1.Assess the main steps involved in developing an effective stra.docxKiyokoSlagleis
1.
Assess the main steps involved in developing an effective strategic plan. Discuss how the steps may differ for a health care organization compared to another industry.
2.
Evaluate the key factors involved in SHEEPED (socioeconomic factors, health care resources and utilization, epidemiological factors, economic factors, political factors, environmental factors, and demographic factors) and their important role in strategic planning. Discuss why it is important for one to consider and include each factor.
.
1.Choose one of the critical steps to building a secure organi.docxKiyokoSlagleis
1.
Choose one of the critical steps to building a secure organization. In 350- to 700-words, explain how and why this step is used in an organization to protect information assets.
2.
In 350- to 700-words, discuss the challenges that leaders and security professionals encounter when trying to balance policy, training, and technology to secure organization information systems.
APA Formatting
Please provide three scholarly references.
.
1.Briefly summarize the purpose of the implementation phase in SDLC..docxKiyokoSlagleis
1.Briefly summarize the purpose of the implementation phase in SDLC. Explain why it exists and what it contributes to the completion of the system.
3.Explain the role and interests of the project champion, organizational management, and end users regarding a new system project. How will each impact the organizational feasibility of the project?
4.What are the three fundamental analysis strategies? Compare and contrast the outcomes of each strategy.
5.What are the four types of use cases? When are each used?
6.Requirements’ gathering is an important phase in a project. Discuss requirements gathering techniques and some advantages and disadvantages of each.
7.Define “scope creep” and discuss how a project manager can avoid it.
9.Describe the following object-oriented programming terms:
Encapsulation
Inheritance
Polymorphism
.
1.Choose four standard corporate executive positions and des.docxKiyokoSlagleis
1.
Choose
four standard corporate executive positions and
describe
their roles on the IT Steering Committee.
2.
Explain the relationship
between the IT architecture and the IT Roadmap used in the IT Strategic Plan.
3.
Different kinds of personnel are required to staff an IT department depending on their IT strategy.
For the two organizations below
, identify four IT positions
that are most important in each organization and
why
.
a.
An organization whose IT strategy is to outsource as much of their IT as possible, and
b.
An organization whose IT strategy is to develop proprietary, in-house applications that directly support their business and operation.
4.
Explain
what business continuity planning is,
who should create the plan
, and the
role of IT
.
5.
Explain what it means to say that the “IT Strategic Plan is aligned to the business Strategic Plan”.
6.
Explain risk management
and
what it
means to the CIO.
7.
Give an example
of a tangible (quantifiable)
and
an intangible (qualitative) performance measure and
discuss the value of each
.
8.
The CIO is responsible for the business rules or requirements that generate a new system or changes to the existing system.
How is his/her role responsible for these changes
?
9.
What is change management and how does it relate to the IT organization?
.
1.An eassy talk about ethics by a ethics song. You can find a ethics.docxKiyokoSlagleis
1.An eassy talk about ethics by a ethics song. You can find a ethics song on youtube
2.
but please think deeply about meaning. I have attached an example. Notice that I used specific words to describe fairness in justice. You will recieve less than two points if you do not comprehend and use correctly words such as proportional fairness. doc
.
1.A school psychologist strongly believes a particular child is .docxKiyokoSlagleis
1.
A school psychologist strongly believes a particular child is in need of special services. What is the psychologist trying to control for if he or she uses the most recently normed test available?
2.
What are two benefits of the WASI?
3.
Identify three improvements of the WAIS-IV over the WAIS-III.
4.
Provide one advantage and one disadvantage of group-administered intelligence tests.
5.
Give three examples of extra-test behavior on an ability test.
6.
Name three recommended uses for the Woodcock-Johnson III.
7.
Name three things that would be included in the best approach to diagnosing a specific learning ability.
8.
What is the purpose of empirical criterion keying?
9.
Identify two functions of validity scales on personality tests.
10.
Identify a criticism of the MMPI that contributed to the need for developing the MMPI-2. Identify a criticism of the MMPI-2.What is the purpose of the inquiry stage of the administration of the Rorschach test?
11.
What is the purpose of the inquiry stage of the administration of the Rorschach test?
12.
Identify three criticisms of projective tests.
13.
What principle do assessors utilize when interpreting the TAT?
14.
Give an example of a behavioral assessment approach.
15.
What does a mental status exam assess?
16.
Give an example of the Barnum effect.
17.
Why is it recommended to utilize the BDI-II with other tests?
18.
What are three things that the Tower of Hanoi measures?
19.
Give an example of a performance assessment.
20.
What is an assessment center and what is it utilized for?
Essay Questions
The essay questions below are worth 10 points each.
1.
Compare and contrast two established personality assessments discussed in the course. Include in your discussion strengths and limitations of each measure.
2.
Throughout the course, issues related to cultural diversity have been addressed. Identify one intelligence, educational, or personality measure and describe its strengths and weaknesses as it relates to diversity.
3.
Identify and describe at least three ethical dilemmas or responsibilities a psychological assessor may face.
.
1.Choose one stanza from Aaron Abeytas thirteen ways of looking .docxKiyokoSlagleis
1.
Choose one stanza from Aaron Abeyta's "thirteen ways of looking at a tortilla", and explain how it parodies another poem. What do you notice about this particular stanza. What makes it humorous, or witty, or ambiguous, insightful, etc. (Note, just choose one stanza, not the whole poem.)
2.
Choose one poem from Chapter 14 that you identify with, or seem to have a connection to. Why do you like this poem? Explain in depth what you like or identify with, and include textual evidence from the poem.
3.
Your textbook authors put the terms
translation
and
parody
together in the same chapter (Chapter 15). Why do you think this is? What are the connections between translation and parody? How do they relate to each other?
the material is the peom from chapter 14
.
1.A psychologist is interested in learning more about how childr.docxKiyokoSlagleis
A psychologist wants to understand how children interact when unobserved during school. Observational research would allow the psychologist to directly see children's unwatched behavior, but it risks invading their privacy without consent. Gaining permission and ensuring anonymity would help address ethical concerns in observational research of children.
1.Assess the main steps involved in developing an effective stra.docxKiyokoSlagleis
1.
Assess the main steps involved in developing an effective strategic plan. Discuss how the steps may differ for a health care organization compared to another industry.
2.
Evaluate the key factors involved in SHEEPED (socioeconomic factors, health care resources and utilization, epidemiological factors, economic factors, political factors, environmental factors, and demographic factors) and their important role in strategic planning. Discuss why it is important for one to consider and include each factor.
.
1.Choose one of the critical steps to building a secure organi.docxKiyokoSlagleis
1.
Choose one of the critical steps to building a secure organization. In 350- to 700-words, explain how and why this step is used in an organization to protect information assets.
2.
In 350- to 700-words, discuss the challenges that leaders and security professionals encounter when trying to balance policy, training, and technology to secure organization information systems.
APA Formatting
Please provide three scholarly references.
.
1.Briefly summarize the purpose of the implementation phase in SDLC..docxKiyokoSlagleis
1.Briefly summarize the purpose of the implementation phase in SDLC. Explain why it exists and what it contributes to the completion of the system.
3.Explain the role and interests of the project champion, organizational management, and end users regarding a new system project. How will each impact the organizational feasibility of the project?
4.What are the three fundamental analysis strategies? Compare and contrast the outcomes of each strategy.
5.What are the four types of use cases? When are each used?
6.Requirements’ gathering is an important phase in a project. Discuss requirements gathering techniques and some advantages and disadvantages of each.
7.Define “scope creep” and discuss how a project manager can avoid it.
9.Describe the following object-oriented programming terms:
Encapsulation
Inheritance
Polymorphism
.
1.Choose four standard corporate executive positions and des.docxKiyokoSlagleis
1.
Choose
four standard corporate executive positions and
describe
their roles on the IT Steering Committee.
2.
Explain the relationship
between the IT architecture and the IT Roadmap used in the IT Strategic Plan.
3.
Different kinds of personnel are required to staff an IT department depending on their IT strategy.
For the two organizations below
, identify four IT positions
that are most important in each organization and
why
.
a.
An organization whose IT strategy is to outsource as much of their IT as possible, and
b.
An organization whose IT strategy is to develop proprietary, in-house applications that directly support their business and operation.
4.
Explain
what business continuity planning is,
who should create the plan
, and the
role of IT
.
5.
Explain what it means to say that the “IT Strategic Plan is aligned to the business Strategic Plan”.
6.
Explain risk management
and
what it
means to the CIO.
7.
Give an example
of a tangible (quantifiable)
and
an intangible (qualitative) performance measure and
discuss the value of each
.
8.
The CIO is responsible for the business rules or requirements that generate a new system or changes to the existing system.
How is his/her role responsible for these changes
?
9.
What is change management and how does it relate to the IT organization?
.
1.An eassy talk about ethics by a ethics song. You can find a ethics.docxKiyokoSlagleis
1.An eassy talk about ethics by a ethics song. You can find a ethics song on youtube
2.
but please think deeply about meaning. I have attached an example. Notice that I used specific words to describe fairness in justice. You will recieve less than two points if you do not comprehend and use correctly words such as proportional fairness. doc
.
1.A school psychologist strongly believes a particular child is .docxKiyokoSlagleis
1.
A school psychologist strongly believes a particular child is in need of special services. What is the psychologist trying to control for if he or she uses the most recently normed test available?
2.
What are two benefits of the WASI?
3.
Identify three improvements of the WAIS-IV over the WAIS-III.
4.
Provide one advantage and one disadvantage of group-administered intelligence tests.
5.
Give three examples of extra-test behavior on an ability test.
6.
Name three recommended uses for the Woodcock-Johnson III.
7.
Name three things that would be included in the best approach to diagnosing a specific learning ability.
8.
What is the purpose of empirical criterion keying?
9.
Identify two functions of validity scales on personality tests.
10.
Identify a criticism of the MMPI that contributed to the need for developing the MMPI-2. Identify a criticism of the MMPI-2.What is the purpose of the inquiry stage of the administration of the Rorschach test?
11.
What is the purpose of the inquiry stage of the administration of the Rorschach test?
12.
Identify three criticisms of projective tests.
13.
What principle do assessors utilize when interpreting the TAT?
14.
Give an example of a behavioral assessment approach.
15.
What does a mental status exam assess?
16.
Give an example of the Barnum effect.
17.
Why is it recommended to utilize the BDI-II with other tests?
18.
What are three things that the Tower of Hanoi measures?
19.
Give an example of a performance assessment.
20.
What is an assessment center and what is it utilized for?
Essay Questions
The essay questions below are worth 10 points each.
1.
Compare and contrast two established personality assessments discussed in the course. Include in your discussion strengths and limitations of each measure.
2.
Throughout the course, issues related to cultural diversity have been addressed. Identify one intelligence, educational, or personality measure and describe its strengths and weaknesses as it relates to diversity.
3.
Identify and describe at least three ethical dilemmas or responsibilities a psychological assessor may face.
.
1.Choose one stanza from Aaron Abeytas thirteen ways of looking .docxKiyokoSlagleis
1.
Choose one stanza from Aaron Abeyta's "thirteen ways of looking at a tortilla", and explain how it parodies another poem. What do you notice about this particular stanza. What makes it humorous, or witty, or ambiguous, insightful, etc. (Note, just choose one stanza, not the whole poem.)
2.
Choose one poem from Chapter 14 that you identify with, or seem to have a connection to. Why do you like this poem? Explain in depth what you like or identify with, and include textual evidence from the poem.
3.
Your textbook authors put the terms
translation
and
parody
together in the same chapter (Chapter 15). Why do you think this is? What are the connections between translation and parody? How do they relate to each other?
the material is the peom from chapter 14
.
1.A psychologist is interested in learning more about how childr.docxKiyokoSlagleis
A psychologist wants to understand how children interact when unobserved during school. Observational research would allow the psychologist to directly see children's unwatched behavior, but it risks invading their privacy without consent. Gaining permission and ensuring anonymity would help address ethical concerns in observational research of children.
1.A school psychologist strongly believes a particular child i.docxKiyokoSlagleis
1.
A school psychologist strongly believes a particular child is in need of special services. What is the psychologist trying to control for if he or she uses the most recently normed test available?
2.
What are two benefits of the WASI?
3.
Identify three improvements of the WAIS-IV over the WAIS-III.
4.
Provide one advantage and one disadvantage of group-administered intelligence tests.
5.
Give three examples of extra-test behavior on an ability test.
6.
Name three recommended uses for the Woodcock-Johnson III.
7.
Name three things that would be included in the best approach to diagnosing a specific learning ability.
8.
What is the purpose of empirical criterion keying?
9.
Identify two functions of validity scales on personality tests.
10.
Identify a criticism of the MMPI that contributed to the need for developing the MMPI-2. Identify a criticism of the MMPI-2.What is the purpose of the inquiry stage of the administration of the Rorschach test?
11.
What is the purpose of the inquiry stage of the administration of the Rorschach test?
12.
Identify three criticisms of projective tests.
13.
What principle do assessors utilize when interpreting the TAT?
14.
Give an example of a behavioral assessment approach.
15.
What does a mental status exam assess?
16.
Give an example of the Barnum effect.
17.
Why is it recommended to utilize the BDI-II with other tests?
18.
What are three things that the Tower of Hanoi measures?
19.
Give an example of a performance assessment.
20.
What is an assessment center and what is it utilized for?
Essay Questions
The essay questions below are worth 10 points each.
1.
Compare and contrast two established personality assessments discussed in the course. Include in your discussion strengths and limitations of each measure.
2.
