This document is a general science exam for 8th grade students containing 60 multiple choice questions testing knowledge of various science topics including:
- Units of measurement and scientific notation
- Properties of matter and the periodic table
- Chemical formulas and reactions
- Anatomy and physiology of human body systems
- Reproduction and disease
- Ecology and food webs
- Planets and astronomy
- Light and sound
- Electricity and magnetism
The exam covers a wide range of fundamental science concepts to evaluate student understanding of core ideas taught in the 8th grade general science curriculum.
Quiz Competition Stage-1 paper.
Quiz Competition event took place at Compucom Institute of Technology & Management during the CITM TECH FEST- 2K17.
CITM organises it's TECH FEST annually to nurture the technical skills and capabilities of students.
Quiz Competition Stage-1 paper.
Quiz Competition event took place at Compucom Institute of Technology & Management during the CITM TECH FEST- 2K17.
CITM organises it's TECH FEST annually to nurture the technical skills and capabilities of students.
Final Examination (v2)NSCI280 Version 51University of P.docxmydrynan
Final Examination (v2)
NSCI/280 Version 5
1
University of Phoenix Material
Final Examination (v2)
This is a 40-question final examination. Please answer each question. Each question is worth 0.5 point.
1. The study of cells is
a. cytology
b. histology
c. molecular biology
d. microbiology
e. surface anatomy
2. In a positive feedback mechanism, the response of the effector
a. reverses the original stimulus
b. enhances the original stimulus
c. has no effect on the original stimulus
d. is usually damaging to the body
e. creates a cycle that leads away from homeostasis
3. Ionic bonds form when
a. atomic nuclei fuse
b. atoms become ionized
c. neutrons are transferred from one atom to another
d. protons are lost from atoms
e. electrons are shared between two atoms
4. Reactions that bond atoms or molecules together are called _______ reactions.
a. hydration
b. synthesis
c. hydrolysis
d. reversible
e. oxidation
5. Sugars
a. are the body's source of immediate energy
b. are the building blocks of nucleotides
c. provide much of the structure of body cells and tissues
d. contain the genetic information of the cell
e. insulate and cushion the body
6. The nuclear envelope
a. separates the nucleus from the rest of the cell
b. is a rigid protein membrane
c. is not permeable
d. has a single layer of phospholipids
e. regulates movement of materials into and out of the cell
7. Recognition proteins
a. are binding sites for other molecules
b. utilize the G protein complex to function
c. are found only on endoplasmic reticulum
d. allow cells to recognize one another
e. provide a "door" through which extracellular molecules can enter the cell
8. Which of the following is a function of muscle tissue?
a. conduction of action potentials
b. secretion and absorption of molecules
c. support of other tissue types
d. contraction
e. shock absorption
9. Nervous tissue
a. functions as an insulator and a site of energy storage
b. exists in three forms: yellow, red, and brown
c. contains large amounts of extracellular matrix
d. is located in the brain and spinal cord
e. does not contain lipids
10. Reddening of the skin (blushing) is the result of the
a. quantity of melanin in the skin
b. number of keratinocytes in the skin
c. increased blood flow in the dermis
d. thickness of the stratum basale
e. number of melanocytes in the skin
11. What does structure "A" represent on the diagram?
a. hair follicle
b. arrector pili
c. dermis
d. hypodermis
e. sebaceous gland
12. When blood calcium levels are high
a. osteoclast activity increases
b. calcitonin secretion increases
c. calcium absorption is increased
d. bones lose bone tissue
e. osteoblast activity decreases
13. What does structure "B" represent on the bone diagram?
a. cancellous bone
b. diaphysis
c. epiphyseal lines
d. articular cartilage
e. epiphysis
14. What does structure "C" represent?
a. frontal bone
b. occipital bone
c. parietal bone
d. sphenoid bone
e. temporal bone
15. The fig ...
this all-in-one PDF guide designed to help you excel in various competitive exams. Packed with essential study materials, practice questions, and tips, this comprehensive guide covers a wide range of competitive exams, making it your go-to resource for exam preparation success. Whether you're preparing for entrance tests, government exams, or any other competitive assessment, this PDF book has you covered. Download it now and take a significant step towards achieving your academic and career goals.
