Written Assignment for Unit llWJ •Include your name, student.docx

Written Assignment for Unit ll>WJ
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xi
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PSY 228
Social Psychology
Text: Social Psychology: Sociological Perspectives
Second Edition, 2011
ISBN-10: 0-205-66106-8
Autnoris). David E. Rohall, Melissa A. Milkie and Jeffrey
W. Lucas
Publisher: Pearson
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Multiple Choice Questions (Enter your answers on the enclosed
answer sheet)
1. Which early sociologist emphasized the role of society in the

development of the self?
a. George Herbert Mead
b. Karl Marx
c. Georg Simmel
d. Herbert Blumer
2. Which sociological social psychology perspective
emphasizes the role of meaning and the social
construction of meaning in the study of social psychology?
a. symbolic interaction
b. social structure and personality
c. group processes
d. structural functionalism
3. Which sociological social psychology perspective is likely
to emphasize the importance of roles
and statuses in the study of social psychology?
b. social structure and personality
c. group processes
d. structural functionalism
4. Which sociological social psychology perspective is likely
to emphasize the importance of
interactions within groups?
b. social structure and personal ity
c. group processes
d. structural fu nctional ism
5. The sociological imagination is associated with which social
theorist?
a. Emile Durkheim
b. Max Weber
c. C. Wright Mills
d. Auguste Comte
29

6. The expectation to look someone in the eye when
talking with them refers to a _
a. norm
b. role
c. value
d. belief
7. Derek's job as a supervisor refers to his relative in
the company while the
expectations for how to behave on the job refers to his _
a. role; status
b. job; role
c. status; role
d. status; job
8. Which institution regulates sexual relations and child-rearing
in society?
a. economy and work
b. politics
c. family
d. religion
9. Which institution refers to the rituals and beliefs regarding
sacred things?
a. economy and work
b. politics
c. family
d. religion
10. Franklin did not think much about how the economy or
society affects his life until he lost his
job. Franklin's internal processesing of his job loss best
represents which principle from the
social structure and personality perspective?
a. components principle
b. proximity principle
c. propinquity principle
d. psychology principle
30

11. After Donna cheated on her most recent exam, she starts to
feel a sense of guilt, making
her reconsider whether she wants to do it again. Donna's
feelings of guilt can be considered a
______ , according to the social structure and personality
perspective, leading her to
rethink her future behaviors.
a. social more
b. social norm
c. social force
d. social fear
12. Which of the following is considered a major dimension of
group processes?
a. power
b. justice
c. legitimacy
d. All of the above.
13. Janelle wants to study how and why some people are able
to tell other people what to do while
others can not. What aspect of group processes is she studying?
a. power
b. status
c. iustice
d. legitimacy
14. What social psychologist is most associated with the
concepts of dyads and triads?
a. Emile Durkheim
b. August Comte
c. Herbert Blumer
d. Georg Simmel
15. The difference between dyads and triads is important
because:

a. moving from a dyad to a triad exponentially increases the
number of relationships
available in an interaction.
b. moving from a dyad to a triad decreases the amount of
intimacy possible in a group.
c. moving from a dyad to a triad exponentially decreases the
number of relationships
available in an interaction.
d. both a and b
31
16. A group of friends getting together for dinner
represents a group while a group
of people at your work represents a group.
a. reference; pri mary
b. primary; reference
c. primary; secondary
d. secondary; reference
17. Bob goes to the beach on a hot summer day and is
surprised when he observes a group of
people dressed in formal wear sitting in beach chairs amongst
sunbathers. Bob was surprised
because the did not meet his expectations for that
situation.
a. situation
b. social scripts
c. frame
18. require the researcher to weigh individual items
differently.
a. Indices
b. Scales
c. both a and b

d. None of the above.
19. Which of the following methods is MOST likely to show
causation?
a. ethnography
b. focus group
c. survey
d. experiment
20. An instructor developed a study to determine ways of
producing more participation in his
classes. In one class she provided free donuts everyday of class
while in another she gave them
nothing. She had her assistant takes notes on the number of
comments and questions
students made in each class. Which of these classes represent
the control group?
a. the class not given the donuts
b. the class given the donuts
c. other classes that are not part of the experiment
d. both classes would be considered the control group
32
21. developed the field of operant conditioning; much of
his work relied on
experiments using rats and pigeons.
a. Carl Jung
b. B.F. Skinner
c. Sigmund Freud
d. Joseph Berger
22. At what step in the research process does the researcher
employ the library and other
resources and conduct a literature review?
a. step 1
b. step 2

c. step 3
d. step 4
23. At what step in the research process does the researcher
actually go out and collect data?
a. step 1
b. step 2
c. step 3
d. step 4
24. Research conducted by interviews, participant observations
and ethnographies is referred to
as what kind of research?
a. quantitative
b. qualitative
c. breeching
d. experimental
25. Social scientists must always be concerned with
and to
accurately capture the phenomena in question.
a. truth and rei iabi I ity
b. reliability and validity
c. truth and validity
d. probability and validity
33
Writing Assignment for Unit One
• I nclude your name, student number, course number,
course title and unit number on each page
of your writing assignment (this is for your protection in case
• Begin each writing assignment by identifying the question

(i.e., an introduction, middle
points to writing assignments. However,
points tend to submit writing assignments
that fa II in the followi ng ranges:
Plagiarism
answers into your own words. Do not simply cut
and paste your answers from the I nternet and do not copy your
the course syllabus for more details on plagiarism and proper
citation styles.
Please answer ONE of the following:
1. Think about the concept of poverty. How would a macro-
level sociologist study this concept
differently than a micro-level sociologist?
2. Discuss how symbolic interactionists define the concept of
society. What role do symbols and
language play in the development of society?
3. Discuss the ways that group structures can impact
interaction in groups. Specifically, examine
how group size (i.e., dyads and triads) and types of groups (e.g.,
primary groups) impact
interactions between people.
34

answer sheet)
1. How does Kohn and Schooler's model of status attainment
link economic status, job
characteristics and personal ity?
a. People with lower economic status tend to find work in
jobs that have more supervision.
b. People with lower economic status tend to find work in
jobs that require less intellectual
flexibility.
c. People with less intellectual flexibility tend to seek jobs
that are routinized.
2. Bradley, a student at Big U, regularly seeks advice from
his professor and mentor, Janet.
According to exchange theory, what kind of exchange is most
likely motivating Janet to stay in
this relationship?
a. a direct exchange
b. a reciprocal exchange
c. a generalized exchange
3. What was being exchanged among crew members and the
captain in George Homan's research
about exchange processes on small warships?
a. support
b. caring
c. listening
4. Who gets the most status in groups based on Bales'
research in social exchanges in small
groups?
a. Those who are perceived as the best managers.
b. Those who are perceived as being the smartest.
c. Those who contribute the most to the group.

d. Those who listen and care the most for the other members.
5. Which of the following best reflects a task group used to
study status processes in groups?
a. A group of students at a class lecture.
b. A group of people waiting in line to pay at a store.
c. A group of citizens meeting to resolve a local problem.
64
6. Why are weak ties so important for finding work?
a. People with whom we have weak ties live and work in
circles outside our own.
b. People with whom we have weak ties tend to have better
jobs.
c. People with whom we have weak ties aren't biased against
us in the job market.
d. People with whom we have weak ties provide training in
getting better jobs.
7. According to status characteristics theory, gender, race and
education levels are examples of
a. diffuse status characteristics
b. specific status characteristics
c. roles
d. class positions
8. According to status characteristics theory, skill at playing
basketball would be considered
a. diffuse status characteristics
b. specific status characteristics
c. roles
d. class positions
9. People are aware of the status hierarchies that dove
lop in task-oriented group:>.
a. almost always

b. usually not
c. always
10. Which theorist is most associated with impression
management?
a. Auguste Comte
b. Emile Durkheim
c. Herbert Blumer
d. Erving Goffman
11. According to dramaturgical sociology, what area of
identity is associated with hanging out with
friends while watching television?
a. front stage
b. back stage
c. performance stage
d. informal groups
65
12. A first date would most likely be associated with what area
of identity?
a. front stage
b. back stage
c. performance stage
d. informal groups
13. Spencer Cahill's research on "bathroom behavior"
clearly showed that _
a. people act very differently in bathrooms than other areas
of life
b. there are rules and norms about behavior in bathrooms
c. people use bathrooms to "retire" from their front stage
presentations
14. Which of the following has the strongest impact on self-