Throughout the course, issues related to cultural diversity have been addressed. Identify one intelligence, educational, or personality measure and describe its strengths and weaknesses as it relates to diversity.
3.
Identify and describe at least three ethical dilemmas or responsibilities a psychological assessor may face.
.
1.According to the NIST, what were the reasons for the collapse of.docxKiyokoSlagleis
1.
According to the NIST, what were the reasons for the collapse of the Twin Towers on September 11, 2001? List and explain a minimum of four of the reasons given in the NIST report.
Your response should be at least 200 words in length. You are required to use at least your textbook as source material for your response. All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced; paraphrased and quoted material must have accompanying citations.
2.
Discuss the various collapse types and the indicators that firefighters must be aware of while operating on scene of an emergency. Include the dangers associated with each type of building construction and the importance of collapse zones during response and mitigation efforts.
Your response should be at least 200 words in length. You are required to use at least your textbook as source material for your response. All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced; paraphrased and quoted material must have accompanying citations
.
1.5 page for thisPlease review the Case Study introduction present.docxKiyokoSlagleis
1.5 page for this
Please review the Case Study introduction presented below...and provide a one to two page input on your thoughts relative this event. Please submit your input as a word document format (.doc). Please remember to cite the sources for your research.
Case Study - "Hubble Trouble":
Some years ago work began on the development of the Hubble Space Telescope....which was placed into low earth orbit in 1990.
The capability provided by the Hubble Space Telescope is a historic prescedent for mankind.....vis a vis the advanced imaging of the cosmos.....from a vantage point in space....free from image distortion caused by the earth's atmosphere.
Considerable care and planning was associated with the development of this complex space based instrument.
Unfortunately, the Hubble Space Telescope experienced several delays and cost over-runs.
The deployment of the Hubble Space Telescope was further delayed due to the un-related loss of the Space Shuttle Challenger.
Once the Hubble Space Telescope was ultimately deployed it was discovered that the telescope suffered from a significant optics error in the development of it's primary reflecting mirror.
Fortunately, a team was able to develop a solution to address this error....at considerable additional expense....and opportunity loss (vis a vis...the re-allocation of space shuttle missions to implement the solution....).
Questions:
What went wrong in the development of the Hubble Space Telescope ?
What was the impact / consequences associated with this error ?
What actions did the Hubble Space Telescope development team employ to preclude the problem from happening ?
Why weren't the actions that the team employed sufficient to prevent this embarassing problem from occuring ?
What Systems Engineering processes / actions should the James Webb Space Telescope development team consider employing to preclude such a problem from occuring in this successor space telescope ?
1.5 pagr for sumurry and
use the calculations in your summary for case study in fracture
.
1.) What is Mills response to the objection that happiness cannot b.docxKiyokoSlagleis
1.) What is Mill's response to the objection that happiness cannot be the rational purpose of life?
2.) What is Mill's view on "all the grand sources…of human suffering?"
3.) What is Mill's view of self-sacrifice?
4.) Why would someone object that the disinterested character and promotion of general welfare that utilitarianism demands is unreasonable to expect?
5.) What is Mill's response to the objection that the disinterested character and promotion of general welfare that utilitarianism demands is unreasonable to expect?
6.) Explain the objection that utilitarianism renders men cold and unsympathizing. What is Mill's reponse?
7.) Explain the objection that utilitarianism is a doctrine of expediency. What is Mill's response?
8.) Why would someone object that utilitarianism is flawed because there is not time to calculate consequences?
.
1.Add an example or evidence for each reasons ( i listd )why the use.docxKiyokoSlagleis
1.Add an example or evidence for each reasons ( i listd )why the use of animals in research is good ,and also add a example or evidence for that is not good .And write more sentences to make it persuasively for the thesis.(explain why is imortant to society)
2.Change the APA style to MLA style.
3.Add more sentences in conclusion
.
1.1. Some of the most serious abuses taking place in developing .docxKiyokoSlagleis
1.
1. Some of the most serious abuses taking place in developing countries deal with child labor, human slavery, sweatshops, bad governance, and environmental degradation. Select one (1) developing country, and examine the extent to which two (2) of these five (5) issues are occurring. Support your response with specific examples.
2.
2.
Select one (1) developing country, and discuss the fundamental actions that the leadership of the selected country is — or is not — taking to improve the living standards of its people. Next, using this same country, cite one (1) specific example of progress or regress that its government is making in terms of the economy, the political system, and the environment.
.
1.A population of grasshoppers in the Kansas prairie has two col.docxKiyokoSlagleis
1.
A population of grasshoppers in the Kansas prairie has two color phenotypes, green and brown. Typically, the prairie receives adequate water to maintain healthy, green grass. Assume a bird that eats grasshoppers moves into the prairie. How will this affect natural selection of the grasshoppers? How might this change in a drought year?
2.
You are a writer for “Consumer Reports” magazine and you are asked to design an experiment to evaluate the effectiveness of three brands of whitening strips for teeth.
Describe how you would do this using the Scientific Method. Include all of the steps, controls and variables.
3.
Viruses are not considered to be living organisms.
Name 4 characteristics you could identify to distinguish living organisms from viruses.
4.
Explain the process of cell division in animals.
Include a description of
interphase, mitosis and cytokinesis.
5.
Suppose someone presented data from their research that showed the DNA of a newly discovered species was composed of: 30% adenine, 30% guanine, 20% thymine, 20% cytosine. Based on what you know about DNA structure, explain why these data do not make sense.
6.
What are the differences between a covalent bond and an ionic bond?
7
.
Water is crucial for life as we know it. One of the most important characteristics of water is its ability to act as a solvent.
Explain why water is such a good solvent for polar and charged molecules.
8.
Suppose you are taking a cruise from California to Hawaii. About halfway there, the ship begins to sink. You are able to board a lifeboat, but now you are floating in the ocean waiting to be rescued. After several days, you are so thirsty that you bend over the side of the boat and drink lots of salty seawater.
Explain what you think will happen to your body within a few hours of drinking the ocean water, and explain biological basis for your reaction.
9.
What is DNA fingerprinting and explain how this could be used in court or on a TV show such as CSI?
10.
DNA and RNA are similar yet distinct components of the cell. Describe three differences between RNA and DNA with respect to their chemical composition and structure. Provide a detailed description of each characteristic you chose
in your response.
11.
Why would you quickly die if not for the action of enzymes in your cells?
.
1.5 pages single spaced, include References and when necessary, imag.docxKiyokoSlagleis
This document provides guidelines for a 1.5 page single spaced summary assignment, noting that reputable scientific sources from databases and organizations like the CDC and WHO should be used to ensure scientific facts rather than opinions are presented. References and images with captions can be included as necessary, using primary literature if needed.
1.1- What are the real reasons behind the existence of Racism W.docxKiyokoSlagleis
1.
1- What are the real reasons behind the existence of Racism? Why does it still exist despite been illegal by law?
-
Each paragraph is explaining one reason. The reasons should be supported with examples and quotations from reliable sources.
-
List some forms of Racism, such as color, cultural, ethnic racism.
2.
2- Racism in developed countries, how do governments in these countries are standing against racism? Are there genuine efforts to end it forever? Is it real that there are some politicians who are behind this rejected act to get benefits?
3.
3- Human Rights, Civil Rights Movement and other organizations. What are they have done to help in this case?
4.
4- How is Racism existing in sports? Give some examples of that and how people reacted about them?
IMPORTANT NOTEs:
1- THE WRITING MUST BE AN INTERNATIONAL STUDENT LEVEL ( undergraduate Student )
2- please i need good word and something reasonable not too Academic,
No plagiarism
·
3-4 pages’ research.
·
At least you should use two reliable sources.
·
No plagiarism at all, I mean 0%.
·
The research should include: introduction which has clear thesis, paragraphs and conclusion.
·
Work cites.
·
Provide links for the sources if you can
.
1.) Connect 3 Due October 4th2.) Connect 4 Due Octob.docxKiyokoSlagleis
1.)
Connect 3
:
Due October 4th
2.)
Connect 4
:
Due October 16th
3.)
Research Paper: 8 Pages total
(Have Refernces already) APA Format,
Due October 16
4.)
Group Case Paper:
Due Oct 4
No exact lenght (see below points you must have in the paper APA Format).
What are the lessons that you think are important from the Madoff investment fraud as part of that overall meltdown?
-
Examine what could be done to prevent others from pulling off such a scam in the future
-
Present whether or not this fiasco has changed the mentality of potential investors
-
Was there any “Silver Lining” to what happened with the fraud?
.
1. Write an equation in standard form of the parabola that has th.docxKiyokoSlagleis
1.
Write an equation in standard form of the parabola that has the same shape as the graph of f(x) = 2x
2
, but with the given point as the vertex (5, 3).
A. f(x) = (2x - 4) + 4
B. f(x) = 2(2x + 8) + 3
C. f(x) = 2(x - 5)
2
+ 3
D. f(x) = 2(x + 3)
2
+ 3
2 of 20
5.0 Points
Find the coordinates of the vertex for the parabola defined by the given quadratic function.
f(x) = 2(x - 3)
2
+ 1
A. (3, 1)
B. (7, 2)
C. (6, 5)
D. (2, 1)
3 of 20
5.0 Points
Find the vertical asymptotes, if any, and the values of x corresponding to holes, if any, of the graph of the following rational function.
g(x) = x + 3/x(x + 4)
A. Vertical asymptotes: x = 4, x = 0; holes at 3x
B. Vertical asymptotes: x = -8, x = 0; holes at x + 4
C. Vertical asymptotes: x = -4, x = 0; no holes
D. Vertical asymptotes: x = 5, x = 0; holes at x - 3
4 of 20
5.0 Points
"Y varies directly as the n
th
power of x" can be modeled by the equation:
A. y = kx
n
.
B. y = kx/n.
C. y = kx
*n
.
D. y = kn
x
.
5 of 20
5.0 Points
40 times a number added to the negative square of that number can be expressed as:
A.
A(x) = x
2
+ 20x.
B. A(x) = -x + 30x.
C.
A(x) = -x
2
- 60x.
D.
A(x) = -x
2
+ 40x.
6 of 20
5.0 Points
The graph of f(x) = -x
3
__________ to the left and __________ to the right.
A. rises; falls
B. falls; falls
C. falls; rises
D. falls; falls
Solve the following formula for the specified variable:
V = 1/3 lwh for h
7 of 20
Write an equation that expresses each relationship. Then solve the equation for y.
x varies jointly as y and z
A. x = kz; y = x/k
B. x = kyz; y = x/kz
C. x = kzy; y = x/z
D. x = ky/z; y = x/zk
8 of 20
8 times a number subtracted from the squared of that number can be expressed as:
A. P(x) = x + 7x.
B.P(x) = x
2
- 8x.
C. P(x) = x - x.
P(x) = x
2
+ 10x.
9of 20
Find the x-intercepts. State whether the graph crosses the x-axis, or touches the x-axis and turns around, at each intercept.
f(x) = x
4
- 9x
2
A. x = 0, x = 3, x = -3; f(x) crosses the x-axis at -3 and 3; f(x) touches the x-axis at 0.
B. x = 1, x = 2, x = 3; f(x) crosses the x-axis at 2 and 3; f(x) crosses the x-axis at 0.
C. x = 0, x = -3, x = 5; f(x) touches the x-axis at -3 and 5; f(x) touches the x-axis at 0.
D. x = 1, x = 2, x = -4; f(x) crosses the x-axis at 2 and -4; f(x) touches the x-axis at 0.
10 of 20
Find the domain of the following rational function.
f(x) = x + 7/x
2
+ 49
A. All real numbers < 69
B. All real numbers > 210
C. All real numbers ≤ 77
D. All real numbers
11 of 20
Write an equation in standard form of the parabola that has the same shape as the graph of f(x) = 3x
2
or g(x) = -3x
2
, but with the given maximum or minimum.
Minimum = 0 at x = 11
A. f(x) = 6(x - 9)
B. f(x) = 3(x - 11)
2
C. f(x) = 4(x + 10)
D. f(x) = 3(x
2
- 15)
2
12 of 20
Solve the following polynomial inequality.
3x
2
+ 10x - 8 ≤ 0
A. [6, 1/3]
B. [-4, 2/3]
C. [-9, 4/5]
D. [8, 2/7]
13 of 20
Find the coordinate.
1.A health psychologist in a northern climate wants to evaluate .docxKiyokoSlagleis
1.
A health psychologist in a northern climate wants to evaluate the claim that UV lamps help lower depressive symptoms in middle-aged women. She recruits volunteers who meet the criteria for clinical depression and assigns them to two groups: one group receives a standard treatment for depression and undergoes a half hour of UV lamp therapy each day; the other group receives the same standard treatment for depression but without UV lamp therapy. At the end of two months, she administers a depression inventory where lower scores indicate fewer depressive symptoms (lower levels of depression). Assume all other variables are controlled for in the study. Evaluate the claim that depression treatment plus the UV lamp results in
lower
depression scores than depression treatment alone. (16 pts)
Depression Treatment + UV
Depression
Treatment Only
34
29
43
31
29
25
12
14
31
17
22
19
27
32
39
29
13
41
26
23
47
31
25
14
24
37
41
42
a)
SPSS output
b)
SPSS graph
c)
Current APA-style Results section
.
1. You are a journalist in the present. You have just been assig.docxKiyokoSlagleis
1.
You are a journalist in the present. You have just been assigned to write a news story that evaluates the role of the United States during the Cold War era, specifically in Korea. Since your newspaper has a broad audience, you will need to include analysis of other shifts in this time period, including social, political, and economic changes in the Civil Rights movement as well as policies the U.S. takes that shape its role during the Cold War.
