The document contains a past MAT (Management Aptitude Test) paper from September 2008 containing 46 multiple choice questions. The questions cover topics such as data interpretation from graphs, ratios, percentages, economics, current events, and more. The document tests reading comprehension and problem solving abilities through multiple choice questions ranging from mathematics to general knowledge.

1. MAT–PAST PAPERS
MAT- UNSOLVED PAPER – SEP- 2008

2. Directions (Questions 1-4):
Study the following graph to answer these questions.

3. 01 Problem
What fraction of the total expenditure is spent on education in family A?
a. 9/13
b. 2/3
c. 13/21
d. 1/5

4. 02 Problem
If the total expenditure of family B is Rs. 10,000, then money spent on clothes by
this family during the year is
a. Rs. 2,000
b. Rs. 600
c. Rs. 200
d. Rs. 6,000

5. 03 Problem
If the total annual expenditure of family A is Rs. 30,000, the money spent on
food, clothes and house rent is
a. Rs. 21,000
b. Rs. 18,000
c. Rs. 18,500
d. Rs. 15,000

6. 04 Problem
What percentage is B's expenditure on food over A's expenditure on food, taking
equal total expenditure ?
a. 133.33%
b. 70%
c. 10%
d. 75%

7. Directions (Questions 5-8):
In a city, there were 2 lakh, 3 lakh, 4 lakh and 5 lakh men during the period 2001
to 2004 respectively. In the same period, the number
of women increased at the rate of 10% every year beginning at 1.3 lakh in 2001.
The number of boys in the city increased at 5% per year and was 1.2 lakh in 2004.
The number of girls had been increasing at 25% and was 1 lakh in 2004. The bar
graph below shows the percentage of literates in the city between the period
2001 to 2004. Study the bar graph to answer these questions.

9. 05 Problem
In which year was the number of literates in the city maximum
a. 2001
b. 2003
c. 2002
d. 2004

10. 06 Problem
In 2002, what was the approximate ratio of literate women to literate boys?
a. 0.4
b. 0.52
c. 0.45
d. 0.35

11. 07 Problem
What was the percentage increase in the 9. number of literate girls from 2003 to
2004?
a. 463%
b. 526%
c. 560%
d. 426%

12. 08 Problem
In 2001, What was the total number of 10. literates in the city?
a. 2 lakh
b. 1.53 lakh
c. 4.9 lakh
d. 1.625 lakh

13. Directions (Questions 9-12):
Answer these questions based on the information given. Fabric X has to go
through three stages of manufacturing, viz., spinning, weaving and dyeing. In
Rimal Fabric Company, there are six spinning machines, ten weaving machines
and five dyeing machines. Each machine works for 10 hrs a day. One unit of
Fabric X needs 40 minutes 12. on a spinning machine, 2 hours on a weaving
machine and 30 minutes on a dyeing machine in order to be completed.
Similarly one unit of Fabric Y needs 60 minutes on a spinning machine, 30
minutes on a weaving machine and 60 minutes on a dyeing machine in order
to be completed.

14. 09 Problem
In a day, how many units on Fabric Y can be completed at most?
a. 20
b. 40
c. 3.30
d. 50

15. 10 Problem
If 20 units of Fabric Y are made in a day, how many units of Fabric X can be
completed the same day?
a. 0
b. 40
c. 20
d. 45

16. 11 Problem
If only 30 units of Fabric Y are made in a day, how many machine hours will be
idle that day?
a. 120
b. 135
c. 130
d. 150

17. 12 Problem
If one more dyeing machine is added, at the most how many more units of Fabric
X can be made in a day?
a. 0
b. 8
c. 5
d. 10

18. Directions (Questions 13-16):
The following graph shows the number of successful candidates from different
schools (A to F) in different disciplines. Study the graph carefully to answer these
questions.

19. 13 Problem
In which of the following institutes is the difference between the number of
successful candidates in Engineering and that in Medical discipline the
maximum?
a. F
b. C
c. B
d. D

20. 14 Problem
The total number of successful candidates from Medical discipline is
approximately what per cent more than that from Law?
a. 8%
b. 15%
c. 12%
d. 10%

21. 15 Problem
The number of successful candidates from F in Engineering discipline is what per
cent more than the number of successful candidates from A in Medical
discipline?
a. 30%
b. 25%
c. 33%
d. 20%

22. 16 Problem
In which of the following institutes is the sum of the number of successful
candidates in Engineering and Law disciplines 50% of the number of Medical
students of the same institute?
a. C
b. E
c. D
d. B

23. 17 Problem
Which of the following organizations recently issued some guidelines related to
'Participatory Notes' as used in the financial world?
a. SEBI
b. IRDA
c. RBI
d. AMFI

24. 18 Problem
Which of the following is a type of tax levied by the government on goods and
services?
a. PAN
b. NET
c. SAT
d. VAT

25. 19 Problem
The UNO has declared year 2008 as the year of
a. Water Harvesting
b. Potato
c. AIDS Prevention
d. Social Justice to Children

26. 20 Problem
Who was the first Indian gold medal winner in the Beijing Olympic Games 2008?
a. Vikram Rathore
b. Avneet Kaur Sidhu
c. Deepali Deshpandey .
d. Abhinav Bindra

27. 21 Problem
Which of the following States has declared 2008 as the 'Tear of Education"? ,
a. Gujarat
b. Bihar
c. Haryana
d. Uttar Pradesh

28. 22 Problem
The provision of credit and other financial services and products of very small
amount to the poor in rural and semi-urban and urban areas to enable them to
raise their income level and living standard is known as
a. Micro Credit
b. Personal Banking
c. Corporate Banking
d. Non-Banking Finance

29. 23 Problem
Who amongst the following was selected as the "Banker of the Year 2007" by the
Business Standard?
a. Anil Khandelwal
b. K.C. Chakrabarty
c. M.V. Kamath
d. O.P. Bhatt

30. 24 Problem
India recently signed an agreement with which of the following countries which is
named as "A Shared Vision for the 21st century"?
a. China
b. Singapore
c. Russia
d. France

31. 25 Problem
Which of the following State Governments launched a Rs. 40,000 crore "Ganga
Expressway Project"?
a. West Bengal
b. Madhya Pradesh
c. Bihar
d. Uttar Pradesh

32. 26 Problem
Who received the Wisden Award for the 'Indian Cricketer of the 20th Century'?
a. Sunil Gavaskar
b. KapilDev
c. Sachin Tendulkar
d. Anil Kumble

33. 27 Problem
Name the Indian scientist after whose name a minor planet 5718 CD4, has been
named
a. Dr. K. Rangarajan
b. Dr. R. Rajmohan
c. Dr. Sainudeen Pattazhy
d. None of these

34. 28 Problem
Who has been awarded the Agricola Medal, the highest award of the FAO?
a. Sonia Gandhi
b. Manmohan Singh
c. M.S. Swaminathan
d. Sharad Pawar

35. 29 Problem
Who has been awarded the Rashtriya Krantiveer Award 2008?
a. ArundhatiRoy
b. ArunKejriwal
c. Medhapatkar
d. KiranBedi

36. 30 Problem
The percentage increase in production between the year 2006-07 and 2007-08 is:
a. 25%
b. 12.5%
c. 8.8%
d. 6.5%

37. 31 Problem
Which of the following owns the 'Easy Day' retail stores?
a. Reliance Retail
b. Bharti Retail
c. Wal-Mart
d. Birla Retail

38. 32 Problem
Which of the following countries is not a part of G-8 Group of countries?
a. Japan
b. China
c. Germany
d. Britain

39. 33 Problem
'Big Bazaar' chain of stores is run by which group?
a. Jindal Group
b. Reliance Group
c. Future Group
d. Aditya Birla Group

40. 34 Problem
How many Indian companies figure on the latest Fortune 500 Global list?
a. Seven
b. Ten
c. Five
d. Six

41. 35 Problem
The world's fastest motorbike ever 'The Hayabusa' is a product of
a. Honda
b. Suzuki
c. Yamaha
d. Hyundai

42. 36 Problem
Recently, leaders of G-8 Countries endorsed a proposal to halve Carbon emissions
by the year
a. 2025
b. 2010
c. 2040
d. 2050

43. 37 Problem
Bajaj Auto has entered into joint venture with car maker Renault and to
manufacture
a small car in India by 2011.
a. Honda
b. Nissan
c. Ford
d. Suzuki

44. 38 Problem
'Banking for all is the new tag fine that is used by which bank to promote itself
now a days.
a. HDFC
b. IDBI Bank
c. YES Bank
d. ICICIBank

45. 39 Problem
Where will the 2012 Olympic Games be held
a. Los Angeles
b. Beijing
c. Seoul
d. London

46. 40 Problem
The total number of members of Afro-Asian Rural Development organisation is :
a. 20
b. 45
c. 60
d. 30

47. 41 Problem
Who is the largest producer of coffee in the world?
a. Sri Lanka
b. Brazil
c. China
d. India

48. 42 Problem
Arthasastra relates to
a. Polity
b. Law
c. Economics
d. Science

49. 43 Problem
The term 'Fourth Estate' applies to
a. Press
b. Parliament
c. Judiciary
d. Bureaucracy

50. 44 Problem
Who was the first gold medal winner of the 2008 Beijing Olympic Games?
a. Katerina Emmons
b. Michael Phelps
c. Nicole Cooke
d. Xian Dongmei

51. 45 Problem
Who among the following won the Magsaysay Award 2008 for community
leadership?
a. Syafii Maarif
b. Prakash Amte and Mandakini Amte
c. Mahabir Pun
d. None of these

52. 46 Problem
Michael Phelps who won the highest number of gold medals in Beijing Olympic
Games 2008 broke the record of
a. Crocker
b. Rebeca Adlington
c. Mark Spitz
d. None of these