BIOL 101 EXAM The following general directions apply to thi.docxhartrobert670
BIOL 101 EXAM
The following general directions apply to this exam: This exam is worth a total of 125 points. Multiple choice questions #1-50 are worth 1 point each. Multiple choice questions #51-57 are worth 2 points each. Choose 6 of 7 essay questions #58-64, which are worth 10 points each. Please provide answers on the answer sheets provided at the end of the exam. I recommend that you print out the exam, answer the questions, then copy the answers onto the answer sheets. Please submit only the answer sheets into your assignment folder
GOOD LUCK! Thanks for taking the course,
********************************************************************** MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS – 1 POINT EACH – 50 POINTS TOTAL: On the answer sheet, indicate the letter that represents the best answer to each of the multiple choice questions below.
1. In science, a hypothesis must be A) a known fact B) testable C) derived from a theory
D) able to be proven absolutely true
2. Which of the following includes all the others?
A) atom B) cell C) organism D) ecosystem
3. A carbon atom of mass number 12 and a carbon atom of mass number 14 are
A) covalent B) compounds C) ions D) isotopes
4. A chlorine atom has 17 protons, 18 neutrons, and 17 electrons. The atomic number of
chlorine isA) 8 B) 17 C) 35 D) 52
5. If you place the probe of a pH meter in lye or sodium hydroxide (NaOH), it will read
pH 14. Sodium hydroxide is A) an acid B) neutralC) a base
6. This polysaccharide forms fibers that are a major component of plant cell walls:
A) glucose B) starch C) cellulose D) glycogen
7. Glycerol is a building block of A) starch B) enzymes C) vegetable oil D) DNA
8. Which of these types of molecules contain nitrogen?
A) polysaccharides B) proteins C) steroids
9. Prokaryotic cells, with no nucleus or membranous organelles, are found in
A) animals B) bacteria C) fungi D) plants
10. The main function of a ribosome is to A) extract energy from glucose
B) synthesize glucose C) store food in the form of fat
D) synthesize proteins
11. Mitochondria A) package proteins for secretion from cell B) contain chromosomes
C) are sites of oxidation of glucose to generate ATP D) synthesize proteins
12. The plasma membrane consists of A) a single layer of phospholipid molecules
B) a double layer of phospholipid molecules in which proteins are embedded
C) several layers of protein and carbohydrate molecules
D) a triple layer of phospholipids and carbohydrates
13. The movement of molecules from a region of low concentration across a membrane
to a region of high concentration by use of ATP energy is A) active transport
B)diffusion C) passive transport D) osmosis
14. The oxygen in our atmosphere is produced by A) greenhouse effect
B) cellular respiration C) photosynthesis D) volcanic ...
1BIOLOGY 101 Fall 2016FINAL EXAMINATIONPlease copy and.docxfelicidaddinwoodie
1
BIOLOGY 101 Fall 2016
FINAL EXAMINATION
Please copy and paste the final examination into a Word file. Complete it in this form (do not make any structural changes!) and submit it as an attachment into your Assignment Folder.Do not forget to put your name on top of the exam!
The absolute deadline for submission is Sunday, October 16, NOON ET.
I cannot accept any later submissions.
YOUR NAME:
_______________________________________________________________
Total possible points: 100
I. Multiple choice questions. Please bold or underline the correct answer (1point each=50 points)
1. Several features, or properties, of living things may also be found in non-living things, such as fire. Of the following, which is the least likely to be found in non-living things?
A. Consumption of energy-containing molecules
B. Growth
C. Reproduction
D. Homeostasis
E. Response to external stimuli
2. Suppose you conduct an experiment which simulates glacial recession over time. What is the dependent variable in this experiment?