Your responses needs to be at least 200 words
2.
Evaluate the policies and doctrines that helped the United States shift from isolationism to a Superpower during the middle of the 20th century. Be certain to include specific events, doctrines, and people to make your point.
Your response needs to be at 150 words
.
1.) Defend which reform movement you feel was most successful in thi.docxKiyokoSlagleis
1.) Defend which reform movement you feel was most successful in this antebellum America; identify significant writings, leaders, methods, and obstacles faced when working towards this goal.
Your response must be at least 200 words in length.
2.) Identify the innovator from 1815-1860 you feel had the most significant impact on American culture and expansion, including which innovation(s) and why.
Your response must be at least 200 words in length.
3.)Take the perspective of an American citizen in 1837, and identify yourself: location, age, and occupation. Assuming this role with no future knowledge, describe your view of Andrew Jackson. Provide an opinion on at least three distinct issues that took place during his administrations (1829-1837). *I am female btw*
Your response must be at least 500 words in length
Everything must be cited in APA format and please use the textbooks as the main references:
Johnson, M. P. (2012). Reading the American past: Selected historical documents: Volume 1: To 1877 (5th ed.). Boston, MA: Bedford/St. Martin’s.
Roark, J. L., Johnson, M. P., Cohen, P. C., Stage, S., & Hartmann, S. M. (2014). The American promise: A concise history, volume 1: To 1877 (5th ed.). Boston, MA: Bedford/St. Martin’s.
.
1. What had the greater impact on bringing the US out of the Great .docxKiyokoSlagleis
1. What had the greater impact on bringing the US out of the Great Depression. President Franklin Roosevelt's New Deal or the second World War.
2. What qualities do you feel are essential to an effective governor? Explain why you feel they are essential. Use facts not opinions to support your claim.
Each question should be at least 200 words
.
1. Who was Robert Walpole and why was he important2. Wh.docxKiyokoSlagleis
This document contains 10 questions about important events and people leading up to the American Revolution, including Robert Walpole, colonial taxation policies like the Stamp Act and Townshend Acts, the Boston Massacre, and John Adams' defense of British soldiers involved. It asks about the relationship between Britain and its American colonies, reasons for increased taxation, protests in Massachusetts, and British assumptions and strategy entering the Revolutionary War.
1. a paper of at least 2 pages. This paper is based on A TRIP TO T.docxKiyokoSlagleis
1. a paper of at least 2 pages. This paper is based on A TRIP TO THE METROPOLITAN MUSEUM OF ART (main museum or Cloisters). Spend at least two hours in the museum and choose one work of art. The paper will examine 1) a brief history of the work and how it characterizes the period in which it was created, 2) for what (if any) purpose it was created, and 3) your reaction to the piece, including it's setting in the museum.
2. Symphonie fantastique
Please watch all five movements of "Symphonie fantastique" and write a reaction paper.
http://youtu.be/ l7chHNocFAc
This is the link to the 1st movement
3. Due Nov. 25
Please write a formal essay about your an "ism" (an art movement after Romanticism) of your choosings. Please use outside materials to write this paper, i.e. not only notes from class. Remember to use in-line citations and list work(s) cited at the end of the paper.
.
1. You are given only three quarterly seasonal indices and qua.docxKiyokoSlagleis
1. You are given only three quarterly seasonal indices and quarterly seasonally adjusted data for the entire year. What is the raw data value for Q4? Raw data is not adjusted for seasonality.
Quarter Seasonal Index Seasonally Adjusted Data
Q1 .80 295
Q2 .85 299
Q3 1.15 270
Q4 --- 271
(Points : 3)
[removed]
325
[removed]
225
[removed]
252
[removed]
271
Question 2.
2.
One model of exponential smoothing will provide almost the same forecast as a liner trend method. What are linear trend intercept and slope counterparts for exponential smoothing?
[removed]
Alpha and Delta
[removed]
Delta and Gamma
[removed]
Alpha and Gamma
[removed]
Std Dev and Mean
Question 3.
3.
Why is the residual mean value important to a forecaster?
(Points : 3)
[removed]
Large mean values indicate nonautoregressiveness.
[removed]
Small mean values indicate the total amount of error is small
.
[removed]
Large absolute mean values indicate estimate bias
.
[removed]
Large mean values indicate the standard error of the model is small.
Question 4.
4.
When performing correlation analysis what is the null hypothesis? What measure in Minitab is used to test it and to be 95% confident in the significance of correlation coefficient.
(Points : 3)
[removed]
Ho: r = .05 p < .5
[removed]
Ho: r = 1 p =.05
[removed]
Ho: r ≠ 0 p≤.05
[removed]
Ho: r = 0 p≤.05
Question 5.
5.
In decomposition what does the cycle factor (CF) of .80 represent for a monthly forecast estimate of a Y variable?
(Points : 3)
[removed]
The estimated value is 80% of the average monthly seasonal estimate
.
[removed]
The estimate is .80 of the forecasted Y trend value
.
[removed]
The estimated value is .80 of the historical average CMA values.
[removed]
The estimated value has 20% more variation than the average historical Y data values
.
Question 6.
6.
A Burger King franchise owner notes that the sales per store has fallen below the stated national Burger King outlet average of $1,258,000. He asserts a change has occurred that reduced the fast food eating habits of Americans. What is his hypothesis (H1) and what type of test for significance must be applied?
(Points : 3)
[removed]
H1: u ≥ $1.258,000 A one-tailed t-test to the left
.
[removed]
H1: u = $1.258,000 A two-tailed t-test.
[removed]
H1: u < $1.258,000 A one-tailed t-test to the left.
[removed]
H1: p < $1.258,000 A one-tailed test to the right
.
Question 7.
7.
The CEO of Home Depot wants to see if city size has any relationship to the current profit margins of the company stores. What data type will he likely use to determine this?
(Points : 3)
[removed]
Time series data of profits by store.
[removed]
Recent 10 year sample of profits by store.
1. Which of the following is an advantage of a corporationA.docxKiyokoSlagleis
1.
Which of the following is an advantage of a corporation?
A.
Permanence
B.
Dilution of ownership
C.
Elimination of double taxation
D.
Ease of formation
2.
A firm's sales increased by 50 percent and inventory was $100,000. According to the percent of sales
method of forecasting, what will the new inventory be?
A.
$150,000
B.
$175,000
C.
$100,000
D.
$120,000
3.
Which of the following is a
correct
statement about operating leverage?
A.
Operating leverage results from use of fixed instead of variable cost.
B.
Operating leverage is affected by the demand for the product.
C.
Operating leverage is associated with less risk and more certainty.
D.
Operating leverage results from using debt financing.
4.
If a firm produces 50,000 widgets and sells each unit for $20.50, what is the total revenue generated by
this production?
A.
$10,250,000
B.
$100,250
C.
$10,250
D.
$1,025,000
5.
If a firm substitutes fixed for variable costs, which of the following will occur?
A.
The use of financial leverage will be increased.
B.
The profits will always be higher.
C.
The break-even level of output will be reduced.
D.
The degree of operating leverage will be increased.
6.
Which of the following is an advantage of the sole proprietorship?
A.
Limited liability
B.
Ease of formation
C.
Joint ownership
D.
Ease of transfer of ownership
7.
Which of these situations offers the
best
rationale for organizing a business as a limited partnership?
A.
You want your small new business, which is operating out of your garage, to pay you and your partner (your spouse)
dividends for which income tax will only be paid by you or your business, not both.
B.
Management needs to raise money through a stock offering, but does not want to relinquish control of the business to
stockholders.
C.
You're an entrepreneur and you want two others' expertise, former business partners, to help execute your business plan.
D.
Management rejects the idea of personally assuming liability for the business.
8.
Which of the following statements about fixed costs is
correct?
A.
Fixed costs don't change with the size of the firm.
B.
Fixed costs are greater than variable costs.
C.
Fixed costs are paid before variable costs.
D.
Fixed costs don't change with the level of output.
9.
A product sells for $5 per unit. If fixed costs are $1,000 and variable costs are $2 per unit, what is the
degree of operating leverage at 2,000 units?
A.
2.0
B.
1.2
C.
1.0
D.
0.83
10.
Which of the following events would be
most likely
to increase the quantity breakeven point, assuming
other factors remain constant?
A.
Reduced marketplace competition enables LMN Corporation to raise its selling price for finance textbooks.
B.
The city council has finally been persuaded: Your taxi business will pay lower water and sewer rates.
C.
The pressure has subsided: The property owner, who rents space to your small manufac.
1. write about 500 words about a watching response to The bicycle.docxKiyokoSlagleis
1. write about 500 words about a watching response to “ The bicycle chief”.
2. write about 500 words about “The Southern Question” in Italy.
The Southern Question” refers to the social and economic disparities (duality) that exist between the Northern and Southern regions of Italy. These differences, as well as their causes, have been the subject of research from a number of disciplines: anthropology, sociology, politics and economics.
please due on time. 1/20 19:00 (about 23 hours)
.
1.A school psychologist strongly believes a particular child i.docxKiyokoSlagleis
1.
A school psychologist strongly believes a particular child is in need of special services. What is the psychologist trying to control for if he or she uses the most recently normed test available?
2.
What are two benefits of the WASI?
3.
Identify three improvements of the WAIS-IV over the WAIS-III.
4.
Provide one advantage and one disadvantage of group-administered intelligence tests.
5.
Give three examples of extra-test behavior on an ability test.
6.
Name three recommended uses for the Woodcock-Johnson III.
7.
Name three things that would be included in the best approach to diagnosing a specific learning ability.
8.
What is the purpose of empirical criterion keying?
9.
Identify two functions of validity scales on personality tests.
10.
Identify a criticism of the MMPI that contributed to the need for developing the MMPI-2. Identify a criticism of the MMPI-2.What is the purpose of the inquiry stage of the administration of the Rorschach test?
11.
What is the purpose of the inquiry stage of the administration of the Rorschach test?
12.
Identify three criticisms of projective tests.
13.
What principle do assessors utilize when interpreting the TAT?
14.
Give an example of a behavioral assessment approach.
15.
What does a mental status exam assess?
16.
Give an example of the Barnum effect.
17.
Why is it recommended to utilize the BDI-II with other tests?
18.
What are three things that the Tower of Hanoi measures?
19.
Give an example of a performance assessment.
20.
What is an assessment center and what is it utilized for?
Essay Questions
The essay questions below are worth 10 points each.
1.
Compare and contrast two established personality assessments discussed in the course. Include in your discussion strengths and limitations of each measure.
2.
Throughout the course, issues related to cultural diversity have been addressed. Identify one intelligence, educational, or personality measure and describe its strengths and weaknesses as it relates to diversity.
3.
Identify and describe at least three ethical dilemmas or responsibilities a psychological assessor may face.
.
1.According to the NIST, what were the reasons for the collapse of.docxKiyokoSlagleis
1.
According to the NIST, what were the reasons for the collapse of the Twin Towers on September 11, 2001? List and explain a minimum of four of the reasons given in the NIST report.
Your response should be at least 200 words in length. You are required to use at least your textbook as source material for your response. All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced; paraphrased and quoted material must have accompanying citations.
2.
Discuss the various collapse types and the indicators that firefighters must be aware of while operating on scene of an emergency. Include the dangers associated with each type of building construction and the importance of collapse zones during response and mitigation efforts.
Your response should be at least 200 words in length. You are required to use at least your textbook as source material for your response. All sources used, including the textbook, must be referenced; paraphrased and quoted material must have accompanying citations
.
1.5 page for thisPlease review the Case Study introduction present.docxKiyokoSlagleis
1.5 page for this
Please review the Case Study introduction presented below...and provide a one to two page input on your thoughts relative this event. Please submit your input as a word document format (.doc). Please remember to cite the sources for your research.
Case Study - "Hubble Trouble":
Some years ago work began on the development of the Hubble Space Telescope....which was placed into low earth orbit in 1990.
The capability provided by the Hubble Space Telescope is a historic prescedent for mankind.....vis a vis the advanced imaging of the cosmos.....from a vantage point in space....free from image distortion caused by the earth's atmosphere.
Considerable care and planning was associated with the development of this complex space based instrument.
Unfortunately, the Hubble Space Telescope experienced several delays and cost over-runs.
The deployment of the Hubble Space Telescope was further delayed due to the un-related loss of the Space Shuttle Challenger.
Once the Hubble Space Telescope was ultimately deployed it was discovered that the telescope suffered from a significant optics error in the development of it's primary reflecting mirror.
Fortunately, a team was able to develop a solution to address this error....at considerable additional expense....and opportunity loss (vis a vis...the re-allocation of space shuttle missions to implement the solution....).
Questions:
What went wrong in the development of the Hubble Space Telescope ?
What was the impact / consequences associated with this error ?
What actions did the Hubble Space Telescope development team employ to preclude the problem from happening ?
Why weren't the actions that the team employed sufficient to prevent this embarassing problem from occuring ?
What Systems Engineering processes / actions should the James Webb Space Telescope development team consider employing to preclude such a problem from occuring in this successor space telescope ?
1.5 pagr for sumurry and
use the calculations in your summary for case study in fracture
.
1.) What is Mills response to the objection that happiness cannot b.docxKiyokoSlagleis
1.) What is Mill's response to the objection that happiness cannot be the rational purpose of life?
2.) What is Mill's view on "all the grand sources…of human suffering?"
3.) What is Mill's view of self-sacrifice?
4.) Why would someone object that the disinterested character and promotion of general welfare that utilitarianism demands is unreasonable to expect?
5.) What is Mill's response to the objection that the disinterested character and promotion of general welfare that utilitarianism demands is unreasonable to expect?