esteem?
a. social comparisons
b. reflected appraisals
c. psychological central ity
d. self-perceptions
15. are observations of our behavior and its
consequences.
a. Reflected appraisals
b. Self-oercentions
c. Social comparisons
d. Psychological centrality
16. What is the best way to build a child's sense of mastery or
efficacy?
a. personal accomplishments
b. vicarious experience
c. verbal persuasion
d. emotional arousal
17. Rosenberg's early research on mattering found it
positively related to and
negatively related to _
a. self-esteem; alcoholism
b. depression; self-esteem
c. self-esteem; depression
d. mastery; depression
66
18. Given research and theory in life-course sociology, which
of the following groups are most likely
to be negatively affected by Hurricane Katrina?
a. a poor White family who survived the storm together
b. a poor African-American family who survived the storm
together
c. a middle-class White man who lost his income and had no

access to family or friends
during the event
d. a middle-class African-American family who survived the
storm together
19. Tony and Rose both received word that they were called up
for active duty in the military out of
the reserve component of the forces. Tony is several years older
with a wife and child while
Rose is just finishing college. Which dimension of life course
sociology best explains why Tony
is more likely to be affected by the mobilization than Rose?
a. historical context
b. social timing
c. linked lives
d. agency
20. Which of the following is NOT considered a primary agent
of socialization?
a. family
b. peers
c. schools
d. government
21. Elder's study of the Great Depression generally showed
that _
a. all children were negatively affected by growing up in the
Great Depression
b. only children growing up in poverty were affected by the
Great Depression
c. the Great Depression had the strongest impact on
children's lives by changing family
roles
d. both band c
22. Kohn's work on class socialization generally showed that
middle-class families tend to stress
______ while working-class families emphasize in
raising their
children.

a. autonomy: conformity
b. conformity, freedom
c. freedom, independence
d. conformity: autonomy
67
23. Rosenthal and Jacobson's study of classroom interaction is
important because:
a. it showed that children are taught to be racist in the
classroom.
b. it showed that 10 scores could be manipulated based on a
group prejudice.
c. it showed that children's 10 scores were not linked to race
at all.
d. it showed that racist beliefs and values exist in every
classroom.
24. Which of the following groups are most prevalent in
American schools based on Adler and
Adler's research on peer culture?
a. the popular click
b. the wannabes
c. middle friendship circles
d. social isolates
25. Group processes researcher is important to the study of
socialization in what way?
a. It shows the importance of peer-group interactions in
socialization processes.
b. It shows the importance of family interactions.
c. It shows the importance of the media.
d. It emphasizes the impact of socialization in group settings.
68

Writing Assignment for Unit Two
• I nclude your name, student number, course number,
course title and unit number on each page
Plagiarism
citation styles.
1. Describe the concept of "doing gender." Apply this process
to other statuses in society (e.g.,
race, ethnicity or sexuality).
2. Review the three ways that interactionists view the

development and maintenance of
stratification in society.
3. Discuss the similarities and differences between identity
theory and social identity theory.
69
answer sheet)
l. Most college students represent which type of person in
Merton's typology of deviance?
a. conformists
b. innovators
c. ritua lists
d. retreatists
2. A homeless person who decides to live in the woods is
probably best represented by which of
the following people using Merton's typology of deviance?
a. conformists
b. innovators
c. ritualists
d. retreatists
3. Which of the following represent strain according to new
interpretations of strain theory?
a. negative relationships with family and friends
b. poverty
c. unornploymoot
4. Which theory of deviance tries to explain why individuals do
not commit crime?
a. labeling theory
b. strai n theory
c. social control theory
d. theory of differential association

5. Sampson and Laub's research on delinquent and non-
delinquent youths in Boston found
delinquency was greater when bonds with which social
institutions were weakest?
a. family
b. education
c. work
d. both a and c
99
6. In high school, Janet rarely got involved in smoking or
drinking. In college, Janet found some
friends who spent most of their off time consuming large
amounts of alcohol and other drugs.
Soon, she did the same and did not know anyone who did not
spend their time that way. Which
theory best explains Janet's behavior given this limited amount
of information?
a. labeling theory
b. strain theory
c. social control theory
d. theory of differential association
7. Which of the following best exemplifies white collar crimes?
a. stealing a purse
b. simple assault
c. telling a lie to your friend
d. embezzling from work
8. Murder would most likely be considered the breaking
of a while picking your
nose in public would be breaking a _
a. more; folkway
b. folkway; more
c. norm; value

d. both are mores
9. Scholars contend that and are two factors that
affect the
likelihood of committing a crime.
a. controls; formal sanctions
b. certainty; severity
c. certainty; informal sanctions
d. severity; formal sanctions
10. Given the research on the epidemiology of mental health,
which group is most likely to report
problems with drinking? Depression?
a. married people; singles
b. African-Americans; Latinos
c. African-Americans; Whites
d. men; women
100
1l. The stresses associated with living in urban areas come
from while the stresses
associated with rural areas tend to be a result of _
a. lack of stimulation; ambient hazards
b. ambient hazards; lack of stimulation
c. urban malaise; rural malaise
d. negative life events; chronic stresses
12. How do group processes scholars examine the concept of
mental illness?
a. It is viewed as a status characteristic like race or gender.
b. It is viewed as a normal part of group interactions.
c. It is viewed as a major area of group research.
d. It is viewed as a way for individuals in groups to negotiate
identity.
13. Which of the following would be considered a total
institution?

a. your college
b. a pol ice station
c. a prison
d. a family household
14. Which sociologist is most associated with the concept of
stigma?
a. Erving Goffman
b. Georg Simmel
c. George Herbert Mead
d. Herbert Blumer
15. Goffman's research on total institutions showed that many
patients in insane asylums generally
_____ their roles as patients.
a. resist
b. accept
c. use colonization to cope with
16. Which of the following coping strategies emphasize
patients' attempts to rebel against asylum
staff?
a. conversion
b. intransigence
c. withdrawal
d. colonization
101
17. The loss of a job is represented in which component of the
stress process?
a. stressors
b. outcomes
c. mediators and moderators
d. social and economic characteristics
18. LaPiere's study of prejudice clearly showed that most

people _
a. have some prejudice
b. act on their prejudices
c. do not act on their prejudices
d. both a and c
19. Overall, American political attitudes lean on being _
a. very conservative
b. moderately conservative
c. moderately liberal
d. very liberal
20. Which of the following groups could be identified as most
liberal in the U.S.?
a. females living in the Midwest
b. females living on the west coast
c. males living in the Midwest
d. males I ivi ng on the West Coast
21. Which of the following groups spend the most time on
childcare? Which group has shown an
increase in time spent with childcare?
a. women for both questions
b. men for both questions
c. men; women
d. women; men
22. Which of the following social theorists is most associated
with studying racial prejudice in the
United States?
a. George Herbert Mead
b. W.E.B. Du Bois
c. Talcott Parsons
d. William Thomas
102
23. Based on status construction theory, what would be the

best way to get what you want out of a
group and leave a positive impression?
a. Act like a very nice person.
b. Act like a generous person.
c. Act like a majority member of society.
d. Act like a high-status person.
24. Willer's research showing presidential approval ratings
increasing after the 9/11 terrorist
attacks in the U.S. clearly showed _
a. in-group bias tendencies
b. out-group bias tendencies
c. prejudicial biases
d. ideological alliances
25. The slow treatment of Hurricane Katrina victims was
used as an example of in
your text.
a. government inefficiency
b. conscious racism
c. unconscious racism
103
Writing Assignment for Unit Three

Plagiarism
citation styles.
1. How do symbolic interactionists examine the social
construction of mental health? Specifically,
review Foucault's historical analysis of mental illness in
western cultures and the
medicalization of deviance.
2. Discuss how community conditions can impact individuals'
mental health. Be specific about
the role of stressors and resources available under different
community conditions (e.g.,
urban vs. rural; poor vs. middle class).
3. Review the different dimensions of attitudes. How does the
complexity in attitudes help to
explain the relatively weak relationship between a person's
attitudes and their behaviors?
104