53. Directions (Questions 47-60):
Study the following table to answer these questions. Service of EMU Trains
from Howrah Station.
From To Train No. No. of Trips Distance / Each
Daily Trip Covered Journey
in km Time (Hour)
Howrah Burdwan 56245 2 190 2I 2
Bandel 23021 4 82 li 4
Katwa 575 1 288 4
Kharagp 5200 3 232 3
ur
Seoraph 328 8 58 1
ul

54. Midnapore 902 4 166 2I
4
Burdwan 34203 1 190 2± 2
Burdwan 19172 3 190 2l 2
Burdwan 7281 2 190 2± 2
Bandel 603 6 82 4
Kharagpur 931 2 232 3
a. Trip indicates one to and fro journey.
b. No. of departures of train delayed by less than 1 hour = 17
c. No. of departures of train delayed by more than 1 hour = 2
d. No. of arrivals of train delayed by less than 1 hour = 10
e. No. of arrivals of train delayed by more than 1 hour = 3

55. 47 Problem
Which of the following trains has covered minimum distance in a day?
a. 19172
b. 931
c. 23021
d. 328

56. 48 Problem
A station is said to operate at 100% efficiency if 90% of its EMU trains are on
time. Accordingly, find the % efficiency of the Howrah station.
a. 61.72
b. 86.4
c. 77.77
d. 55.55

57. 49 Problem
The schedule of which train will be affected most if it is delayed by more than
one hour in any of its arrivals/departures?
1. 19172
2. 603
3. 5200
4. 902

58. 50 Problem
If the average earning of Howrah station for below 500 km of run of a train is Rs.
10 lakh, and for above 500 km of run is Rs. 10 lakh + Rs. 1.5 lakh per 100 km of
run, then which train brings maximum revenue for Howrah?
a. 19172
b. 902
c. 575
d. 5200

59. 51 Problem
A certain length of pathway has to be constructed. It is found that three men can
construct one-fifth of all but one kilometer in two days, while 18 men can
construct one kilometer more than two-fifths in one day. The length of the path
is.
a. 25 km
b. 10 km
c. 15 km
d. 20 km

60. 52 Problem
The age of the father of two children is twice that of the elder one added to foutf
times that of the younger one. If the geometric mean of the ages of the two
children is 4^/3 and their harmonic mean is 6, then what is the father's age?
a. 48 years
b. 32 years
c. 40 years
d. 56 years

61. 53 Problem
A cylinder is filled to 4/5th of its volume. It is then tilted so that the level of water
coincides with one edge of its bottom and top edge of the opposite side. In the
process, 30 cc of the water is spilled. What is the volume of the cylinder?
a. 75 cc
b. 96 cc
c. Data insufficient
d. 100 cc

62. 54 Problem
Suppose that a maximum of 25 gm of salt dissolves in 100 gm of water. Any more
salt, if added, remains undisclosed and a sediment falls at the bottom. Now,
water is evaporated from 1 kg of a 4% solution at the rate of 28 gm per hour.
After how long will it start regimenting?
a. 35 hrs (approx.)
b. 29 hrs (approx.)
c. 31 hrs (approx.)
d. 23 hrs (approx.)

63. 55 Problem
In a defective 6 faced die with numbers 1 to 6 inscribed, the probability of getting
an odd number is twice the probability of getting an even number. Find the
probability of getting a 2 digit prime number on adding 2 successive throws of
the die.
a. 1/3
b. 2/81
c. 4/81
d. 1/9

64. Directions (Questions 56-59):
Each of the following idioms is followed by four alternatives. Choose the option
which best expresses its meaning.

65. 56 Problem
Tempt providence
a. take reckless risks
b. achieve a fortune
c. invite punishment
d. have God's favor

66. 57 Problem
Take umbrage
a. be satisfied
b. be offended
c. feel depressed
d. be pleased

67. 58 Problem
Get down to brass tacks
a. Begin to talk in plain, straight forward terms
b. Begin to discuss secret matters
c. Start unraveling the mystery
d. Get into the thick of a problem

68. 59 Problem
Ride hell for leather
work hard for a small accomplishment
adopt false means to succeed
ride with furious speed
earn money by all means

69. Directions (Questions 60-63):
In each of the following questions, a related pair of words is followed by four
pairs of words. Select the pair that best expresses a relationship similar to that
expressed in the original pair.

70. 60 Problem
MOSAIC : TITLE : :
document: author
portrait: paint
fabric: tapestry
coverlet: cloth

71. 61 Problem
SAUNTER : STROLL : :
a. amble: path
b. gyrate : twist
c. perambulate: walk
d. baby carriage : walk

72. 62 Problem
AUTHOR : MANUSCRIPT : :
a. optician: spectacles
b. engineer: bridge
c. architect: blueprint
d. doctor: stethoscope

73. 63 Problem
LIBERTINE : IMMORALITY ::
a. victim: depravation
b. miser: selfishness
c. altruist: selflessness
d. policeman: law

74. Directions (Questions 64-66):
In each of these questions, a group of three related words is given. The
relationship among the words can best be represented by one of the four
diagrams (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below. Choose the diagram that represents
the group of words.

75. 64 Problem
Teacher, College, Student

76. 65 Problem
Parrots, Birds, Mice

77. 66 Problem
Nitrogen, Ice, Air

78. Directions (Questions 67-68):
Each of the following questions consists of a question and two statements
numbered I and II given below it. Decide whether the data provided in the
statements are sufficient to answer the question. Mark answer as
a. If the data given in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient
to answer the question.
b. If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while
the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
c. if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while
the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
d. If the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer
the question.

79. 67 Problem
How many doctors are practicing in this town?
I. There, is one doctor per seven hundred residents.
II. There are 16 wards with each ward having as many doctors as the number of
wards.

80. 68 Problem
How many speeches were delivered in the two day's programme?
I. 18 speakers were invited to give at least one speech, out of which one-sixth
of the speakers could not come.
II. One-third of the speakers gave two speeches each.

81. 69 Problem
An anti-aircraft gun can take a maximum of four shots at an enemy plane moving
away from it. The probabilities of hitting the plane at the first, second, third and
the fourth shot are 0.4, 0.3, 0.2 and 0.1 respectively. What is the probability that
the gun hits the plane?
a. 0.6024
b. 0.0024
c. 0.8976
d. 0.6976

82. 70 Problem
A lawn is in the form of an isosceles triangle. The cost of turfing it came to Rs.
1200 at ,Rs. 4 per m2. If the base is 40 m long, the length of each side is
a. 120 m
b. 25 m
c. 7.5 m
d. None of these

83. 71 Problem
A batsman's runs just before the last match of the season, add up to 750. In his
last two innings, he scores only 6 runs, and his average drops by 2. His final
average of the season is
a. 25 runs
b. 30 runs
c. 28 runs
d. 24 runs

84. 72 Problem
The average marks of a student in 8 subjects are 87. Of these, the highest marks
are 2 more than the one next in value. If these two subjects are eliminated, the
average marks of the remaining subjects are 85. What are the highest marks now
obtained by him?
a. 89
b. 94
c. 91
d. 96

85. 73 Problem
Divide Rs. 671 among A, B, C such that if their shares be increased by Rs. 3, Rs. 7
and Rs. 9 respectively, the remainder shall be in the ratio 1:2:3.
a. Rs. 110, Rs. 220 and Rs. 336
b. Rs. 112, Rs. 223 and Rs. 336
c. Rs. 105, Rs. 223 and Rs. 330
d. None of these.

86. 74 Problem
Three partners invested capital in the ratio 2:7:9. The time period for which each
of them invested was in the ratio of the reciprocals of the amount invested. Find
the share of the partner who brought in the highest capital, if profit is Rs. 1080.
a. Rs. 120
b. Rs. 360
c. Rs. 540
d. Rs. 420

87. 75 Problem
An 8 litre cylinder contains a mixture of oxygen and nitrogen, the volume of
oxygen being 16% of total volume. A few litres of the mixture is released and an
equal amount of nitrogen is added. Then the same amount of the mixture as
before is released and replaced by nitrogen for the second time. As a result, the
oxygen content becomes 9% of the total volume. How many litres of mixture is
released each time?
a. 7
b. 8
c. 2
d. None of these

88. 76 Problem
Sonu is 4 years younger to Manu while Dolly is four years younger to Sumit by 1/5
times as old as Sonu. If Sumit is eight years old, how many times as old is Manu
as Dolly.
a. 3
b. 2
c. 1/2
d. 1

89. 77 Problem
Two coal loading machines each working 12 hours per day for 8 days handle
9,000 tonnes of coal with an efficiency of 90%; while 3 other coal loading
machines at an efficiency of 80% are set to handle 12,000 tonnes of coal in 6
days. Find how many hours per day each should work.
a. 20 hrs/day
b. 18hrs/day
c. 16 hrs/day
d. 14 hrs/day

90. 78 Problem
If 36 men can dig a trench 200 metres long, 3 metres wide and 2 metres deep in
6 days working 10 hours a day, in how many days, working 8 hours 1 day will 10
men dig a trench 100 metres long, 4 m wide and 3 m deep?
a. 15 days
b. 27 days
c. 20 days
d. 54 days

91. 79 Problem
Six pipes are fitted to a water tank. Some of these are inlet pipes and the others
outlet pipes. Each inlet pipe can fill the tank in 9 hours and each outlet pipe can
empty the tank in 6 hours. On opening all the pipes, an empty tank is filled in 9
hours. The number of inlet pipes is
a. 2
b. 4
c. 3
d. 5

92. 80 Problem
A ship 55 km from the shore springs a leak which admits 2 tonnes of water in 6
min.; 80 tonnes would suffice to sink her, but the pumps can throw out 12 tonnes
an hour. The average rate of sailing that she may just reach the shore as she
begins to sink is.
a. 9.17 km/hr
b. 0.97 km/hr
c. 55 km/hr
d. 5.5 km/hr

93. 81 Problem
A student purchased a computer system and a colour printer. If he sold the
computer system at 10% loss "and the colour printer at 20% gain, he would not
lose anything, But if he sells the computer system at 5% gain and the colour
printer at 15% loss, he would lose Rs. 800 in the bargain. How much did he pay
for the colour printer?
a. Rs. 9,000
b. Rs. 16,000
c. Rs. 8,000
d. Rs. 5,334

94. 82 Problem
A long distance runner runs 9 laps of a 400 metres track every day. His timings (in
min.) for four consecutive days are 88, 96, 89, and 87 respectively. On an average,
how many metres/ minute does the runner cover?
a. 17.78
b. 90
c. 40
d. None of these

95. Directions (Questions 83-86):
Each of these questions has three groups of statements marked A- C. Identify
the group(s) in which the information given is logical.

