act was approved on. a. July 21, 2010 b. July 24, 2010 c. July 15, 2010 83. All of the
following shall prepare the IRR except. a. PRBRES & Chairman b. AIPO & DOF c. CHED & PRC 84. Prepare,
update and Maintain roster of RES practitioner. a. Board b. AIPO c. PRC 85. Months after the affectivity of
RESA the IRR shall be prepared. a. 6 months b. 3 months c. 12 months 86. Removal of the board on the
following cases, except. a. Professional b. Incompetence c. Abuse of duty 87. Those who passed prior exam
but failed to comply CPE requirement after July 30, 2011. a. Shall take the board exam b. No need to take the
board exam c. Renew PRC ID 88. Ground for suspension. a. Allowing unqualified person using professional
ID. b. Ethical Conduct c. Professional Conduct 89. Act shall the IRR shall be prepared. a. 6 months b. 3
months c. 12 months 90. The DTI-BTRCP will transfer all pertinent records to PRC within. a. 90 days b. 120
days c. 30 days 91. Violation of RESA Act shall be penalized by. a. Penalty of not less than 100,000 or
imprisonment of not less than 2 years or both. b. Penalty of not less than 200,000 or imprisonment of not less
than 4 years or both. c. Depending on the judgment 92. Penal provision of RA 9646 a. Section 39 b. Section 38
c. Section 40 93. Penalty in violation of RESA Act will double if violation were committed by unlicensed RES
practitioner. a. Penalty of not less than 200,000 or imprisonment of not less than 4 years or both b. Penalty of
not less than 100,000 or imprisonment of not less than 2 years or both c. Depending on the judgment 94.
Prosecutors against illegal practitioner of RESA. a. Lawyer of PRC b. Lawyer of the board c. Lawyer of AIPO
95. Shall create the CPE Council. a. Board b. PRC c. AIPO

15. 33
96. Sales person registered with DTI and active for three years must undergone training. a. 120 hours b. 12
hours c. 24 hours 97. Penalty in violation of RESA Act will double if violation were committed by. a. Unlicensed
Real Estate Service practitioner b. Real Estate Service practitioner c. Licensed Real Estate Service practitioner
98. Prohibitive acts by an unlicensed RES practitioner, except. a. Not practice real estate service b. Appointed
as assessor in LGU c. Use title conveying as RES practitioner 99. Topics covered in the real estate consulting
examination. a. Investment analysis b. Appraisal Mathematics c. Ecology 100. No foreign real estate service
practitioner shall be admitted unless their country allows Filipino practitioner to practice in their country a.
Foreign reciprocity b. Foreign agreement c. Foreign Equality
34
REAL ESTATE LAWS AND TAXATION 1. Land covered by the Agrarian Reform Code except. a. New Areas
b. Tenanted Areas c. Old Settlements 2. The slow pace of agrarian reform implementation is due to. a. Political
will b. Social will c. Economic will 3. Comprehensive Agrarian Reform Law was signed. a. June 10, 1988 b.
July 21, 1990 c. August 8, 1988 4. Philippine state policy that ensures and promotes welfare of landless
farmers and farm workers. a. CARP b. Homestead c. Voluntary Sell 5. The lead implementing agency of CARP
a. DAR b. Landbank c. DILG 6. Green color in the DAR logo stands for. a. Fertility and Productivity b. Life and
Vitality c. Agriculture 7. Refer to natural person whose primary livelihood is the cultivation of land. a. Farmer b.
Gardener c. Laborer 8. Women who are engaged directly or indirectly in farming and/or fishing as their source
of livelihood, whether paid or unpaid, regular or seasonal. a. Rural women b. Urban women c. Laborer women
9. Award limit to farmer under PD 27 if the land is not irrigated. a. 5 hectare b. 3 hectare c. 4 hectare 10.
Farmer’s amortization under PD 6657 for payment of land. a. 30 years b. 25 years c. 15 years 11. Real
property used in trade or business is classified as. a. Ordinary asset b. Capital asset c. Business asset 12. The
highest price in terms of money which a property can command if exposed for sale in the open market. a. Fair
Market Value b. Market Value c. Best Value 13. Percentage of fair market value at which the assessed value is
set. a. Assessed level b. Percent level c. Base level
35
14. The fair market value of real property multiplied by assessment level. It is synonymous to taxable value. a.
Assessed value b. Assessment c. Tax Assessment 15. Percentage of assessed value at which the realty tax is
arrived at. a. Tax Rate b. Assess rate c. Value rate 16. The use to which the property is principally or
predominantly devoted. a. Actual use b. Principal use c. Primary use 17. Amount of real property tax in the
province. a. Not exceeding 1% b. Not exceeding 2% c. Not exceeding 3% 18. Special education fund tax a. 1%
b. 2% c. 3% 19. Discount if payment is made in advance. a. 20% b. 30% c. 35% 20. Most superior lien on real
property. a. Tax lien b. Mortgage lien c. Mechanic lien 21. Delinquent taxpayer whose real property sold on
public auction can redeem property after sale. a. Within 1 year b. Within 3 months c. Within 6 months 22.
Interest on delinquent real property tax per month. a. 2 % b. 3% c. 4% 23. Interest on unpaid real property tax
shall in no case exceed. a. 36 months b. 12 months c. 24 months 24. Asset not part of inventories for sale or
used in trade such as the residential lot. a. Capital Asset b. Ordinary Asset c. Personal asset 25. Months
required to build new house to avail exemption from capital gain tax a. 18 months b. 24 months c. 36 months
26. Gross selling price of residential lot subject to vat. a. Exceeding 1,919,500.00 b. 1,900,000.00 c.
3,000,000.00 27. Gross selling price of of other residential dwelling subject to vat. a. Exceeding 3,199,200.00
b. 1,919,000.00 c. 3,000,000.00 36
28. Lease of residential units with a monthly rental per unit subject in order to be exempted from vat. a. Below
12,800 b. Below 10,800 c. Below 10,000 29. CARPER signed into law a. August 7, 2009 b. August 5, 2005 c.
