Jed Assessment Case Study Jed is a 38-year-old welder who came into the treatment center after being arrested for drinking and driving (DUI/DWI). His attorney has suggested that he quit drinking and enter treatment, at least until his trial, which is scheduled to occur in two months. Jed does not anticipate serving jail time, but he believes that treatment could strengthen his legal case. After his first arrest for DUI two years ago, he simply paid a fine and attended a special driver's education program for six weeks. Jed found the program to be a “waste of time”. Jed has been married for eight years and has two daughters, aged 8 and 6. He has had numerous arguments with his wife, Emily, concerning his drinking. He gets very angry and defensive when she confronts him about his heavy drinking and he asserts that he is not an alcoholic. He knows this is true because his father was an alcoholic and Jed says that he is not like his father. His father died as the result of a fight that occurred in traffic when he was drunk. Jed says that his father used to “beat the tar” out of him and his brother when he was drunk and that his father always belittled, taunted, and threatened their mother, whether he was drunk or sober. Jed references that his family is Irish and that it was cultural normal to drink and enjoy alcohol and that all of his family and relatives drink in excess. Jed's work history is very good; he misses less than one day per year. He works the day shift on weekdays, putting in time-and-a-half on most Saturdays. He is well regarded by his supervisors and peers at work. He is fearful that his employer will find out about his treatment (it is being covered by his HMO), and that people at work will learn about the second DUI arrest. Jed drinks with his buddies from the plant, and does not think that his drinking is any more than what they do. He was just “unlucky” and got caught doing what everyone else seems to get away with. Jed's drinking is very predictable: he drinks 8-9 beers on a weeknight. Several of these are consumed at the bar with friends, the remainder at home over the course of the evening. He usually falls asleep in front of the television. On weekends, he often drinks several 12-packs between Friday and Sunday. A typical Saturday involves getting up at 10:00 a.m., playing soccer with friends, and going to the bar for the rest of the day and night. This pattern leads to arguments with Emily, who calls him a “lousy father”. At times, Jed has had unsettling episodes of being unable to recall what happened while drinking. He has commented to friends that “maybe I overdo it a bit”. Several times, he has attempted to cut down on his drinking, especially after the last DUI. He once attended a few AA meetings, but did not feel that AA was helpful: "It was listening to a lot of guys whining…" and he especially did not care for the prayers. Despite these attempts, Jed has experienced increased consumption levels over the past two.

1. Jed Assessment Case Study
Jed is a 38-year-old welder who came into the treatment center
after being arrested for drinking and driving (DUI/DWI). His
attorney has suggested that he quit drinking and enter treatment,
at least until his trial, which is scheduled to occur in two
months. Jed does not anticipate serving jail time, but he
believes that treatment could strengthen his legal case. After his
first arrest for DUI two years ago, he simply paid a fine and
attended a special driver's education program for six weeks. Jed
found the program to be a “waste of time”.
Jed has been married for eight years and has two daughters,
aged 8 and 6. He has had numerous arguments with his wife,
Emily, concerning his drinking. He gets very angry and
defensive when she confronts him about his heavy drinking and
he asserts that he is not an alcoholic. He knows this is true
because his father was an alcoholic and Jed says that he is not
like his father. His father died as the result of a fight that
occurred in traffic when he was drunk. Jed says that his father
used to “beat the tar” out of him and his brother when he was
drunk and that his father always belittled, taunted, and
threatened their mother, whether he was drunk or sober. Jed
references that his family is Irish and that it was cultural normal
to drink and enjoy alcohol and that all of his family and
relatives drink in excess.
Jed's work history is very good; he misses less than one day per
year. He works the day shift on weekdays, putting in time-and-
a-half on most Saturdays. He is well regarded by his supervisors
and peers at work. He is fearful that his employer will find out
about his treatment (it is being covered by his HMO), and that