96. 83 Problem
A. To forgive is divine. Divine facts are rate.
B. Forgiveness is rare. B. Pepsi contains added flavour. Coke contains permitted
colours. Pepsi and Coke are cold drinks.
C. Some beer is wine and some beer is vodka. All wine is vodka. All beer must be
vodka or wine.
a. A and C
b. A and B
c. Only A
d. Only C

97. 84 Problem
A. Sensex crashes on Monday, Wednesday and Friday. Nasdaq rises high or
Tuesday, Thursday and Saturday. Sensex follows the Nasdaq movement.
B. Mt. Everest, the highest peak, is taller than the second highest peak in China.
Mt. Sunfest is the highest peak in China. Mt. Everest may be higher than Mt.
Sunfest.
C. On the highway, going from East to West, town A comes after town B. Town C
comes after town D. Towns C and A come after town B.
a. Only B
b. B and C
c. Only C
d. A and C

98. 85 Problem
A. Some substances are crystalline. Marble is crystalline. Marble is a substance.
B. All greyhounds are dogs. Some dogs are cows. Some greyhounds are dogs.
C. All locks are keys. Some keys do not open. Some locks do not open.
a. A and C
b. B and C
c. Only A
d. None of these

99. 86 Problem
A. All beautiful things are sad. She is beautiful. She is sad.
B. All nice things are flat. TVs are flat. TVs are nice things.
C. Potatoes are stems. All stems are fruits. Potatoes are fruits.
a. Only C
b. A and B
c. Only A
d. A and C

100. Directions (Questions 87-90):
Read the following
information to answer these questions. Ankit is decorating his room and trying
to arrange six paintings on the east and west walls in his room. The paintings
are each multicolour representations of one of the letters of the alphabets E,
H, M, O, R, T.
Ankit does not want the three letters on each wall to make any common
English word. Also, the colours of the O and E do not look good next to each
other, nor do the T and O go well together.

101. 87 Problem
If Ankit puts E, H and M on the east wall, which of the following must be true?
a. R and M cannot face each other
b. O cannot be in the center of the west wall.
c. E cannot be in the center of the east wall.
d. T and M cannot face each other

102. 88 Problem
If Ankit's mother is coming to visit and he decides to celebrate .the visit by having
his paintings spell "MOTHER", starting with the left most painting on the east wall
and going around the room, which of the following will be false?
a. O is opposite to E
b. H is next to E
c. T is next to O
d. T is opposite to R

103. 89 Problem
Which of the following is not possible?
a. T and O to be opposite to each other.
b. T, H and E to be on the same wall.
c. H, M and R to be on the same wall.
d. M and O to be opposite to each other.

104. 90 Problem
If Ankit trades his M painting for another O painting just like the one he has now,
which of the following must be false?
a. Os can be on opposite walls in the middle.
b. Either R or H will be next to an O.
c. Either R or H will be next to either T or E.
d. T will be opposite to either O or E.

105. 91 Problem
Statement :
A notice: "Use of cell phones and pagers is not allowed inside the auditorium.
Please switch off such devices while you are inside the auditorium."
Assumptions:
I. All those who have such devices will switch them off before they take their
seat in the auditorium."
II. Generally people do not bring such devices when they come to attend
functions in the auditorium.

106. 92 Problem
Statement:
An advertisement: "Fly X airways whenever you decide to go places. Our fares are
leser than train fares."
Assumptions:
I. people prefer to travel by air when the fares are reasonable.
II. The fares of other airlines are costlier than those of X airways.

107. 93 Problem
Statement:
Dengue cannot be eradicated from our city unless we create a special 'Health-
squad' for it.
Assumptions:
I. Dengue is harmful.
II. Creating Health-squad is impossible

108. 94 Problem
Statement:
A warning: "do not smoke in public places as it is cognizable offence in our
country.”
Assumptions:
I. People often neglect such warnings.
II. People do not understand the implications of committing a cognizable
offence.

109. Directions (Questions 95-98):
A statement is followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. Assume
everything in the statement to be true, and decide which course(s) of action
logically follow(s) for pursuing. Mark answer as:
if either course of action I or II follows:
if only course of action II follows.
if only course of action I follows
if both I and II follow.

110. 95 Problem
Statement:
The condition of the roads at many places has deteriorated due to incessant rains
during the past few days resulting in slow movement of vehicular traffic.
Courses of Action:
I. All these parts of the roads should immediately be repaired by closing these
roads from movement of vehicular traffic.
II. Motorists should be alerted at various places by putting up sign boards about
the bad patches of the roads to enable them to plan their journey
accordingly.

111. 96 Problem
Statement:
Many medical and engineering graduates are taking up jobs in administrative
services and in banks.
Courses of Action:
I. All the professionals should be advised to refrain from taking up such jobs.
II. The government should appoint a committee to find out the reasons for
these professionals taking up such jobs and to suggest remedial measures.

112. 97 Problem
Statement:
In the reimbursement of medical expenses as per mutual agreement due on an
appointed date, the managers are agitated. They have decided to go on a half
day strike.
Courses of Action:
I. The managers should not have fixed any date for the repayment of medical
expenses.
II. If the employees go on strike, then they should be warned about salary cut.

113. 98 Problem
Statement :
The Transport Ministry said in a report that people should obey the rules of
traffic. It will improve transport services and hence the number of road accidents
will decrease.
Courses of Action:
I. The ministry should organise a consciousness campaign to raise awareness
about rules relating to traffic.
II. The licenses of men who disobey the rules of traffic should be cancelled.

114. Directions (Questions 99-103):
Answer these questions based on the diagram given below:

115. 99 Problem
Asian Non-Christian females who are professionals are represented by
a. 3
b. 10
c. 8
d. 11

116. 100 Problem
Asian females who are neither professional nor Christians are denoted by
a. 6
b. 9
c. 10
d. 3

117. 101 Problem
Non-Asian professional Christian males are represented by
a. 10
b. 11
c. 12
d. 9

118. 102 Problem
Christian females who are non-professional and Asian are represented by
a. 5
b. 10
c. 9
d. None of these

119. 103 Problem
The shaded portion depicts
a. Asian professional Christian males.
b. Non-Asian professional female Christians.
c. Non-Christian professional female Asians.
d. Non-Asian unprofessional female Christians.

120. 104 Problem
Saroj is mother-in-law of Vani who is sister-in- law of Deepak. Rajesh is father of
Ramesh, the only brother of Deepak. How is Saroj related to Deepak?
a. Wife
b. Aunt
c. Mother-in-law
d. Mother

121. 105 Problem
Pointing to a lady, a man said, "The son of her only brother is the brother of my
wife." How is the lady related to the man?
a. Maternal aunt
b. Sister of father-in-law
c. Mother-in-law
d. Mother's sister

122. 106 Problem
There is a ring road connecting points A, B, C and D. The road is in a complete
circular form but having several approach roads leading to the center. Exactly in
the center of the ring road there is a tree which is 20 km from point A on the
circular road. You have taken a round of circular road starting from point A and
finish at the same point after touching points B, C and D. You then drive 20 km
interior towards the tree from point A and from there, reach somewhere in
between B and C on the ring road. How much distance to you have to travel from
the tree to reach the point between B and C on the ring road?
a. 80 km
b. 15 km
c. 20 km
d. 40 km

123. 107 Problem
Sony is 4 years younger than Manu while Dolly is four years younger than Sumit
but 1/5 times as old as Sonu. If Sumit is eight years old, how many times as old is
Many as Dolly?
a. 6
b. 1/2
c. 3
d. None of these

124. 108 Problem
The ratio of the ages of the father and the son at present is 7 : 1. After 4 years,
the ratio will become 4:1. What is the sum of the present ages of the father and
the son ?
a. 29 years
b. 35 years
c. 32 years
d. None of these

125. 109 Problem
A group consisting of 25 teachers, 20 engineers, 18 doctors and 12 salesmen
visited a fair and spent Rs. 1330 altogether. It was found that 5 teachers spent as
much as 4 engineers; 12 engineers spent as much as 9 doctors and 6 doctors
spent as much as 8 salesmen. If every person in a professional group spent the
same amount, the amount spent by each engineer is
a. Rs. 18
b. Rs. 17.50
c. Rs. 14
d. Rs. 21

126. 110 Problem
In a family, each daughter has the same number of brothers as she has sisters and
each son has twice as many sisters as he has brothers. How many sons are there
in the family?
a. 4
b. 3
c. 2
d. 5

127. 111 Problem
Between two book-ends in your study are displayed your five favourite puzzle
books. If you decide to arrange the five books in every possible combination and
move just one book every minute, how long would it take you?
a. 3 hours
b. 2 hours
c. 1 hours
d. 4 hours

