1. 1
Ectopic pregnancy
1- Most important & common presenting symptom with ectopic pregnancy is : -
a) Abdominal pains.
b) Vaginal bleeding.
c) Fever.
d) Nausea & vomiting.
2- Sonographic evidence of an ectopic pregnancy includes which of the following?
a) Adnexal mass.
b) Fluid in the cul de sac.
c) Lack of intra-uterine gestational sac.
d) All of the above.
3- Ectopic pregnancy:
a) Is treated surgically only.
b) Pain is always before vaginal bleeding.
c) Incidence is 1:100 of spontaneous conception.
d) Gives an increased risk of hyperemesis gravidarum.
4- The risk factors for an ectopic pregnancy include the followings EXCEPT:
a) History of pelvic inflammatory disease.
b) Previous ectopic pregnancy.
c) Use of combined oral contraceptives.
d) Assisted reproductive techniques.
e) Use of IUD as the method of contraception.
5- Sonographic evidence of ectopic pregnancy:
a) Intra-uterine sac & an adnexal luteal cyst.
b) Lack of intra-uterine sac & an adnexal mass.
c) Snow storm appearance & theca lutin cyst.
d) None of the above.
6- Differential diagnosis of tubal ectopic pregnancy includes all of the following EXCEPT :-
a) Abortion.
b) Acute salpingitis.
c) Hemorrhage in a corpus luteum cyst.
d) Cystitis.
e) Other causes of ante partum hemorrhage.
7- The followings are factors affecting the choice of methotrexate as an option of treatment for ectopic pregnancy, Except:
a. Size of the ectopic.
b. Presence or absence of cardiac activity.
c. Level of B-HCG.
d. Parity of the patient.
e. Integrity of the tube.
2. 2
1- Comparing endometrial carcinoma to cancer cervix :-
a) Endometrial cancer incidence is less.
b) Average age of endometrial cancer is 10 years less.
c) Main line of treatment of endometrial cancer radiotherapy.
d) Prognosis of endometrial cancer is better.
2- In contrast to a malignant ovarian tumour, a benign tumour grossly show :-
a) Free mobility.
b) Ruptured capsule.
c) Peritoneal implants.
d) Tumour implants on the surface.
3- In the early detection of cancer ovary, which the followings is of no value :-
a) Vaginal ultrasonography.
b) Fractional curettage.
c) Tumour markers.
d) Oncogenes & oncoproteins.
4- Risk factors for endometrial cancer includes all except : -
a) Obesity.
b) Polycystic ovarian syndrome.
c) Unopposed estrogen therapy.
d) Progestegens therapy.
5- Endometrial carcinoma is characterized by :-
a) Is usually a clear cell carcinoma.
b) Usually occurs before menopause.
c) Is less common in obese postmenopausal females.
d) Is accurately diagnosed by biopsy.
e) Is related to use of combined oral contraceptive pills.
6- The single most important prognostic factor in endometrial carcinoma is :-
a) Grade of the disease.
b) Age of the patient.
c) Size of the uterus.
d) Abnormal pap smear.
e) Abnormal hysterography.
7- Endometrial cancer :-
a) Occurs in postmenopausal females at the age of approximately 60 years.
b) Never occurs before the age of 40years.
c) More common in smokers.
d) Not related to obesity, diabetes & hypertension.
8- Risk factors for endometrial hyperplasia include the following except :-
a) Use of sequential oral contraceptive pills.
b) High parity.
c) Anovulation.
d) Estrogen secreting ovarian tumours.
e) Obesity.
9- Alpha fetoprotein is used as a tumour marker for the detection of:
a) Cancer cervix.
b) Cancer vulva.
c) Serous cystadenocarcinoma.
d) Endodermal sinus tumour.
e) Endometrial carcinoma
3. 3
Menopuse
1- The most common benign condition causing postmenopausal bleeding is:
a) Atrophic vaginitis.
b) Cervical polyps.
c) Myomas.
d) Endometrial hyperplasia.
e) Cervical erosion.