2. people at work will learn about the second DUI arrest.
Jed drinks with his buddies from the plant, and does not think
that his drinking is any more than what they do. He was just
“unlucky” and got caught doing what everyone else seems to get
away with. Jed's drinking is very predictable: he drinks 8-9
beers on a weeknight. Several of these are consumed at the bar
with friends, the remainder at home over the course of the
evening. He usually falls asleep in front of the television. On
weekends, he often drinks several 12-packs between Friday and
Sunday. A typical Saturday involves getting up at 10:00 a.m.,
playing soccer with friends, and going to the bar for the rest of
the day and night. This pattern leads to arguments with Emily,
who calls him a “lousy father”. At times, Jed has had unsettling
episodes of being unable to recall what happened while
drinking. He has commented to friends that “maybe I overdo it a
bit”. Several times, he has attempted to cut down on his
drinking, especially after the last DUI. He once attended a few
AA meetings, but did not feel that AA was helpful: "It was
listening to a lot of guys whining…" and he especially did not
care for the prayers.
Despite these attempts, Jed has experienced increased
consumption levels over the past two years. He admits that, as a
result of the drinking, he has become increasingly estranged
from his wife and daughters. Jed feels that his marriage has
been basically good, but that he would not blame Emily for
leaving him, the way things have been going lately. She will no
longer sleep with him while he is intoxicated, which occurs
regularly. She complains that the house is falling apart because
Jed does not keep up with his chores. He believes that his
marriage would become solid again, if he stopped over doing
the drinking, but he complains about her hassling him about the
alcohol.
Jed is not close to his remaining family members. His mother is
very religious and wishes Jed would see religion as a way out of
his problems. His siblings live in other communities and they
rarely get together. His wife and daughters regularly attend his

3. mother's church, but Jed only attends on Christmas Eve and
Easter Sunday.
Jed is distraught about having to remain abstinent in preparation
for the trial. He has trouble getting to sleep without alcohol. He
also “gets jumpy” when he tries to stay away from drinking,
feeling “closed in or like he is suffocating”. Jed reports that he
is not used to socializing without alcohol and alcohol helps him
relax and be more social with people.
Jed is willing to go to AA meetings only because he knows they
may be court ordered and it may be better for his legal case. He
does struggle with the philosophy of AA. He does not like the
spirituality part of the program and does not like when people
talk about God.
He does believe that he can go to the bars with his friends and
not drink. He does think that he can increase his sports
activities to help him not drink although many of his friends
who play also drink.
References
National Institute on Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism. (n.d.).
Case examples. Retrieved March 28, 2010, from
http://pubs.niaaa.nih.gov/publications/Social/Teaching%20Case
%20Examples/Case%20Examples.html
© 2014. Grand Canyon University. All Rights Reserved.
© 2014. Grand Canyon University. All Rights Reserved.
Q1. The primary objective of AI is to build computer systems
that perform tasks that can be characterized as intelligent.
a. true
b. false
Q2. Genetic algorithms and intelligent agents are essentially the
same thing.
a. true
b. false

4. Q3. Expert systems are primarily only used for prediction
systems.
a. true
b. false
Q4. Artificial intelligence methods typically use algorithms to
determine solutions to problems.
a. true
b. false
Q5. A virus detection program is a good example of a genetic
algorithm in action.
a. true
b. false
Q6. Knowledge transfer from the expert to the expert system is
subject to perceptual biases.
a. true
b. false
Q7. The knowledge base of an expert system is the same as a
knowledge repository in a knowledge management system.
a. true
b. false
Q8. One generic category of expert systems is operations.
a. true
b. false
Q9. AI is behavior by a machine that if performed by a human
would be deemed intelligent.
a. true
b. false
Q10. Intuitive rules of thumb are referred to as algorthistics.

5. a. true
b. false
Q11. Fuzzy logic is a procedure developed to process complex
mathematical equations.
a. true
b. false
Q12. A distinguishing feature of an expert system is that it
involves knowledge processing.
a. true
b. false
Q13. Knowledge, rather than data or information, is a key
concept of AI.
a. true
b. false
Q14. Expert systems are called expert because they perform at
an expert level of performance.
a. true
b. false
Q15. It is easy to make rule changes to an expert system.
a. true
b. false
Q16. The ability of a computer to communicate to a user in their
native language is called normal language processing.
a. true
b. false
Q17. Knowledge stored by human experts is typically
structured.
a. true
b. false