July 21, 19888 30. Letter informing a landowner that his/her land is covered by CARP. a. Notice of Coverage b.
Notice of CARP c. Notice Landbank 31. Authorized to divide the Philippines into different zones or areas and
shall, upon consultation with competent appraisers both from the private and public sectors, determine the fair
market value of real properties. a. Commissioner b. DILG c. Mayor 32. If fair market valued prepared by
assessor is higher than prepared by BIR, the one shall be followed for taxation. a. Assessor b. BIR c. Court 33.
Provided mechanism for the implementation of the Comprehensive Agrarian Reform Program (CARP). a. EO
229 b. RA 9700 c. EO 21 34. The responsibility to determine land valuation and compensation for all lands
covered by CARP. a. Land Bank b. Appraiser c. DAR 35. Identifies and screens potential beneficiaries and
validates their qualifications. a. DAR b. DENR c. Barangay Official 36. Lead agencies in the implementation of
carp, except a. Landbank b. DAR c. DENR 37. Shall coordinate and monitor the implementation of the CARP
in the province. a. Provincial Agrarian Reform Coordinating Committee (PARCCOM) b. CARP Monitoring
Committee c. Provincial CARP Monitoring 38. Exemption on CGT sale of principal residence can be availed
only once every. a. 10 year b. 5 years c. 3 years 39. Percentage of payment for an installment sale to pay

16. creditable withholding tax. a. 25% of selling price b. 2 % c. 30% 40. Tax rate for the cooperative registered in
CDA. a. 0% b. 3% c. 5% 41. Real property tax share of the barangay. 37
a. 25% b. 30% c. 40% 42. Real property tax share of the municipality. a. 40% b. 50% c. 60% 43. In general the
real property tax share of the barangay. a. 35% b. 30% c. 40% 44. Real property tax share of the barangay in
the city. a. 30% b. 40% c. 50% 45. Real property tax share of the city. a. 70% b. 60% c. 40% 46. Seller shall
pay to the provincial treasurer the real property tax from date of notarization. a. Within 30 days b. Within 60
days c. Within 90 days 47. Seller shall pay to the provincial treasurer real property tax from date of execution of
sale. a. Within 60 days b. Within 30 days c. Within 90 days 48. Right of the delinquent owner to redeem the
property from the date of sale. a. Within 1 year b. Within 3 years c. Within 2 years 49. Allowable period for
assessment of taxes prior to initial assessment of real property taxes. a. 10 years b. 5 years c. 3 years 50.
LGU sanggunian may condone real property tax upon recommendation of local disaster committee due to
reasons, except. a. Abundance season b. General failure of crops c. Calamity 51. The basic real property tax
and other taxes can be collected from the date they become due and no collection shall be made after that
period. a. Within 5 years b. Within 10 years c. Within 15 years 52. The basic real property tax and other taxes
can be collected from the date they become due and no collection shall be made after that period if done
fraudulently. a. Within 10 years b. Within 15 years c. Within 20 years 53. Shall file a sworn declaration of value
of the property once every three (3) years. a. Owner b. Tenant c. Assessor
54. Owner shall file a sworn declaration of the true value of the property being improved. 38
a. 60 days after completion b. 90 days after completion c. 120 days after completion 55. Donor tax when
beneficiary is stranger. a. 30% b. 25% c. 40% 56. Engage in the business of leasing or renting real estate
properties. a. Real estate lessors b. Developers c. Manager 57. Engage in the business of developing real
estate properties into subdivision or similar units on subdivided lots. a. Real estate developer b. Manager c.
Corporation 58. Before commencing any business and payment of taxes. a. Register business with BIR b.
Register with the barangay c. Register with the municipal 59. Registration requirement in BIR for individuals. a.
Birth certificate or ID b. Articles of Incorporation c. By laws 60. Registration requirement for general
partnership. a. Articles of partnership b. Owner ID c. Voters ID 61. Application form for individual in registering
with BIR a. BIR form 1901 b. BIR form 1902 c. BIR form 1903 62. Application form for partnership a. BIR form
1903 b. BIR form 1904 c. BIR form 1905 63. VAT register if sale or professional fees is 1,919,500.00 a. 12% b.
14% c. 20% 64. Register if sale or professional fees are below 1,919,500.00. a. Non-Vat or percentage tax b.
Withholding Tax c. Vat Tax 65. Rate of percentage taxes on gross sales or professional fees. a. 3% b. 4% c.
5%
39
66. Form used to update information like address and etc. a. Form 1905 b. Form 1906 c. For 1903 67.
Penalties on failure to pay annual registration fee. a. 25% surcharges b. 30% c. 10% 68. Unlawful pursuit of
business or omission. a. Fine not less than 5,000 but not more than 20,000 b. Fine not more than 5,000 but not
more than 20,000 c. Fine not less than 10,000 but not more than 20,000 69. Imprisonment on unlawful pursuit
of business or omission. a. 6 years but not more than 20 years b. 5 years but not more than 20 years c. 6
years but not more than 15 years 70. Compromise payment for failure to register. a. 20,000.00 b. 10,000.00 c.
5,000.00 71. Compromise payment for failure to pay annual registration. a. 1,000.00 b. 2,000.00 c. 3,000.00
72. Compromise payment for failure to display certificate of registration. a. 1,000.00 b. 2,000.00 c. 3,000.00 73.
Compromise payment for failure to display poster “ask for receipt” a. 1,000.00 b. 2,000.00 c. 3,000.00 74.