6.) Explain the objection that utilitarianism renders men cold and unsympathizing. What is Mill's reponse?
7.) Explain the objection that utilitarianism is a doctrine of expediency. What is Mill's response?
8.) Why would someone object that utilitarianism is flawed because there is not time to calculate consequences?
.
1.Add an example or evidence for each reasons ( i listd )why the use.docxKiyokoSlagleis
1.Add an example or evidence for each reasons ( i listd )why the use of animals in research is good ,and also add a example or evidence for that is not good .And write more sentences to make it persuasively for the thesis.(explain why is imortant to society)
2.Change the APA style to MLA style.
3.Add more sentences in conclusion
.
1.1. Some of the most serious abuses taking place in developing .docxKiyokoSlagleis
1.
1. Some of the most serious abuses taking place in developing countries deal with child labor, human slavery, sweatshops, bad governance, and environmental degradation. Select one (1) developing country, and examine the extent to which two (2) of these five (5) issues are occurring. Support your response with specific examples.
2.
2.
Select one (1) developing country, and discuss the fundamental actions that the leadership of the selected country is — or is not — taking to improve the living standards of its people. Next, using this same country, cite one (1) specific example of progress or regress that its government is making in terms of the economy, the political system, and the environment.
.
1.A population of grasshoppers in the Kansas prairie has two col.docxKiyokoSlagleis
1.
A population of grasshoppers in the Kansas prairie has two color phenotypes, green and brown. Typically, the prairie receives adequate water to maintain healthy, green grass. Assume a bird that eats grasshoppers moves into the prairie. How will this affect natural selection of the grasshoppers? How might this change in a drought year?
2.
You are a writer for “Consumer Reports” magazine and you are asked to design an experiment to evaluate the effectiveness of three brands of whitening strips for teeth.
Describe how you would do this using the Scientific Method. Include all of the steps, controls and variables.
3.
Viruses are not considered to be living organisms.
Name 4 characteristics you could identify to distinguish living organisms from viruses.
4.
Explain the process of cell division in animals.
Include a description of
interphase, mitosis and cytokinesis.
5.
Suppose someone presented data from their research that showed the DNA of a newly discovered species was composed of: 30% adenine, 30% guanine, 20% thymine, 20% cytosine. Based on what you know about DNA structure, explain why these data do not make sense.
6.
What are the differences between a covalent bond and an ionic bond?
7
.
Water is crucial for life as we know it. One of the most important characteristics of water is its ability to act as a solvent.
Explain why water is such a good solvent for polar and charged molecules.
8.
Suppose you are taking a cruise from California to Hawaii. About halfway there, the ship begins to sink. You are able to board a lifeboat, but now you are floating in the ocean waiting to be rescued. After several days, you are so thirsty that you bend over the side of the boat and drink lots of salty seawater.
Explain what you think will happen to your body within a few hours of drinking the ocean water, and explain biological basis for your reaction.
9.
What is DNA fingerprinting and explain how this could be used in court or on a TV show such as CSI?
10.
DNA and RNA are similar yet distinct components of the cell. Describe three differences between RNA and DNA with respect to their chemical composition and structure. Provide a detailed description of each characteristic you chose
in your response.
11.
Why would you quickly die if not for the action of enzymes in your cells?
.
1.5 pages single spaced, include References and when necessary, imag.docxKiyokoSlagleis
This document provides guidelines for a 1.5 page single spaced summary assignment, noting that reputable scientific sources from databases and organizations like the CDC and WHO should be used to ensure scientific facts rather than opinions are presented. References and images with captions can be included as necessary, using primary literature if needed.
1.1- What are the real reasons behind the existence of Racism W.docxKiyokoSlagleis
1.
1- What are the real reasons behind the existence of Racism? Why does it still exist despite been illegal by law?
-
Each paragraph is explaining one reason. The reasons should be supported with examples and quotations from reliable sources.
-
List some forms of Racism, such as color, cultural, ethnic racism.
2.
2- Racism in developed countries, how do governments in these countries are standing against racism? Are there genuine efforts to end it forever? Is it real that there are some politicians who are behind this rejected act to get benefits?
3.
3- Human Rights, Civil Rights Movement and other organizations. What are they have done to help in this case?
4.
4- How is Racism existing in sports? Give some examples of that and how people reacted about them?
IMPORTANT NOTEs:
1- THE WRITING MUST BE AN INTERNATIONAL STUDENT LEVEL ( undergraduate Student )
2- please i need good word and something reasonable not too Academic,
No plagiarism
·
3-4 pages’ research.
·
At least you should use two reliable sources.
·
No plagiarism at all, I mean 0%.
·
The research should include: introduction which has clear thesis, paragraphs and conclusion.
·
Work cites.
·
Provide links for the sources if you can
.
1.) Connect 3 Due October 4th2.) Connect 4 Due Octob.docxKiyokoSlagleis
1.)
Connect 3
:
Due October 4th
2.)
Connect 4
:
Due October 16th
3.)
Research Paper: 8 Pages total
(Have Refernces already) APA Format,
Due October 16
4.)
Group Case Paper:
Due Oct 4
No exact lenght (see below points you must have in the paper APA Format).
What are the lessons that you think are important from the Madoff investment fraud as part of that overall meltdown?
-
Examine what could be done to prevent others from pulling off such a scam in the future
-
Present whether or not this fiasco has changed the mentality of potential investors
-
Was there any “Silver Lining” to what happened with the fraud?
.
1. Write an equation in standard form of the parabola that has th.docxKiyokoSlagleis
1.
Write an equation in standard form of the parabola that has the same shape as the graph of f(x) = 2x
2
, but with the given point as the vertex (5, 3).
A. f(x) = (2x - 4) + 4
B. f(x) = 2(2x + 8) + 3
C. f(x) = 2(x - 5)
2
+ 3
D. f(x) = 2(x + 3)
2
+ 3
2 of 20
5.0 Points
Find the coordinates of the vertex for the parabola defined by the given quadratic function.
f(x) = 2(x - 3)
2
+ 1
A. (3, 1)
B. (7, 2)
C. (6, 5)
D. (2, 1)
3 of 20
5.0 Points
Find the vertical asymptotes, if any, and the values of x corresponding to holes, if any, of the graph of the following rational function.
g(x) = x + 3/x(x + 4)
A. Vertical asymptotes: x = 4, x = 0; holes at 3x
B. Vertical asymptotes: x = -8, x = 0; holes at x + 4
C. Vertical asymptotes: x = -4, x = 0; no holes
D. Vertical asymptotes: x = 5, x = 0; holes at x - 3
4 of 20
5.0 Points
"Y varies directly as the n
th
power of x" can be modeled by the equation:
A. y = kx
n
.
B. y = kx/n.
C. y = kx
*n
.
D. y = kn
x
.
5 of 20
5.0 Points
40 times a number added to the negative square of that number can be expressed as:
A.
A(x) = x
2
+ 20x.
B. A(x) = -x + 30x.
C.
A(x) = -x
2
- 60x.
D.
A(x) = -x
2
+ 40x.
6 of 20
5.0 Points
The graph of f(x) = -x
3
__________ to the left and __________ to the right.
A. rises; falls
B. falls; falls
C. falls; rises
D. falls; falls
Solve the following formula for the specified variable:
V = 1/3 lwh for h
7 of 20
Write an equation that expresses each relationship. Then solve the equation for y.
x varies jointly as y and z
A. x = kz; y = x/k
B. x = kyz; y = x/kz
C. x = kzy; y = x/z
D. x = ky/z; y = x/zk
8 of 20
8 times a number subtracted from the squared of that number can be expressed as:
A. P(x) = x + 7x.
B.P(x) = x
2
- 8x.
C. P(x) = x - x.
P(x) = x
2
+ 10x.
9of 20
Find the x-intercepts. State whether the graph crosses the x-axis, or touches the x-axis and turns around, at each intercept.
f(x) = x
4
- 9x
2
A. x = 0, x = 3, x = -3; f(x) crosses the x-axis at -3 and 3; f(x) touches the x-axis at 0.
B. x = 1, x = 2, x = 3; f(x) crosses the x-axis at 2 and 3; f(x) crosses the x-axis at 0.
C. x = 0, x = -3, x = 5; f(x) touches the x-axis at -3 and 5; f(x) touches the x-axis at 0.
D. x = 1, x = 2, x = -4; f(x) crosses the x-axis at 2 and -4; f(x) touches the x-axis at 0.
10 of 20
Find the domain of the following rational function.
f(x) = x + 7/x
2
+ 49
A. All real numbers < 69
B. All real numbers > 210
C. All real numbers ≤ 77
D. All real numbers
11 of 20
Write an equation in standard form of the parabola that has the same shape as the graph of f(x) = 3x
2
or g(x) = -3x
2
, but with the given maximum or minimum.
Minimum = 0 at x = 11
A. f(x) = 6(x - 9)
B. f(x) = 3(x - 11)
2
C. f(x) = 4(x + 10)
D. f(x) = 3(x
2
- 15)
2
12 of 20
Solve the following polynomial inequality.
3x
2
+ 10x - 8 ≤ 0
A. [6, 1/3]
B. [-4, 2/3]
C. [-9, 4/5]
D. [8, 2/7]
13 of 20
Find the coordinate.
1.A health psychologist in a northern climate wants to evaluate .docxKiyokoSlagleis
1.
A health psychologist in a northern climate wants to evaluate the claim that UV lamps help lower depressive symptoms in middle-aged women. She recruits volunteers who meet the criteria for clinical depression and assigns them to two groups: one group receives a standard treatment for depression and undergoes a half hour of UV lamp therapy each day; the other group receives the same standard treatment for depression but without UV lamp therapy. At the end of two months, she administers a depression inventory where lower scores indicate fewer depressive symptoms (lower levels of depression). Assume all other variables are controlled for in the study. Evaluate the claim that depression treatment plus the UV lamp results in
lower
depression scores than depression treatment alone. (16 pts)
Depression Treatment + UV
Depression
Treatment Only
34
29
43
31
29
25
12
14
31
17
22
19
27
32
39
29
13
41
26
23
47
31
25
14
24
37
41
42
a)
SPSS output
b)
SPSS graph
c)
Current APA-style Results section
.
1. You are a journalist in the present. You have just been assig.docxKiyokoSlagleis
1.
You are a journalist in the present. You have just been assigned to write a news story that evaluates the role of the United States during the Cold War era, specifically in Korea. Since your newspaper has a broad audience, you will need to include analysis of other shifts in this time period, including social, political, and economic changes in the Civil Rights movement as well as policies the U.S. takes that shape its role during the Cold War.
Your responses needs to be at least 200 words
2.
Evaluate the policies and doctrines that helped the United States shift from isolationism to a Superpower during the middle of the 20th century. Be certain to include specific events, doctrines, and people to make your point.
Your response needs to be at 150 words
.
1.) Defend which reform movement you feel was most successful in thi.docxKiyokoSlagleis
1.) Defend which reform movement you feel was most successful in this antebellum America; identify significant writings, leaders, methods, and obstacles faced when working towards this goal.
Your response must be at least 200 words in length.
2.) Identify the innovator from 1815-1860 you feel had the most significant impact on American culture and expansion, including which innovation(s) and why.
Your response must be at least 200 words in length.
3.)Take the perspective of an American citizen in 1837, and identify yourself: location, age, and occupation. Assuming this role with no future knowledge, describe your view of Andrew Jackson. Provide an opinion on at least three distinct issues that took place during his administrations (1829-1837). *I am female btw*
Your response must be at least 500 words in length
Everything must be cited in APA format and please use the textbooks as the main references:
Johnson, M. P. (2012). Reading the American past: Selected historical documents: Volume 1: To 1877 (5th ed.). Boston, MA: Bedford/St. Martin’s.
Roark, J. L., Johnson, M. P., Cohen, P. C., Stage, S., & Hartmann, S. M. (2014). The American promise: A concise history, volume 1: To 1877 (5th ed.). Boston, MA: Bedford/St. Martin’s.
.
1. What had the greater impact on bringing the US out of the Great .docxKiyokoSlagleis
1. What had the greater impact on bringing the US out of the Great Depression. President Franklin Roosevelt's New Deal or the second World War.
2. What qualities do you feel are essential to an effective governor? Explain why you feel they are essential. Use facts not opinions to support your claim.
Each question should be at least 200 words
.
1. Who was Robert Walpole and why was he important2. Wh.docxKiyokoSlagleis
This document contains 10 questions about important events and people leading up to the American Revolution, including Robert Walpole, colonial taxation policies like the Stamp Act and Townshend Acts, the Boston Massacre, and John Adams' defense of British soldiers involved. It asks about the relationship between Britain and its American colonies, reasons for increased taxation, protests in Massachusetts, and British assumptions and strategy entering the Revolutionary War.
1. a paper of at least 2 pages. This paper is based on A TRIP TO T.docxKiyokoSlagleis
1. a paper of at least 2 pages. This paper is based on A TRIP TO THE METROPOLITAN MUSEUM OF ART (main museum or Cloisters). Spend at least two hours in the museum and choose one work of art. The paper will examine 1) a brief history of the work and how it characterizes the period in which it was created, 2) for what (if any) purpose it was created, and 3) your reaction to the piece, including it's setting in the museum.
2. Symphonie fantastique
Please watch all five movements of "Symphonie fantastique" and write a reaction paper.
http://youtu.be/ l7chHNocFAc
This is the link to the 1st movement
3. Due Nov. 25
Please write a formal essay about your an "ism" (an art movement after Romanticism) of your choosings. Please use outside materials to write this paper, i.e. not only notes from class. Remember to use in-line citations and list work(s) cited at the end of the paper.