6. Q18. There is a relationship between Mid-East oil production
and the price of gasoline is an example of declarative
knowledge.
a. true
b. false
Q19. If final average > 93 then your grade is an A; is an
example of a declarative rule.
a. true
b. false
Q20. If attribute definitions are incomplete, then request them
from the end-user; is an example of an inference rule.
a. true
b. false
Q21. Semantic networks are useful because they focus on the
differences between concepts.
a. true
b. false
Q22. The personality of a knowledge engineer can have a direct
influence on experts who are contributing to a knowledge base.
a. true
b. false
Q23. Deduction is the process of reasoning from the specific to
the general.
a. true
b. false
Q24. Automated knowledge acquisition methods are easier to
validate and verify than manual methods.
a. true
b. false

7. Q25. Procedural knowledge are a series of statements of facts.
a. true
b. false
Q26. One of the problems with using multiple expert scenarios
is that as a result of more experts, there tends to be more
mistakes.
a. true
b. false
Q27. It is possible to observe experts in action, because they
really like to be observed.
a. true
b. false
Q28. Knowledge engineering is the process of fixing knowledge
management systems.
a. true
b. false
Q29. Inheritance means:
a. the ability of an object to inherit characteristics of an
object higher in its hierarchy.
b. the relationships of the links to the nodes.
c. the relationship of the immediate sub-goals to goals.
d. the ability to link to inherited characteristics from a related
node.
e. the ability of a node to communicate characteristics from a
related node.
Q30. All knowledge can be represented by rules.
a. true
b. false
Q31. Shallow knowledge considers the internal and causal

8. structure of the knowledge.
a. true
b. false
Q32. Surface knowledge deals with specific situations.
a. true
b. false
Q33. The primary knowledge element in case-based reasoning is
the rule base.
a. true
b. false
Q34. Axons provide inputs to neurons, dendrites send output
signals.
a. true
b. false
Q35. Machines learn in a manner similar to people.
a. true
b. false
Q36. Inductive learning allows the computer to use historical
cases to solve new problems.
a. true
b. false
Q37. Neural network testing is done by comparing its output to
that of an expert. When the two are close enough, the neural
network is accurate enough to be deployed.
a. true
b. false
Q38. Most complex neural networks require virtually no hidden
layers, relying instead on a large number of input and output
layers.

9. a. true
b. false
Q39. Connection weights express the relative strength of the
input data or the connections that transfer from layer to layer.
a. true
b. false
Q40. Machine learning is used in knowledge acquisition,
inferencing, and problem solving.
a. true
b. false
Q41. Modification rules determine the scope of change when
using an historical case to evaluate a new problem.
a. true
b. false
Q42. One of the advantages of the case-based reasoning
approach is that learning can occur from failures as well as
successes.
a. true
b. false
Q43. The human brain is comprised of billions of cells called
neurons, grouped in interconnected clusters.
a. true
b. false
Q44. Unsupervised learning is a process of inducing knowledge
from a set of observations.
a. true
b. false
Q45. Case-based reasoning relies on indexing new events for
subsequent usage.

10. a. true
b. false
Q46. Machine learning utilizes historical cases.
a. true
b. false
Q47. The most widely used supervised learning algorithm in
neural computing is forward neural propagation.
a. true
b. false
Q48. Machine learning and knowledge acquisition are
essentially the same thing.
a. true
b. false
Q49. Neural systems are comprised of processing elements
called artificial neuritis.
a. true
b. false
Q50. A chromosome in a genetic algorithm refers to:
a. crossover.
b. summation.
c. mutation.
d. a candidate solution.
e. a generation.
Q1. The acronym CSCW stands for computer-supported
communication in work.

11. a. true
b. false
Q2. Creativity can be defined as either a trait or an
achievement.
a. true
b. false
Q3. Creativity support systems are relatively easy to develop
because the development team is creative by nature.
a. true
b. false
Q4. Distance learning is a fairly new phenomenon, having been
first developed in the 1990s.
a. true
b. false
Q5. GSS enable meetings to take place at many locations
simultaneously.
a. true
b. false
Q6. Distance learning is limited because there are currently
only two software platforms (Blackboard and WebCT).
a. true
b. false
Q7. Organizations use online training to reduce training costs.
a. true
b. false
Q8. The standard GSS process ends with idea generation.
a. true
b. false