6. According to exchange theory and research, which of the
following situations is most likely to
produce a positive emotion?
a. an exchange in which people get the amount equal to their
position in the group
b. an exchange in which you get as much as you gave
c. an exchange in which you get less than you gave
d. All of these exchanges will produce a positive emotion.
7. According to the exchange theory, what sentiment is
EXPECTED when you get more out of an
exchange than you give?
a. sadness
b. guilt
c. happiness
d. joy
8. According to research and theory of group processes, how
does power in relationships affect our
emotions?
a. Relationships characterized as having equal power
engender positive emotion.
b. Power makes us feel guilty in social exchanges.
c. Relationships characterized as having unequal power
engender positive emotion.
d. Power gives us a positive feeling only when we deserve it
during social exchanges.
9. Secondary emotions are _
a. learned through socialization
b. similar to sentiments
c. social emotions
d. All the above.
10. Your feeling that a district attorney has a lot of power
refer to which dimension of affect control
theory?
a. eval uation

b. potency
c. activity
d. strength
11. What emotion did wheelchair users employ when managing
interactions with "stand-up"
people in Cahill and Eggleston's study of people with a
handicap?
a. fear
b. humor
c. love
d. anger
126
12. Your friend, Chloe, goes through a bad break-up and her
cat runs away all in the same week.
When you and Chloe are out to dinner one night you run into
Sarah, a good friend of yours from
school. Chloe expresses the tragedies that have befallen her the
past week to Sarah who
proceeds to listen and then changes the conversation. Once back
to your dinner, Chloe
expresses her dismay and hurt that Sarah did not seem
concerned about her break-up or loss
of her cat. Sarah is upset because her were not met.
a. social scripts
b. emotional scripts
c. sentiments
d. emotions
13. According to Randall Collins' theory of interaction ritual
chains, what role does emotion play in
the maintenance of society?
a. Emotional energies provide the reason for maintaining
interactions in society.

b. Emotional scripts provide information about how to behave
in society.
c. Emotions give us cues as to whether we are performing our
roles in society adequately.
d. Emotions exist within a series of "feeling rules" about how
to behave in society.
14. Which of the following jobs does NOT demand high levels
of emotion work.
a. waitress
b. teacher
c. customer service agent
15. Steve turned to the people around him for help in deciding
how to act at a local protest.
According to perception control theory, what form of perception
control is he using?
a. independent instruction
b. interdependent instruction
c. organizational instruction
d. i nteractiona I instruction
16. What is the best predictor of an individual participating in a
march or a riot?
a. her structural position
b. her concern over a social condition in society
c. her being asked to go to the event
d. her access to resources
127
17. The vast majority of protests and other collective events
have which kind of dispersal?
a. routine dispersal
b. emergency dispersal
c. coerced dispersal

d. active dispersal
18. Which of the following are typical behaviors at a large
protest march?
a. People break off into a series of smaller groups.
b. People form lines to access various facilities.
c. People develop arcs and circles around speakers.
d. All of the above are typical behaviors.
19.
_____ is thrill-seeking behaviors designed to produce intense
emotions.
a. Potency
b. Edgework
c. Cyberneticism
128
20. Enduring emotional meanings in a given society is known as
_
a. fundamental sentiments
b. transient sentiments
c. emotional cues
d. emotion work
21. The debate as to whether or not you should stop and look
at an accident while driving by,
possibly slowing down the traffic behind you, is an
example of a _
a. social dilemma
b. free rider problem
c. group conformity
d. mass hysteria
22. Public radio-radio stations that rely, in part, on listener
support to stay in business-run the
risk of what problem?

a. a social dilemma
b. the free rider problem
c. group conform ity
d. mass hysteria
23. The use of is important to the forming of collective
memories.
a. storytelling
b. collective behavior
c. collective emotion
d. framing
24. According to emergent norm theory, the is the type
of person who
participates in the group out of curiosity.
a. ego-involved participant
b. curiosity seeker
c. concerned partici pant
d. insecure participant
25. Phase of collective behavior referring to the factors that
bring people together into the same
place at the same time.
a. gathering phase
b. homogeneity of mood
c. assembling phase
d. interpretive phase
129
Writing Assignment for Unit Four

Plagiarism
citation styles.
1. Review the theory of interaction ritual chains. How do our
emotions contribute to the
maintenance of society according to this theory?
2. Review the role of emotions in exchange processes. What
conditions are most I ikely to produce
positive emotions? Negative emotions? What role does power
and status play in the
development of emotions in exchange relationships?
3. Apply group processes theory and research related to

coalitions to explain the development of
social movements more broadly. First, define the concept of
coalition. Second, describe how
coalitions work and the conditions that make them successful.
Third, apply this information to
explain how and why people initiate social movements in
society.
130
Publisher:
Prentice Hall, Upper Saddle River, NJ 07458
PSY380
PERSONALITY TH EORI ES
Text: Theories of Personality: Understanding Persons
5th Edition, 2008
ISBN: 0-13-243409-1 /978-0-13-243409-6
Authors:
Susan C. Cloninger
Persona Theories
answer sheet)
1) Personality theories are tested using the method.
A) scientific
B) intuitive
C) clinical
D) idiographic
2) Which of the following illustrates a theoretical proposition?
A) Aggression includes verbal behavior (e.g., insulting

someone) as well as physi-
cal behavior (e.g., hitting someone).
B) Frustration can be produced by a malfunctioning soda
machine.
C) Frustration is a subjective experience.
D) Frustration leads to aggression.
3) Theoretical constructs which are defined too vaguely lack
A) heuristic value.
B) precision.
C) parsimony.
D) verifiability.
4) A researcher decides to see how consistent a new
personality test is by com-
puting two scores. One score is the total of the odd-numbered
items. The other
score is the total of the even-numbered items. What is the
researcher assess-
ing?
A) test-retest reliability
B) validity
C) split-half reliability
D) alternate forms reliability
5) Which approach to reliability can be used if subjects are
tested on only one
occasion, using only one test?
A) alternate forms reliability
B) test-retest reliability
C) split half reliability
D) No reliability tests are possible with only one testing
session.
6) Direct self-report measures of personality
A) are seldom used.
B) are valid even when subjects intentionally give false
responses.
C) always measure several personality traits simultaneously.
D) are often reliable.

43
Persona Theories
44
7) A researcher is interested in testing the proposition that
being in a good mood
causes increased cooperation among children at school. This can
be tested by
conducting an experiment in which the dependent variable is
A) mood.
B) cooperation.
C) being in school.
D) age.
8) Psychobiography is different from case studies because
psychobiography has
more emphasis on
A) pathology.
B) experimental methods.
C) the individual.
D) theoretical considerations.
9) The dependent variable corresponds to what a researcher
thinks is the
A) cause.
B) third variable.
C) uncontrollable factor.
D) effect.
10) Freud's theory challenged our trust in
A) hypnosis.
B) science.
C) therapy.
D) conscious experience.
11) A"Freudian slip"is caused by

A) unconscious wishes.
B) catharsis.
C) childhood trauma.
D) dreams.
12) Which kind of person is most likely to deal with impulses
through sublima-
tion?
A) a creative artist
B) a child
C) a neurotic
D) a psychotic
Personal Theories
45
13) Optimism, passivity, and dependency are characteristic of
the
A) oral character.
B) latent character.
C) phallic character.
D) anal character.
14) Before he abandoned the seduction hypothesis, Freud
believed that psychiat-
ric maladjustment in his female patients was caused by
A) seduction of children by strangers.
B) excessive talk about adult sexuality in the presence of
children.
C) fear of sexual temptations.
D) incest between daughters and their fathers.
15) Most experts agree that recovered memories of sexual abuse
are
A) accurate for female victims but not for male victims.
B) inaccurate in many cases.