.
1. You are given only three quarterly seasonal indices and qua.docxKiyokoSlagleis
1. You are given only three quarterly seasonal indices and quarterly seasonally adjusted data for the entire year. What is the raw data value for Q4? Raw data is not adjusted for seasonality.
Quarter Seasonal Index Seasonally Adjusted Data
Q1 .80 295
Q2 .85 299
Q3 1.15 270
Q4 --- 271
(Points : 3)
[removed]
325
[removed]
225
[removed]
252
[removed]
271
Question 2.
2.
One model of exponential smoothing will provide almost the same forecast as a liner trend method. What are linear trend intercept and slope counterparts for exponential smoothing?
[removed]
Alpha and Delta
[removed]
Delta and Gamma
[removed]
Alpha and Gamma
[removed]
Std Dev and Mean
Question 3.
3.
Why is the residual mean value important to a forecaster?
(Points : 3)
[removed]
Large mean values indicate nonautoregressiveness.
[removed]
Small mean values indicate the total amount of error is small
.
[removed]
Large absolute mean values indicate estimate bias
.
[removed]
Large mean values indicate the standard error of the model is small.
Question 4.
4.
When performing correlation analysis what is the null hypothesis? What measure in Minitab is used to test it and to be 95% confident in the significance of correlation coefficient.
(Points : 3)
[removed]
Ho: r = .05 p < .5
[removed]
Ho: r = 1 p =.05
[removed]
Ho: r ≠ 0 p≤.05
[removed]
Ho: r = 0 p≤.05
Question 5.
5.
In decomposition what does the cycle factor (CF) of .80 represent for a monthly forecast estimate of a Y variable?
(Points : 3)
[removed]
The estimated value is 80% of the average monthly seasonal estimate
.
[removed]
The estimate is .80 of the forecasted Y trend value
.
[removed]
The estimated value is .80 of the historical average CMA values.
[removed]
The estimated value has 20% more variation than the average historical Y data values
.
Question 6.
6.
A Burger King franchise owner notes that the sales per store has fallen below the stated national Burger King outlet average of $1,258,000. He asserts a change has occurred that reduced the fast food eating habits of Americans. What is his hypothesis (H1) and what type of test for significance must be applied?
(Points : 3)
[removed]
H1: u ≥ $1.258,000 A one-tailed t-test to the left
.
[removed]
H1: u = $1.258,000 A two-tailed t-test.
[removed]
H1: u < $1.258,000 A one-tailed t-test to the left.
[removed]
H1: p < $1.258,000 A one-tailed test to the right
.
Question 7.
7.
The CEO of Home Depot wants to see if city size has any relationship to the current profit margins of the company stores. What data type will he likely use to determine this?
(Points : 3)
[removed]
Time series data of profits by store.
[removed]
Recent 10 year sample of profits by store.
1. Which of the following is an advantage of a corporationA.docxKiyokoSlagleis
1.
Which of the following is an advantage of a corporation?
A.
Permanence
B.
Dilution of ownership
C.
Elimination of double taxation
D.
Ease of formation
2.
A firm's sales increased by 50 percent and inventory was $100,000. According to the percent of sales
method of forecasting, what will the new inventory be?
A.
$150,000
B.
$175,000
C.
$100,000
D.
$120,000
3.
Which of the following is a
correct
statement about operating leverage?
A.
Operating leverage results from use of fixed instead of variable cost.
B.
Operating leverage is affected by the demand for the product.
C.
Operating leverage is associated with less risk and more certainty.
D.
Operating leverage results from using debt financing.
4.
If a firm produces 50,000 widgets and sells each unit for $20.50, what is the total revenue generated by
this production?
A.
$10,250,000
B.
$100,250
C.
$10,250
D.
$1,025,000
5.
If a firm substitutes fixed for variable costs, which of the following will occur?
A.
The use of financial leverage will be increased.
B.
The profits will always be higher.
C.
The break-even level of output will be reduced.
D.
The degree of operating leverage will be increased.
6.
Which of the following is an advantage of the sole proprietorship?
A.
Limited liability
B.
Ease of formation
C.
Joint ownership
D.
Ease of transfer of ownership
7.
Which of these situations offers the
best
rationale for organizing a business as a limited partnership?
A.
You want your small new business, which is operating out of your garage, to pay you and your partner (your spouse)
dividends for which income tax will only be paid by you or your business, not both.
B.
Management needs to raise money through a stock offering, but does not want to relinquish control of the business to
stockholders.
C.
You're an entrepreneur and you want two others' expertise, former business partners, to help execute your business plan.
D.
Management rejects the idea of personally assuming liability for the business.
8.
Which of the following statements about fixed costs is
correct?
A.
Fixed costs don't change with the size of the firm.
B.
Fixed costs are greater than variable costs.
C.
Fixed costs are paid before variable costs.
D.
Fixed costs don't change with the level of output.
9.
A product sells for $5 per unit. If fixed costs are $1,000 and variable costs are $2 per unit, what is the
degree of operating leverage at 2,000 units?
A.
2.0
B.
1.2
C.
1.0
D.
0.83
10.
Which of the following events would be
most likely
to increase the quantity breakeven point, assuming
other factors remain constant?
A.
Reduced marketplace competition enables LMN Corporation to raise its selling price for finance textbooks.
B.
The city council has finally been persuaded: Your taxi business will pay lower water and sewer rates.
C.
The pressure has subsided: The property owner, who rents space to your small manufac.
1. write about 500 words about a watching response to The bicycle.docxKiyokoSlagleis
1. write about 500 words about a watching response to “ The bicycle chief”.
2. write about 500 words about “The Southern Question” in Italy.
The Southern Question” refers to the social and economic disparities (duality) that exist between the Northern and Southern regions of Italy. These differences, as well as their causes, have been the subject of research from a number of disciplines: anthropology, sociology, politics and economics.
please due on time. 1/20 19:00 (about 23 hours)
.
3. should this asymptomatic
pulmonary nodule be evaluated?” To the extent possible, the
requesting practitioner
should provide the relevant clinical information, summarized as
succinctly as possible.
Urgency should be clearly conveyed, typically with a phone call
or other direct
communication.
The requesting practitioner should be explicit regarding the
intended outcome of the
consultation, i.e., is this for a single evaluation or ongoing co-
management?
Communication between the requesting and the consulting
providers is paramount.
Whether this communication includes direct contact is less
important than that the
relevant information and desired outcome be explicit and clear,
regardless of
communication medium. Consultations should be requested for
clinical purposes and
always directed to qualified consultants; they should not be
driven by entrepreneurial or
relationship-building purposes. Another responsibility of the
referring provider is not to
“over- consult.” Medical care should be focused on value, not
volume.
RESPONSIBILITIES OF THE CONSULTANT
Just as the referring provider should attend to clear and explicit
communication, so too
should the consultant follow the precepts of effective
interactions between professionals,
which include courtesy, availability, and clarity. Particularly on
the inpatient service, where
consultants may receive several requests each day, it is
5. AND MEDICAL
ORGANIZATIONS
Health systems, hospitals, and medical organizations also have
responsibilities in the
consultation process. This responsibility includes ensuring that
qualified consultants are
accessible and available on the medical staff. Consultations
within a single system are
aided by common shared electronic medical records,
particularly when consultations
originate in the hospital, but can also involve care in the
outpatient setting. Finally, health
care entities should strive to foster a culture of team-based care
and collegiality.
SPECIAL ISSUES IN MEDICAL CONSULTATION
Curbside Consults Curbside consults are requests from one
practitioner to another for
an informal and unwritten opinion about a specific patient care
matter. They are typically
limited in scope, mostly regarding management or questions
regarding procedures, and
developed from information provided by the consulting
practitioner and perhaps the
medical record (such as labs and imaging studies), but without a
comprehensive review of
the record or any direct contact with the patient. Although often
viewed as convenient,
efficient, and a common aspect of clinical care, by their very
nature, curbside consults
have been found to often be incomplete or even flawed. It is not
uncommon for the
question being asked to be deemed too complex for a curbside
consult, or for it not to be
the actual or only issue the consultant feels needs to be
7. second opinion should strive to understand the patient’s
motivations for seeking the
additional opinion. While a second opinion may have been
initiated by the patient rather
than referral from another physician, it is recommended that the
consulting physician
communicate with the patient’s primary physician or specialist
as would be done
following a standard consultation unless the patient insists
otherwise. In addition,
professional behavior in how the consulting physician refers to
the recommendations or
actions of previously consulted physicians is important, even
when there is disagreement.
Likewise, it is important that a transfer of care from prior
consultants to the one providing
a second opinion be enacted only if specifically requested by
the patient or the physician
who encouraged the second opinion.
Consults Involving Mid-Level Providers Increasingly, specialist
physicians may find
themselves being consulted by nurse practitioners and physician
assistants rather than
other physicians. Whether the quality of the information
provided to the consultant
physician by a mid-level provider is different from physician-
to-physician referrals has not
been studied. Consulting physicians should know whether they
should respond back to
the mid-level provider or to the supervising physician. As with
physician-to-physician
consults, it is also important for the consultant to know whether
the individual calling for
the consult has an ongoing role in the care of the patient or is
simply covering for a limited
8. period of time. Finally, the consultant, if responding back to the
mid-level provider, should
make sure that the information provided meets the needs of that
provider, and that
questions are answered as they would be if responding back to
another physician.
Consultation Involving Telemedicine Consultations making
use of electronic health
records, patient portals, and various forms of
telecommunication technology, including
video conferencing or cell phone communication, can improve
access to care, reduce cost,
and improve outcomes. This is particularly true when employed
in geographic areas of
health care shortage and when the clinical issues can be handled
without direct contact
with the patient, e.g., radiology or dermatology. However, the
absence of direct contact
between patient and consultant introduces special issues related
to diagnostic accuracy
and physician-patient relationship. Regulatory issues, liability,
security, and confidentiality
issues arise as well. Consultation via telemedicine holds
considerable promise, but the
aforementioned concerns will need to be better understood.
FURTHER READING
DANIEL H, SULMASY LS: Policy recommendations to guide
the use of telemedicine in
primary care: An American College of Physicians Position
Paper. Ann Intern Med
163:787, 2015.
PEARSON SD: Principles of generalist-specialist relationships.
10. women, the measurement
of blood pressure should be performed in the sitting position,
because the lateral
recumbent position may result in a lower blood pressure. The
diagnosis of hypertension
requires the measurement of two elevated blood pressures at
least 4 h apart. Hypertension
during pregnancy is usually caused by preeclampsia, chronic
hypertension, gestational
hypertension, or renal disease.
PREECLAMPSIA
Approximately 5–7% of all pregnant women develop
preeclampsia, the new onset of
hypertension (blood pressure >140/90 mmHg) and proteinuria
(either a 24 h urinary
protein >300 mg/24 h, or a protein- creatinine ratio ≥0.3) after
20 weeks of gestation.
Recent revisions to the diagnostic criteria include: proteinuria is
no longer an absolute
requirement for making the diagnosis; the terms mild and severe
preeclampsia have been
replaced; and the disease is now termed preeclampsia either
with or without severe
features and fetal growth restriction is no longer a defining
criterion for preeclampsia with
severe features. Although the precise pathophysiology of
preeclampsia remains unknown,
recent studies show excessive placental production of
antagonists to both vascular
endothelial growth factor (VEGF) and transforming growth
factor β (TGF-β). These
antagonists to VEGF and TGF-β disrupt endothelial and renal
glomerular function resulting
in edema, hypertension, and proteinuria. The renal histological
feature of preeclampsia is
12. dysfunction (platelet count
<100,000/L or disseminated intravascular coagulation [DIC]).
The HELLP syndrome
(hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, low platelets) is a special
subtype of severe
preeclampsia and is a major cause of morbidity and mortality in
this disease. Platelet
dysfunction and coagulation disorders further increase the risk
of stroke.
TREATMENT
Preeclampsia
Preeclampsia resolves within a few weeks after delivery. For
pregnant women with
preeclampsia prior to 37 weeks of gestation, delivery reduces
the mother’s morbidity
but exposes the fetus to the risk of premature birth. The
management of preeclampsia
is challenging because it requires the clinician to balance the
health of the mother and
fetus simultaneously. In general, prior to term, women with
preeclampsia without
severe features may be managed conservatively with limited
physical activity, although
bed rest is not recommended, close monitoring of blood
pressure and renal function,
and careful fetal surveillance. For women with preeclampsia
with severe features,
delivery is recommended unless the patient is eligible for
expectant management in a
tertiary hospital setting. Expectant management of preeclampsia
with severe features
remote from term affords some benefits for the fetus, but
significant risks for the
mother. Postponing delivery beyond 34 weeks gestation in this
13. group of patients is not
recommended. In preeclampsia without severe features delivery
at 37 weeks is
recommended.
The definitive treatment of preeclampsia is delivery of the fetus
and placenta. For
women with preeclampsia with severe features, aggressive
management of blood
pressures >160/105 mmHg reduces the risk of cerebrovascular
accidents. IV labetalol
or hydralazine is most commonly used to acutely manage severe
hypertension in
preeclampsia; labetalol is associated with fewer episodes of
maternal hypotension.
Elevated arterial pressure should be reduced slowly to avoid
hypotension and a
decrease in blood flow to the fetus.