12. Q9. The standard GSS process begins with idea generation.
a. true
b. false
Q10. The standard GSS process begins with idea organization.
a. true
b. false
Q11. Place the steps in the standard GSS process in the right
order:
a. idea generation, idea organization, prioritization, idea
generation.
b. idea generation, idea organization, prioritization, idea
organization.
c. prioritization, idea generation, idea organization, idea
generation.
d. prioritization, idea organization, idea generation, idea
organization.
e. idea organization, idea organization, prioritization, idea
organization.
Q12. Distance learning supports continuous learning within
organizations.
a. true
b. false
Q13. The acronym CSCW stands for computer-supported
cooperative work.
a. true
b. false
Q14. Thus far, distance learning has had very little impact on
education.
a. true
b. false

13. Q15. The most common way to deploy a GSS today is through
the use of Web technologies.
a. true
b. false
Q16. Distance learning is considered a form of collaborative
computing.
a. true
b. false
Q17. PLM systems have a unique set of issues, completely
different from other enterprise information systems.
a. true
b. false
Q18. The goal of an enterprise support system is to provide a
tool for senior management.
a. true
b. false
Q19. Exception reporting focuses on deviations from predefined
standards.
a. true
b. false
Q20. The only key performance indicator in an organization is
profitability.
a. true
b. false
Q21. ERP is designed to control all major business processes
with a single software architecture.
a. true
b. false
Q22. One of the benefits of PLM is a reduction in engineering

14. change order times.
a. true
b. false
Q23. Real-time systems that alert managers to potential
opportunities or problems are called EOM systems.
a. true
b. false
Q24. The flow of materials from its sources to a company, and
then within a company is referred to as its demand chain.
a. true
b. false
Q25. Soft information is a term used to describe objective
information that is non-financial.
a. true
b. false
Q26. Enterprise information systems are designed to support top
management and middle management.
a. true
b. false
Q27. Enterprise portals utilize Web technology.
a. true
b. false
Q28. The terms executive information systems and executive
support systems are used interchangeably.
a. true
b. false
Q29. PLM systems and BPM systems are essentially the same
thing.
a. true

15. b. false
Q30. Within an executive support system to go from summary
to detail is referred to as drill-up.
a. true
b. false
Q31. Enterprise information systems and executive information
systems are essentially the same thing.
a. true
b. false
Q32. The concept of drill-down refers to:
a. search for a specific item, going top-down.
b. exercises dictated from top management.
c. a quality control check in EIS.
d. a management by exception approach.
e. quick accessibility to various levels of detail.
Q33. Learning can be passive, active, or intermediate.
a. true
b. false
Q34. Socialization refers to converting tacit knowledge to
explicit knowledge.
a. true
b. false
Q35. Determining the value of an organization's intellectual
assets is relatively easy.
a. true
b. false
Q36. Tacit knowledge has been called sticky knowledge.
a. true
b. false

16. Q37. Explicit knowledge is hard to document.
a. true
b. false
Q38. A knowledge repository is a collection of internal and
external knowledge.
a. true
b. false
Q39. Explicit knowledge is objective.
a. true
b. false
Q40. Knowledge is information in action.
a. true
b. false
Q41. Tacit knowledge has been called leaky knowledge.
a. true
b. false
Q42. Explicit knowledge is easy to capture and document.
a. true
b. false
Q43. It is easy to measure the value of a knowledge
management system.
a. true
b. false
Q44. A community of practice is a group of people in an
organization that share a common professional interest.
a. true
b. false

17. Q45. Organizational culture can impact profitability.
a. true
b. false
Q46. Knowledge is information that is contextual, relevant, and
actionable.
a. true
b. false
Q47. Knowledge management can be performed using document
management.
a. true
b. false
Q48. The earliest knowledge management systems were best
practices repositories.
a. true
b. false
Q49. COPs can impact organizational culture changes.
a. true
b. false
Q50. Tacit knowledge is explicit.
a. true
b. false
Q1. The acronym CSCW stands for computer-supported
communication in work.
a. true
b. false