A. Glacial mass
B. Sunlight
C. The season
D. Time
3. If life on another planet were fundamentally like life on Earth, the macromolecules of living things would be based on which element?
A. Carbon
B. Hydrogen
C. Nitrogen
D. Oxygen
E. Phosphorus
4. The effectiveness of a medication containing growth hormones is tested on a group of young male rabbits 3 weeks of age. The best control group would be:
A. Any group of rabbits
B. A group of male rabbits, three weeks old, not given the medication
C. A group of female rabbits, three weeks old, not given the medication
D. A mixed group of male/female rabbits, three weeks old, not given the medication
E. No control is required; just measure whether the rabbits grew
5. Temperature is a measure of
A. The potential energy in a substance
B. How fast the molecule in a substance are moving
C. The energy lost from a substance to its surroundings.
D. How much heat is being absorbed by a substance
E. All of the above
6. Which of the following refers to a substance that has ‘lost’ a carbon dioxide molecule?
A. Denatured
B. Phosphorilated
C. Decarboxylated
D. Carbonated
E. Oxidated
7. Which of the following reactions or pathways is catabolic?
A. Converting glucose to carbon dioxide and water (cellular respiration)
B. Making starch from many glucose monomers
C. Photosynthesis, which builds glucose from carbon dioxide using energy from light
D. Making ATP from ADP and phosphate
8. One human disease is caused by a change in the DNA from GAA to GUA. This change is an example of:
A. Crossing-over
B. A meiosis error
C. A mitosis error
D. A mutation
9. During which part of the cell cycle is DNA polymerase most active?
A. Cytokinesis
B. G1 phase
C. G2 phase
D. S phase
E. M phase
10. Which of the following correctly describes a buffer?
A. A buffer converts an alkaline solution to neutral
B. A buffer converts an acid solution to neutral.
C. A buffer converts alkaline solutions to acid solutions.
D. A b ...
The Art Pastor's Guide to Sabbath | Steve ThomasonSteve Thomason
What is the purpose of the Sabbath Law in the Torah. It is interesting to compare how the context of the law shifts from Exodus to Deuteronomy. Who gets to rest, and why?
Final Examination (v2)NSCI280 Version 51University of P.docxmydrynan
Final Examination (v2)
NSCI/280 Version 5
1
University of Phoenix Material
Final Examination (v2)
This is a 40-question final examination. Please answer each question. Each question is worth 0.5 point.