C) accurate for male victims but not for female victims.
D) almost always accurate.
16) The archetypes that are closest to consciousness are
A) the Hero and the Trickster.
B) the Great Mother and the Spiritual Father.
C) the Shadow and the Anima (or Animus).
D) the Mandala and the Self.
17) Jung understood religious symbolism in terms of
A) the persona.
B) the diffusion hypothesis.
C) the personal unconscious.
D) the collective unconscious.
18) Jung dreamt of "looking up at" a patient whom he had been
viewing with little
respect. This dream was interpreted (in the text) according to
the principle of
A) amplification.
B) individuation.
C) compensation.
D) synchronicity.
Persona Theories
46
19) People whose psychic energy tends to "flow outward'toward
external reality
are types.
A) intuitive
B) extraverted
e) sensation
0) feeling
20) Jungian psychological types have been found to influence
people's behavior in

A) eyewitness testimony.
B) business.
e) education.
0) all of the above
21) In his explanation of the concept of organ inferiority, Adler
emphasized
A) determinism.
B) the subjective experience of the child.
e) the inheritance of personality.
0) the impact of physical limitations on the development of
intelligence.
22) The unknown part of a person's fictionally final goal is
A) irrelevant to psychological functioning.
B) the unconscious.
e) likely to cause emotional problems.
D) repressed because of painful childhood experiences.
23) According to Adler, the most important determinant of
personality is
A) parental behavior.
B) birth order.
e) biological factors.
0) a person's own choices.
24) What do Adlerians offer parents?
A) the threat of lawsuits
B) legal options
e) sympathy
0) training programs
Persona Theories
47
25) Adler's major criterion for psychological health is
A) high achievement in school.

B) the absence of anxiety.
C) social interest.
D) creativity.
Persona Theories
Written Assignment for Unit One
Be sure to refer to the course syllabus for instructions on
format, length,
and other information on how to complete this assignment.
1) Discuss the strengths and weaknesses of psychobiography
as an approach to
understanding personality.
2) How was Jung's understanding of the unconscious different
from that of
Freud?
3) Describe a mentally healthy personality, according to Adler.
48
Personal Theories
answer sheet)
t) Erikson's basic principle for understanding
development was the _
principle.
A) compensatory
B) epigenetic
C) conflict

D) self-actualization
2) According to Erikson's epigenetic principle,
A) some people are more gifted, genetically, than others.
B) people get what they deserve out of life.
C) males and females are different because of their biology.
D) development proceeds according to a biologically-based
plan, with sequential
development of parts.
3) According to Erikson's theory, the sense of is
particularly likely to
interfere with an individual's initiative.
A) mistrust
B) shame
C) guilt
D) despair
4) In Erikson's third psychosocial stage, the child acts in
a(n) mode.
A) intrusive
B) incorporative
C) incompetent
0) selfish
5) Culture's "ideal prototypes" support the ego strength of
A) initiative.
B) identity.
C) fidelity.
0) autonomy.
6) Individual rituals that are defensive, such as obsessive
hand-washing, are
called by Erikson.
A) ritualisms
B) ideal prototypes
C) compulsions
0) moratoria
102

103
7) Erikson described girls as more concerned with than
boys.
A) aggression
B) conflict
C) inner space
0) building
8) According to Horney, the two most important emotions in
infancy which help
understand later development are
A) fear and love.
B) hope and trust.
C) anxiety and hostility.
0) depression and joy.
9) In Horney's view, a neurotic person is alienated from
the self.
A) real
B) actual
C) idealized
0) physical
10) Horney described some people as over-valuing the idealized
self. The term for
this is "the tyranny of the "
A) shoulds
B) conscience
C) idealized self
0) neurotic ideal
11) According to Horney, differences between men and women
are
A) primarily due to biological causes.
B) not very great, when we really get to know people.
C) primarily due to lack of communication.

0) primarily due to cultural forces.
12) Research with parents and children, using Ainsworth's
strategy of observing
infants in the presence of a stranger,
A) shows that all infants are frightened of strangers.
B) shows that infants raised by neurotic parents prefer a
stranger to their biologi-
cal mothers.
C) disconfirms Horney's theory.
0) is consistent with Horney's theory.
Personal Theories
104
13) Which interpersonal orientation(s) does a healthy person
use, according to
Horney?
A) moving toward, against, and away
B) moving against, but not toward or away
C) moving away, but not toward or against
0) moving toward, but not against or away
14) Allport defined personality as "the within the
individual of those
psychophysical systems that determine his unique adjustments
to the environ-
ment:'
A) development
B) dynamic organization
C) existence
0) nurturance
15) Which of the following is not a value measured by the
Allport-Vernon-Lindzey
Study of Values?

A) Academic
B) Aesthetic
C) Religious
0) Theoretical
16) Which way of describing George best illustrates Allport's
concept of central
traits?
A) George is not like anyone else I know.
B) George is a typical Englishman.
C) George is like a lamb; he is very meek.
0) George is intelligent, ambitious, deceptive, good-looking,
friendly, athletic,
and selfish.
17) Secondary traits describe ways in which
A) people try to get their own way in competitive settings.
B) people are inferior to others.
C) personality can be measured by questionnaire.
0) people are consistent, but in ways that affect few behaviors.
105
18) According to psychoanalysis, people are motivated by
experiences in their
past. Which concept from Allport contrasts with this view?
A) central traits
B) habits
C) extrinsic orientation
D) functional autonomy
19) Cattell classified projective tests, such as the Rorschach
inkblot test, as
A) Q-data.
B) L-data.

C) T-data.
D) D-data.
20) The Culture Fair Intelligence Test is designed to measure
A) the impact of culture on intelligence.
B) race differences in intelligence.
C) fluid intelligence.
D) crystallized intelligence.
21) Constitutional, dynamic source traits such as anger,
curiosity, and fear are
called
A) sentiments.
B) metaergs.
C) ergs.
D) attitudes.
22) The Big Five model
A) offers a therapy approach.
B) explains personality.
C) describes personality.
D) all of the above
23) The best way to raise a child who has an inhibited
temperament, in order to
produce a well-adapted personality, is to
A) encourage the child to explore the environment and give
warnings when ap-
propriate.
B) provide strict discipline.
C) continue setting high standards for the child to achieve.
D) do not interfere with the child's innate tendencies.
Persona Theories
106
24) The term that refers to a person's inherited genetic profile is

A) genotype.
B) temperament.
C) genome.
0) phenotype.
25) The fundamental assumption of evolutionary approaches is
that
A) genetic variations that enhance reproductive success will
become more fre-
quent over generations as a result of natural selection.
B) males are superior to females.
C) experience does not influence personality.
0) biology influences physical but not behavioral
characteristics.
Personal Theories
Written Assignment for Unit Two
Be sure to refer to this course syllabus for instructions on
format,
length, and other information on how to complete this
assignment.
1) Select one of Erikson's first four stages of development.
What crisis occurs
at that stage? What ego strength develops? How does culture
support that ego
strength?
2) Explain what Horney meant by"womb envy:'
3) What did Allport believe about the consistency of
personality?
107

Theories
151
answer sheet)
1) An important variable that Skinner studied was
A) love.
B) the rate of responding.
C) physiological responses.
D) social attitudes.
2) Skinner invented a device for studying learning. What was it
called?
A) the lever
B) the Skinner box
C) the paired associate device
D) the memory drum
3) Punishment
A) influences only the behavior that is punished.
B) reduces the frequency of behavior.
C) was recommended by Skinner as a means of controlling
behavior.
D) all of the above
4) Instead of spanking a child for using obscene language,
Skinner would recom-
mend
A) reasoning with the child about appropriate behavior.
B) using even worse language, so the child can hear how
terrible it sounds.
C) reinforcing the child for using desirable language.
D) washing the child's mouth out with soap.
5) Matthew has learned to tease his little sister, Jane. When
he first meets his

cousin, Sarah, he teases her, too. What learning concept best
explains this
teasing of Sarah?
A) negative reinforcement
B) generalization
C) ratio schedule reinforcement
D) discrimination
Personal Theories
152
6) Every response is reinforced in a schedule.
A) partial
B) continuous
C) ratio
D) interval
7) Which schedule is known for producing "scalloped"
records of responses, in
which periods of slow responding alternate with period of rapid
responding?
A) variable interval schedules
B) variable ratio schedules
C) fixed interval schedules
D) fixed ratio schedules
8) Staats advanced behavioral theory by
A) translating personality concepts into behavioral language.
B) showing the difference between positive reinforcement and
negative reinforce-
ment.
C) developing a more advanced Skinner box.
D) being the first behaviorist to study humans.
9) According to Staats, stimuli that elicit emotional responses
A) can be effective for punishment, but not for positive

reinforcement.
B) function as reinforcers for new learning.
C) are not suitable to use as reinforcers for children.
D) all of the above
10) Miller and Dollard suggested that "in order to learn,
one must -' no-
tice something, do something, and get something:'
A) want something
B) see something
C) avoid something
D) have something
Persona Theories
153
11) Which of the following best defines a cue in the sense that
Dollard and Miller
used the term?
A) a vague idea about what is desired
B) the reward for a behavior
C) distinctive stimuli that a person notices at the time of
behavior
D) an ordered list of possible responses
12) Which of the following can be a reward, in Dollard and
Miller's theory?
A) approval
B) money
C) food
D) all of the above
13) In the third stage of child development, according to
Dollard and Miller, a
child is often punished for
A) wetting the bed.