Invoicing requirement for sale of goods. a. Sales invoice b. Receipt c. Inspection paper 75. Invoicing
requirement for sale of services or professional fees. a. Official receipts b. Invoices c. Inspection paper 76.
Maximum optional standard deduction. a. 40% b. 30% c. 20% 77. Tax rate for corporation and partnership a.
35% b. 40% c. 25%
40
78. Expanded withholding tax rate if professional fees exceed 720,000.00 a. 15% b. 20% c. 25% 79. Expanded
withholding tax rate if professional fees below 720,000.00 d. 10% e. 20% f. 30% 80. VAT if professional fees
exceed 1,500,000.00 a. 12% b. 15% c. 20% 81. Professional if there is no payment to be made. a. Shall still
file tax returns b. No need to file c. File in advance 82. Due date for percentage taxes. a. 20th day after end of
month b. 15th day after end of month c. 10th day after end of month 83. Fiscal due date for income tax of
corporation or partnership. a. 15th day of the 4th month of the succeeding year b. 20th day of the 4th month of
the succeeding year c. 15th day of the 3th month of the succeeding year 84. Fine on refusal to issue official
receipts or invoices upon conviction. a. 1,000.00 but not more than 50,000.00 b. 1,000.00 but not more than
30,000.00 c. 1,000.00 but not more than 20,000.00 85. Compromise payment for failure to issue receipt for 1st
offence. a. 10,000.00 b. 20,000.00 c. 30,000.00 86. Compromise payment for 2nd offense on the use of

17. unregistered receipts a. 10,000.00 b. 20,000.00 c. 30,000.00 87. Compromise payment for 1st offense on
refusal to issue receipt. a. 25,000.00 b. 30,000.00 c. 10,000.00 88. Years to preserve books after close of
taxable year. a. 3 years b. 5 years c. 6 years 89. Books shall be audited and examined by independent CPA if
gross receipts exceed. a. 150,000.00 b. 120,000.00 c. 160,000.00
41
90. Monthly remittance of income taxes withheld on compensation. a. 10th of the following month b. 20th of the
following month c. 5th of the following month 91. Monthly remittance of income taxes withheld on
compensation for November. a. 15th of January b. 15th of December c. 15th of November 92. Documentary
stamp tax. a. 5th day of the following month b. 15th day of the following month c. 25th day of the following
month 93. Capital gain tax. a. Within 30 days after execution b. Within 20 days after execution c. Within 10
days after execution 94. Estate tax a. Within 180 days from death b. Within 120 days from death c. Within 100
days from death 95. Donors tax a. Within 30 days from execution b. Within 60 days from execution c. Within 50
days from execution 96. Surcharges if it is done willfully and fraudulently. a. 50% b. 20% c. 10% 97. Creditable
withholding tax for habitually engages in business and selling price is over 2million. a. 5% b. 3% c. 1% 98.
Creditable withholding tax for habitually engage in business and selling price is over 500,000. 00 to 2 million. a.
3% b. 5% c. 1.5% 99. Creditable withholding tax for habitually engage in business and selling price is below
500,000.00. a. 1% b. 3% c. 5% 100. Creditable withholding tax for not habitually engage in business. a. 6% b.
5% c. 4% 101. Registration fee payment form. a. BIR form 0605 b. BIR form 0606 c. BIR form 0607
42
102. BIR form Certificate of registration. a. BIR form 2303 b. BIR form 3203 c. BIR form 0203 103. BIR form to
apply for authority to print receipts a. BIR form 1906 b. BIR form 0606 c. BIR form 0601 104. Exempt from
withholding tax compensation. a. Minimum wage earners b. Maximum wage earners c. Regular wage earners
105. Detect non filing of tax return and non payment of taxes a. BIR Integrated Tax System b. Tax Integrated
System c. BIR computer system 106. Effectivity threshold amount of sales of residential lot, house for sale or
lease of property. a. RR 3-2012 b. RR 4-2013 c. RR 5-2011 107. Created to oversee and monitor the
implementation of this RA 9700. a. Congressional Oversight Committee b. CARP Oversight Committee c.
Provincial Oversight Committee 108. Person who knowingly or willfully violates the provisions of R 9700 shall
be punished by imprisonment. a. One month to 3 years b. Two month to 3 years c. Three month to 3 years
109. The forcible entry or illegal detainer by persons who are not qualified beneficiaries under RA 9700 to avail
themselves of the rights and benefits of the Agrarian Reform Program shall be penalized of imprisonment. a. 3
to 6 years b. 4 to 6 years c. 1 to 6 years 110. Dwelling place where a family resides is classified as. a. Capital
Asset b. Ordinary Asset c. Special Asset
43
SUBDIVISION DEVELOPMENT 1. Urban Development and Housing Act of 1992. a. RA 7279 b. RA 7972 c.
RA 7892 2. Refers to the most reasonable price of land and shelter based on the needs and financial capability
of Program beneficiaries and appropriate financing schemes. a. Affordable cost b. Discounted cost c. Low cost
3. Refers to those areas declared as such under existing statutes and pertinent executive issuances. a. Areas
for priority development b. Declared areas c. Special area 4. Refers to the areas where the structures are
dilapidated, obsolete and unsanitary, tending to depreciate the value of the land and prevent normal
development and use of the area a. Blighted areas b. Undeveloped areas c. Obsolete areas 5. Refers to the
constitutionally mandated process whereby the public on their own or through people’s organizations, is
provided an opportunity to be heard and to participate in the decisionmaking process on matters involving the
protection and promotion of its legitimate collective interests, which shall include appropriate documentation
and feedback mechanisms. a. Consultation b. Forum c. Public Hearing 6. Refers to non-agricultural lands in
urban and urbanizable areas on which no improvements, as herein defined, have been made by the owner, as
certified by the city, municipal or provincial assessor. a. Idle lands b. Unimproved land c. Commercial land 7.