128. 112 Problem
A girl counted in the following way on the fingers of her left hand: she started by
calling the thumb 1, the index finger 2, middle finger 3, ring finger 4, little finger 5
and then reversed direction calling the ring finger 6, middle finger 7 and so on.
She counted upto 1994. She ended counting on which finger ?
a. Middle finger
b. Index finger
c. Thumb
d. Ring finger

129. Directions (Questions 113-115):
Raj gives a party at his place and four of his friends Sanjay, Arun, Mahesh and
Sahil come with their spouses Swate, Deepika , and Neelam not necessarily in
the same order. Raj's wife Simran is wearing a green Saree and the other four
ladies are wearing sarees of four different colours-black, blue, red and orange.
Each man dances with a lady who is not his own wife. Also.
Sanjay does not dance with Swati or Shruti
Shruli is wearing a red saree
Deepika is Arun's wife
Sahil dances with Neelam
Mahesh dances with Simran and his wife Swati is wearing an orange saree

130. 113 Problem
Who is Sahil's wife
a. Swati
b. Deepika
c. Shruti
d. Cannot be determined

131. 114 Problem
Who dances with shruti?
a. Raj
b. Sanjay
c. Arun or Raj
d. Arun or Sanjay

132. 115 Problem
What is the colour of the saree that Arun's wife is wearing?
a. Blue
b. Black
c. Red
d. 1 or 2

133. 116 Problem
Number of letters skipped in between adjacent letters in the series decreases by
one.
a. EJNQST
b. CINRTU
c. BGKNPR
d. LQUXAP

134. 117 Problem
In the following series, the number of letters skipped in between the adjacent
letters are in ascending order, i.e., 1, 2, 3, 4. Which one of the following letter
groups does not obey this rule?
a. GILPU
b. DFIMR
c. CEHLQ
d. HJMPT

135. 118 Problem
A man walks half of the journey at 4 km/hr by cycle, does one-third of journey at
12 km/hr and rides the remainder journey in a horse cart at 9 km/hr, thus
completing the whole journey in 6 hours and 12 minutes. The length of the
journey is
a. 40 km
b. 153 km
c. 36 km
d. 28 km

136. 119 Problem
Two trains, 130 and 110 metrs long, while going in the same direction, the faster
train takes one minute to pass the other completely. If they are moving in
opposite directions, they pass each other completely in 3 seconds. The speed of
the trains is
a. 42 m/s and 38 m/s
b. 38 m/s and 24 m/s
c. 42 m/s and 24 m/s
d. None of these

137. 120 Problem
A train consists of 12 bogies, each bogie is 15 metres long. The train crosses a
telegraph post in 18 seconds. Due to some problem, two bogies were detached.
The train now crosses a telegraph post in
a. 15 sec
b. 12 sec
c. 18 sec
d. 20 sec.

138. 121 Problem
Muan and Sanjay ran a race which lasted a minute and a half. Muan gave Sanjay a
start of 9 metres and beat him by 1 metre. Muan ran 40 metres while Sanjay ran
39 metres. The length of the course is
a. 395 m
b. 355 m
c. 400 m
d. 410 m

139. 122 Problem
What per cent selling price would be 34% of cost price if gross profit is 26% of
the selling price?
a. 25.16%
b. 74.00%
c. 17.16%
d. 88.40%

140. 123 Problem
X and Y entered into partnership with Rs. 700 and Rs. 600 respectively. After 3
months X withdrew 2/7 of his stock but after 3 months, he puts back 3/5 of what
he had withdrawn. The profit at the end of the year is Rs. 726. How much of this
should X receive?
a. Rs. 633
b. Rs. 366
c. Rs. 336
d. Rs. 663

141. 124 Problem
Anu owes Biresh, Rs. 1,120 payable 2 years hence, Biresh owes Anu, Rs. 1,081.50
payable 6 months hence. If they decide to settle their accounts forthwith by
payment of ready money and the rate of interest be 6% per annum, then who
should pay and how much?
a. Anu, Rs. 70
b. Biresh, Rs. 50
c. Anu, Rs. 50
d. Biresh, Rs.70

142. 125 Problem
The average of marks obtained by 120 candidates was 35. If the average of the
passed candidates was 39 and that of the failed candidates was 15, then the
number of candidates who passed the examination.
a. 100
b. 110
c. 120
d. 150

143. 126 Problem
Bhavika alone would take 8 hours more to complete the job than when Bhavika
and Rita worked together. If Rita worked alone, she would take 4— hours more to
complete the job than when Bhavika and Rita worked together. What
time would they take if both Bhavika and Rita
worked together?
a. 5 days
b. 4 days
c. 3 days ,
d. 6 days

144. 127 Problem
Ten men can finish a piece of work in 10 days, whereas it takes 12 women to
finish it in 10 days. If 15 men and 6 women undertake the work, how many days
will they take to complete it?
a. 4 1/2 days
b. 4 days
c. 5 days
d. 6 days

145. 128 Problem
The speed of a boat in still water is 4 km/hr and the speed of current is 2 km/hr. If
the time taken to reach a certain distance upstream is 9 hours, the time it will
take to go to same distance downstream is:
a. 3.5 hours
b. 2.5 hrs
c. 2 hrs
d. 3 hrs

146. 129 Problem
Two buses, one moving towards north and the other towards east, leave the
same place at the same time. The speed of one of them is greater than that of
the other by 5 km/hr. At the end of 2 hours, they are at a distance of 50 km from
each other. The speed of the bus going slower is
a. 15 km/hr
b. 12 km/hr
c. 10 km/hr
d. 20 km/hr

147. 130 Problem
If the ages of P and R are added to twice the age of Q ; the total becomes 59. If
the ages of Q and R are added to thrice the age of P, the total becomes 68, and if
the age of P is added to thrice the age of Q and thrice the age of R, the total
becomes 108. What is the age of P?
a. 17 years
b. 19 years
c. 15 years
d. 12 years

148. 131 Problem
If 6 years are subtracted from the present age of Randheer and the remainder is
divided by 18, then the present age of his grandson Anup is obtained. If Anup is 2
years younger to Mahesh whose age is 5 years, what is the age of Randheer?
a. 84 years
b. 48 years
c. 60 years
d. 96 years

149. 132 Problem
There are two concentric circular tracks of radii 100 m and 102 m, respectively. A
runs on the inner track and goes once round the track in 1 min in 30 sec, while B
runs on the outer track in 1 min 32 sec. Who runs faster?
a. Both A and B are equal
b. A
c. B
d. None of these

150. 133 Problem
The length and breath of playground are 36 m and 21m respectively. Poles are
required to be fixed all along the boundary at a distance 3 m apart. The number
of poles required will be.
a. 39
b. 38
c. 37
d. 40

151. 134 Problem
The average of 11 results is 50. If the average of first six results is 49 and that of
last six 452 the sixth result is:
a. 60
b. 56
c. 64
d. 70

152. 135 Problem
Out of 20 consecutive positive integers, two are chosen at random. The
probability that their sum is odd is
a. 19/20
b. 10/19
c. 1/20
d. 9/19

153. 136 Problem
A sum of money is rounded off to the nearest rupee. The probability that the
round off error is at least 10 paise is
a. 82/101
b. 19/100
c. 19/101
d. 81/100

154. 137 Problem
A photo measures 0.9 x cm. by 0.94 x cm. It is to be enlarged so that the larger
dimension wjll be 6 cm. The length of the enlarged shorter dimension will be (in
cm).
a. 5.74 x
b. 5.4 x
c. 5.64 x
d. 7.09 x

155. 138 Problem
The captain of a football team of 11 players is 25 years old and the goalkeeper is
3 years older. If the ages of these two are excluded, the average age of the
remaining players is 1 year less than the average age of the whole team. What is
the average age of the whole team?
a. 22.5 years
b. 23.5 years
c. 22 years
d. 25 years

156. Directions (Questions 139-143):
Choose the best option to fill the blanks.

157. 139 Problem
The best punctuation is that of which the reader is least conscious; for when
punctuation, or lack of it, itself, it is usually because it_______ .
a. conceals, recedes
b. enjoins, fails
c. obtrudes, offends
d. effaces, counts

158. 140 Problem
Their achievement in the field of literature is described as_______ ; sometimes
it is even called _______ .
a. significant, paltry
b. insignificant, influential
c. magnificent, irresponsible
d. unimportant, trivial.

159. 141 Problem
Companies that try to improve employees' performance by _____________
rewards encourage negative kinds of behavior, instead of _____ a genuine
interest in doing the work well.
a. conferring, discrediting
b. bestowing, discouraging
c. giving, seeking
d. withholding, fostering

160. 142 Problem
A growing number of these expert professionals_________ having to train
foreigners as the students end up the teachers who have to then unhappily
contend with no jobs at all or new jobs with drastically reduced pay packets.
a. welcome, assisting
b. resist, challenging
c. resent, replacing
d. are, supplanting

161. Directions (Questions 143-146):
In these questions, four alternative summaries are given below each text.
Choose the option that best captures the essence of the test.

162. 143 Problem
You seemed at first to take no notice of your school-fellows, or rather to set yourself against
them because they were strangers to you, they knew as little of you as you did of them; this
would have been the reason for their keeping aloof from you as well, which you would have
felt as a hardship. Learn never to conceive a prejudice against others because you know
nothing of them. It is bad reasoning, and makes enemies of half the world. Do not think ill
of them till they behave ill to you; and then strive to avoid the faults which you see in them.
This will disarm their hostility sooner than pique or resentment or complaint.
a. You encountered hardship amongst your school-fellows because you did not know
them well. You should learn to not make enemies because of your prejudices
irrespective of their behaviour towards you.
b. The discomfort you felt with your school-fellows was because both sides knew little of
each other. Avoid prejudice and negative thoughts till you encounter bad behaviour
from others, and then win them over by shunning the faults you have observed.
c. The discomfort you felt with your school-fellows was because both sides knew little of
each other. You should not complain unless you find others prejudiced against you and
have attempted to carefully analyse the faults you have observed in them.
d. You encountered hardship amongst your school-fellows because you did not know
them well. You should learn to not make enemies because of your prejudices unless
they behave badly with you.