2- The primary management of postmenopausal bleeding is:
a) Hysterectomy.
b) Cervical cone biopsy.
c) Endometrial biopsy.
d) Laparoscopy.
e) Hysteroscopy.
Pelvic inflammatory disease
1- Acute pelvic inflammatory disease is:
a) Postpartum infection is the commonest.
b) Associated with Fitz-Hugh Curtis syndrome.
c) Unilateral in most cases.
d) IUD is not a known risk factor.
2- The most frequent cause of acute pelvic inflammatory disease is :
a- Staphylococcus.
b- Tubercular bacilli.
c- Gonococcus.
d- Streptococcus.
e- Diphtheroid.
4. 4
Menstrual cycle
1- One of the following is correct regarding the follicular phase of the menstrual cycle :-
a) The granulosa cells produce androstenedione & testosterone.
b) The endometrial glands become straight.
c) Oestradiol inhibits the production of LH at the end of the follicular phase.
d) The theca cells produce oestradiol & secrete follicular fluid.
e) The nucleus of the oocyte contains 23 chromosomes
2- Regarding the menstrual cycle, which is true statement :-
a. Menstruation occurs with vasodilatation of the spiral arteries.
b. The LH surge triggers menstruation.
c. The Graafian follicle develops during the luteal phase.
d. Both the follicle and the corpus luteum secrete oestradiol.
e. Progesterone levels fall after the onset of menstruation.
3- Anovulatory menstrual cycles are characterised by the followings EXCEPT:
a) Being irregular with periods of oligomenorrhea.
b) Dysfunctional uterine bleeding.
c) Association with menstrual pain.
d) Monophasic BBT.
e) May be association with hirsutism.
4- Your patient is 43 years old & is concerned that she may be too close to menopause to get pregnant. You recommend that her gonadotropin
levels be tested. Which is the best day of menstrual cycle to check?
a) Day 3.
b) Day 8.
c) Day 14.
d) Day 21.
e) Day 26.
5- A sample of cervical mucus is taken on day 12 of the menstrual cycle. The mucus is thin, clear, & stretchy . It is placed on a
slide and allowed to air dry . when placed under microscopic, What would you expect:
a- Calcium citrate.
b- Clear fields, devoid of bacteria
c- Thick mucus with background bacteria.
d- A fern pattern characteristic of estrogen.
e- Clearly defined para- basal cells.
5. 5
Amenorrhea
1- A woman presents with amenorrhea of 2 months duration, lower abdominal pain, facial pallor, fainting & shock, & β-hCG is positive.The most
likely diagnosis is : -
a) Ruptured ovarian cyst.
b) Ruptured ectopic pregnancy.
c) Threatened abortion.
d) Septic abortion.
e) Missed abortion.
1- Causes of primary amenorrhea include :-
a) Pregnancy.
b) Menopause.
c) Asherman syndrome.
d) Transverse vaginal septum.
e) Premature ovarian failure.
2- The most common cause for 2ry amenorrhea is:
a) Pregnancy.
b) Menopause.
c) Lactation.
d) Severe exercise.
3- The most common cause of 2ry amenorrhea is:
a) Menopause.
b) Pregnancy.
c) Prolonged lactation.
d) Ovarian failure.
e) Sheehan's syndrome.
4- 2ry amenorrhea is cessation of menstruation:
a) More than 3 months.
b) More than 6 months.
c) More than 9 months.
d) More than one year.
e) More than 2 years.
5- Anterior pituitary disorders causing amenorrhea include the followings EXCEPT:
a) Pituitary micro-adenoma.
b) Pituitary insufficiency.
c) Empty sella syndrome.
d) Emotional stress & psychological disturbances.
e) Prolactinomas.
6- Which disorder is an example of hypothalamic amenorrhea?
a) Sheehan's syndrome
b) Cushing's syndrome.
c) Resistant ovary syndrome.
d) Asherman's syndrome.
e) Kallmann's syndrome.