1. The study of cells is
a. cytology
b. histology
c. molecular biology
d. microbiology
e. surface anatomy
2. In a positive feedback mechanism, the response of the effector
a. reverses the original stimulus
b. enhances the original stimulus
c. has no effect on the original stimulus
d. is usually damaging to the body
e. creates a cycle that leads away from homeostasis
3. Ionic bonds form when
a. atomic nuclei fuse
b. atoms become ionized
c. neutrons are transferred from one atom to another
d. protons are lost from atoms
e. electrons are shared between two atoms
4. Reactions that bond atoms or molecules together are called _______ reactions.
a. hydration
b. synthesis
c. hydrolysis
d. reversible
e. oxidation
5. Sugars
a. are the body's source of immediate energy
b. are the building blocks of nucleotides
c. provide much of the structure of body cells and tissues
d. contain the genetic information of the cell
e. insulate and cushion the body
6. The nuclear envelope
a. separates the nucleus from the rest of the cell
b. is a rigid protein membrane
c. is not permeable
d. has a single layer of phospholipids
e. regulates movement of materials into and out of the cell
7. Recognition proteins
a. are binding sites for other molecules
b. utilize the G protein complex to function
c. are found only on endoplasmic reticulum
d. allow cells to recognize one another
e. provide a "door" through which extracellular molecules can enter the cell
8. Which of the following is a function of muscle tissue?
a. conduction of action potentials
b. secretion and absorption of molecules
c. support of other tissue types
d. contraction
e. shock absorption
9. Nervous tissue
a. functions as an insulator and a site of energy storage
b. exists in three forms: yellow, red, and brown
c. contains large amounts of extracellular matrix
d. is located in the brain and spinal cord
e. does not contain lipids
10. Reddening of the skin (blushing) is the result of the
a. quantity of melanin in the skin
b. number of keratinocytes in the skin
c. increased blood flow in the dermis
d. thickness of the stratum basale
e. number of melanocytes in the skin
11. What does structure "A" represent on the diagram?
a. hair follicle
b. arrector pili
c. dermis
d. hypodermis
e. sebaceous gland
12. When blood calcium levels are high
a. osteoclast activity increases
b. calcitonin secretion increases
c. calcium absorption is increased
d. bones lose bone tissue
e. osteoblast activity decreases
13. What does structure "B" represent on the bone diagram?
a. cancellous bone
b. diaphysis
c. epiphyseal lines
d. articular cartilage
e. epiphysis
14. What does structure "C" represent?
a. frontal bone
b. occipital bone
c. parietal bone
d. sphenoid bone
e. temporal bone
15. The fig ...
this all-in-one PDF guide designed to help you excel in various competitive exams. Packed with essential study materials, practice questions, and tips, this comprehensive guide covers a wide range of competitive exams, making it your go-to resource for exam preparation success. Whether you're preparing for entrance tests, government exams, or any other competitive assessment, this PDF book has you covered. Download it now and take a significant step towards achieving your academic and career goals.
BIOL 101 EXAM The following general directions apply to thi.docxhartrobert670
BIOL 101 EXAM
The following general directions apply to this exam: This exam is worth a total of 125 points. Multiple choice questions #1-50 are worth 1 point each. Multiple choice questions #51-57 are worth 2 points each. Choose 6 of 7 essay questions #58-64, which are worth 10 points each. Please provide answers on the answer sheets provided at the end of the exam. I recommend that you print out the exam, answer the questions, then copy the answers onto the answer sheets. Please submit only the answer sheets into your assignment folder
GOOD LUCK! Thanks for taking the course,
********************************************************************** MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS – 1 POINT EACH – 50 POINTS TOTAL: On the answer sheet, indicate the letter that represents the best answer to each of the multiple choice questions below.
1. In science, a hypothesis must be A) a known fact B) testable C) derived from a theory
D) able to be proven absolutely true
2. Which of the following includes all the others?
A) atom B) cell C) organism D) ecosystem
3. A carbon atom of mass number 12 and a carbon atom of mass number 14 are
A) covalent B) compounds C) ions D) isotopes
4. A chlorine atom has 17 protons, 18 neutrons, and 17 electrons. The atomic number of
chlorine isA) 8 B) 17 C) 35 D) 52
5. If you place the probe of a pH meter in lye or sodium hydroxide (NaOH), it will read
pH 14. Sodium hydroxide is A) an acid B) neutralC) a base
6. This polysaccharide forms fibers that are a major component of plant cell walls:
A) glucose B) starch C) cellulose D) glycogen
7. Glycerol is a building block of A) starch B) enzymes C) vegetable oil D) DNA
8. Which of these types of molecules contain nitrogen?
A) polysaccharides B) proteins C) steroids
9. Prokaryotic cells, with no nucleus or membranous organelles, are found in
A) animals B) bacteria C) fungi D) plants
10. The main function of a ribosome is to A) extract energy from glucose
B) synthesize glucose C) store food in the form of fat
D) synthesize proteins
11. Mitochondria A) package proteins for secretion from cell B) contain chromosomes
C) are sites of oxidation of glucose to generate ATP D) synthesize proteins
12. The plasma membrane consists of A) a single layer of phospholipid molecules
B) a double layer of phospholipid molecules in which proteins are embedded
C) several layers of protein and carbohydrate molecules
D) a triple layer of phospholipids and carbohydrates
13. The movement of molecules from a region of low concentration across a membrane
to a region of high concentration by use of ATP energy is A) active transport
B)diffusion C) passive transport D) osmosis
14. The oxygen in our atmosphere is produced by A) greenhouse effect
B) cellular respiration C) photosynthesis D) volcanic ...