B) poor eating habits.
C) masturbation.
D) messiness.
14) Anxiety is most likely to be experienced in an approach-
avoidance conflict if
A) the avoidance gradient is always higher than the approach
gradient.
B) the approach gradient crosses the avoidance gradient, and
the person is very
far from the goal.
C) the approach gradient crosses the avoidance gradient, and
the person is at the
point where the two gradients cross.
D) the approach gradient is always higher than the avoidance
gradient.
15) There are two ways Jane can get to school. If she walks,
unfriendly dogs will
bark at her. If she rides the bus, the school bully will pull her
braids. What
kind of conflict is she experiencing?
A) avoidance-avoidance conflict
B) double approach-avoidance conflict
C) approach-avoidance conflict
D) approach-approach conflict
Persona Theories
154
16) Despite numerous physical difficulties, artist Frida Kahlo
believed she could
be successful in her work. This is called
A) cognitive bias
B) self-efficacy

C) collective efficacy
D) id inflation
17) According to Mischel, traits behavior.
A) predict
B) cause
C) contradict
D) describe
18) "If Jerry is shouting now, he may soon hit sorneone.This is
an example of a
A) stimulus-outcome expectancy
B) prototype
C) self-efficacy expectancy
D) behavior-outcome expectancy
19) Self-efficacy has been found to help treatment programs for
A) weight loss.
B) phobias.
C) AIDS prevention.
D) all of the above
20)A person high in self-efficacy
A) is high in overall intelligence.
B) believes he or she can act effectively in a situation.
C) is healthy.
D) is popular.
21) Kelly proposed a metaphor of man as
A) creator.
B) scientist.
C) zookeeper.
D) architect.
Persona Theories
155
22) The range of convenience of a construct describes

A) the extent to which the construct is adaptive in a person's
life.
B) the age at which the construct was formed.
C) the likelihood that the construct will change.
D) the events to which the construct applies.
23) One sign of good mental health is
A) having many concrete constructs.
B) slot movement.
C) having dichotomous constructs.
D) cognitive complexity.
24) Compared to threat, fear is concerned with
constructs.
A) incidental
B) interpersonal
C) comprehensive
D) physical
25) Linda tends to think about alternatives for too long, without
making a choice
about how to act in a situation. She should work on the
stage of the
C -P-C cycle.
A) first
B) third
C) second
D) none of the above
Personal Theories
Written Assignment for Unit Three
format,
assignment.

1) Explain Skinner's objection to mentalistic ideas such as
"intention:'
2) How does psychological behaviorism explain adjustment and
maladjustment?
3) Explain Dollard and Miller's concept of an approach-
avoidance conflict. Give a
hypothetical example.
156
Personal Theories
answer sheet)
1) Rogers regarded the fundamental motivation to be
A) sexual needs.
B) interpersonal needs.
C) the actualizing tendency.
0) the need for security.
2) Rogers described a force for growth in all of nature. He
called this the
A) formative tendency
B) anti-entropy tendency
C) self-actualizing tendency
0) actualizing tendency
3) Which of the following was not one of the characteristics
of a fully functioning
person listed by Rogers?
A) existential living
B) openness to experience
C) creativity
0) social interest
4) Unconditional positive regard means loving someone _
A) regard less of that person's behavior

B) because you yourself feel loved
C) unwisely
0) without considering the consequences
5) When therapists from the majority white culture are
counseling minority cli-
ents, there are often difficulties with according to the
text.
A) unconditional positive regard
B) empathic understanding
C) payment
0) congruence
197
Personal Theories
198
6) According to research on Rogerian therapy, the correlation
between the real
self and the ideal self
A) decreases after therapy.
B) increases after therapy.
e) is unaffected by therapy.
0) is not a useful measure.
7) The leader of an encounter group is called a
A) "facilitator:'
B) "resource person:'
e) "leader:'
0) "trainer:'
8) "Satellite relationships" are
A) unhealthy dependent relationships among family members.
B) relationships with people other than the spouse or primary
partner, sometimes
involving sexual intimacy.

e) a primary example of Rogers's influence on organizational
development.
0) consulting relationships with another therapist, to get a
second opinion.
9) Rogers suggested that political tensions could be reduced
through
A) encounter groups.
B) economic cooperation.
e) providing political leaders with psychotherapy.
0) better education.
10) Maslow's vision of "Taoist Science" emphasizes
A) the separation of the observer and the subject.
B) control of experimental error.
e) objectivity.
0) love and respect for the subject matter.
199
11) The need to be all that you can be, to fulfill all your
potentials, is typical of
the level of the need hierarchy.
A) second
B) fourth
C) third
0) fifth
12) Which of the following is listed by Maslow as a
characteristic of self-actual-
ized people?
A) need for privacy
B) intelligence
C) career success
0) many friends

13) Which of the following is characteristic of self-actualized
people, according to
Maslow?
A) firm belief in the values of their society
B) rejection of sexual needs
C) spontaneity
0) a sense that life is highly predictable
14) Maslow's need hierarchy theory helps us understand
A) why consumers sometimes pay more for prestigious
versions of products.
B) why economically secure people sometimes turn to the arts
and education.
C) why consumers choose some products over others.
0) all of the above
15)The term "positive psychology" refers to
A) a current emphasis in psychology on subjective experience
and psychological
health.
B) all the empirically verified findings within psychology.
C) a philosophical position that emphasizes scientific
observation.
0) political activism in favor of increased funding for
psychological research.
Persona Theories
16) The Dalai Lama has achieved a higher stage of
consciousness by following
the Eightfold path. Buddhists call this status
A) actualization.
B) self-actualization.
C) ego-integrity.
D) enlightenment.
17) is defined as any form of spiritual practice.

A) Guru
B) Karma
C) Yoga
D) Koan
18) The story of the blind men touching different parts of an
elephant and
each concluding it is a different animal demonstrates the
potential problems
of _
A) meditation
B) perception
C) yoga
D) sensation
19) The method of achieving an end of suffering described in
the Fourth Noble
Truth is called
A) detachment.
B) meditation.
C) the Eightfold Path.
D) thought-action orientation.
20) Research has demonstrated that meditation improves
A) vocabulary.
B) mathematical ability.
C) perceptual attention.
D) musical ability.
200
Persona Theories
201
21) Which of the following theorists was more concerned with
personality health
than with pathology?

A) Freud
B) Maslow
C) Horney
D) all of the above
22) Regarding cultural diversity, your text concludes that
A) Researchers are unaware of the problem of cultural bias in
personality theory.
B) the theories presented in the text are valid in all cultures.
C) further exploration is needed to determine the extent of
cultural bias in the
theories presented.
D) some of the theories presented are culturally biased; others
are free of cultural
bias.
23) When adult personality does not change
A) it may be that situational pressures contribute to stability
(for example, be-
cause of the similarity of adults to their spouses).
B) it proves the greater importance of childhood experience in
determining per-
sonality.
C) it proves that strong inner stability makes a person
resistant to environmental
pressures to change.
D) it is clear that environment does not influence adult
personality.
24) Emergent determinism suggests that
A) personality emerges from a social context, without which it
cannot be under-
stood.
B) basic physiological drives, represented in the nervous
system, determine per-
sonality.
C) higher order mental processes have a causal role in
personality.
D) ultimately, personality is determined by environmental

factors.
25) Which of the following has been proposed as evidence of a
healthy personal-
ity?
A) rigidity
B) integration or unity
C) conflict
D) all of the above
Persona
es
202
Written Assignment for Unit Four
format,
assignment.
1 )List and explain characteristics of a fully functioning person.
2)List and explain the three major conditions for effective
therapy, according to
Rogers.
3)Explain the term "paradigm:' How does a paradigm influence
research?