Refers to all types of buildings and residential units, walls, fences, structures or construction of all kinds. a.
Improvements b. Developments c. Structures 8. Refers to the commitment or agreement by two (2) or more
persons to carry out a specific or single business enterprise for their mutual benefit, for which purpose they
combine their funds, land resource, facilities and services. a. Joint ventures b. Partnership c. Corporation 9.
Refers to the acquisition of lots or varying ownership through purchase or expropriation for the purpose of
planned and rational development and socialized housing programs without individual property boundary
restrictions. a. Land assembly b. Land consolidation c. Land combination 10. Refers to the acquisition of land
at values based on existing use in advance of actual need to promote planned development and socialized
housing programs. a. Land banking b. Land consolidation c. Land combination 11. Refers to the process of
land acquisition by exchanging land for another piece of land of equal value, or for shares of stock in a
government or quasi-government corporation whose book value is of equal value to the land being exchanged.

18. 44
a. Land swapping b. Land consolidation c. Land combination 12. Refers to the rational approach of allocating
available land resources as equitably as possible among competing user groups and for different functions
consistent with the development plan area and the Program under this Act. a. Land use plan b. Land plan c.
Zoning 13. Refers to the process of upgrading and rehabilitation of blighted and slum urban areas with a view
of minimizing displacement of dwellers in said areas, and with provisions for basic services. a. Onsite
development b. Urban area c. Development area 14. Refers to individuals or groups who occupy lands without
the express consent of the landowner and who have sufficient income for legitimate housing. a. Professional
squatters b. Professional land grabber c. Intruder 15. Refers to areas identified by the appropriate national
agency or by the local government unit with respect to areas within its jurisdiction, which shall be used for the
relocation of the underprivileged and homeless citizens. a. Resettlement areas b. Relocation area c. Privilege
area 16. Refers to the degree of protection afforded to qualified Program beneficiaries against infringement or
unjust, unreasonable and arbitrary eviction or disposition. a. Security of tenure b. Protection program c.
Security program 17. Refers to the program of the National Housing Authority of upgrading and improving
blighted squatter areas outside of Metro Manila pursuant to existing statutes and pertinent executive
issuances. a. Slum Improvement and Resettlement Program b. NHA c. Development 18. Refers to those
whose only real property consists of residential lands not exceeding three hundred square meters (300 sq. m.)
in highly urbanized cities and eight hundred square meters (800 sq. m. ) in other urban areas. a. Small
property owners b. Big property owners c. Average property owners 19. Refers to housing programs and
projects covering houses and lots or home lots only undertaken by the Government or the private sector for the
underprivileged and homeless citizens. a. Socialized housing b. Special housing c. Underprivileged housing
20. Refers to groups of persons engaged in the business of squatter housing for profit or gain. a. Squatting
syndicates b. Developer c. Squatter 21. Refers to the beneficiaries of this Act and to individuals or families
residing in urban and urbanizable areas whose income or combined household income falls within the poverty
threshold. a. Underprivileged and homeless citizens b. Poor c. Urban citizen 45
22. Refers to lands in urban and urbanizable areas which are not registered with the Register of Deeds, or with
the city or municipal assessor’s office concerned, or which are uninhabited by the owner and have not been
developed or devoted for any useful purpose, or appears unutilized for a period of three (3) consecutive years.
a. Unregistered or abandoned land b. Urbanizable land c. Idle land 23. Refers to all cities regardless of their
population density and to municipalities with a population density of at least five hundred (500) persons per
square kilometer. a. Urban areas b. Rural areas c. Town areas 24. Refers to sites and lands which,
considering present characteristics and prevailing conditions, display marked and great potential of becoming
urban areas within the period of five (5) years. a. Urbanizable areas b. Rural areas c. Town areas 25. Refers to
the program of the National Housing Authority of upgrading and improving blighted squatter areas within the
cities and municipalities of Metro Manila. a. Zonal Improvement Program b. Town improvement program c.
Rural improvement program 26. Professional squatters or members of squatting syndicates shall be imposed
the penalty of _____. a. Six (6) years imprisonment or a fine of not less than Sixty thousand pesos (P60,000)
but not more than One hundred thousand pesos (P100,000), or both. b. Five (5) years imprisonment or a fine
of not less than Sixty thousand pesos (P60,000) but not more than One hundred thousand pesos (P100,000),
or both. c. Four (4) years imprisonment or a fine of not less than Sixty thousand pesos (P60,000) but not more
than One hundred thousand pesos (P100,000), or both. 27. Mortgage financing program of the National Home
Mortgage Finance Corporation which assists legally organized associations of underprivileged and homeless
citizens to purchase and develop a tract of land under the concept of community ownership. a. Community
Mortgage Program b. NHA mortgage program c. Finance mortgage program 28. all local government units are
hereby authorized to impose socialized housing tax on land whose value is in excess of 50,000.00 a. 0.5% b.
1% c. 2% 29. Penalty on any person who violate RA 7279. a. six (6) years of imprisonment or a fine of not less
than Five thousand pesos (P5,000) but not more than One hundred thousand pesos (P10,000), or both b. six
(6) years of imprisonment or a fine of not less than Five thousand pesos (P5,000) but not less than One
hundred thousand pesos (P10,000), or both c. six (6) years of imprisonment or a fine of not less than Fifty
thousand pesos (P50,000) but not more than One hundred thousand pesos (P10,000), or both 30. Price
ceilings for socialized housing per HUDCC MC No. 1, Dec. 11, 2008. a. 400,000.00 and below b. 300,000.00 c.