1BIOLOGY 101 Fall 2016FINAL EXAMINATIONPlease copy and.docxfelicidaddinwoodie
1
BIOLOGY 101 Fall 2016
FINAL EXAMINATION
Please copy and paste the final examination into a Word file. Complete it in this form (do not make any structural changes!) and submit it as an attachment into your Assignment Folder.Do not forget to put your name on top of the exam!
The absolute deadline for submission is Sunday, October 16, NOON ET.
I cannot accept any later submissions.
YOUR NAME:
_______________________________________________________________
Total possible points: 100
I. Multiple choice questions. Please bold or underline the correct answer (1point each=50 points)
1. Several features, or properties, of living things may also be found in non-living things, such as fire. Of the following, which is the least likely to be found in non-living things?
A. Consumption of energy-containing molecules
B. Growth
C. Reproduction
D. Homeostasis
E. Response to external stimuli
2. Suppose you conduct an experiment which simulates glacial recession over time. What is the dependent variable in this experiment?
A. Glacial mass
B. Sunlight
C. The season
D. Time
3. If life on another planet were fundamentally like life on Earth, the macromolecules of living things would be based on which element?
A. Carbon
B. Hydrogen
C. Nitrogen
D. Oxygen
E. Phosphorus
4. The effectiveness of a medication containing growth hormones is tested on a group of young male rabbits 3 weeks of age. The best control group would be:
A. Any group of rabbits
B. A group of male rabbits, three weeks old, not given the medication
C. A group of female rabbits, three weeks old, not given the medication
D. A mixed group of male/female rabbits, three weeks old, not given the medication
E. No control is required; just measure whether the rabbits grew
5. Temperature is a measure of
A. The potential energy in a substance
B. How fast the molecule in a substance are moving
C. The energy lost from a substance to its surroundings.
D. How much heat is being absorbed by a substance
E. All of the above
6. Which of the following refers to a substance that has ‘lost’ a carbon dioxide molecule?
A. Denatured
B. Phosphorilated
C. Decarboxylated
D. Carbonated
E. Oxidated
7. Which of the following reactions or pathways is catabolic?
A. Converting glucose to carbon dioxide and water (cellular respiration)
B. Making starch from many glucose monomers
C. Photosynthesis, which builds glucose from carbon dioxide using energy from light
D. Making ATP from ADP and phosphate
8. One human disease is caused by a change in the DNA from GAA to GUA. This change is an example of:
A. Crossing-over
B. A meiosis error
C. A mitosis error
D. A mutation
9. During which part of the cell cycle is DNA polymerase most active?
A. Cytokinesis
B. G1 phase
C. G2 phase
D. S phase
E. M phase
10. Which of the following correctly describes a buffer?
A. A buffer converts an alkaline solution to neutral
B. A buffer converts an acid solution to neutral.
C. A buffer converts alkaline solutions to acid solutions.
D. A b ...
The Art Pastor's Guide to Sabbath | Steve ThomasonSteve Thomason
What is the purpose of the Sabbath Law in the Torah. It is interesting to compare how the context of the law shifts from Exodus to Deuteronomy. Who gets to rest, and why?
2024.06.01 Introducing a competency framework for languag learning materials ...Sandy Millin
http://sandymillin.wordpress.com/iateflwebinar2024
Published classroom materials form the basis of syllabuses, drive teacher professional development, and have a potentially huge influence on learners, teachers and education systems. All teachers also create their own materials, whether a few sentences on a blackboard, a highly-structured fully-realised online course, or anything in between. Despite this, the knowledge and skills needed to create effective language learning materials are rarely part of teacher training, and are mostly learnt by trial and error.
Knowledge and skills frameworks, generally called competency frameworks, for ELT teachers, trainers and managers have existed for a few years now. However, until I created one for my MA dissertation, there wasn’t one drawing together what we need to know and do to be able to effectively produce language learning materials.