Publisher:
Pearson: Allyn & Bacon
PSY 270
Learning Theories
Text: Learning and Memory
4th Edition, 2009
ISBN: 10: 0205658628/ 13: 9780205658626
Authors:
Scott Terry
Learning Theories
answer sheet)
1. The central question for the field of Learning is:
(a) How do genetics influence behavior?
(b) What role does the environment play in the development of
mental process-
es?
(c) How do we come to have knowledge?
(d) Why do learning disabilities develop?
2. Which of the following could be considered valid ways to
measure learning?
(a) the rate at which an animal presses a bar in an experimental
chamber
(b) the degree to which one's respiration rate changes from one
situation to
another
(c) the ability of an individual to recall material while
completing an exam
(d) all of the above
3. Which of the following is not demonstrative of learning?
(a) possessing factual knowledge

(b) the acquisition of a new skill
(c) experiencing a surge in one's attentional ability following
the consumption of
a stimulant medication
(d) feeling more competent after training, compared to before
training
4. One's potential for learning could be demonstrated if:
(a) acquired knowledge is used after it is initially obtained
(b) acquired knowledge is used as it is obtained
(c) acquired knowledge is used before it is obtained
(d) none of the above
5. Which of the following changes in behavior are typically
excluded from a
formal definition of learning?
(a) changes that are transient
(b) permanent changes in behavior
(c) changes in one's behavioral repertoire
6. Bandura's "BoBo doll" experiment illustrated the distinction
between:
(a) physiological and affective changes in behavior
(b) potential and actual changes in behavior
(c) potential and maturational changes in behavior
(d) actual and physiological changes in behavior
29
Learnin Theories
30
7. Changes due to maturation are excluded from the
definition of learning
because:
(a) they may arise from innate forces

(b) neural
(c) they occur independent from one's experiences
8. Which of the following is a maturation-based, as opposed
to experience-
based, change in behavior?
(a) a rat's faster pace through a maze after 10 attempts through
the maze
(b) a decrease in one's anxiety level towards horror films after
viewing one horror
film per day for an entire year
(c) developing aggressive tendencies after viewing models
acting in an aggressive
manner
(d) bone growth
9. Habituation can be measured by:
(a) observing whole-body startle reactions to loud tones
(b) measuring the amount of blood flowing into one's brain
(c) measuring changes in the electrical conductivity of the skin
10. Which of the following is most likely to result in
suppressed responding
during a habituation experiment?
(a) spaced presentations
(b) massed presentations
(c) savings
(d) generalization
11. Which of the following is most likely to result in durable
habituation?
(a) spaced presentations
(b) massed presentations
(c) savings
(d) dishabituation

Learning Theories
31
12. After habituating his animals to a visual stimulus, Dr.
Stillman presents a
novel tone to his subjects. Following the presentation of the
tone, the animals
are again shown the initial visual stimulus, but they no longer
habituate to
this event. What has occurred?
(a) generalization
(b) sensory adaptation
(c) savings
(d) dishabituation
13. After habituating his animals to a dark-blue circle, Dr.
Stillman presents a
light-blue circle to his subjects and finds that they continue to
habituate to
this novel item. What has occurred?
(a) generalization
(b) sensory adaptation
(c) savings
(d) dishabituation
14. Effector fatigue occurs when:
(a) sensory receptors lose their ability to detect changes in the
environment
(b) one's response system is depleted
(c) a subject exhibits an orienting response to a stimulus
15. Neurons directly involved in the reflex arc have been
labeled:
(a) Type S
(b) Type R
(c) Type H
(d) Type A

, 6. Neurons directly involved in the reflex arc have been
labeled __ , and are
closely related to the process of __ .
(a) Type S; sensitization
(b) Type S; habituation
(c) Type H; sensitization
(d) Type H; habituation
Learnin Theories
17. Neurons that playa major role in the general level of
arousal of the nervous
system have been labeled:
(a) Type S
(b) Type R
(c) Type H
(d) Type A
18. Why is a CR sometimes called an anticipatory response?
(a) because a subject anticipates that making a CR will lead to
some type of
reward
(b) because a subject makes a CR during the presentation of the
US
(c) because a subject makes a CR during the presentation of the
CS
19. Which of the following methods of classical conditioning
is focused on the
survival value of conditioned associations?
(a) eyeblink conditioning
(b) SCR measurement
(c) conditioned taste aversion
20. Dr. Williams is interested in studying classical

conditioning, but she feels
that manipulating reflex-evoking USs in unethical. To work
around Dr. Wil-
liams's ethical standards, she should use:
(a) evaluative conditioning
(b) eyeblink conditioning
(c) SCR measurement
21. One possible drawback to evaluative conditioning is:
(a) the reflexes studied are difficult to observe
(b) the SCRs that are to be evaluated can be painful to subjects
(c) the traditional CRs used with the procedure are too intense
22. Questions about evaluative conditioning have addressed
(a) whether or not this process is truly classical conditioning
(b) the consciousness status of preference changes
(c) researchers should utilize verbal data during this procedure
32
Learnin Theories
23. Unconditioned Stimuli:
(a) have no biological significance to an organism
(b) are neutral stimuli
(c) cannot have their significance acquired
24. Unconditioned Stimuli:
(a) can have a sensory element to them
(b) are devoid of emotional significance
(c) do not typically elicit specific reactions
(d) are unidimensional
25. Which of the following could serve as a (S?
(a) the passage of time since the most recent US

(b) a tone
(c) one's external environment
33
Written Assignment for Unit One
Plagiarism

citation styles.
1. Explain the steps and results that were revealed in Tolman
and Honzick's (1930) latent
learning experiment.
2. Describe Basic and Applied Research and the similarities and
differences of each.
3. List and describe the several parametric features of
habituation that have been identified.
4. Describe the various methods of studying classical
conditioning.
34
Learni Theories
answer sheet)
1. In the last 3 months, Mike never knows when he is going
to get his allowance
from his parents. He knows that he gets paid about every week,
but sometimes
his allowance comes 10 days after the previous one, sometimes
only 4 days
separate his allowance, while some payments come on a regular,
7-day rota-
tion. The type of reinforcement schedule being used is a:
(a) variable interval
(b) fixed interval
(c) variable ratio
(d) fixed ratio
2. In a schedule, reinforcement occurs after a fixed
number of
responses.
(a) continuous reinforcement

(b) fixed ratio
(c) variable ratio
(d) fixed interval
3. An experimenter designs their experiment so that a
reinforcer is delivered
after a subject presses a bar in a Skinner box. To maximize
conditioning,
which delay interval (between the response and the delivery of
the reinforcer)
should be used?
(a) 1 second
(b) 2 second
(c) 4 second
(d) 8 second
4. The capacity to inhibit immediate gratification in
preference for a larger re-
ward in the long run is central to:
(a) secondary reinforcement
(b) self-control
(c) continuous reinforcement
(d) token reinforcement
5. The quickest way to reduce an organism's biological need
would be to use:
(b) self-control
(c) primary reinforcement
6. A teacher giving a student a coupon they can exchange for
a pencil, candy, or
other reward is an example of this type of reinforcement.
64
(a) secondary and primary reinforcement

Learni Theories
65
(b) self-control and token reinforcement
(c) primary and token reinforcement
(d) secondary and token reinforcement
7. After getting a good grade on an exam, Julie's mom gives
Julie a big hug. The
behavior of Julie's mom in this situation could best be described
as:
(b) social reinforcement
(c) primary reinforcement
8. Sales associates' attempts to help customers are sometimes
rewarded with
sales. Though which customer will buy may be unpredictable,
more attempts
should produce more sales. Such a schedule would
illustrate _
reinforcement:
(a) variable interval
(b) variable ratio
(c) fixed ratio
(d) fixed interval
9. A reinforcer:
(a) only has its reinforcing qualities in its originally-used
context
(b) does not always lead to satisfaction
(c) decreases the frequency of the operant response
(d) possesses transsituationality
10. Which of the following could occur within a participant
during punishment
training?