250,000.00
31. Price ceilings for Low Cost Level 1 per BP 220 standard. a. Above 300,000.00 to PHP 1,250, 000.00 b.
300,000.00 c. 250,000.00 46
32. Price ceilings for Low cost Level 2 per PD 957 standard. a. above PHP 1,250,000.00 to PHP 2,000,000.00
b. 3,000,000.00 33. Price ceiling for Medium cost a. PHP 2,000,000.00 up to PHP 4,000,000.00 b.
450,000,000.00 c. 1,000,000.00 34. Price ceilings for Open Housing a. above PHP 4,000,000.00 b.
3,000,000.00 c. 2,000,000.00 35. Path walk intended only as pedestrian access to property for socialized
housing projects shall have a maximum length of ___ a. 60 m b. 50 m c. 70 m 36. The minimum front setback

19. of dwelling unit both for economic housing. a. 1.5 m b. 2 m c. 3 m 37. The minimum side yard setback of
dwelling unit both for socialized housing. a. 1.5 m b. 2 m c. 3 m 38. The minimum rear yard setback of dwelling
unit both for economic housing. a. 2 m b. 3 m c. 1.5 m 39. The minimum horizontal dimension of courts and
yards shall not be less a. 2 m b. 4 m c. 6 m 40. Ceiling heights minimum headroom clearance. a. 2 m b. 3 m c.
4 m 41. Mezzanine floors shall have a clear ceiling height of not less than. a. 1.8 m b. 2 m c. 3 m 42. Doors
shall have a minimum clear height of. a. 2 m b. 3 m c. 4 m 43. Bathroom and mezzanine doors which shall
have a minimum clear height. a. 1.8 m b. 2 m c. 3 m 44. Minimum clear width of bed room door. a. 0.70 m b.
0.60 m c. 0.80 m 45. Minimum clear width of bathroom door. a. 0.60 m b. 0.70 m c. 0.80 m
47
46. Minimum clear width of main door. a. 0.80 m b. 0.90 m c. 1 m 47. Rooms for habitable use shall be
provided with windows with a total free area of openings equal to at least a. 10% of the floor area of the room
b. 50% of the floor area of the room c. 20% of the floor area of the room 48. Bathrooms shall be provided with
window/s with an area not less than a. 1/20 of its floor area b. 1/10 of its floor area c. 1/5 of its floor area 49.
Stairways shall have a minimum clear width. a. 0.60 meter b. 1 m c. 0.8 m 50. Stairs shall have a maximum
riser height. a. 0.25 m b. 0.10 m c. 0.50 m 51. Stairs shall have a maximum thread width a. 0.20 m b. 0.30 m c.
0.40 m 52. Maximum height between landing a. 3.6 m b. 3.5 m c. 4 m 53. The use of ladders may be allowed
provided that the maximum distance between landings shall be ___. a. 1.80 m b. 2 m c. 3 m 54. The firewall
shall be of masonry construction. a. at least 150 millimeters or 6 inches thick b. at least 100 millimeters or 6
inches thick c. at least 50 millimeters or 6 inches thick 55. The minimum distance between two buildings
wherein the taller building has 3 or 4 storeys, shall be ____. a. 6.0 meters b. 8.0 m c. 10.0 m 56. the minimum
horizontal clearance between the two roof eaves of 3 story building. a. 2.0 m b. 3.0 m c. 4.0 m 57. The
minimum distance between buildings with more than 4 storeys. a. 10 meters b. 8 m c. 6 m
58. The minimum horizontal clearance between buildings with more than 4 storeys. a. 6 m b. 8 m c. 10 m 48
59. Multi-family dwellings and condominiums, the parking requirement per eight (8) living units. a. 1 parking
slot b. 2 parking slot c. 3 parking slot 60. Public way with a width of 2.0 meters intended to break a block and to
serve both pedestrian and for emergency vehicles, both ends connecting to streets. a. Alley b. RROW c. Major
road 61. A parcel of land bounded on the sides by streets occupied by or intended for buildings. a. Block b.
Land division c. Parcel 62. Single-family detached dwelling unit containing three or more separate living units
grouped closely together to form relatively compact structures. a. Cluster housing b. Single family housing c.
Dwelling 63. Facilities or structures intended to serve common needs and for the benefit of the community,
such as neighborhood/ multipurpose center, drugstore, school, livelihood center, and the like. a. Community
facility b. Common facility c. Public facility 64. A building designed or used as residence for one or more
families. a. Dwelling b. Residence c. Housing 65. A dwelling for 1 family which is completely surrounded by
permanent open spaces, with independent access, services, and use of land. a. Single detached b. Duplex c.
Row house 66. A dwelling containing 2 or more separate living units each of which is separated from another
by party or lot lines walls and provided with independent access, services, and use of land. a. Duplex b. Row c.
Single 67. A single-attached dwelling containing 3 or more separate living units designed in such a way that
they abut each other at the sides, as in a row, and are separated from each other by party walls. a. Row house
b. Single c. duplex 68. A dwelling on 1 lot containing separate living units for 3 or more families, usually
provided with common access, services and use of land. a. Multi family dwelling b. Multiple dwelling c. Multi-
dwelling 69. A habitable dwelling unit which meets the minimum requirements for a housing core. a. Shell
house b. Complete house c. Full house
70. A habitable dwelling unit which meets the minimum requirements for a shell house. a. Complete house b.
Full house c. Partial house 49
71. A type of housing project provided to average income families. a. Economic housing b. Poor housing c.
Family housing 72. Any wall which separates 2 butting living units and extends vertically from the lowest
portion of the wall. a. Firewall b. Fence c. Boundary wall 73. A wall used only by the party upon whose lot the
wall is located, erected at a line separating two parcels of land each of which is a separate real estate entity. a.
