FINAL EXAM (46 QUESTIONS)
1
For audit evidence to be compelling to the auditor it must be sufficient and appropriate. Which statement below is not correct regarding the appropriateness of audit evidence?
·
The more effective the internal control system, the more assurance it provides the auditor about the reliability of financial reporting by the client.
·
An auditor's opinion, to be economically useful and profitable to the auditing firm needs to be formed within a reasonable time and based on evidence obtained that assures profits for the auditing firm.
·
The independent auditor's direct personal knowledge, obtained through inquiry, observation and inspection, is generally more persuasive than information obtained indirectly.
·
Evidence obtained from independent sources outside the entity is generally more reliable than evidence secured solely within the entity.
2
The final step in the evaluation of the audit results is the decision to:
·
project the point estimate.
·
determine sampling error and calculate the estimated total population error.
·
determine the error in each sample.
·
accept the population as fairly stated or to require further action.
3
The word below that best explains the relationship between required sample size and the acceptable risk of incorrect acceptance is:
·
inverse.
·
proportional.
·
direct.
·
indeterminate.
4
The introductory paragraph of the standard audit report for a non-public company performs which functions?
I. It states the CPA has performed an audit.
II. It lists the financial statements being audited.
III. It states the financial statements are the responsibility of the auditor.
·
I and III
·
I, II and III
·
I and II
·
II and III
5
Master files, spreadsheets, and reports that accumulate material, labor, and overhead as the costs are incurred are:
·
finished goods inventory records.
·
accounting systems.
·
storeroom documents.
·
cost accounting records.
6
Which of the following balance-related audit objectives typically is assessed as having high inherent risk for cash?
·
Presentation and disclosure
·
Cutoff
·
Existence
·
Detail tie-in
7
In addition to confirming bank balances of your audit client, a bank confirmation would normally contain:
·
the client's credit history as regards to paying back loans.
·
the client's managements bank account information.
·
the client's bank loans with due date, interest rate, and collateral requested.
·
the client's business prospects.
8
A commitment is best described as:
·
an agreement to commit the firm to a set of fixed conditions in the future that depends on current market conditions.
·
an agreement to commit the firm to a set of fixed conditions in the future.
·
an agreement to commit the firm to a set of fixed conditions in the future that depends on company profitability.
·
a potential future obligation to an outside party for an as yet to b ...
1. FINAL EXAM (46
QUESTIONS)
1
For audit evidence to be compelling to the auditor it must be
sufficient and appropriate. Which statement below is not correct
regarding the appropriateness of audit evidence?
·
The more effective the internal control system, the more
assurance it provides the auditor about the reliability of
financial reporting by the client.
·
An auditor's opinion, to be economically useful and profitable
to the auditing firm needs to be formed within a reasonable time
and based on evidence obtained that assures profits for the
auditing firm.
·
The independent auditor's direct personal knowledge, obtained
through inquiry, observation and inspection, is generally more
persuasive than information obtained indirectly.
·
Evidence obtained from independent sources outside the entity
is generally more reliable than evidence secured solely within
the entity.
2
The final step in the evaluation of the audit results is the
decision to:
·
project the point estimate.
·
2. determine sampling error and calculate the estimated total
population error.
·
determine the error in each sample.
·
accept the population as fairly stated or to require further
action.
3
The word below that best explains the relationship between
required sample size and the acceptable risk of incorrect
acceptance is:
·
inverse.
·
proportional.
·
direct.
·
indeterminate.
4
The introductory paragraph of the standard audit report for a
non-public company performs which functions?
I. It states the CPA has performed an audit.
II. It lists the financial statements being audited.
III. It states the financial statements are the responsibility of
the auditor.
·
I and III
3. ·
I, II and III
·
I and II
·
II and III
5
Master files, spreadsheets, and reports that accumulate material,
labor, and overhead as the costs are incurred are:
·
finished goods inventory records.
·
accounting systems.
·
storeroom documents.
·
cost accounting records.
6
Which of the following balance-related audit objectives
typically is assessed as having high inherent risk for cash?
·
Presentation and disclosure
·
Cutoff
·
Existence
4. ·
Detail tie-in
7
In addition to confirming bank balances of your audit client, a
bank confirmation would normally contain:
·
the client's credit history as regards to paying back loans.
·
the client's managements bank account information.
·
the client's bank loans with due date, interest rate, and
collateral requested.
·
the client's business prospects.
8
A commitment is best described as:
·
an agreement to commit the firm to a set of fixed conditions in
the future that depends on current market conditions.