163. 144 Problem
The human race is spread all over the world, from the polar regions to the tropics. The
people of whom it is made up eat different kinds of food, partly according to the climate in
which the live, and partly according to the kind of food which their country produces. In
hot climates, meat and fat are not much needed; but in the Arctic regions they.seem to be
very necessary for keeping up the heat of the body. Thus, in India, people live chiefly on
different kinds of grains, eggs, milk, or sometimes fish and meat. In Europe, people eat
more meat and less grain. In the Arctic regions, where no grains and fruits are produced,
the Eskimo and other races live almost entirely on meat arid fish.
a. In hot countries, people eat mainly grains while in the Arctic, they eat meat and fish
because they cannot grow grains.
b. Hot climates require people to eat grains while cold regions require people to eat meat
and fish.
c. Food eaten by people in different regions of the world depends on the climate and
produce of the region, and varies from meat and fish in the Arctic to predominantly
grains in the tropics.
d. While people in Arctic regions like meat and fish and those in hot regions like India
prefer mainly grains, they have to change what they eat depending on the local climate
and the local produce.

164. 145 Problem
Although, almost all climate scientists agree that the Earth is gradually warming, they have
long been of two minds about the process of rapid climate shifts within larger periods of
change. Some have speculated that the process works like a giant oven or freezer, warming
or cooling the whole planet at the same time. Others think that shifts occur on opposing
schedules in the Northern and Southern Hemispheres, like exaggerated seasons. Recent
research in Germany examining climate patterns in the Southern Hemisphere at the end of
the last Ice Age strengthens the idea that warming and cooling occurs at alternate times in
the two hemispheres. A more definitive answer to this debate will allow scientists to better
predict when and how quickly the next climate shift will happen.
a. Research in Germany will help scientists find a definitive answer about warming and
cooling of the Earth and predict climate shifts in the future in a better manner.
b. Scientists have been unsure whether rapid shifts in the Earth's climate happen all at
once or an opposing schedules in different hemispheres; finding a definitive answer will
help them better predict climate shifts in future.
c. Scientists have been unsure whether rapid shifts in the Earth's climate happen all at
once or on opposing schedules in different hemispheres; research will help find a
definitive answer and better predict climate shifts in future.
d. More research rather than debates on warming or cooling of the Earth and exaggerated
seasons in its hemispheres, will help scientists in Germany predict climate changes
better in future.

165. 146 Problem
Local communities have often come in conflict with agents trying to exploit resources, at a faster pace,
for an expanding commercial- industrial economy. More often than not, such agents of resource-
intensification are given preferential treatment by che state, through the grant of generous long leases
over mineral or fish stocks, for example, or the provision or raw material at an enormously subsidized
price. With the injustice so compounded, local communities at the receiving end of this process, have no
recourse except direct action, resisting both the state and outside exploiters through a variety of protest
techniques. Those struggles might perhaps be seen as a manifestation of a new kind of class conflict.
a. Preferential treatment given by the state to agents of resource-intensification for an expanding
commercial-industrial economy exacerbates injustice to local communities and leads to direct
protests from them, resulting in a new type of class conflict.
b. The grant of long leases to agents of resource-intensification for an expanding commercial industrial
economy leads to direct protests from the local community, which sees it as unfair.
c. A new kind of class conflict arises from preferential treatment given to agents of resource-
intensification by the state, which the local community sees as unfair.
d. Local communities have no option but to protest against agents of resources- intensification and
create a new type of class conflict when they are given raw material at subsidized prices for an
expanding commercial-industrial economy.

166. Directions (Questions 147-150):
Choose the order of the sentences marked, A, B, C, D and E to form a logical
paragraph.

167. 147 Problem
A. The story that shocked her most, who bought a pair of boots for her boy
serving in Iraq.
B. The ones he had been given were useless, the women said; they were
melting in the heat, her son was getting foot row.
C. So she bought him a new pair.
D. Only she couldn't afford to post the two together.
E. She had to send one, then wait till the next benefit payment had come
through to send the other.
a. ABECD
b. ABEDC
c. ABDEC
d. ABCDE

168. 148 Problem
A. The British government plans to insist that spouses should have to learn English before they are
allowed into Britain to join their husbands or wives have run into a barrage of opposition and
warnings that the idea could breach human rights laws.
B. The responses to an official consultation on the proposal published on Thursday was more than two
to one against the proposal, with many warning it could break up marriages because many cannot
afford or access English lessons.
C. Immigration lawyers have told ministers that spouses and fiancees should not be barred from
joining a partner in the U.K. for language reasons and that the plan could breach the human rights
convention's guarantees to the right to marry and have a family life.
D. The anonymised responses were 68 to 31 against the pre-entry English test for spouses'.
E. Other immigration organizations said the measure would discriminate against those from rural areas
in South Asia, where the opportunities to learn English are limited.
a. ABECD
b. ABDCE
c. ABCDE
d. ACDBE

169. 149 Problem
A. Obviously when the raging inflation is underpinned to a large extent by food prices, the
determination of procurement prices for paddy and wheat has an enormous contextual significance.
B. After the last winter crop, the government claims to have procured ample quantities of wheat for
sustaining the public distribution system.
C. The high procurement price has been an effective inducement.
D. While some of these might be revisited in the light of satisfactory harvests and procurement, the
delay in fixing the MSPs is retrograde. For paddy, the MSP, even if ad hoc, has now been announced,
but for other major crops the prices are yet to be declared.
E. The government's other measures to contain food prices included a ban on the export of non-
basmati rice - and a few other commodities.
a. BCDEA
b. ABEDC
c. ABCED
d. DCEAB

170. 150 Problem
A. Eight years after starting the programme of providing single-dose nevirapine to cut mother-to-child
transmission of HIV, the National AIDS Control Organisation (NACO) is reassessing the monotherapy
strategy.
B. Although hailed as a miracle that reduces the chances of vertical transmission by 45- 55 per cent
and protects thousands of children around the world from getting infected with HIV at the time of
birth, the single-dose regime has been found to cause drug resistance in mothers and babies.
C. Drug resistance is a major problem, especially where the drugs available to treat the virus are few
and the cost of second-line drugs is prohibitive.
D. There is a great compulsion to maintain the efficacy of existing drugs and reduce the risk of
treatment failure.
E. With drug resistance rising steadily for various reasons, including a lack of compliance by those
undergoing treatment, compounding the risk though wrong medical intervention is obviously
unacceptable.
a. ABCED
b. ABDEC
c. ADEBC
d. ABCDE

171. Directions (Questions 151-170)
Read the passages to answer these questions.

172. PASSAGE-I
Most of us, who are concerned about global warming agree that an important part of any strategy
designed to stem the ongoing build-up of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere will be to capture and
store C02. Potential storage sites include spent oil fields, saline aquifers, layered basalts and the deep
ocean. While Greenpeace accepts the inevitability that CO, will be captured and stored, it strongly
opposes storage in the deep sea. As it is clear that virtually all the C02 released to the atmosphere as a
result of fossil fuel burning will ultimately find its way to the deep sea, its objection is focused on the
"point pollution" created by purposeful injections of C02. The fear is that such an activity will put at risk
benthic biota— the community of creatures and plants in the deep sea — living in the vicinity of the
injection sites. In February 2007,1 contacted Bill Hare, a senior scientist at Greenpeace, asking him to
reconsider his organisation's stance against experiments to evaluate the environmental consequences of
C02 injected into the deep sea. I pointed out that if marine disposal proves to be economically favorable,
and if push comes to shove, forces more powerful than Greenpeace will probably intervene and deep
sea disposal will commence without adequate testing and evaluation.
Hare agreed to reconsider this matter in consultation with members of his and other like-mided
organizations. Ir} June 2007, he reported back that no change in policy would be made. What is known
about deep ocean storage? First, in order to ensure that the injected C02 has adequate time to mix
throughout the deep sea, injection should be at depths greater than 3,500 metres — that is, the depth

173. below which "liquid" C02 becomes more dense than sea water. Experiments conducted by Peter Brewer,
of the Monterey Bay Aquarium Research Institute, not only confirm that this is the case but also
demonstrate that the C02 injected rapidly reacts with sea water to form a solid clathrte, which is more
dense than both liquid C02 and sea water. Hence, the injected C02 would end up on the sea floor as a
slush. This would gradually dissolve, releasing the C02 to the surrounding sea water, where it would react
with the dissolved carbonate and borate ions to become chemically bound in the form of bicarbonate
ion. As the concentration of carbonate and borate ions is small, the neutralization would take place
gradually as the C02 rich sea water mixed into the surroundings. We know that, based on radiocarbon
measurements, the residence time of water in the abyssal Atlantic is in the order of 200 years. For the
Indian Ocean, it is about 800 years, and for the Pacific about 1,000 years. As the deep Pacific has the
largest volume, and is adjacent to earthquake-prone land areas where below- ground storage could not
be safely done, it will be a prime target for storage. A conservative upper limit on the storage capacity of
the deep Pacific would be to require that the C02 concentration in the water returning to the surface not
be allowed to exceed the concentration in cold surface water at equilibrium with the atmosphere. Was
this the limit to be adopted, then the capacity of water deeper than 1,500 metres in the Pacific would be
about 480 gigatons of C02 or about 130 gigatons of carbon for each 100 parts per million rise in
atmospheric C0 content. We know enough to say with confidence that keep ocean disposal of C0 is

174. certainly feasible, but unless small-scale pilot experiments are conducted, information necessary to
assess the impact on the macro abyssal biota will remain obscure. The injections could be made from
ships equipped for deep sea drilling, and if the C02 were tagged with radiocarbon its dispersal away from
the sea floor clathrate pile could be sensitively monitored. Studies of the costs associated with ocean
disposal would also be conducted. The C02 would have to be sent through pipelines from its collection
point to a port, where it would be loaded on tankers that would carry it to a floating ocean station, from
which it would be piped to the abysis. Putting aside the opposite by the environmental community,
ocean disposal will become a viable option only if the costs are competitive with those associated with
storage in hyper-saline continental aquifers. As any strategy designed to stem the build-up of
greenhouse gases will have adverse environmental consequences, we must seek to minimize their
impact. To the extent that we could capture and store C02 produced by fossil fuel burning, we would
reduce the acidification of the surface ocean, and hence the. If so, assuming the limit described above
were to be observed, then once spread through the deep sea, the injected C02 would not adversely
impact on benthic biota. However, I sympathise with those who claim that the benthic world is a fragile
one. Hence, before we poke it with C02, we should do our homework. Therefore, I challenge Greenpeace
relax its stand and allow a pilot project to proceed.