Lot line wall b. Boundary wall c. Fence 74. A wall used jointly by two parties under easement agreement,
erected upon a line separating 2 parcels of land each of which is a separate real estate. a. Party wall b.
Firewall c. Boundary wall 75. A public way intended to be used only as pedestrian access to property for
socialized housing projects. It shall have a width of 3.0 meters and a maximum length of 60 meters. a. Path
walk b. Alley c. Minor road 76. Shall mean an area reserved exclusively for parks, playgrounds, recreational
uses and other similar facilities and amenities. a. Open spaces b. Free spaces c. Recreational spaces 77.
Minimum level of completion of single detach economic housing. a. Complete house b. Full house c. Shell
house 78. Minimum level of completion of single detach socialized housing. a. Shell house b. Full house c.
Complete house 79. Minimum level of completion of row house economic housing. a. Complete house b. Full

20. house c. Shell house 80. Minimum level of completion of duplex socialized housing. a. Shell house b.
Complete house c. Full house 81. Minimum floor area of shelter component for economic housing single
detached a. 22 sqm b. 20 sqm c. 25 sqm 82. Minimum floor area of shelter component for economic housing
duplex a. 22 sqm b. 20 sqm c. 25 sqm 83. Minimum floor area of shelter component for economic housing row
house a. 22 sqm b. 20 sqm c. 25 sqm 50
84. Minimum floor area of shelter component for socialized housing single detached a. 18 sqm b. 20 sqm c. 25
sqm 85. Minimum floor area of shelter component for socialized housing duplex a. 18 sqm b. 20 sqm c. 25 sqm
86. Minimum floor area of shelter component for socialized housing row house a. 18 sqm b. 20 sqm c. 25 sqm
87. Planting strip for BP 220 if right of way is 15 m. a. 1.3 m b. 1.2 m c. 2 m 88. Planting strip for BP 220 if right
of way is 12 m. a. 0.8 m b. 0.6 m c. 0.5 m 89. Planting strip for BP 220 if right of way is 10 m. a. 0.8 m b. 0.10
m c. 0.6 m 90. Planting strip for BP 220 if right of way is 8 m. a. 0.4 m b. 0.2 m c. 1 m 91. Side walk for BP 220
if right of way is 15 m. a. 1.2 m b. 1 m c. 1.5 m 92. Side walk for BP 220 if right of way is 12 m. a. 1.2 m b. 1 m
c. 1.5 m 93. Side walk for BP 220 if right of way is 10 m. a. 1.2 m b. 1 m c. 1.5 m 94. Side walk for BP 220 if
right of way is 8 m. a. 0.6 m b. 0.8 m c. 0.5 m 95. Minimum lot area for economic housing duplex a. 54 sqm b.
48 sqm c. 50 sqm 96. Minimum lot area for socialized housing duplex. a. 48 sqm b. 50 sqm c. 45 sqm 97.
Minimum lot area for economic housing detached. a. 72 sqm b. 50 sqm c. 45 sqm
51
98. Minimum lot area for socialized housing single detached. a. 64 sqm b. 50 sqm c. 45 sqm 99. Minimum lot
area for economic housing row house. a. 36 sqm b. 50 sqm c. 45 sqm 100. Minimum lot area for socialized
housing row house. a. 28 sqm b. 50 sqm c. 45 sqm 101. Area for park and playground if dwelling density is
150 and below. a. 3.5% b. 4% c. 5% 102. Area for park and playground if dwelling density is 161 to 175. a. 5%
b. 3% c. 1% 103. Under PD 1185, every sleeping room shall have at least _____ outside window. a. 1 b. 2 c. 3
104. Part or end of a lot which abuts a street a. Frontage b. Front c. Entrance 105. Shall mean single family per
lot a. Single family dwelling b. Double family dwelling c. Multiple dwelling
52
CONDOMINIUM AND OTHER TYPE OF REAL ESTATE HOLDING 1. Ownership consisting of individual co-
owners residing in multiunit structures who have joint ownership in common areas. a. Condominium b.
Subdivision c. Corporation 2. Profit from some ventures such as swimming pool fee. a. Common profit b.
Common element c. Common ventures 3. Sum assessed by the association but unpaid by a unit owner. a.
Enforceable lien b. Debts c. Balance 4. Owners of the apartment in a condominium can do all of the following.
a. Partition the common b. Lease their unit c. Mortgage the common property 5. Part of the condominium
project intended for any type of independent ownership. a. Unit b. Building c. Stairs 6. Entire parcel of real
property divided or to be divided into condominium. a. Project b. Building c. Common unit 7. Entire project
excepting units separately granted or held reserve. a. Common areas b. Reserve area c. Project area 8. To
divide the ownership thereof or other ownership therein. a. To divide real estate b. To subdivide real estate c.
Division of real estate 9. The condominium act. a. RA 4726 b. RA 4276 c. RA 8799 10. An act amending
section four and section sixteen of RA 4726. a. RA 7899 b. RA 8799 c. RA 4726 11. Maybe amended or
revoke upon registration of instrument executed by simple majority of the registered owners of the property. a.
Master deed b. Articles of Incorporation c. By-Laws 12. The term of the condominium corporation is
coterminous with the condominium____. a. Project b. Building c. Association 13. The condominium can be
dissolved by. a. Affirmative vote of all member b. Affirmative vote of majority c. Affirmative vote of 80%
53
14. If there is no provision in the master deed ownership of common areas is _____. a. Equal b. Based on floor
area being own c. By unit 15. Lays down the provisions for insurance coverage, management, maintenance
and assessment. a. Deed of restriction b. Master deed c. By-Laws 16. Evidence of ownership in a
condominium unit. a. Condominium certificate of title b. Original certificate of title c. Certificate of ownership 17.