·
an agreement to commit the firm to a set of fixed conditions in
the future.
·
an agreement to commit the firm to a set of fixed conditions in
the future that depends on company profitability.
·
5. a potential future obligation to an outside party for an as yet to
be determined amount.
9
The management's responsibility section of the standard audit
report for a non-public company states that the financial
statements are:
·
the responsibility of management.
·
the joint responsibility of management and the auditor.
·
none of the above.
·
the responsibility of the auditor.
10
Which of the following audit procedures would be the most
correct in determining the audit objective of existence for the
equipment account in the fixed asset master file?
·
Review transactions near the balance sheet date.
·
Examine vendor invoices and receiving reports.
·
Examine vendor invoices for correct accounting treatment.
·
Recalculate vendor invoices.
11
Which of the following is not explicitly stated in the standard
6. unqualified audit report?
·
The audit was conducted in accordance with generally accepted
accounting principles.
·
The auditors believe that the audit evidence provides a
reasonable basis for their opinion.
·
The financial statements are the responsibility of management.
·
An audit includes assessing the accounting estimates used.
12
The ________ is a contract between a carrier (e.g., a trucking
company) and the seller of goods that dictates the details
surrounding the shipment of goods.
·
picking ticket
·
bill of lading
·
remittance advice
·
sales invoice
13
The appropriate and sufficient evidence to be obtained from
tests of details must be decided on an:
·
7. none of the above.
·
efficiency basis.
·
audit objectives basis.
·
effectiveness basis
14
Which of the following groups has the responsibility for
identifying and deciding the appropriate accounting treatment
for recording or disclosing contingent liabilities?
·
Management and the auditors
·
Management
·
Auditors
·
Legal counsel
15
Which of the following business functions is not considered to
be part of the acquisitions class of transactions?
·
Processing purchase orders
·
Receiving goods and services
·
8. Processing cash disbursements
·
Recognizing liabilities
16
When auditing the capital acquisition and repayment cycle, it is
common to verify each transaction taking place in the cycle for
the entire year as a part of verifying the balance sheet accounts.
·
False
·
True
17
The computer-generated file which records acquisitions,
disbursements and allowances for each vendor is the:
·
Accounts payable master file.
·
Purchase approval file.
·
Acquisitions transaction file.
·
Cash disbursements file.
18
________ accumulate costs by individual jobs as material is
issued into production and labor costs are incurred.
·
Process cost systems
9. ·
Manufacturing systems
·
Job order cost systems
·
Just-in-time production systems
19
Which of the following expenses is not typically evaluated as
part of the audit of the acquisition and payment cycle?
·
Insurance expense
·
Depreciation expense
·
Property tax expense
·
Estimated liability for warranties
20
Which of the following accounts is not associated with the
acquisition and payment cycle?
·
Accrued property taxes
·
Income tax expense
·
Common stock
10. ·
Property, plant and equipment
21
Some companies have customers send payments directly to an
address maintained by a bank. This is called a(n) ________
system.
·
direct deposit
·
funds transfer
·
interbank transfer
·
lockbox
22
In most manufacturing companies, the inventory and
warehousing cycle begins with the:
·
completion of production of a customer's order.
·
receipt of a customer's order.
·
acquisition of raw materials for production of an order.
·
initiation of production of a customer's order.
23
You are auditing Rodgers and Company. You are aware of a
11. potential loss due to non-compliance with environmental
regulations. Management has assessed that there is a 40%
chance that a $10M payment could result from the non-
compliance. The appropriate financial statement treatment is to:
·
accrue a $4 million liability.
·
disclose a liability and provide a range of outcomes.
·
since there is less than a 50% chance of occurrence, ignore.
·
since there is greater that a remote chance of occurrence, accrue
the $10 million.
24
The audit procedure that requires an auditor to "foot the
acquisition schedule" relates to which balance-related audit
objective?
·
Cut-off
·
Classification
·
Existence
·
Detail tie-in
25
The standard unqualified audit report for a non-public entity
must:
12. ·
include an explanatory paragraph.
·
be addressed to the company's stockholders and creditors.
·
be dated.
·
have a report title that includes the word "CPA."
26
When the auditor decides to select less than 100 percent of the
population for testing, the auditor is said to use:
·
poor judgment.
·
audit sampling.
·
estimation sampling.
·
representative sampling
27
Which of the following does not have to be considered in
determining the initial sample size of a test of details?
·
Estimate of misstatements in the population
·
Acceptable risk of incorrect rejection
13. ·
Tolerable misstatement
·
Acceptable audit risk
28
Auditors seldom learn about the capital acquisition and
repayment cycle when gaining an understanding of the client's
business and industry.