18. Q2. Creativity can be defined as either a trait or an
achievement.
a. true
b. false
Q3. Creativity support systems are relatively easy to develop
because the development team is creative by nature.
a. true
b. false
Q4. Distance learning is a fairly new phenomenon, having been
first developed in the 1990s.
a. true
b. false
Q5. GSS enable meetings to take place at many locations
simultaneously.
a. true
b. false
Q6. Distance learning is limited because there are currently
only two software platforms (Blackboard and WebCT).
a. true
b. false
Q7. Organizations use online training to reduce training costs.
a. true
b. false
Q8. The standard GSS process ends with idea generation.
a. true
b. false
Q9. The standard GSS process begins with idea generation.
a. true
b. false

19. Q10. The standard GSS process begins with idea organization.
a. true
b. false
Q11. Place the steps in the standard GSS process in the right
order:
a. idea generation, idea organization, prioritization, idea
generation.
b. idea generation, idea organization, prioritization, idea
organization.
c. prioritization, idea generation, idea organization, idea
generation.
d. prioritization, idea organization, idea generation, idea
organization.
e. idea organization, idea organization, prioritization, idea
organization.
Q12. Distance learning supports continuous learning within
organizations.
a. true
b. false
Q13. The acronym CSCW stands for computer-supported
cooperative work.
a. true
b. false
Q14. Thus far, distance learning has had very little impact on
education.
a. true
b. false
Q15. The most common way to deploy a GSS today is through
the use of Web technologies.
a. true

20. b. false
Q16. Distance learning is considered a form of collaborative
computing.
a. true
b. false
Q17. PLM systems have a unique set of issues, completely
different from other enterprise information systems.
a. true
b. false
Q18. The goal of an enterprise support system is to provide a
tool for senior management.
a. true
b. false
Q19. Exception reporting focuses on deviations from predefined
standards.
a. true
b. false
Q20. The only key performance indicator in an organization is
profitability.
a. true
b. false
Q21. ERP is designed to control all major business processes
with a single software architecture.
a. true
b. false
Q22. One of the benefits of PLM is a reduction in engineering
change order times.
a. true
b. false

21. Q23. Real-time systems that alert managers to potential
opportunities or problems are called EOM systems.
a. true
b. false
Q24. The flow of materials from its sources to a company, and
then within a company is referred to as its demand chain.
a. true
b. false
Q25. Soft information is a term used to describe objective
information that is non-financial.
a. true
b. false
Q26. Enterprise information systems are designed to support top
management and middle management.
a. true
b. false
Q27. Enterprise portals utilize Web technology.
a. true
b. false
Q28. The terms executive information systems and executive
support systems are used interchangeably.
a. true
b. false
Q29. PLM systems and BPM systems are essentially the same
thing.
a. true
b. false
Q30. Within an executive support system to go from summary

22. to detail is referred to as drill-up.
a. true
b. false
Q31. Enterprise information systems and executive information
systems are essentially the same thing.
a. true
b. false
Q32. The concept of drill-down refers to:
a. search for a specific item, going top-down.
b. exercises dictated from top management.
c. a quality control check in EIS.
d. a management by exception approach.
e. quick accessibility to various levels of detail.
Q33. Learning can be passive, active, or intermediate.
a. true
b. false
Q34. Socialization refers to converting tacit knowledge to
explicit knowledge.
a. true
b. false
Q35. Determining the value of an organization's intellectual
assets is relatively easy.
a. true
b. false
Q36. Tacit knowledge has been called sticky knowledge.
a. true
b. false
Q37. Explicit knowledge is hard to document.
a. true

23. b. false
Q38. A knowledge repository is a collection of internal and
external knowledge.
a. true
b. false
Q39. Explicit knowledge is objective.
a. true
b. false
Q40. Knowledge is information in action.
a. true
b. false
Q41. Tacit knowledge has been called leaky knowledge.
a. true
b. false
Q42. Explicit knowledge is easy to capture and document.
a. true
b. false
Q43. It is easy to measure the value of a knowledge
management system.
a. true
b. false
Q44. A community of practice is a group of people in an
organization that share a common professional interest.
a. true
b. false
Q45. Organizational culture can impact profitability.
a. true
b. false

24. Q46. Knowledge is information that is contextual, relevant, and
actionable.
a. true
b. false
Q47. Knowledge management can be performed using document
management.
a. true
b. false
Q48. The earliest knowledge management systems were best
practices repositories.
a. true
b. false
Q49. COPs can impact organizational culture changes.
a. true
b. false
Q50. Tacit knowledge is explicit.
a. true
b. false