(a) aggression
(b) conditioned fear
(c) avoidance of the situation
11. Dr. Smith is trying to teach Billy to WANT to do his
homework, because of
the personal satisfaction that homework completion will bring
to Billy. Dr.
Smith is essentially trying to enhance Billy's:
(a) extrinsic motivation
(b) intrinsic motivation
(c) latent learning
(d) biofeedback ability
12. A reward can interfere with a punisher when: (page 138)
Learni Theories
(a) reward and punishment fail to arouse approach-avoidance
conflict
(b) the punishment is not consistent
(c) the punishing event becomes a secondary positive reinforcer
(d) none of the above- rewards never interfere with punishment
13. After Susie runs away from her mother and into the street,
she is almost hit
by a passing car. Following this event, Susie's mother punishes
her for her
behavior. Research shows that:
(a) Susie might continue to misbehave, in an even worse manner
(b) the punishment might have no effect on Susie
(c) both a and b
(d) neither a nor b
14. Self-Injurious Behavior tends to be treated with:
(a) reinforcement
(b) punishment

(c) aversion therapy
(d) learned helplessness
15. Skinner's stance of the use of punishment in treating Self-
Injurious Behavior
(SIB) was that:
(a) it should not be done because it is immoral
(b) it should not be done because it only reinforces the punisher
(c) it should be done if it is brief, harmless, and contingent on
SIB
(d) it should be done in an intense and painful way, in order to
be effective in
eliminating the SIB
16. Whenever Billy cries at the supermarket, his mom and dad
buy him a candy
bar, and find that with each trip to the store, Billy cries more
and more. What
is happening?
(a) Billy's responses are generalizing
(b) negative reinforcement- Billy has learned that when he cries
at the store, he
gets a candy bar
(c) masochistic behavior
(d) none of the above- there is no relation between the candy
bar and Billy's
behavior
17. Ernie's car has an automatic transmission with the gear
shift behind the
steering wheel. Earlier today, however, he drove his mom's car,
which has its
automatic transmission gear shift on the floor of the car. As he
tried to drive
his mom's car out of her driveway, he reached for the gear shift
behind the
steering wheel, although it wasn't there. Ernie's behavior in this
situation is
illustrative of:

66
Learning Theories
67
(a) retroactive interference
(b) proactive interference
(c) anchoring
18. As a result of taking this test today, you are having a
difficult time recalling
the material you studied yesterday, for a test in tomorrow's
calculus class.
The memory deficit described here illustrates:
(a) retroactive interference
(b) proactive interference
(c) anchoring
(d) remote associations
19. Response learning can be enhanced by:
(a) using meaningful response items
(b) using nonmeaningful response items
(c) the experimenter being vague
(d) responses having few associations
20. Which of the following can influence the degree to which
items in a paired-
associate learning task become connected to one another?
(a) prior knowledge
(b) preexisting associations
Ic) cognitive elaboration
21. Dr. Smith gives his experimental subjects the words BOY
and SKY to learn in
a paired associate task. After presenting subjects with these two

words,
subjects must generate a sentence that uses both of the words.
Dr. Smith's
methodology is studying the effect of which of the following
processes on
paired-associate learning?
(a) free recall
(b) cognitive elaboration
(c) memorization
(d) direction of associations
22. When presented with the stimulus word "BASKET" and
asked for a response,
Jody replies "BALL:'This response is typical of research
looking into which
aspect of paired associate learning?
(a) S-R mapping
(b) cognitive elaboration
Learning Theories
(c) prior knowledge
(d) direction of associations
68
23. Enhanced recall for information presented in an earlier (as
opposed to later)
portion of a word list is referred to as:
(a) the recency effect
(b) the primacy effect
(c) anchoring
(d) paired-associate learning
24. The existence of long-term memory can be said to be

supported by the occur-
rence of:
(a) the recency effect
(b) the primacy effect
(c) anchoring
(d) paired-associate learning
25. The idea that words from the same semantic category can
be recalled togeth-
er even if they were not presented as part of the same list is the
core idea
underlying:
(a) categorical clustering
(b) subjective organization
(c) associative clustering
(d) matrix recall
Written Assignment for Unit Two
points to written assiqnrnents, However,

Plagiarism
citation styles.
1. At the start of the 20th century, Edward Lee Thorndike
was one of the first researchers to
investigate instrumental learning. Explain the research he
conducted.
2. Describe the major criticism of the use of reinforcement in
learning.
3. Describe the major components of avoidance learning and
the theories that offer an
explanation of it.
4. Describe the work and research done by scientist Herman
Ebbinghaus.
69
Learni Theories
answer sheet)
1. You are asked "Who was the first president of the United
States?"To answer
this question, you would most likely have to retrieve
information from:

(a) short-term memory
(b) semantic memory
(c) episodic memory
(d) procedural memory
2. You are asked "Where were you on 9/1 1 ?" To answer this
question, you
would most likely have to retrieve information from:
(b) semantic memory
(c) episodic memory
3. The finding that certain amnesiacs have impaired episodic
LTM but preserved
semantic LTM (or vice-versa) suggests that:
(a) LTM is always damaged in amnesia
(b) STM is always damaged in amnesia
(c) episodic and semantic LTM are distinct from one another
(d) doctors don't really understand the disease
4. This anomalous forgetting phenomenon describes when a
person thinks they
have come up with an original idea, only to realize later it was
suggested by
someone else.
(a) cryptomnesia
(b) deja vu
(c) fugue reaction
5. Which of the following is NOT known to produce memory
loss?
(a) electroconvulsive therapy
(b) an unusual word appearing in the middle of a list of other
words
(c) the inducing of frustration in infants
99

Learni Theories
100
6. The answer to which of the following questions would
most likely involve acti-
vation of the mechanism(s) behind implicit memory?
(a) "When did you graduate from high school?"
(b) "When is your birthday?"
(c) "How do you drive a stick shift vehicle?"
(d) "Where were you on 9/11?"
7. Implicit Memory: Explicit Memory as Unconscious:
(a) Inactive
(b) Indirect
(c) Conscious
(d) Retention
8. A test that makes direct reference to a prior episode is most
likely assessing:
(a) incidental memory
(b) implicit memory
(c) working memory
(d) explicit memory
9. Mary's knowledge of how to drive a car is most likely
originating from her:
(a) explicit memory
(b) procedural memory
(c) episodic memory
(d) semantic memory
10. Which of the following features has been identified as
being a critical charac-
teristic of STM?
(a) unlimited capacity
(b) lack of potential for forgetting
(c) stores items verbally

(d) acoustic encoding
11. According to the word-length-effect, which of the
following words has the
best chance of being recalled correctly?
(a) INCARCERATION
(b) THOUGHTFULNESS
(c) TIRE
(d) MOUNTAINS
Learni Theories
12. The ability to recall, in order of presentation, which of the
following number
of items from a sequence of items, as indicative of a normal
adult memory
span:
(a) 12
(b) 4
(c) 7
(d) 2
13. The suffix effect tends to:
(a) enhance recall of recently-presented information
(b) enhance recall of information presented 24 hours or more
prior to recall
(c) diminish recall of recently-presented information
(d) diminish recall of information presented 24 hours or more
prior to recall
14. The impairment in patient K.F. suggests that:
(a) one needs STM to get information into LTM
(b) STM is not necessary for the transfer of information into
LTM
(c) LTM has a limited capacity
(d) STM actually has an unlimited capacity
15. Which is NOT listed in your text (Box 8.2) as a condition

which can cause
memory loss?
(a) Lyme disease
(b) toxic poisoning from bad shellfish
(c) alcohol poisoning
(d) all of the above can cause memory loss
16. Emotional events are highly recallable because:
(a) they tend to be non-distinctive, inhibiting interference from
external factors
(b) they allow our attention to wander
(c) they involve unconscious, but not conscious, memory
processes
(d) the bodily arousal occurring with emotions enhances
memory formation
17. According to McCarthy and Warrington (1990) which of
the following is NOT
a purpose of short term memory?
(a) familiarity
(b) problem solving
(c) language comprehension
(d) gateway to long-term memory
101
Learning Theories
102
, 8. High amounts of domain-specific knowledge can lead to the
development of:
(a) novice ability
(b) expert ability
(c) implicit memory
, 9. The testing effect produces the effect it does because:

(a) testing is less challenging than continued studying
(b) transfer-appropriate processing mechanisms are engaged
(c) testing is not connected to studying
20. Of all of the lectures in his Introductory Economics class,
Tom remembers
the class about global economics best because the teacher wore
all of his
clothes backwards and inside-out. The teachers was seemingly
trying to en-
courage:
(a) maintenance rehearsal
(b) the recency effect
(c) the formation of an implicit memory
(d) the von Restorff effect
21. One reason why textbooks place critical terms in bold-face
is due to the
premises of:
(a) maintenance rehearsal
(b) the recency effect
(d) the von Restorff effect
22. The enhanced recall of distinctive items, and the impaired
recall of informa-
tion presented just prior to the distinctive stimuli, is referred to
as:
(a) the anterograde amnesic effect
(b) the retrograde amnesic effect
(c) the von Restorff effect
(d) the recency effect
23. The occurrence of distinctive stimuli impairing the recall
of information pre-
sented after the distinctive items is referred to as:

Learning Theories
103
24. At the beginning of yesterday's sociology class, Dr. Smith
showed highly
suggestive pictures of men and women to illustrate the different
forms
that pornography can take. After this 5-minute slide show, Dr.
Smith gave a
45-minute lecture of pornography and modern society. However,
immediately
after the class ended, the students had no memory of the
lecture-- all they
could recall were the sexually explicit photographs shown at the
start of class.
This impaired memory is illustrative of:
25. The spacing effect suggests that:
(a) massed practice is better than distributed practice
(b) distributed practice is better than massed practice
(c) massed and distributed practice are equal in their utility
Written Assignment for Unit Three

Plagiarism
citation styles.
1. List and explain the different classifications of Amnesias.
2. Describe the early studies of short term and long term
memory. What was found in these
studies?
3. Explain the importance of the Brown-Peterson task and the
steps involved in it.
4. Describe and list the major components of schemas.
104

Learning Theories
answer sheet)
1. If a typical person is told to/Name a type of mammalr
which of the follow-
ing responses would be LEAST likely to be named?
(a) dog
(b) cat
(c) whale
(d) horse
2. When retrieving the concept CAR, the concept SPEEDING
TICKET is also
retrieved. What is the name of the concept that most directly
explains why
these two ideas are recalled together?
(a) priming
(b) prosopagnosia
(c) association/ spreading of activation
3. Adam is trying to remember information for his
psychology exam, but similar
information that he studied in sociology is also being retrieved,
interfering
with his thinking process. This interference is most similar to:
(a) priming
(b) the fan effect
(c) spreading of activation
4. Ever since his car accident, Joe has difficulty remembering
what his friends
do for a living, although he can remember their names. This

dysfunction is
evidence for:
(a) the modularity of episodic memory
(b) the modularity of semantic memory
(d) the validity of spreading of activation
5. An early, but ultimately incorrect, approach to
understanding the biology of
memory was:
(a) the modularity approach
(b) long-term potentiation
(c) the formation of memory molecules
134
Learning Theories
135
6. Remembering that improves over successive attempts at
reproduction of the
studied material is:
(a) hypermnesia
(b) encoding specificity
(c) distinctiveness
7. Motor skill learning has qualities that make it illustrative of:
(a) procedural learning
(b) declarative memory
(c) neither a or b
(d) both a and b
8. As Melanie sits in class paying attention to the new
material being presented
by her professor, this information, in its unconsolidated state, is

likely being
processed in which storage system?
(a) sensory memory
(b) short-term memory
(c) long-term memory
(d) implicit memory
9. One study on remembering knowledge learned in school
assessed learning 4
and 11 months after completion of a course. Grades fell
about on
the delayed tests.
(a) 10
(b) 20
(c) 50
, O. After practicing all summer long, Madison has finally
learned how to make a
baseball curve when she throws it. This ability can best be
described as:
(a) implicit learning
(b) spatial learning
(c) stimulus-response learning
(d) motor skill learning
Learni Theories
136
11. Tommy has been running the 1-mile race for his track team
for the past 5
years. His best times in each of the past 5 years, respectively,
have been
5:30,5:02,4:40,4:30, and 4:25. Assuming his training proceeds
accord-

ing to plan, which of the following times should he be capable
of running
this year, according to the power law?
(a) 3:59
(b) 4:02
(c) 4:23
(d) 4:10
12. The power law focuses on the relationship between motor
skills learning and:
(a) practice
(b) feedback
(c) motivation
(d) strength
13. Louie spent 4 hours yesterday afternoon learning how to
ride a new ail-ter-
rain vehicle, and had his competence tested over an obstacle
course. He
completed the course, but made 7 driving errors while on the
course. After
getting a good night's rest (and without additional driving
practice), Louie
returned to the course today and completed it with only 2 errors.
This skill
improvement is best referred to as:
(a) implicit learning
(b) practice independent learning
(c) practice dependent learning
(d) massed practice
14. Janet is learning how to type, in the context of a single-
session lab-based
psychology experiment. To maximize typing performance in this
context, the
best type of feedback should be delivered how soon after each
typing trial?
(a) 1 minute
(b) 1 hour

(c) immediately
(d) 10 minutes.
15. The self-guidance hypothesis suggests that:
(a) frequent feedback is the best way to improve motor skills
(b) delayed feedback allows one to learn how to correct their
own errors
(c) delayed feedback inhibits motor skill learning
(d) people can guide themselves when learning a motor skill-
feedback is not
necessary
Learni Theories
16. Which individual is likely to show the best classical
conditioning ability?
(a) a 27-yearold
(b) a 7-year-old
(c) a z-year-old
(d) a 72-year-old
17. Prenatal classical conditioning involves:
(a) exposing a child to a CS and US immediately after birth
(b) testing for a conditioned response at 1 month, and then 1
year, after birth
(c) exposing a fetus to CS-US pairings
18. Identical twins tend to show similar memory ability on tasks
involving:
(b) digit span
(c) sensory memory
(d) associative memory
19. Episodic memories can be assessed during infancy by using:
(a) classical conditioning
(b) habituation

(c) dishabituation
20. Childhood amnesia may be the result of:
(a) prenatal exposure to alcohol
(b) enhanced hippocampal activity during the first year of life
(c) well-formed meta memory skills
(d) diminished memory capacity during infancy, compared to
adulthood
21. Very young children tend to rely on data to
encode information,
whereas older children and adults utilize data during
encoding.
(a) sensory; motor
(b) sensory; verbal
(c) verbal; motor
(d) motor; sensory
137
Learning Theories
138
22. Cindy, a 6-year-old, is presented with several random
strings of letters to
commit to memory. Which of the following strings is she most
likely to re-
member in the correct order?
(a) RQY
(b) BHFZP
(c) MPLSTGX
(d) WYZDHLPMT
23. Developmental disabilities may be caused by:
(a) birth defects
(b) head injury

(c) malnutrition
24. In a l-roorn schoolhouse with students of all ages, Mr.
Smith notices that
some of his students are taking notes about what is being
discussed in class,
whereas others are not. Which of the following students would
be most likely
to be one of the students taking notes?
(a) Joe, a 5-year-old boy
(b) Jen, a 6-year-old girl
(c) Victor, a s-year-old boy
(d) Rhonda, a 12-year-old girl
25. Dr. Marie has a 23-year-old female patient that is having
problems with her
spatial memory. Giving this patient an estrogen supplement to
boost her
memory will likely have what effect on her memory
dysfunction?
(a) it will eliminate it
(b) it will make it worse
(c) it will have no long term impact
(d) it will make her smarter
Written Assignment for Unit Four

Plagiarism
citation styles.
1. Describe the several factors that playa role in episodic
retrieval.
2. Describe several general factors that are critical to
understand when studying spatial memory.
3. Describe the differences in cognitive abilities between men
and women.
4. The different manners in which individuals approach the
acquisition of knowledge are referred
to as learning styles, and some research has suggested that
understanding different learning
styles may help to maximize individuals' learning experiences.
Describe some examples of
different learning styles.
139

Written Assignment for Unit llWJ •Include your name, student.docx

Written Assignment for Unit llWJ •Include your name, student.docx

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