Magnesium sulfate is the preferred agent for the prevention and
treatment of
eclamptic seizures. Large, randomized clinical trials have
demonstrated the superiority
of magnesium sulfate over phenytoin and diazepam in reducing
the risk of seizure and,
possibly, the risk of maternal death. Magnesium may prevent
seizures by interacting
with N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) receptors in the CNS. The
universal use of
magnesium sulfate for seizure prophylaxis in preeclampsia
without severe features is
no longer recommended by most experts. There is consensus
that magnesium sulfate
should be used in all cases of preeclampsia with severe features,
or in cases of
eclampsia. Women who have had preeclampsia appear to be at
15. GESTATIONAL HYPERTENSION
The development of elevated blood pressure after 20 weeks of
pregnancy or in the first 24
h post-partum in the absence of preexisting chronic
hypertension or proteinuria is referred
to as gestational hypertension. Mild gestational hypertension
that does not progress to
preeclampsia has not been associated with adverse pregnancy
outcome or adverse long-
term prognosis.
RENAL DISEASE
Normal pregnancy is characterized by an increase in glomerular
filtration rate and
creatinine clearance. This increase occurs secondary to a rise in
renal plasma flow and
increased glomerular filtration pressures. Patients with
underlying renal disease and
hypertension may expect a worsening of hypertension during
pregnancy. If superimposed
preeclampsia develops, the additional endothelial injury results
in a capillary leak
syndrome that may make management challenging. In general,
patients with underlying
renal disease and hypertension benefit from aggressive
management of blood pressure.
Preconception counseling is also essential for these patients so
that accurate risk
assessment and medication changes can occur prior to
pregnancy. In general, a
prepregnancy serum creatinine level <133 μmol/L (<1.5 mg/dL)
is associated with a
favorable prognosis. When renal disease worsens during
pregnancy, close collaboration
between the internist and the maternal-fetal medicine specialist
17. minimizes the impact of tachycardia and reduced ventricular
filling times on cardiac
function. Pregnant women with mitral stenosis are at increased
risk for the development
of atrial fibrillation and other tachyarrhythmias. The immediate
postpartum period is a
time of particular concern secondary to rapid volume shifts.
Careful monitoring of cardiac
and fluid status should be observed.
Mitral Regurgitation and Aortic Regurgitation and Stenosis
The pregnancy-induced
decrease in systemic vascular resistance reduces the risk of
cardiac failure with these
conditions, especially in women with chronic lesions. Acute
onset of mitral or aortic
regurgitation may not be well tolerated during pregnancy. For
women with severe aortic
stenosis, treatment before pregnancy should be considered for a
peak-to-peak valve
gradient >50 mmHg. In women with aortic stenosis and a mean
valve gradient <25 mmHg,
pregnancy is likely to be well tolerated. For women with mitral
or aortic regurgitation and
left ventricular dysfunction (LVEF <30%) pregnancy should be
avoided.
CONGENITAL HEART DISEASE
(See also Chap. 264) Reparative surgery has markedly increased
the number of adult
women with surgically repaired congenital heart disease.
Maternal morbidity and mortality
are greater among these women than among those without
surgical cardiac repair. When
pregnant, these patients should be jointly managed by a
cardiologist and an obstetrician
18. familiar with these problems. The presence of a congenital
cardiac lesion in the mother
increases the risk of congenital cardiac disease in the newborn.
Prenatal screening of the
fetus for congenital cardiac disease with ultrasound is
recommended.
OTHER CARDIAC DISORDERS
Supraventricular tachycardia (Chap. 241) is a common cardiac
complication of
pregnancy. Treatment is the same as in the nonpregnant patient,
and fetal tolerance of
medications such as adenosine and calcium channel blockers is
acceptable. When
necessary, pharmacologic or electric cardioversion may be
performed to improve cardiac
performance and reduce symptoms. This intervention is
generally well tolerated by mother
and fetus.
Peripartum cardiomyopathy (Chap. 254) is an uncommon
disorder of pregnancy and
its etiology remains unknown. Approximately 10% of women
with peripartum
cardiomyopathy carry a truncating mutation in the gene
encoding the titin sarcomere
protein. Treatment is directed toward symptomatic relief and
improvement of cardiac
function. Many patients recover completely; others are left with
progressive dilated
cardiomyopathy. Recurrence in a subsequent pregnancy has
been reported, and women
who do not have normal baseline left-ventricular function after
an episode of peripartum
cardiomyopathy should be counseled to avoid pregnancy.
20. because of the high risk of
vascular and uterine rupture.
Pulmonary Hypertension (See also Chap. 277) Maternal
mortality in the setting of
severe pulmonary hypertension is high, and primary pulmonary
hypertension is a
contraindication to pregnancy. Termination of pregnancy may
be advisable in these
circumstances to preserve the life of the mother. In the
Eisenmenger syndrome, i.e., the
combination of pulmonary hypertension with right-to-left
shunting due to congenital
abnormalities (Chap. 264), maternal and fetal deaths occur
frequently. Systemic
hypotension may occur after blood loss, prolonged Valsalva
maneuver, or regional
anesthesia; sudden death secondary to hypotension is a dreaded
complication.
Management of these patients is challenging, and invasive
hemodynamic monitoring
during labor and delivery is recommended in severe cases.
In patients with pulmonary hypertension, vaginal delivery is
less stressful
hemodynamically than cesarean section, which should be
reserved for accepted obstetric
indications.
DEEP VENOUS THROMBOSIS AND PULMONARY
EMBOLISM
(See also Chap. 273) Pregnancy is associated with venous
stasis, endothelial injury and a
hypercoagulable state. Inherited thrombophilias and the
presence of antiphospholipid
antibodies increase the risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE)
21. in pregnancy. Deep
venous thrombosis (DVT) or pulmonary embolism (PE) occurs
in about 1 in 500
pregnancies, with DVT being three times more common than
PE. VTE occurs more
commonly in the 6 weeks post-partum than antepartum. In
pregnant women, most
unilateral DVTs occur in the left leg because the left iliac vein
is compressed by the right
iliac artery and the uterus compresses the inferior vena cava.
TREATMENT
Deep Venous Thrombosis
Aggressive diagnosis and management of DVT and suspected
pulmonary embolism
optimize the outcome for mother and fetus. In general, all
diagnostic and therapeutic
modalities afforded that the nonpregnant patient should be
utilized in pregnancy
except for D-dimer measurement, in which values are elevated
in normal pregnancy.
Anticoagulant therapy with low-molecular-weight heparin
(LMWH) or unfractionated
heparin is indicated in pregnant women with DVT. LMWH may
be associated with an
increased risk of epidural hematoma in women receiving an
epidural anesthetic in
labor and must be discontinued at least 24 h before placement of
an epidural catheter.
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23. nonpregnant state. This
difference is due to the use of glucose by the fetus. In early
pregnancy, fasting may result
in circulating glucose concentrations in the range of 2.2 mmol/L
(40 mg/dL) and may be
associated with symptoms of hypoglycemia. In contrast to the
decrease in maternal
glucose concentration, plasma hydroxybutyrate and acetoacetate
levels rise to two to four
times normal after a fast.
TREATMENT
Diabetes Mellitus in Pregnancy
Pregnancy complicated by diabetes mellitus is associated with
higher maternal and
perinatal morbidity and mortality rates. Preconception
counseling and treatment are
important for the diabetic patient contemplating pregnancy and
can reduce the risk of
congenital malformations and improve pregnancy outcome.
Folate supplementation
reduces the incidence of fetal neural tube defects, which occur
with greater frequency
in fetuses of diabetic mothers. In addition, optimizing glucose
control during key
periods of organogenesis reduces other congenital anomalies,
including sacral
agenesis, caudal dysplasia, renal agenesis, and ventricular
septal defect.
Once pregnancy is established, glucose control should be
managed more
aggressively than in the nonpregnant state. In addition to
dietary changes, this
enhanced management requires more frequent blood glucose
25. Excellent pregnancy outcomes in patients with diabetic
nephropathy and proliferative
retinopathy have been reported with aggressive glucose control
and intensive maternal
and fetal surveillance.
As pregnancy progresses, glycemic control may become more
difficult to achieve
due to an increase in insulin resistance. In pregnant women with
Type 1 diabetes,
closed-loop insulin delivery with both continuous interstitial
glucose monitoring and
sensor-augmented insulin pump therapy is helpful in
normalizing circulating glucose
with few episodes of hypoglycemia. In general, efforts to
control glucose and avoid
preterm delivery result in the best overall outcome for both
mother and newborn.
Preterm delivery is generally performed only for the usual
obstetric indications (e.g.,
preeclampsia, fetal growth restriction, non-reassuring fetal
testing) or for worsening
maternal renal or active proliferative retinopathy.
GESTATIONAL DIABETES (GDM)
GDM occurs in ~4% of pregnancies. Because about 90% of
women have at least one risk
factor for GDM, all pregnant women should be screened for
GDM. A typical two-step
strategy for establishing the diagnosis of GDM is performed at
24–28 weeks of gestation
and involves administration of a 50-g oral glucose challenge
with a single serum glucose
measurement at 60 min. If the plasma glucose is <7.8 mmol/L
(<130 mg/dL) the test is
considered normal. Plasma glucose >7.8 mmol/L (>130 mg/dL)
27. injections if diet alone does not adequately control blood sugar
(fasting glucose <5.6
mmol/L [<100 mg/dL] and 2-h postprandial glucose <7.0
mmol/L [<126 mg/dL])—is
associated with a decreased risk of birth trauma for the fetus.
Oral hypoglycemic
agents such as glyburide and metformin have become more
commonly utilized for
managing GDM refractory to nutritional management, but most
experts favor insulin
therapy. For women with GDM, there is a 40% risk of being
diagnosed with diabetes
within the 10 years after the index pregnancy. All women with
GDM should have a
formal glucose tolerance test (GTT) to screen for T2DM at ~6
weeks post-partum. In
women with a history of GDM, exercise, weight loss, and
treatment with metformin
reduce the risk of developing diabetes. Lactation also reduces
the risk of GDM
progressing to T2DM. All women with a history of GDM should
be counseled about
prevention strategies and evaluated regularly for diabetes.
OBESITY
(See also Chap. 395) Pregnant women who are obese have an
increased risk of stillbirth,
congenital fetal malformations, GDM, preeclampsia, urinary
tract infections, preterm and
post-date delivery, and cesarean delivery. Women
contemplating pregnancy should
attempt to attain a healthy weight prior to conception. For
morbidly obese women who
have not been able to lose weight with lifestyle changes,
bariatric surgery reduces the risks
for GDM, macrosomia, and preterm delivery. Following
28. bariatric surgery, women should
delay conception for 1 year to avoid pregnancy during an
interval of rapid metabolic
changes. The National Academy of Medicine guidelines for
weight gain during pregnancy
recommend that for BMI ranges of <18.5, 18.5–24.9, 25.0–29.9,
and ≥30 kg/m2, weight
gain targets should be 12.5–18 kg, 11.5–16 kg, 7–11.5 kg, and
5–9 kg, respectively.
THYROID DISEASE
(See also Chap. 375) In pregnancy, the estrogen-induced
increase in thyroxine-binding
globulin increases circulating levels of total T3 and total T4.
Placental human chorionic
gonadotropin (hCG) directly stimulates the thyroid causing an
increase in free T3 and T4.
Interpretation of the measurement of free T4, free T3, and
thyroid-stimulating hormone
(TSH) should use trimester-specific ranges.
TREATMENT
Hyperthyroidism in Pregnancy
HYPERTHYROIDISM
Methimazole crosses the placenta to a greater degree than
propylthiouracil and has
been associated with fetal aplasia cutis. However,
propylthiouracil can be associated
with liver failure. Some experts recommend propylthiouracil in
the first trimester and
methimazole thereafter. Radioiodine should not be used during
pregnancy, either for
scanning or for treatment, because of effects on the fetal
thyroid. In emergent
30. HEMATOLOGIC DISORDERS
Pregnancy has been described as a state of physiologic anemia.
Part of the reduction in
hemoglobin concentration is dilutional, but iron and folate
deficiencies are major causes
of correctable anemia during pregnancy.
In populations at high risk for hemoglobinopathies (Chap. 94),
hemoglobin
electrophoresis should be performed as part of the prenatal
screen. Hemoglobinopathies
can be associated with increased maternal and fetal morbidity
and mortality.
Management is tailored to the specific hemoglobinopathy and is
generally the same for
both pregnant and nonpregnant women. Prenatal diagnosis of
hemoglobinopathies in the
fetus is readily available and should be discussed with
prospective parents either prior to
or early in pregnancy.
Thrombocytopenia occurs commonly during pregnancy. The
majority of cases are
benign gestational thrombocytopenias, but the differential
diagnosis should include
immune thrombocytopenia (Chap. 111), preeclampsia, and
thrombotic thrombocytopenic
purpura. Benign gestational thrombocytopenia is unlikely if the
platelet count is <100,000
per μL.
NEOPLASIA
Cancer complicates ~1 in every 1000 pregnancies. Of all the
cancers that occur in women,
<1% complicate pregnancies. The four cancers that occur most
commonly in pregnancy
32. occasionally arises that what is best for the mother may be
harmful to the fetus, and what
is best for the fetus may compromise the ultimate prognosis for
the mother. The best way
to approach management of a pregnant woman with cancer is to
ask, “What would one do
in this clinical situation if she was not pregnant? Then, which,
if any aspect of those plans
need to be modified because she is pregnant?”
TREATMENT
Special Therapeutic Considerations in Pregnancy
Exposure of developing fetuses to ionizing radiation may cause
adverse fetal effects;
awareness of this potential toxicity has resulted in a
disproportionate aversion to
diagnostic imaging in pregnancy. The fetus is most sensitive to
teratogenesis during
organogenesis in the first trimester. Imaging that uses ionizing
radiation should not be
done without a compelling reason and due consideration to
obtaining the necessary
information by alternative imaging modalities. Exposure to
diagnostic and therapeutic
radionuclides, especially radioactive iodine, poses unique risks,
but a full discussion of
these is beyond the scope of this chapter.