Established the birth of the condominium corporation. a. Articles of incorporation b. By-laws c. Master deed 18.
Established birth of the condominium project. a. Master deed b. By laws c. Articles of Incorporation 19. Pays
realty tax in condominium project. a. Individual unit owner b. Corporation c. Association 20. Hold title on the
land of the condominium project. a. Condominium Corporation b. Association c. Project owner 21. Conflict of
provision between article of incorporation and master deed, which shall prevail. a. Master deed b. Article of
Incorporation c. Association 22. Formation of Condominium Corporation is. a. Optional b. Necessary c. It
depends 23. Foreigner can own up to how many of the total number of units in a condominium. a. 40% b. 60%
c. 50% 24. In times when Condominium Corporation involuntarily dissolved, whose rights are superior? a.
Creditors b. Owners c. Corporation 25. The corporation shall not be voluntarily dissolved through an action for
dissolution under Rule 104 of the Rules of Court until this document is revoked. a. Master deed b. Articles of

21. Incorporation c. Certificate of title
54
26. Instances in which corporation shall be voluntarily dissolved. a. The damage or destruction to the project
has rendered one-half or more of the units therein untenable and that more than 30 percent of the members of
the corporation opposed to the repair b. The damage or destruction to the project has rendered one-third or
more of the units therein untenable and that more than 30 percent of the members of the corporation opposed
to the repair c. The damage or destruction to the project has rendered one-half or more of the units therein
untenable and that more than 20 percent of the members of the corporation opposed to the repair 27.
Instances in which Condominium Corporation shall be voluntarily dissolved. a. That the project has been in
existence in excess of 50 years, that it is obsolete and uneconomical, and that more than 50 percent of the
members of the corporation opposed to the repair b. That the project has been in existence in excess of 30
years, that it is obsolete and uneconomical, and that more than 50 percent of the members of the corporation
opposed to the repair c. That the project has been in existence in excess of 40 years, that it is obsolete and
uneconomical, and that more than 50 percent of the members of the corporation opposed to the repair 28.
Instances in which Condominium Corporation shall be voluntarily dissolved. a. That the project or material part
thereof has been condemned or expropriated and that the project is no longer viable or that the members
holding in aggregate more than 70 percent interest in the corporation opposed to the continuation of
condominium regime b. That the project or material part thereof has been condemned or expropriated and that
the project is no longer viable or that the members holding in aggregate more than 60 percent interest in the
corporation opposed to the continuation of condominium regime c. That the project or material part thereof has
been condemned or expropriated and that the project is no longer viable or that the members holding in
aggregate more than 50 percent interest in the corporation opposed to the continuation of condominium regime
29. Instances in which Condominium Corporation shall be voluntarily dissolved. a. That three years after
damage or destruction to the project in which the corporation owns or holds the common areas, which damage
or destruction renders a material part thereof, unfit for its use prior thereto, the project has not been rebuilt or
repaired substantially to its state prior to its damage or destruction b. That two years after damage or
destruction to the project in which the corporation owns or holds the common areas, which damage or
destruction renders a material part thereof, unfit for its use prior thereto, the project has not been rebuilt or
repaired substantially to its state prior to its damage or destruction c. That one year after damage or
destruction to the project in which the corporation owns or holds the common areas, which damage or
destruction renders a material part thereof, unfit for its use prior thereto, the project has not been rebuilt or
repaired substantially to its state prior to its damage or destruction
30. If there is no Zoning Ordinance or approved Comprehensive Land Use Plan what principle shall follow.
a. Dominant land use b. Eminent domain c. Police power
31. Maximum saleable are of open market and medium cost subdivision.
a. 70% b. 50% c. 30%
32. Maximum non saleable area of open market and medium cost subdivision.
a. 30 % b. 40% c. 20%
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33. Area allocated for parks and playgrounds shall in no case be less than. a. 100 sqm b. 80 sqm c. 50 sqm
34. Allocation in percent for parks and playground if density of unit per hectare is 20 and below. a. 3.5% b. 4%
c. 5% 35. Allocation in percent for parks and playground if density of unit per hectare is 21 and 25. a. 4% b. 5%
c. 6% 36. Allocation in percent for parks and playground if density of unit per hectare is 51 and 65. a. 7% b. 8%
c. 9% 37. Allocation in percent for parks and playground if density of unit per hectare is 65 and above. a. 9% b.
8% c. 7% 38. Major road right of way for open market if project size is 2.5 hectare and below. a. 10 m b. 12 m
c. 15 m 39. Major road right of way for open market if project size is above 30 hectares. a. 15 m b. 12 m c. 10
m 40. Major road right of way for medium cost if project size is 2.5 hectare and below. a. 10 m b. 12 m c. 15 m
41. Major road right of way for medium cost if project size is above 30 hectares. a. 15 m b. 12 m c. 10 42.
Connecting to a minor road, shall be allowed for blocks not exceeding 60 meters. a. 6 m b. 4 m c. 8 m 43.