·
False
·
True
29
Which of the following statements is not correct?
·
The sample size for any given procedure is likely to vary from
audit to audit.
·
It is possible to vary the sample size from one unit to 100% of
the items in the population.
·
The decision of how many items to test must be made by the
auditor for each audit procedure.
·
The decision of how many items to test should not be influenced
by the increased costs of performing the additional tests.
30
A document used by organizations to establish a formal means
14. of recording and controlling acquisitions which usually contains
a package of documents about the acquisition is the:
·
purchase order.
·
purchase requisition.
·
voucher.
·
receiving report
31
One unique characteristic of the capital acquisition and
repayment cycle is that relatively few transactions affect the
account balances, but each transaction is often highly material
in amount.
·
False
·
True
32
Smaller privately held companies may not maintain an accounts
payable master file by vendor. These companies pay on the
basis of:
·
dunning letters.
·
vendors' monthly statements.
·
15. individual vendors' invoices.
·
the accounts payable account in the general ledger
33
Which of the following is an analytical procedure to determine
if there is idle equipment or equipment that was disposed of but
not written off?
·
Compare depreciation expense divided by gross equipment cost
with previous years.
·
Compare accumulated depreciation divided by gross equipment
cost with previous years.
·
Compare annual repairs and maintenance accounts with previous
years.
·
Compare gross manufacturing cost divided by some measure of
production with previous years.
34
A sample in which the characteristics of the sample are the
same as those of the population is a(n):
·
variables sample.
·
random sample.
·
16. attributes sample.
·
representative sample.
35
Which of the following tests are typically not necessary when
auditing a client's schedule of recorded disposals?
·
Footing the schedule
·
All of the above are necessary.
·
Tracing cost and accumulated depreciation of the disposals to
the property master file
·
Tracing schedule totals to the general ledger
36
To determine if a sample is truly representative of the
population, an auditor would be required to:
·
use systematic sample selection.
·
never use sampling because of the expense involved.
·
conduct multiple samples of the same population.
·
audit the entire population
37
17. Which of the following is a business function related to sales
returns and allowances?
·
Processing customer orders
·
Writing off uncollectible accounts
·
Granting credit
·
Processing and recording credit memos
38
You are auditing Manufacturing Company and testing the audit
related objective of completeness for the equipment accounts.
Which of the following audit procedures is most likely to
achieve your objective?
·
Physically examine assets.
·
Examine vendor invoices of closely related accounts such as
repairs and maintenance.
·
Trace individual acquisitions to the fixed asset master file.
·
Examine vendor invoices and receiving reports.
39
Which of the following is not one of the business functions for
the payroll and personnel cycle?
·
18. Timekeeping and payroll preparation
·
Reconciliation of payroll account
·
Payment of payroll
·
Human resources and employment
40
Which of the following is a correct statement regarding audit
evidence?
·
Evidence is usually more reliable for balance sheet accounts
when it is obtained within six months of the balance sheet date.
·
A large sample of evidence provided by an independent party is
always considered persuasive evidence.
·
The auditor must obtain a sufficient amount of relevant and
reliable evidence to form an opinion on the fairness of the
financial statements.
·
A small sample of only one or two pieces of highly appropriate
evidence is always considered persuasive evidence
41
Accrued payroll taxes are normally considered to be associated
with the acquisition and payment cycle.
·
19. True
·
False
42
Because cash is the most desirable asset for people to steal, it
has a higher:
·
control risk.
·
detection risk.
·
liquidity risk.
·
inherent risk.
43
The computer file used for recording payroll transactions for
each employee and maintaining total wages paid for the year to
date is the: 44
44.The total of the individual employee earnings in the payroll
master file should equal the total:
·
gross payroll plus the total contributed by the employer for
payroll taxes.
·
balance of gross payroll in general ledger accounts.
·
of the checks drawn to employees for payroll.
20. ·
gross pay for the current week's payroll.
·
payroll transaction file.
·
payroll tax returns.
·
payroll master file.
·
payroll bank account reconciliation.
45
Auditors are especially concerned with three aspects of internal
control for the sales and collection cycle. Which of the
following is not one of their major concerns?
·
Controls over sales discounts
·
Controls over cutoff
·
Controls that prevent or detect embezzlements
·
Controls related to the allowance for uncollectible accounts
46
The two primary classes of transactions in the sales and
collection cycle are:
·
21. sales and cash receipts.
·
sales and sales returns.
·
sales and accounts receivable.
·
sales and sales discounts