Generally, toxic chemotherapy should be avoided during
pregnancy, if at all possible.
It should virtually never be given in the first trimester. A
variety of single agents and
combinations have been administered in the second and third
trimesters, without a
high frequency of toxic effects to the pregnancy or the fetus,
34. it may be necessary to
consider therapeutic abortion to avoid maternal disaster and
fetal survival with injury
resulting in long-term morbid sequelae. In general, pregnancy
has relatively little or no
impact on the natural history of malignancies, despite the
hormonal influences. Spread
of the mother’s cancer to the fetus (so-called vertical
transmission) is exceedingly rare.
NEUROLOGIC DISORDERS
For women with epilepsy planning pregnancy, consideration
should be given to switching
from valproate, a known teratogen, to another medication. If
valproate is continued during
pregnancy, folic acid supplementation should be increased to 4
mg daily.
Patients with preexisting multiple sclerosis (Chap. 436)
experience a gradual decrease
in the risk of relapses as pregnancy progresses and, conversely,
an increase in attack risk
during the postpartum period. Disease-modifying agents,
including interferon β, should not
be administered to pregnant multiple sclerosis patients, but
moderate or severe relapses
can be safely treated with pulse glucocorticoid therapy. Finally,
certain tumors, particularly
pituitary adenoma and meningioma (Chap. 373), may manifest
during pregnancy
because of accelerated growth, possibly driven by hormonal
factors.
Peripheral nerve disorders associated with pregnancy include
Bell’s palsy (idiopathic
facial paralysis) (Chap. 438), which is approximately threefold
35. more likely to occur during
the third trimester and immediate postpartum period than in the
general population.
Therapy with glucocorticoids should follow the guidelines
established for nonpregnant
patients. Entrapment neuropathies are common in the later
stages of pregnancy,
presumably as a result of fluid retention. Carpal tunnel
syndrome (median nerve) presents
first as pain and paresthesia in the hand (often worse at night)
and later with weakness in
the thenar muscles. Treatment is generally conservative; wrist
splints may be helpful, and
glucocorticoid injections or surgical section of the carpal tunnel
can usually be postponed.
Meralgia paresthetica (lateral femoral cutaneous nerve
entrapment) consists of pain and
numbness in the lateral aspect of the thigh without weakness.
Patients are usually
reassured to learn that these symptoms are benign and can be
expected to remit
spontaneously after the pregnancy has been completed. Restless
leg syndrome is the
most common peripheral nerve and movement disorder in
pregnancy. Disordered iron
metabolism is the suspected etiology. Management is expectant
in most cases.
GASTROINTESTINAL AND LIVER DISEASE
Up to 90% of pregnant women experience nausea and vomiting
during the first trimester
of pregnancy. Hyperemesis gravidarum is a severe form that
prevents adequate fluid and
nutritional intake and may require hospitalization to prevent
dehydration and malnutrition.
37. reported.
Acute fatty liver is a rare complication of pregnancy.
Frequently confused with the
HELLP syndrome (see “Preeclampsia” above) and severe
preeclampsia, the diagnosis of
acute fatty liver of pregnancy may be facilitated by imaging
studies and laboratory
evaluation. Acute fatty liver of pregnancy is generally
characterized by markedly increased
serum levels of bilirubin and ammonia and by hypoglycemia.
Management of acute fatty
liver of pregnancy is supportive; recurrence in subsequent
pregnancies has been reported.
All pregnant women should be screened for hepatitis B. This
information is important
for pediatricians after delivery of the infant. All infants receive
hepatitis B vaccine. Infants
born to mothers who are carriers of hepatitis B surface antigen
should also receive
hepatitis B immune globulin as soon after birth as possible and
preferably within the first
72 h. Screening for hepatitis C is recommended for individuals
at high risk for exposure.
INFECTIONS
BACTERIAL INFECTIONS
Other than bacterial vaginosis, the most common bacterial
infections during pregnancy
involve the urinary tract (Chap. 130). Many pregnant women
have asymptomatic
bacteriuria, most likely due to stasis caused by progestational
effects on ureteral and
bladder smooth muscle and later in pregnancy due to
38. compression effects of the
enlarging uterus. In itself, this condition is not associated with
an adverse outcome of
pregnancy. If asymptomatic bacteriuria is left untreated,
symptomatic pyelonephritis may
occur. Indeed, ~75% of pregnancy-associated pyelonephritis
cases are the result of
untreated asymptomatic bacteriuria. All pregnant women should
be screened with a urine
culture for asymptomatic bacteriuria at the first prenatal visit.
Subsequent screening with
nitrite/leukocyte esterase strips is indicated for high-risk
women, such as those with sickle
cell trait or a history of urinary tract infections. All women with
positive screens should be
treated. Pregnant women who develop pyelonephritis need
inpatient IV antibiotic
administration due to the elevated risk of urosepsis and acute
respiratory distress
syndrome in pregnancy. Pregnant women with recurrent urinary
tract infections, or one
episode of pyelonephritis, should be considered for daily
antibiotic suppressive treatment
throughout the remainder of their pregnancy.
All pregnant patients are screened prenatally for syphilis,
gonorrhea, and chlamydial
infections, and the detection of any of these should result in
prompt evaluation and
treatment (Chaps. 151 and 184).
VIRAL INFECTIONS
file://view/books/9781259644047/epub/OEBPS/part10b.html#ch
319
file://view/books/9781259644047/epub/OEBPS/part5c.html#ch1
40. Cytomegalovirus Infection The most common cause of
congenital viral infection in the
United States is cytomegalovirus (CMV) (Chap. 190). As many
as 50–90% of women of
childbearing age have antibodies to CMV, but only rarely does
CMV reactivation result in
neonatal infection. More commonly, primary CMV infection
during pregnancy creates a
risk of congenital CMV. No currently accepted treatment of
CMV infection during
pregnancy has been demonstrated to protect the fetus
effectively. Moreover, it is difficult
to predict which fetus will sustain a life-threatening CMV
infection. Severe CMV disease in
the newborn is characterized most often by petechiae,
hepatosplenomegaly, and jaundice.
Chorioretinitis, microcephaly, intracranial calcifications,
hepatitis, hemolytic anemia, and
purpura may also develop. CNS involvement, resulting in the
development of psychomotor,
ocular, auditory, and dental abnormalities over time, has been
described. Women with a
primary CMV infection should delay conception for 6 months.
Rubella (See also Chap. 201) Rubella virus is a known
teratogen; first-trimester rubella
carries a high risk of fetal anomalies, though the risk
significantly decreases later in
pregnancy. Congenital rubella may be diagnosed by
percutaneous umbilical-blood
sampling with the detection of IgM antibodies in fetal blood.
All pregnant women and all
women of childbearing age should be tested for their immune
status to rubella. All women
who might become pregnant and who are not immune to rubella
42. of genital herpes during the pregnancy.
Herpesvirus infection in the newborn can be devastating.
Disseminated neonatal
herpes carries with it high mortality and morbidity rates from
CNS involvement. It is
recommended that pregnant women with active genital herpes
lesions at the time of
presentation in labor be delivered by cesarean section.
Parvovirus Infection (See also Chap. 192) Parvovirus
infection (caused by human
parvovirus B19) may occur during pregnancy. It rarely causes
sequelae, but susceptible
women infected during pregnancy may be at risk for fetal
hydrops secondary to erythroid
aplasia and profound anemia.
HIV Infection (See also Chap. 197) The predominant cause of
HIV infection in children
is transmission of the virus from mother to newborn during the
perinatal period. All
pregnant women should be screened for HIV infection. Factors
that increase the risk of
mother-to-newborn transmission include high maternal viral
load, low maternal CD4+ T
cell count, prolonged labor, prolonged duration of membrane
rupture, and the presence of
other genital tract infections, such as syphilis or herpes. Prior to
the widespread use of
antiretroviral treatment, the perinatal transmission rate was in
the range of 20%. In women
with a good response to antiretroviral treatment, the
transmission rate is about 1%.
Measurement of maternal plasma HIV RNA copy number guides
the decision for vaginal
43. versus cesarean delivery. For women with <1000 copies of
plasma HIV RNA/mL who are
receiving combination antiretroviral therapy, the risk of
transmission to the newborn is
~1% regardless of mode of delivery or duration of membrane
rupture. These women may
elect to attempt a vaginal birth following the spontaneous onset
of labor. For women with
a viral load of ≥1000 copies/mL prior to 38 weeks of gestation,
a scheduled prelabor
cesarean at 38 weeks is recommended to reduce the risk of HIV
transmission to the
newborn.
VACCINATIONS
(See also Chap. 118) For rubella-nonimmune individuals
contemplating pregnancy,
measles-mumps-rubella vaccine should be administered, ideally
at least 3 months prior to
conception, but otherwise in the immediate postpartum period.
In addition, pregnancy is
not a contraindication for vaccination against influenza, tetanus,
diphtheria, and pertussis
(Tdap), and these vaccines are recommended for appropriate
individuals.
MATERNAL MORTALITY
Maternal death is defined as death occurring during pregnancy
or within 42 days of
completion of pregnancy from a cause related to or aggravated
by pregnancy, but not due
to accident or incidental causes. The maternal mortality ratio is
the number of maternal
deaths per 100,000 live births. From 1935 to 2007, the U.S.
maternal mortality ratio
decreased from nearly 600/100,000 births to 12.7/100,000
45. maternal death in these countries are maternal hemorrhage,
hypertensive disorders,
infection, obstructed labor, and complications from unsafe
pregnancy termination. The
health interventions that would have the greatest impact on
maternal health include
improving the following components of the health system: (1)
access to contraceptive
services in order to space births and limit total family size; (2)
access to safe pregnancy
termination; (3) presence of trained birth attendants at all
deliveries; and (4) transportation
to emergency obstetrical centers that can provide intensive
medical and surgical services,
including cesarean delivery. Maternal death is a global public -
health tragedy that could be
mitigated with the application of modest resources.
SUMMARY
With improved diagnostic and therapeutic modalities as well as
advances in the treatment
of infertility, more patients with serious medical complications
will be seeking to become
pregnant and will require complex obstetric care. Improved
outcomes of pregnancy in
these women will be best attained by a team of internists,
maternal- fetal medicine (high-
risk obstetrics) specialists, pediatricians and anesthesiologists
assembled to counsel
these patients about the risks of pregnancy and to plan their
treatment prior to, and
following, conception. The importance of preconception
counseling cannot be overstated.
It is the responsibility of all physicians caring for women in the
reproductive age group to
assess their patients’ reproductive plans as part of their overall
46. health evaluation.
ACKNOWLDGEMENT
The authors are grateful to Michael F. Greene and Dan L. Longo
for their contributions to
the content on neoplasia in pregnancy based upon material from
previous editions of
Harrison’s.
FURTHER READING
BRASIL P et al: Zika virus infection in pregnant women in Rio
de Janeiro-preliminary report.
N Engl J Med 375:2321, 2016.
ESPOSITO S et al: Chemotherapy against cancer during
pregnancy: A systematic review on
neonatal outcomes. Medicine (Baltimore) 95:e4899, 2016.
LEFEVRE ML et al: Low-dose aspirin use for the prevention of
morbidity and mortality from
preeclampsia: U.S. Preventive Services Task Force
recommendations statement. Ann
Int Med 161:819, 2014.
MOADDAB A et al: Health care disparities and state-specific
pregnancy- related mortality in
the United States, 2005–2014. Obstet Gynecol 126:869, 2016.
STEWART ZA et al: Closed-loop insulin delivery during
pregnancy in women with Type 1
Diabetes. N Engl J Med 375:644, 2016.
WARE JS et al: Shared genetic predisposition in peripartum and
dilated cardiomyopathies.
N Engl J Med 374:233, 2016.
50. therapy. For patients awaiting non-emergent surgeries and
without acute coronary syndrome,
perioperative risk is a combination of clinical and surgical risk.
Select procedures and surgeries (e.g.,
select endoscopic procedures) are associated with low
perioperative (<1%) risk and no further clinical
testing is generally necessary. For those procedures associated
with elevated risk, an assessment of
functional capacity informs the decision for further testing.
Those individuals with moderate or greater
functional capacity do not require further testing and should
proceed to surgery. Individuals with poor
or unknown functional capacity may require pharmacologic
stress testing if it would change decision-
making or perioperative care. (From LA Fleisher et al:
Circulation 2014;130:e278-e333, with permission.)
Previous studies have compared several cardiac risk indices.
The American College of
Surgeons’ National Surgical Quality Improvement Program
prospective database has
identified five predictors of perioperative myocardial infarction
(MI) and cardiac arrest
based on increasing age, American Society of Anesthesiologists
class, type of surgery,
dependent functional status, and abnormal serum creatinine
level. However, given its
accuracy and simplicity, the RCRI (Table 467-2) is often the
favored risk index. The RCRI
relies on the presence or absence of six identifiable predictive
factors: high-risk surgery,
ischemic heart disease, congestive heart failure, cerebrovascular
disease, diabetes
mellitus treated with insulin, and renal insufficiency with a
creatinine >2.0 mg/dL. Each of
these predictors is assigned one point. The risk of major cardiac
53. For patients at elevated combined clinical and surgical risk for
MACE, the stepwise
perioperative cardiac assessment for coronary artery disease
(CAD) proceeds with
consideration of functional capacity. Participation in activities
of daily living offers an
expression of functional capacity, often expressed in terms of
metabolic equivalents
(METs). For predicting perioperative events, poor exercise
tolerance has been defined as
the inability to walk four blocks or climb two flights of stairs at
a normal pace or to meet a
MET level of 4 (e.g., carrying objects of 15–20 lb or playing
golf or doubles tennis)
because of the development of dyspnea, angina, or excessive
fatigue (Table 467-3).