175. 151 Problem
The residence time of water in the abyssal of the Indian Ocean is about
_________ as per radiocarbon measurements.
a. 1000 years
b. 800 years
c. 200 years
d. None of these

176. 152 Problem
'Greenpeace' referred to in the passage is a/an
a. Environmental activist group.
b. body under United Nations.
c. research and development organization.
d. aquarium research institute

177. 153 Problem
The recommendation of the author of the passage as regards storage of C02
is to
a. carry out cost benefit study.
b. store in spent oil fields.
c. oppose storage in the deep sea.
d. undertake the pilot project.

178. 154 Problem
Which one of the following is/are true?
a. The community of plants and organisms in the deep sea living in the vicinity
of injection sites will be at great risk.
b. An important strategy to check the atmospheric increase of greenhouse gases
is to capture and store C02.
c. Feasibility of deep ocean disposal of C02 is to be assured through small scale
experiment.
d. All these.

179. PASSAGE II
The IPL cricket mania across the country is over. Every sports lover in India was glued to the TV sets to
watch some of the finest actions of overseas as well as fringe players for over a month. It was interesting
to see the intense battle from all the participating teams. The event gave immense opportunities to
players like Asnodkar, Kohli, Yusuf Pathan, Badrinath and Dhawan to exhibit their true potential, whether
they make it to the India XI or not. The mega extravaganza must have helped them to pocket hefty prize
money and organizers must have earned in millions signifying the commercial interest in the
championship. The country has conveniently forgotten the rest of the sports and total attention has once
again shifted to cricket. Will the new sports minister do something to spruce up the prospects of other
games too? Not many of the present generation would know that India had even entered the quarter
finals of the Olympics football once upon a time. India had produced some of the all-time greats like
Milkha Singh, Dhyan Chand, Vijayan and P.T. Usha in different sports. But, now other than cricket and
tennis, no game gets as much attention as it deserves. From being the supreme power in hockey, we are
now fighting to qualify for major tournaments. Who is responsible for this dismal state of affairs in
sports? It is high time the government gave serious thought to revive the fortunes of other sports with
some initiatives. It is a fact that we have immense potential to excel in any sport but quite unfortunately
we do not have a proper system to develop out resources. First, we have to evolve' a three-tier system
that would enable developing the resources from school. As is happening in other countries, the process

180. should start right from the school level. Spoils should be integrated with regular school curriculum and
there should be a sports body in every district to identify potential children under different disciplines
and they should be given adequate and quality training. There should be more number of district level
tournaments at regular intervals to improve the standard of trainees. The second tier would be District
level and those successful at school level would come under this category. The final one is State category
and the players would qualify for being the part of State team. The training and development should be
a continuous process at all the three levels so that performers would continue to emerge at all age
groups. This system may be good enough to spot and groom potential sports personnel but if the parents
are not interests, what can be done? But not many parents encourages their children to take up sports as
their profession as it would never offer a definitive source of livelihood at a later date. Again not all
sports offer a viable source of income except cricket where one can mint money as long as he is playing.
At present, it is only the government PSUs, Banks and Petroleum companies that offer employment to
sports persons. Private companies may endorse players in their commercials but hardly offer any
permanent employment. They too should come forward to accommodate sports persons in their
companies. Because, mere honours and medals would do no good to players as they would remain in the
limelight only when they are active and successful.
I have read that our ace swimmer Kutraleeswaran is now actively pursuing his studies and has given up

181. swimming in the absence of continuous support and lucrative career. In our country, sports is a State
subject and the finding for this is neither allocated nor spent properly. The Central Government
should make adequate budgetary provision for each State and a monitoring mechanism be set up to
oversee the progress made. There should be no hesitation to spend on hiring good coaches to train all
players. If such sincere efforts are made, players with world class caliber can be groomed and India
can expect to excel in different disciplines other than cricket also.

182. 155 Problem
As per the Constitution of India, 'Sports' is a subject.
a. falling under the domain of both the Central as well as the State Government
and about which each can independently promulgate laws and lay down
rules.
b. falling under exclusive domain of the individual State Governments and Union
territories and from which the Central Government is specifically excluded.
c. falling under absolute domain of the Central Government of the Indian Union
and from which the States or the Union territories are specifically excluded.
d. None of these

183. 156 Problem
According to the passage, many parents are not encouraging their children to
take up sports as their profession because
a. sports personnel do not get employment other than in PSUs, Banks and
Petroleum companies.
b. all sports do not offer a viable sources of income except cricket where one
can mint money as long as he is playing
c. it would never offer a definite source of livelihood.
d. All these.

184. 157 Problem
According to the passage, which one of the following games is the most
popular and viable source of income?
a. Cricket
b. Football
c. Hockey
d. Tennis

185. 158 Problem
Which of the following statements is true?
a. Children should be given adequate and quality training.
b. There should be a sports body in every district to identify children having
potential under different disciplines.
c. Sports should be integrated with regular school curriculum.
d. All these

186. PASSAGE III
This is not a sudden and unexpected crisis: the signs have been around for some time now. Even though
international bureaucrats have been referring to the current problems in the world food situation as "a
silent tsunami", the truth is that this one could easily have been seen to be coming. Even so, its impact
has been powerful and quite devastating as food shortages and rapidly rising prices of food have
adversely affected billions of people, especially the poor in the developing world. It is also very much a
man- made crisis, resulting not so much from ineluctable forces of global supply and demand as from the
market-oriented and liberalizing policies adopted by choice or compulsion in almost all countries. These
policies have either neglected agriculture or allowed shifts in global prices to determine both cropping
patterns and the viability of farming, and also generated greater possibilities of speculative activity in
food items. Cultivators in developing countries have been ravaged by the fearsome combination of
exposure to import competition from highly subsidized agriculture in developed countries, removal of
domestic protection of inputs and reduced access to institutional credit — to the point that even the
global increase in agricultural prices after 2002 did not compensate sufficiently to alleviate the pervasive
agrarian crisis in much of the developing world. What are the symptoms of this crisis? The most
immediately evident feature is the rise in food prices. Globally, the prices of many basic food
commodities have not risen faster for more than three decades. In fact, even in recent years, food prices
internationally had shown only a modest increase until early 2007. But since then they have zoomed,

187. such that the International Monetary Fund (IMF) data show more than 40 per cent increase in world
food prices over 2007, and even more rapid increases in the first three months of this year. The food
price index of the Food and Agricultural Organisation (FAO) which includes national prices as well as
those in cross-border trades, suggests that the average index for 2007 was nearly 25 per cent above the
average for 2006. Apart from sugar, nearly eery other food crop has shown significant increases in price
in world trade over 2007. This trend has accelerated in the first few months of 2008. The increase has
been marked in essential food-grains, which are staples for most of the world's population. Global prices
of whet increased by 77 per cent in 2007 and of rice by nearly 20 per cent, which are some of the most
rapid annual increases in the past half- century. Since the start of 2008, world rice prices have soared
even more, increasing by nearly one-and- a-half items just in the first 100 days of the year. Wheat prices
have been highly volatile in the current year, increasing by 25 per cent in one day and th falling even
more sharply in early April, but still well above the levels of most of last year,. The price of corn —
another manor staple especially in Latin America — has more than doubled in the past two years. Across
developing countries there is evidence of growing shortage of food in retail trade, even if not always in
domestics production. The rice of food-grains have varied in intensity with the ability of different
governments to manage the global impact and ensure domestic supply. And prices of other food items
— ranging from meat and vegetables to edible oils — have also skyrocketed. The impact has been felt

188. most sharply in poor countries where the majority of people tend to spend around half of their family
budgets on food items, There have already been food riots in countries as far apart as Haiti, Guinea,
Mauritania, Mexico, Morocco, Egypt, Senegal Uzbekistan, Yemen, Bangladesh, the Philippines and
Indonesia. And many more countries are threatened by social unrest as rising food prices cause not
merely dissatisfaction but the spread of hunger. In several countries in Asia, such as Pakistan and
Thailand, troops have been deployed to guard food stocks and present seizure of grain from warehouses.
Even the institutions that have encouraged policies that have brought the situation to this pass have had
to sit up and take notice. World Bank President, Robert Zoellick, now estimates that such high food
prices could push more than 100 million people in low-income countries into deeper poverty.