Interior Subdivision project must secure right-of-way to the nearest public road and the right-ofway shall be
designated as interconnecting road with a minimum width of _____. a. 10 m b. 8 m c. 6 m 44. Subdivision
projects abutting main public road must provide a setback at both sides of the subdivision entrance to
accommodate loading and unloading of passengers. a. 3 m deep by 5 m length b. 3 m deep by 4 m length c. 4
m deep by 5 m length 45. Width of Planting Strips for open market if road width is 15 m. a. 1.3 m b. 1.2 m c. 3

22. m 46. Width of sidewalk for open market if road width is 15 m. a. 1.2 m b. 3 m c. .8 m 56
47. Width of Planting Strips for medium cost if road width is 8 m. a. .4 m b. .6 m c. .8 m 48. Width of sidewalk
for medium if road width is 8 m. a. .6 m b. .8 m c. 1 m 49. Width of Planting Strips for open market if road width
is 12 m. a. .8 m b. .6 m c. 1 m 50. Width of sidewalk for open market if road width is 12 m. a. 1.2 m b. 1 m c. .8
m 51. Width of Planting Strips for medium cost if road width is 10 m. a. .8 m b. .6 m c. 1 m 52. Width of
sidewalk for medium if road width is 10 m. a. 1.2 m b. 1 m c. .8 m 53. Minimum thickness of concrete
pavement in PD 957. a. 150 milimeters b. 120 milimeters c. 100 milimeters 54. Minimum strength for road
pavement a. 20.7 Mega Pascal b. 21.7 Mega Pascal c. 22.7 Mega Pascal 55. Minimum thickness of asphalt
pavement in PD 957. a. 50 millimeters b. 60 millimeters c. 70 millimeters 56. Sidewalk pavement shall have a
minimum compressive strength. a. 17.2 Mega Pascal b. 16.2 Mega Pascal c. 15.2 Mega Pascal 57. Minimum
lot area of single detach open market. a. 120 sqm b. 100 sqm c. 110 sqm 58. Minimum lot area of duplex open
market. a. 96 sqm b. 120 sqm c. 110 sqm 59. Minimum lot area of rowhouse open market. a. 60 sqm b. 80
sqm c. 100 sqm 60. Minimum lot area of single detach for medium cost. a. 100 sqm b. 110 sqm c. 120 sqm
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61. Minimum lot area of duplex for medium cost. a. 80 sqm b. 100 sqm c. 120 sqm 62. Minimum lot area of
rowhouse for medium cost. a. 50 sqm b. 80 sqm c. 100 sqm 63. Minimum Lot Frontage of open market corner
lot. a. 12 m b. 8 m c. 10 m 64. Minimum Lot Frontage of medium cost regular lot a. 10 m b. 12 m c. 8 m 65.
Minimum Lot Frontage open market irregular lot a. 6 m b. 8 m c. 10 m 66. Minimum Lot Frontage medium cost
interior lot. a. 3 m b. 4 m c. 5 m 67. Minimum Lot Frontage open market duplex a. 8 m b. 10 m c. 12 m 68.
Minimum Lot Frontage open market rowhouse. a. 4 m b. 5 m c. 6 m 69. Minimum number of houses per block
or cluster. a. 20 unit b. 15 unit c. 10 unit 70. Maximum length of block or cluster. a. 400 meter b. 200 meter c.
300 meter 71. Minimum floor area for open market housing shelter component. a. 42 square meters b. 48
square meters c. 50 square meters 72. Minimum floor area for medium cost housing shelter component. a. 30
sqm b. 20 sqm c. 40 sqm 73. Mandatory distance for provision of street lighting per pole. a. 50 m b. 40 m c. 60
m
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74. Any Person in violation of PD 957 shall be penalized with. a. Fine of not more than twenty thousand
(P20,000.00) pesos and/or imprisonment of not more than ten (10) years b. Fine of not more than twenty
thousand (P20,000.00) pesos and/or imprisonment of not more than seven (7) years c. Fine of not more than
twenty thousand (P20,000.00) pesos and/or imprisonment of not more than six (6) years 75. The registered
owner or developer of the subdivision or condominium project, upon completion of the development of said
project may donate the roads and open spaces found within the project to the city or municipality wherein the
project is located. a. Optional b. Mandatory c. Voluntary 76. Shall initiate the organization of a homeowners
association among the buyers and residents of the projects for the purpose of promoting and protecting their
mutual interest and assist in their community development. a. Developer of condominium project b. Owners c.
Corporation 77. Real estate tax and assessment on a lot or unit as long as the title has not passed the buyer
shall be paid by. a. Developer b. Buyer c. Seller 78. The rights of the buyer in the event of his failure to pay the
installments due for reasons other than the failure of the owner or developer to develop the project shall be
governed by. a. RA 6552 b. RA 5662 c. RA 6523 79. The owner or developer shall deliver the title of the lot or
unit to the buyer upon. a. Full payment b. 80% paid c. 50% paid 80. No owner or developer shall change or
alter the roads, open spaces, infrastructures, facilities for public use and/or other form of subdivision
development as contained in the approved subdivision plan and/or represented in its advertisements, without
the permission of the Authority and the written conformity or consent of the ____. a. homeowners' association
b. corporation c. buyer 81. No real estate dealer, broker or salesman shall engage in the business of selling
subdivision lots or condominium units unless he has. a. Registered with HLURB b. Registered with DENR c.
Registered with DTI 82. Revocation of Registration Certificate and License to Sell. a. Upon verified complain
by buyer b. Unverified complain of buyer c. By seller 83. Suspension of License to Sell. a. Upon verified
complain by buyer b. Unverified complain of buyer c. By seller 84. Document showing that developer is
authorized to sell any subdivision lot or condominium unit in the registered project. a. License to sell b. Permit
to sell c. Project permit 59
85. Weeks that License to sell shall be obtained by developer from registration of project. a. Two weeks b.
Three weeks c. Four weeks 86. Shall have exclusive jurisdiction to regulate the real trade and business in
accordance with the provisions of PD 957. a. NHA b. HLURB c. HGC 87. Shall mean any person directly
engaged as principal in the business of buying, selling or exchanging real estate whether on a full-time or part-
time basis. a. Dealer b. Seller c. Owner 88. Shall mean the person who develops or improves the subdivision
project or condominium project for and in behalf of the owner thereof. a. Developer b. Owner c. Seller 89. Shall
refer to the registered owner of the land subject of a subdivision or a condominium project. a. Owner b. Buyer