This webinar will introduce you to my framework, highlighting the key competencies I identified from my research. It will also show how anybody involved in language teaching (any language, not just English!), teacher training, managing schools or developing language learning materials can benefit from using the framework.
Read| The latest issue of The Challenger is here! We are thrilled to announce that our school paper has qualified for the NATIONAL SCHOOLS PRESS CONFERENCE (NSPC) 2024. Thank you for your unwavering support and trust. Dive into the stories that made us stand out!
The Roman Empire A Historical Colossus.pdfkaushalkr1407
The Roman Empire, a vast and enduring power, stands as one of history's most remarkable civilizations, leaving an indelible imprint on the world. It emerged from the Roman Republic, transitioning into an imperial powerhouse under the leadership of Augustus Caesar in 27 BCE. This transformation marked the beginning of an era defined by unprecedented territorial expansion, architectural marvels, and profound cultural influence.
The empire's roots lie in the city of Rome, founded, according to legend, by Romulus in 753 BCE. Over centuries, Rome evolved from a small settlement to a formidable republic, characterized by a complex political system with elected officials and checks on power. However, internal strife, class conflicts, and military ambitions paved the way for the end of the Republic. Julius Caesar’s dictatorship and subsequent assassination in 44 BCE created a power vacuum, leading to a civil war. Octavian, later Augustus, emerged victorious, heralding the Roman Empire’s birth.
Under Augustus, the empire experienced the Pax Romana, a 200-year period of relative peace and stability. Augustus reformed the military, established efficient administrative systems, and initiated grand construction projects. The empire's borders expanded, encompassing territories from Britain to Egypt and from Spain to the Euphrates. Roman legions, renowned for their discipline and engineering prowess, secured and maintained these vast territories, building roads, fortifications, and cities that facilitated control and integration.
The Roman Empire’s society was hierarchical, with a rigid class system. At the top were the patricians, wealthy elites who held significant political power. Below them were the plebeians, free citizens with limited political influence, and the vast numbers of slaves who formed the backbone of the economy. The family unit was central, governed by the paterfamilias, the male head who held absolute authority.
Culturally, the Romans were eclectic, absorbing and adapting elements from the civilizations they encountered, particularly the Greeks. Roman art, literature, and philosophy reflected this synthesis, creating a rich cultural tapestry. Latin, the Roman language, became the lingua franca of the Western world, influencing numerous modern languages.
Roman architecture and engineering achievements were monumental. They perfected the arch, vault, and dome, constructing enduring structures like the Colosseum, Pantheon, and aqueducts. These engineering marvels not only showcased Roman ingenuity but also served practical purposes, from public entertainment to water supply.
How to Split Bills in the Odoo 17 POS ModuleCeline George
Bills have a main role in point of sale procedure. It will help to track sales, handling payments and giving receipts to customers. Bill splitting also has an important role in POS. For example, If some friends come together for dinner and if they want to divide the bill then it is possible by POS bill splitting. This slide will show how to split bills in odoo 17 POS.
Instructions for Submissions thorugh G- Classroom.pptxJheel Barad
This presentation provides a briefing on how to upload submissions and documents in Google Classroom. It was prepared as part of an orientation for new Sainik School in-service teacher trainees. As a training officer, my goal is to ensure that you are comfortable and proficient with this essential tool for managing assignments and fostering student engagement.
1. 2015 E.C Galaxy Academy Second Semester General Science Model Exam for Grade 8
Name-------------------------------------------Rol.No--------------------------Grade & Section