189. 159 Problem
The term 'ineluctable' used in the message means
a. inescapable
b. unavoidable
c. Both (1) and (2)
d. None of these

190. 160 Problem
The food that forms the basis of traditional diet in Latin America is/are
a. corn
b. rice
c. wheat
d. All these

191. 161 Problem
The food crisis is mainly caused by
a. hoarding
b. market oriented and liberalizing policies
c. forces of supply and demand.
d. Tsunami

192. 162 Problem
The international food prices have increased by__________ per cent
since 2007 as per IMF.
a. 77
b. 20
c. 25
d. 40

193. PASSAGE IV
Historians and anthropologists have over the years provided us with a fairly good understanding of the
peopling of India, its evolution over centuries to its current diverse compositional fabric, its population
groupings in terms of geography, language,, culture and ethnicity as well as its characteristically unique
societal stratification and hierarchies. The billion-plus people of India today comprise 4,693
communities, which include several thousands of endogamous groups, speak in 325 functioning
languages and write in 25 different scripts. Now, as a result of what is perhaps the largest multi-
institutional research effort (at least in biology) in this country, we have a genetic basis to this
unparalleled diversity. This research effort began about five years ago under the name of the Indian
Genome Variation Consortium (IGV). It has involved many Indian anthropologists and over 150 scientists
drawn from six laboratories of the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR); the Indian
Statistical Institute (ISI), Kolkata; and The Centre for Genomic Application (TCGA), an institution in New
Delhi set up in the public-private-partnership (PPP) mode by the CSIR and the Chatteijee Group of
Kolkata. The six CSIR institutes are: the Institute of Genomics and Integrative Biology (GIB), Delhi, the
nodal institution for the consortium; the Central Drug Research Institute (CDRI), Lucknow; the Indian
Institute of Toxicology Research or IITR (formerly the Industrial Toxicology Research Centre), Lucknow;
the Institute of Microbial Technology (IMTECH), Chandigarh; the Indian Institute of Chemical Biology
(IICB), Kolkata; and the Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology (CCMB), Hyderabad. (Interestingly, the

194. letters in the acronym of the PPP institute — T, C, G, A also stand for the molecules called bases in
nucleotides, the fundamental structural units of deoxyribonucleic acid, or DNA, whose-ordering or
sequence in DNA codes for genetic information.) Many studies in the population genetics of the Indian
people have been carried out in the past, primarily from an anthropological perspective, but most of
them have been limited to certain identified population groups, This study, however, is unique because
the genetic information generated is of biomedical relevance. To obtain population-specific genetic
information, genes were selected on the basis of their established, or suggested but not proven, linkages
to certain common diseases and disorders. The study thus becomes significant from the perspective of
pharmacokinetics, or genetic-information-based medicine. The IGVC was launched as a response to the
International Hap Map Consortium launched in 2002 to map global genomic diversity, the Hap Map
study, which cost $100 million, covered 45 Japanese, 45 Chinese, 90 Caucasian and 90 African
individuals. Significantly, it failed to cover India. Even if it had, a population sample of the order of 45
would hardly have captured the diversity that is evident in a population that accounts for one-sixth of
the world population. Besides Hap Map, there are other genetic databases on worldwide populations —
such as DBSNP (2001), Celera (2002) and HGVBase (2004) — and on specific populations — such as the
Japanese JSNP (2002) — in the public domain. The Indian subcontinent is not represented in any of these
as well. The independent Indian effort has already provided considerable. genetic insight into the

195. people(s) of India. Its conceptually different approach focused on a smaller set of apparently "functional"
genes — because of the suggested disease linkages — and was carried out at about l/20th the cost of the
Hap Map study (Rs. 25 crore as of date). "The budget was significantly scaled down from the original
proposal of Rs. 113 crore based on a Hap Map-like approach," says Samir K. Brahmachari, Director-
General of the GSIR and former Director of the IGIB. The aim of the IGVC project is to obtain data on
about 1,000 such genes is 15,000 individuals drawn from different sub- populations so as to provide a
comprehensive genetic mapping of the country as a whole. This could serve as the template for
identifying reference sub- populations or groups predisposed to specific diseases. Appropriate medical
intervention could then target these populations.

196. 163 Problem
What is the unique nature of the research effort referred to in the passage?
a. The genetic information generated is of biomedical relevance.
b. There are over 150 scientists involved.
c. It has involved Indian anthropologists.
d. It collects population specific genetic information.

197. 164 Problem
The nodal institution for Indian Genome Variation Consortium is
a. Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology.
b. Indian Statistical Institute.
c. Council of Scientific and Industrial Research.
d. Institute of Genomic and Integrative Biology.

198. 165 Problem
Which of the following did not cover Indian population?
a. HGVBase
b. JSNP
c. Hap Map
d. All these

199. 166 Problem
The objective of Indian Genome Variation Consortium project is to
a. focus on functional genes.
b. carry out a cost effective study.
c. provide comprehensive genetic mapping of the whole country.
d. All these

200. PASSAGE V
Over the next few months the number of direct- to-home (DTH) satellite television players will double.
And though the current players have campaigned significantly for the DTH platform, consumers can
prepare to see and hear of the many virtues of the new medium, and be wooed by a wide range of offers
and packages. DTH's current reach may account for less than a tenth of the cable and satellite market at
7-8 lakhs, but thanks to the big time investment that Tata Sky and Dish TV have made in their brands and
in consumer education, awareness of the platform is quite high. Something that the new entrants such
as Reliance, Bharti and Videocon will surely be glad for. But given the huge untapped market to be
converted into DTH homes, no one is going easy on the advertising and marketing spends just yet. From
the promise of superior technology, prices comparable to those of analogue cable, and language- and
geography-sensitive packages, consumers will have lots to look forward to. More interactive features and
freebies will he used as baits. Clever advertising campaigns will accompany the marketing efforts. The
new players are hoping to match, if not outdo, Sun Direct, Tata Sky and Dish TV in promoting their
services. If we do the maths then, based on what current players are believed to be spending, it will take
the category to about Rs. 800 crore next year. That explains the profile of the lice nee-holders; big
players with deep pockets. Dish TV, the largest and oldest of the pay DTH players, spent nearly Rs. 100
crore on advertising last financial, almost 23 per cent of its annual net revenues. Nonetheless, it will still
hike its budget. Videocon plans to spend more than Rs. 150 crore on brand and service communication

201. of its direct-to-home service, D2H+, according to its Director, Saurabh Dhoot. Tata Sky is not listed and
would not share or comment on its ad and marketing spends but is believed to spend just as much if not
more. Reliance said it wouldn't be outdone. Industry sources say its budget is estimated at Rs. 200 crore
a year, with 20 per cent reserved for the launch month a few weeks away. Jawahar Goel, Managing
Director, Dish TV, describes it as 'land grab mode'. There's time yet for the brands to fight each Other. For
now they are all betting on the fast growing share of the DTH pay-TV platforms in cable and satellite
households and rising average revenue per user. "All the spends will certainly help grow the category."
No matter how clever a campaign, when you get to the retailer, who, let me remind you, gets a
commission, he may just convince you to pick a competitor's product. Or you may just change your mind
depending on the offer available at the moment, says Gool Big TV's being test run since January and is to
launch with arour 250 channels, at least 32 of which will be movie channels, some of them Reliance's
own. A special discounted offer has already been made to the Reliance Communications' network of STD
booth operators. The company dismissed reports of a 'free television" at launch offer, but tie-ups with
LCD television makers themselves offering big discounts to Big TV customers was not ruled out. New
players will have to take a cue from current ones and subsidies hardware; Sun Direct is offering its brand
for a monthly service charge of just Rs. 75. Dish TV announced an offer recently that gave away the
hardware

202. for free, but sold consumers hours of video on demand. A free set- top box finally, then? The entry price
will be critical; however, set-top boxes may not be dished out for free by others. "My personal view is
that offering your brand for free is not a good idea. You can price it competitively, and even offer
freebies, but giving it away for nothing reduces the value of the brand," says Anirudhha Banerjee,
President and COO of Publicis Ambience, the agency, which has bagged Videocon's D2H+ account.
Dhoot, however, hints at "bigger surprises" when the brand is launched. Exclusive D2H+ stores that will
also provide after sales service and recharge vouchers through home delivery have been planned for
across the country. It will also have to its advantage Videocon's access to 85 per cent of 55,000 retail
points in the consumer electronics space, and after sales service that it claims makes five million
consumer contacts. "Along with this we will leverage our existing Next and Planet. M network along with
our logisties and service infrastructure," says Dhoot, stressing that its DTH brand, however, will be
distinct from the Videocon brand. Reliance will similarly leverage its telecom business for bundling
billings and its chain of 250 Web Worlds across 105 cities and Reliance communication franchise stores. If
required, Tata Sky says, it can also draw on associated companies for similar synergies. But for now it's
focused on offering consumers "affordable packages" such as the Rs. 200 package that it's currently
advertising. "It's a price point that's cheaper than that of cable too. And we are offering our consumers
choice, and attractive schemes as well as value-added services," says Vikram Mehra, Chief Marketing