Patients with moderate or greater (≥4 METs) functional capacity
(e.g., climbing up a flight
of stairs, walking up a hill, or walking on level ground at 4
mph) generally should not
undergo further non-invasive cardiac testing prior to elective
non-cardiac surgery. Those
patients with poor (<4 METs) or unknown functional capacity
should undergo
pharmacological stress testing if the results of such testing
would impact decision-
making or perioperative care.
TABLE 467-3 Assessment of Cardiac Risk by Functional Status
PREOPERATIVE NONINVASIVE CARDIAC TESTING FOR
RISK
STRATIFICATION
There is little evidence to support widespread application of
preoperative noninvasive
cardiac testing for all patients undergoing major surgery. The
55. Perioperative Coronary Revascularization Prophylactic
coronary revascularization with
either coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG) or percutaneous
coronary intervention (PCI)
provides no short- or mid-term survival benefit for patients
without left main CAD or three-
vessel CAD in the presence of poor left ventricular systolic
function and is not
recommended for patients with stable CAD before noncardiac
surgery. Although PCI is
associated with lower procedural risk than is CABG in the
perioperative setting, the
placement of a coronary artery stent soon before noncardiac
surgery may increase the risk
of bleeding during surgery if dual antiplatelet therapy (DAPT)
(aspirin and thienopyridine)
is administered; moreover, stent placement shortly before
noncardiac surgery increases
the perioperative risk of MI and cardiac death due to stent
thrombosis if such therapy is
withdrawn prematurely (Chap. 270). It is recommended that, if
possible, elective
noncardiac surgery be delayed 30 days after placement of a bare
metal intracoronary
stent and ideally for 6 months after deployment of a drug-
eluting stent. Contemporary
stent platforms allow for greater flexibility in the earlier
interruption of DAPT; current
clinical practice guidelines do suggest consideration of elective
noncardiac surgery 6
months after drug eluting stent (DES) implantation if the risk of
further delaying surgery
exceeds the risk of stent thrombosis/myocardial ischemia. For
patients who must undergo
noncardiac surgery early (>14 days) after PCI, balloon
angioplasty without stent
56. placement appears to be a reasonable alternative because DAPT
is not necessary in such
patients.
PERIOPERATIVE PREVENTIVE MEDICAL
THERAPIES The goal of perioperative preventive medical
therapies with β-adrenergic antagonists, hydroxymethylglutaryl-
coenzyme A (HMG-CoA)
reductase inhibitors (statins), and antiplatelet agents is to
reduce perioperative adrenergic
stimulation, ischemia, and inflammation, all of which are
heightened during the
perioperative period.
B-ADRENERGIC ANTAGONISTS The use of perioperative
beta blockade should be based on a
thorough assessment of a patient’s perioperative clinical and
surgery-specific cardiac risk
(e.g., as with the RCRI). The paradigm for beta blockade in the
perioperative period has
shifted in recent years owing, firstly, to the publication of the
PeriOperative Ischemic
Evaluation (POISE) trial demonstrating that, while
perioperative beta blockade reduces the
perioperative risk for MI, this is at the expense of increased
death and stroke. Regarding
POISE, this trial has been criticized for the use of an excessive
dose of beta blocker in the
perioperative period and one that may not be reflective of
clinical practice, nor one that
was titrated in the days or weeks preceding the procedure or
surgery. Secondly, research
misconduct has discredited the Dutch Echocardiographic
Cardiac Risk Evaluation
Applying Stress Echocardiography (DECREASE) family of
studies, which previously
58. undergoing vascular surgery independent of clinical risk.
Perioperative initiation of statin
therapy should be considered in patients undergoing elevated
risk procedures if there is an
indication for such therapy separate from the surgery and
according to clinical practice
guidelines.
ANGIOTENSIN-CONVERTING ENZYME (ACE) INHIBITORS
It is important to maintain continuity of
therapy with ACE inhibitors (when such therapy is used for the
treatment of heart failure or
hypertension).
ORAL ANTIPLATELET AGENTS The 4- to 6-week period
following implantation of an
intracoronary stent (bare metal or drug eluting) constitutes the
period of time of greatest
risk for the development of stent thrombosis. If possible,
noncardiac surgery should be
avoided in this vulnerable period. The duration of DAPT
thereafter is dictated by the
circumstances in which PCI was performed and whether the
indication was stable
ischemic heart disease or acute coronary syndrome. For the
former among patients
treated with a drug eluting stent, dual anti-platelet therapy
should be given for at least 6
months. For the latter, dual anti-platelet therapy should be
given for at least 12 months.
However, DAPT may be interrupted to allow for noncardiac
surgery 30 days after BMS and
6 months after DES, respectively. If P2Y12 inhibitor therapy
(clopidogrel, prasugrel, or
ticagrelor) is interrupted or discontinued in patients who have
received intracoronary
60. have predictable circulatory and respiratory effects: all decrease
arterial pressure in a
dose- dependent manner by reducing sympathetic tone and
causing systemic
vasodilation, myocardial depression, and decreased cardiac
output. Inhaled anesthetics
also cause respiratory depression, with diminished responses to
both hypercapnia and
hypoxemia, in a dose-dependent manner; in addition, these
agents have a variable effect
on heart rate. Prolonged residual neuromuscular blockade also
increases the risk of
postoperative pulmonary complications due to reduction in
functional residual lung
capacity, loss of diaphragmatic and intercostal muscle function,
atelectasis, and arterial
hypoxemia from ventilation-perfusion mismatch.
TABLE 467-4 Gradation of Mortality Risk of Common
Noncardiac Surgical Procedures
Several meta-analyses have shown that rates of pneumonia and
respiratory failure are
lower among patients receiving neuroaxial anesthesia (epidural
or spinal) rather than
general anesthesia. However, there were no significant
differences in cardiac events
between the two approaches. Evidence from a meta-analysis of
randomized controlled
trials supports postoperative epidural analgesia for >24 h for the
purpose of pain relief.
However, the risk of epidural hematoma in the setting of
systemic anticoagulation for
venous thromboembolism prophylaxis (see below) and
postoperative epidural
catheterization must be considered.
62. c. PEF <100 L or 50% predicted value
d. PCO2 ≥45 mmHg
e. PO2 ≤50 mmHg
2. Patients undergoing emergency or prolonged (3–4 h) surgery;
aortic aneurysm repair;
vascular surgery; major abdominal, thoracic, neurologic, head,
or neck surgery; and
general anesthesia should be considered to be at elevated risk
for postoperative
pulmonary complications.
3. Patients at higher risk of pulmonary complications should
undergo incentive
spirometry, deep-breathing exercises, cough encouragement,
postural drainage,
percussion and vibration, suctioning and ambulation,
intermittent positive-pressure
breathing, continuous positive airway pressure, and selective
use of a nasogastric tube
for postoperative nausea, vomiting, or sympto matic abdominal
distention to reduce
postoperative risk. Multiple pulmonary risk indices are
available to estimate the
postoperative risk of respiratory failure, pneumonia, and other
pulmonary
complications; among these is the ARISCAT risk index, which
accounts for the
following seven risk factors: age, low preoperative oxygen
saturation, respiratory
infection within the preceding month, upper abdominal or
thoracic surgery, surgery
lasting >2 h, and emergency surgery (Table 467-6).
TABLE 467-6 Risk Modification to Reduce Perioperative
64. patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease or asthma.
5. Spirometry is of value before lung resection in determining
candidacy for coronary
artery bypass; however, it does not provide a spirometric
threshold for extrathoracic
surgery below which the risks of surgery are unacceptable.
6. Pulmonary artery catheterization, administration of total
parenteral nutrition (as
opposed to no supplementation), or total enteral nutrition have
no consistent benefit in
reducing postoperative pulmonary complications.
PERIOPERATIVE MANAGEMENT AND PROPHYLAXIS
DIABETES MELLITUS
(See also Chaps. 396–398) Many patients with diabetes mellitus
have significant
symptomatic or asymptomatic CAD and may have silent
myocardial ischemia due to
autonomic dysfunction. Intensive (versus lenient) glycemic
control in the perioperative
period is generally not associated with improved outcomes, and
may increase the risk of
hypoglycemia. Practice guidelines advocate a target glucose
range from 100 to 180
mg/dL in the perioperative period. Oral hypoglycemic agonists
should not be given on the
morning of surgery. Perioperative hyperglycemia should be
treated with IV infusion of
short-acting insulin or SC sliding-scale insulin. Patients whose
diabetes is diet controlled
may proceed to surgery with close postoperative monitoring.
INFECTIVE ENDOCARDITIS
66. moderate risk; unfractionated heparin (5000 units SC tid) is
appropriate for patients at
high risk. Graduated compression stockings and pneumatic
compression devices are
useful supplements to anticoagulant therapy or in patients at
excessive bleeding risk.
FURTHER READING
FLEISHER LA et al: 2014 ACC/AHA Guideline on
perioperative cardiovascular evaluation
and management of patients undergoing noncardiac surgery.
Circulation 130:e278,
2014.
LEVINE GN et al: 2016 ACC/AHA guideline focused update on
duration of dual antiplatelet
therapy in patients with coronary artery disease. A Report of the
American College of
Cardiology/American Heart Association Task Force on Clinical
Practice Guidelines. J
Am Coll Cardiol 68:1082, 2016.
NISHIMURA RA et al: 2017 AHA/ACC focused update of the
2014 AHA/ACC guideline for
the management of patients with valvular heart disease. A
report of the American
College of Cardiology/American Heart Association Task Force
on clinical practice
guidelines. Circulation 135:1, 2017.
SMETANA GW et al: American College of Physicians.
Preoperative pulmonary risk
stratification for noncardiothoracic surgery: Systematic review
for the American
College of Physicians. Ann Intern Med 144:581, 2006.
67. file://view/books/9781259644047/epub/OEBPS/part6g.html#ch2
73
Grader - Instructions Access 2019
ProjectGO19_AC_CH02_GRADER_2E_HW - Biology Supplies
1.1
Project Description:
In this project, you will use a database to answer questions
about biology laboratory supplies at a college. You will open
and save an existing database, create a relationship between two
tables, sort records in a table, create queries in Design view,
create queries from existing queries, sort query results, and
specify criteria in a query.
Steps to Perform:
Step
Instructions
Points Possible
1
Start Access. Open the downloaded file named
Student_Access_2E_Biology_Supplies.accdb, and enable the
content.
0
2
Using Vendor ID as the common field, create a one-to-many
relationship between the 2E Vendors table and the 2E Biology
Lab Supplies table. Enforce referential integrity and enable both
cascade options.
6
3
Create a relationship report with normal margins. Save it as 2E
Relationships Close all open objects.
6
4
In the last record of the 2E Vendors table, change the data in
the Vendor ID field from V-100 to V-001, save and then close
68. the table. (The related records in the 2E Biology Lab Supplies
table will automatically update.)
3
5
Open your 2E Biology Lab Supplies table. Sort the records first
in Descending order by Price Per Item and then in Ascending
order by Category. Close the table, saving changes to the table.
5
6
Create a query in Query Design view based on the 2E Biology
Lab Supplies table to answer the question: What is the item ID,
item name, room, location, and quantity in stock for all of the
items, sorted in ascending order by the Room field and the
Location field? Display the fields in the order listed in the
question. Save the query as 2E Items by Room Query. Close the
query.
15
7
Copy the 2E Items by Room Query to create a new query with
the name 2E Item Categories Query. Redesign the query to
answer the question: What is the item ID, item name, category,
vendor ID, and quantity in stock for all items, sorted in
ascending order by the Category field and the Vendor ID field?
Display only the fields necessary to answer the question and in
the order listed in the question. Be sure that the fields are sorted
in the correct order in Design view, so that the results display
the categories in ascending order, then the Vendor IDs within
each category in ascending order. Close the query, saving the
design changes.
16
8
Copy the 2E Items by Room Query to create a new query with
the name 2E Supplies Sort Query. Redesign the query to answer
the question: What is the item name, category, price per item,
and quantity in stock for all supplies, sorted in ascending order
by the Category field and then in descending order by the Price
69. Per Item field? Display only the fields necessary to answer the
question and in the order listed in the question. Close the query,
saving the design changes.
16
9
Copy the 2E Supplies Sort Query to create a new query with the
name 2E Kits Query. Redesign the query to answer the question:
What is item name, category, price per item, quantity in stock,
and vendor ID for all items that have a category of kits, sorted
in ascending order by the Item Name field? Do not display the
Category field in the query results, and display the rest of the
fields in the order listed in the question. Run the query; six
records match the criteria. Close the query, saving the design
changes
20
10
Create a query in Query Design view based on the 2E Vendors
table to answer the question: What is the vendor ID, vendor
name, and phone number where the phone number is blank,
sorted in ascending order by the Vendor Name field? Display
the fields in the order listed in the question. Run the query; two
records match the criteria. Save the query as 2E Missing Phone
Query. Close the query.
13
11
Be sure that all database objects are closed, open the Navigation
Pane, and then close Access. Submit the
Student_Access_2E_Biology_Supplies.accdb database as
directed.
0
Total Points
100
Created On: 07/11/2019 1
GO19_AC_CH02_GRADER_2E_HW - Biology Supplies
1.1