I. Choose the correct answer only from the given alternatives.
1. Which one of the following indigenous units used to measure length in Ethiopia?
A. Hand-span B. cubit C. arm span D. All
2. All of the following questions are derived except? A. volume B. speed C. mass D. density
3. The sum of 5KG, 600g and 27 mg is equal to ----- gram? A. 5627mg B. 5600.27g
C.5627 X 103
g D. 4625mg
4. All of the following physical quantities are wrongly matched with their SI unit, except?
A. Temperature-Pascal C. Mass- Kilogram
B. Volume- Meter D. density- cubic meter
5. What is an equivalent kilometer for 20 meters? A. 2 x 103
B. 2 x 10-3
C. 2 x 10-2
D. 2 x 10-4
6. Which refers to how close a measurement is to its accepted or known as Value?
A. Precision B. accuracy C. instrument D. measurement
7. The scientific notation that represents Mega(M) prefix is --------- A. 1 x 106
B. 1 x 10-6
C. 1 x 109
D. 1 x 10-9
8. The prefix for a number 0.000,001 is ---------- A. Mega(M) B. Micro(µ) C. milli D. Centi
9. All of the following choose holds true about continuous theory of matter except?
A. Matter is infinitely divisible C. believes in the existence of atom
B. It reject the idea of atoms D. proposed by Aristotle
10. Which molecule is mono atomic? A. S8 B. O3 C. N2 D. He
11. How many neutrons are there in an atom of the element
𝟐𝟑
𝟏𝟏
Na A. 11 B. 23 C. 13 D. 12
12. Which molecule of a compound is wrongly matched with its name? A. NH3- ammonia B. CO2-
Carbon dioxide C. CO- carbon dioxide D. HCL- hydrochloric acid
13. All of the following molecules are polyatomic, except? A. O3 B. O2 C. P4 D. S8
14. Which of the following compound is organic? A. Nacl B. C12H22O6 C. CaO D. A and C correct
15. The formulas of alkane that contain 9- carbon atoms
A. C9H20 B. C9H18 C. C9H16 D. C9H22
16. Which organic compound is correctly matched with its use?
A. Methane (CH4) – as domestic fuel C. ethyn(C2H2)
B. Propane(C3H8) – as cooking and heating D. all
17. What is the missing product “X” in the following equation? A. CaO + CO2 X
A. CA(OH)2 B. Ca2SO4 C. CaCO3 D. CaCO2
18. What is the missing product “Y” in the following reaction?
H2SO4 + 2NaOH Y + H2O ?
A. Na B. Na2SO4 C. SO4 D. H2SO3
19. Nitrates are salt of A. nitric acid B. phosphoric acid C. sulphuric acid D. hydrochloric acid
20. Which of the following body part is not integumentary? A. hair B. skin C. glands D. lung
21. Which layer of hair staff is correctly matched with its explanation?
A. Medulla-deepest layer and only seen in large and thick hair
B. Cortex- middle layer and provide strength, color and texture of hair fiber
C. Cuticle- outer layer of hair shaft & is thin and colorless
D. All of the above
22. The gland which is located in ear canal and it produce ear wax for protection is ------
A. Sudoriferous B. sebaceous C. germanous D. mammary
23. The middle layer of the skin is called -------A. dermis B. hypoderms C. epidermis D. endodermis
24. All of the following are major skin disease and disorders except A. Acne B. Rosacea C. Exzema
D. none
2. 25. Which one of the following is not common for all muscle? A. contractility B. excitability C.
extensibility D. none
26. Which type of bone is correctly matched with its typical examples?
A. Long bone-upper and lower limb C. flat bone-ribs, sternum, scapula
B. Short bone-wrist, finger, ankle bone D. all of the above
27. Which components of muscular systems are the only muscles that can be consciously or voluntarily
controlled? A. skeletal muscle B. smooth muscle C. cardiac muscle D. none
28. All are true about cardiac muscle, except? A. located only in the heart B. pumps blood around the
body C. they are auto rhythmic D. they are voluntary
29. Which is not among major disease of skeletal system? A. leukemia B. osteopenia C.
hypertension D. fracture
30. An organism have I =
𝟑
𝟑
, C=
𝟐
𝟐
, P =
𝟑
𝟑
M =
𝟐
𝟐
then what is the total number of teeth
the organism have A. 34 B. 40 C. 38 D. 32
31. Millions of air sac in lung in which the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide takes place is
called_________________.