203. Officer. Like a package of non -English channels that has mass appeal, and cooking recipes on demand for
upmarket audiences. Before December, Tata Sky will start marketing its Personal Video Recorder,
allowing for more convenient and non-linear manner of viewing television content. Dish TV has plans for
Digital Video Recorders. Forward through the anchor intros in talent shows, rewind and watch your
favourite cricketer hit a six many times over if you please, or delight in the vamp slapping the bahu three
times again. The new entrants are likely to highlight their more current technology. "Our services will be
unique as well will provide bouquets with a regional flavour. We will be on MPEG4 platform with DVB S2,
a striking difference when compared to the current services available from the competition. It will be the
first time in the world, says Dhoot, Reliance, which will also run on MPEG4 technology, has also set up a
"redundant" or back-up uplinking station in Bangalore for disruption-free telecast. More friendly
multilingual user interfaces, regional packages and a larger and more current library of movies are some
of the other features to look forward to. For advertisers a DTH client is not just a big spender. As Publicis'
Banerjee explains, the combination of media and entertainment lends itself to some interesting and fun
creative work. "There is always something new to work on, be it the multi- angle cricket telecast or the
value-added service of Active Darshan. For the latter, we did something very different but still managed
to maintain the 'jhingalala' proposition of fun," says Ashutosh Karkhanis, Creative Director at Rediffusion
DY&R, which handles the Tata Sky account. Shah Rukh Khan, who endorses Dish TV, and is expected to

204. do so till end of the year, is also expected to have competition. What strategy Bharti and Reliance will
adopt for their brands is being guarded fiercely as the launch dates approach. The primary game,
however, will still be that of category selling. "Our research shows us that the consumer is aware of it
being a better product, but there hasn't been enough motivation for them to make the move. The cost
factor is just one of the reasons, but the other argument has been that the local operator provides some
sort of familiarity and comfort," says Publicis Ambience's Banerjee. Consumers also tend to shrug off
claims of superior quality. That's why Tata Sky has buses and minivans on the road as part of its below-
the-line marketing activities that also cover road shows and melas. Seeing is believing-. "We've seen that
in cities such as Mumbai or Gurgaon, when we install our dish in one house within a month or two the
entire building has made the switch and is ours," says Mehra, whose company is facilitating subscriptions
through credit card payments via telephones. The DTH players could have, like they did in the past,
benefited from an extension of the conditional access system (CAS). When pockets of the three metros
of Delhi, Mumbai and Kolkata were deprived of their favourite pay channels, Tata Sky and Dish TV
scooped up stranded television audiences. With talk of elections, the next phase of CAS proposed in new
pockets of the three metros could be pushed to beyond December, as forcing the citizen to pay more for
anything, including their daily dose of television entertainment, will never be welcome.

205. 167 Problem
According to the passage, the new DTH entrants will be glad due to the consumer
education imparted by
a. Dish TV
b. Tata Sky
c. Both (1) and (2)
d. None of these

206. 168 Problem
Which of the following is true?
a. Clever campaign need not necessarily be productive.
b. Seasonal offers may change the mind-set of the consumers.
c. Retailer may convince the consumer to pick up competitor's brand.
d. All these

207. 169 Problem
According to Publicis Ambience official, in spite of the consumer being aware of
better products, the reason that the consumer does not buy those is
a. lack of motivation
b. cost factor
c. familiarity with local operator
d. Both (2) and (3)

208. 170 Problem
Which DTH television player has offered the hardware free?
a. Tata Sky
b. D2H+
c. Dish TV
d. None of these

209. Directions (Questions 171-175):
Read the following table carefully to answer these questions.
Details of Leading Openers' Performance in 20 One-day Cricket Matches
No. of matches
Total Highest with runs
Openers Runs Runs 100 or 50-99 0's
more
A 994 141 5 3 1
B 751 130 1 8 2
C 414 52 — 2 2
D 653 94 - 4 1
E 772 85 - 7 -

210. 171 Problem
What is the difference between the average runs of top two openers in terms of
highest runs, if matches having 0's were ignored?
a. 11.1
b. 13.7
c. 4,7
d. None of these

211. 172 Problem
If matches having zero runs and the one with highest runs is ignored, what will be
the average runs for opener C?
a. 20.7
b. 21.79
c. 21.29.
d. 21.17

212. 173 Problem
By how much, does the difference between the two highest total runs differ
from the difference between the two lowest total runs?
a. More by 4
b. More by 18
c. Lower by 18
d. None of these

213. 174 Problem
Which of the given pairs of openers have ratio 3:2 in their highest runs?
a. A and D
b. B and C
c. B and D
d. D and C

214. 175 Problem
Excluding the match with the highest runs and matches with 50-99 runs, what
will be the approximate average runs for opener B?
a. 10
b. 15
c. 25
d. None of these

215. Directions (Questions 176-178):
The bar-graph and line graph show the numbers of males and females
two towns X and Y respectively.

216. 176 Problem
Find the ratio of the average number of males of X and that of Y for the given
period.
a. 49:48
b. 48:49
c. 237:230
d. 230:237

217. 177 Problem
The population of X and Y in 2004 is how many times that in 2002?
a. 1.02
b. 0.94
c. 1.06
d. 0.91

218. 178 Problem
Find the number of years in which the number of females for X and Y are less
than their respective average numbers.
a. 3
b. 4
c. 2
d. 5

219. Directions (Questions 179-184):
Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements
numbered I and II. Decide whether the data provide in the statements are
sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and mark answer as
a. if the question can be answered with the help of both the statements, but not
with the help of either of the statements by itself.
b. if the question can be answered with the help of statement II alone.
c. if the question can be answered with the help of statement I alone.
d. if the question cannot be answered even with the help of both the given
statements.

220. 179 Problem
Is x/18 an integer?
I. x/6 is an integer.
II. x/3 is an integer.

221. 180 Problem
Is Q an integer or a fraction?
a. P + Q is an odd integer.
b. P - Q is an odd integer

222. 181 Problem
k > 100.
Is it a prime number ?
a. When k is divided by 16, the remainder is 9.
b. 7 k is not a prime number.

223. 182 Problem
P > Q > R > S, S is positive. Is PQ/RS an integer?
a. P and Q are prime numbers.
b. R and S are prime numbers.

224. 183 Problem
p and q are integers. Is q even?
I. 4p + 6q is even.
II. Ap + 7 q is even.

225. 184 Problem
a, b, c, d, e, f and g are consecutive integers. Is e oda?
a. bf is even
b. a/is even.

226. Directions (Questions 185-186):
Study the following line graph to answer these questions.
Railway Time Schedule of an Express Train X Running Between city A and City H
a -> Arrival of train d —> Departure of train
A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H -» Cities through which train runs.
o — d Indicates stoppage/halting of the train at the city station.

227. 185 Problem
Between how many pairs of consecutive stations does the speed run below the
overall average speed of the entire trip?
a. 1
b. 3
c. 4
d. 2

228. 186 Problem
The train begins its onward journey from city A and it is extended to beyond city
H to a city M due to some unavoidable reason. The train starts is return journey
immediately after it reached city M. The train returns with a speed of 90 km/hr
without any stoppages in between and reaches city At 2.25 AM. The distance
between city H and city M is
a. 90 km
b. 70 km
c. 40 km
d. 900 km

229. 187 Problem
In its thirteenth flight PSLV-C9 successfully launched ten satellites with a total
weight of 820 kg. Which of the following satellites launched by PSLV-C9 is not a
nano satellite?
a. RUBIN-8A
b. NLS-5
c. NLS-4
d. IMS-1

230. 188 Problem
Entero Virus 71 (EV 71) is responsible for
a. skin infection
b. a new form of bird flu
c. Japanese encephalitis
d. hand-foot-mouth disease

231. 189 Problem
The cyclone that struck Myanmar in May 2008 was
a. Fanoos
b. Nargis
c. Willy-Willy
d. Nasim

232. 190 Problem
Recently SEBI has exempted the people of__________ for mentioning
Permanent Account Number (PAN) while trading mutual funds.
a. Nagaland
b. Arunachal Pradesh
c. Sikkim
d. Jammu and Kashmir

233. 191 Problem
Presently the Postal Index Number (PIN) is in six digits. But from 2009, the
government has proposed to introduce PIN containing.
a. 9 digits
b. 8 digits
c. 7 digits
d. 10 digits

234. 192 Problem
27 March, 1995, was Monday, then what day of the week was 1 November 1994.
a. Monday
b. Sunday
c. Tuesday
d. Wednesday

235. 193 Problem
Which of the following organizations/banks has done a commendable work in the
field of micro finance and was awarded Nobel Prize also in the past?
a. ASHA
b. CRY
c. Gramin Bank of Bangladesh
d. NABARD

236. 194 Problem
The Foreign Exchange Reserves of India are kept in the custody of
a. Prime Minister Rahat Kosh
b. International Monetary Fund
c. World Bank
d. Reserve Bank of India

237. 195 Problem
Nobel Prizes are not given for the performance in the area of
a. Chemistry
b. Physics
c. Literature
d. Music

238. 196 Problem
Which of the following indexes is developed to measure life expectancy, level of
literacy, education and standard of living people in a country?
a. Human Development Index
b. Sensex
c. Inflation
d. SLR

239. 197 Problem
Which company has recently acquired anglo- American drug maker Glaxo Smith
Kliner Mundogen generic business in Spain for an undisclosed sum?
a. Ranbaxy
b. Dr. Reddy's Lab
c. Remidex Pharma
d. Alembics

240. 198 Problem
As per the new guidelines issued by the Securities and Exchange Board of India
(SEBI) now the listed firms are required to have minimum Public holding up to the
level of
a. 10%
b. 15%
c. 20%
d. 25%

241. 199 Problem
In an Examination, a pupil's average were 63 per paper. If he had obtained 20
more marks for this Geography paper and 2 more marks for his history paper, his
average mark per paper would have been 65. How many papers were there in
the examination?
a. 9
b. 8
c. 10
d. 11

242. 200 Problem
A boatman row to a place 45 km distant and back in 20 hours. He finds that he
can row .12 km with the stream in the same time as .4 km against the stream.
Find the speed of the stream.
a. 3 km/hr
b. 2.5 km/hr
c. 4 km/hr
d. Cannot be determined

243. FOR SOLUTION VISIT WWW.VASISTA.NET/