A) Alveoli B) bronchus C) blood vessel D) trachea
32. The circulation of blood only between heart and lung and lung to heart is called__________
A) Systematic B) pulmonary C) umbilical D) all
33. The only vein that carry oxygenated blood is called_____________
A) Umbilical B) pulmonary C) A and B D) large vein
34. Which male reproductive organ stores sperm cells for maturation?
A) Testes B) scrotum C) vas deferens D) epididymis
35. Which of the following female reproductive structure is a narrow from the ovary to uterus for
movement of an egg and a site for fertilization?
A) Womb B) uterus C) fallopian tube D) cervix
36. All of the following characteristics are female secondary sexual characteristics development,
Except?
A) Widening of hips B) larynx enlarges and cause voice deepens C) voice becomes thinner
D) breast developments
37. Which sexually transmitted/venereal/ disease is viral?
A) HIV/AIDS B) chancroids C) gonorrhea D) all
38. Male sex hormone that produced during puberty is____________________.
A) Estrogen B) testosterone C) progesterone D) sperm
39. Which biological interaction /Symbiosis/ is the obligatory relationship in which both organisms are
get benefitted?
A) Commensalism B) parasitism C) mutualism D) competition
40. All organisms are photo autotrophs, Except?
A) Green plants B) nitrifying bacteria C) green algea D) All
41. Heterotrophic mode of nitration consists all of the following except?
A) Herbivores B) carnivores C) decomposers D) plants
42. An organism that release energy from simple chemical reactions is said to be________
A) Decomposers B) heterotrophs C) photoautotrophs D) chemoautotrophs
43. The food chain that contain more than one chain is called_____________
A) Interaction B) relation C) food web D) nature cycling
44. Which planet is not among jovian planets?
A) Saturn B) Mercury C) Jupiter D) Uranus
45. All of the following planets are dwarf planets, Except?
A) Neptune B) Pluto C) Eris D) make make
3. 46. Most asteroids are found in the asteroid belt, which lies between the obrbits of________and____.
A) Mars and Jupiter B) Earth and Mars C) Jupiter and Saturn D) Mercury and Venus
47. Small heavenly bodies that revolve around the sun in highly elliptical orbits are called
A) Comets B) Metros C) Asteroids D) Pole stars
48. The bending of light raise as it travel from one medium to another is said to be ________?
A) Reflection B) rectification C) Refraction D) Reduction
49. Which of the following object is luminous?
A) Sun B) Moon C) Earth D) Mountain
50. Which light phenomenon is correctly matched with its explanation?
A) Reflection:- rebouncing back to the first medium by the obstacles
B) Refraction:- bending of light raise as it travels from one medium to another
C) Dispersion:- the splitting of white light into constitvent colors.
D) All of the above
51. All of the following are imaging tools used by doctors to diagnose ingury or illness, except?
A) Magnetic resonance imaging B) X-ray C) Telescope D) CT-scan
52. Which body part of human being is said to be imaging tool and it form a real image.
A) Eye B) ear C) brain D) heart
53. Which characteristics of the image formed by aplane mirror is correct?
A) The image is virtual and erect B) the image is the same size at as that of the object C) the image
is latterly inverted D) All
54. Which noise can cause immediate harm to your ears?
A) Loud noise above 120db B) average homo noise 40db C) soft music whisper 30db D) normal
conversation 60 db
55. Sound cannot travel through_____________
A) Air B) solids C) water D) vacuum
56. The direct transfer of heat from one substance to another substance that is touching is referred to as
A) Convection B) radiation C) conduction D) insulation
57. The circuit symbol of diode is A) B) C) D)
58. Which of the following is not true about magnetic field lines around a bar magnet?
A) magnetic field lines intersect one another B) magnetic field lines start from north pole and end up
at south pole outside of the magnet C) the field is strong where the lines are closest together D)
magnetic field lines form each closed loop.
59. Which one of the following material is magnetic?
A) Iron B) cobalt C) nickel D) all
60. Magnets are used in one of the following devices
A) Telephones B) hair driers C) televisions D) all of those
Good Luck!
Set by T.S