6- Pituitary insufficiency causing 2ry amenorrhea can be managed by:
a) Intra-muscular gonadotropin therapy (HMG/hCG) for induction of ovulation as a primary treatment to regain normal menstrual cycle.
b) Cyclic combined replacement therapy (HRT) to establish regular menstrual cycle.
c) IM gonadotropin therapy (HMG/hCG) only in cases proved to be fertile.
d) Corticosteriods therapy in an interrupted pattern.
e) Only progesterone therapy for 2 weeks every month.
7- The most common clinical presentation of polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is:
a) Hirsutism.
b) Amenorrhea.
c) Infertility.
d) Obesity.
8- Clinical findings of PCOD include the followings except:
a. Obesity
b. Oligomenorrhoea.
c. Amenorrhoea.
d. Infertility
e. Tall stature.
9- Polycystic ovarian disease is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Elevated LH level.
b) Elevated testosterone levels.
c) Oligohypomenorrhea or amenorrhea.
d) Dyspareunia.
e) Insulin resistance & hyperinsulinemia.
6. 6
10- Laboratory findings in PCOS include the followings except:
a. Normal FSH.
b. LH/FSH ration of >2.
c. Elevated levels of plasma E2
d. Elevated levels of plasma androstenedione.
e. Elevated levels of plasma free Testosterone.
7. 7
Contraceptive
1- Absolute contraindications of combined oral contraceptive pills include the following except one:
a) Thrombo-embolic disease.
b) History of thrombo-embolic disease.
c) Coronary heart disease.
d) Age above 35 years.
e) Pregnancy.
2- Absolute contra-indications to intra-uterine device(IUD) insertion:
a) Confirmed or suspected pregnancy.
b) Acute or chronic infections.
c) Known or suspected pelvic malignancies.
d) All of the above.
3- The combined oral contraceprive pills are:
a) Taken continuously for 28 days.
b) Can be used as a form of post-coital contraception.
c) Can be used to reduce menorrhagia & dysmenorrhea.
d) If a pill is forgotten (e.g. 12hours late), other contraception must be used for 7 days.
4- Which of the following regarding progesterone only pills is incorrect:
a) Must be taken at the same time (within 3 hrs) each day.
b) This pill is preferred to the combined oral contraceptive pill for use in smokers.
c) Can be used as a form of post-coital contraception.
d) Main contraceptive mode of action is inhibition of ovulation.
5- Regarding the progesterone only pills, one of the followings is not correct:
a) A large proportion of women using it will ovulate.
b) Ideally it should be taken at a fixed time per day.
c) Contra-indicated in lactating women.
d) It affects mainly the cervical mucous.
e) Should be used continuously irrespective of the menstrual cycle.
6- Regarding Emergency Contraception the following is correct except:
a) It means protecting women from unwanted pregnancy following unprotected sexual intercourse or contraceptive failure.
b) Can be achieved by oral intake of any contraceptive pills in high does for five days after intercourse.
c) Can be achieved by oral intake of a single does of 1.5 mg Levonorgetrel pill.
d) Can be achieved by inserting copper intra uterine device within 120 hours following intercourse.
e) Oral intake of a contraceptive method, as an emergency, does not provide contraceptive cover for the remainder of the cycle.
7- Which of the followings is not an absolute contraindication for combined pills :-
a. Thrombophlebitis.
b. History of DVT.
c. Coronary heart disease.
d. Strokes.
e. History of liver disease.
8- Non contraceptive benefits of combined COCs include the followings except :-
a. Treatment of DUB.
b. Postponing next menstruation.
c. Less risk for PID.
d. Less risk for functional cysts of the ovary.
e. Less risk for cervical carcinoma.
8- Which of the following actions combined oral contraceptive pills has :-
a. Reduce risk of endometrial cancer.
b. Increase risk of ovarian cancer.
c. Reduce risk of breast cancer. . .
d. Reduce risk of cervical cancer.
e. Worsen endometriosis.
9- Absolute contraindications of combined oral contraceptive pills include the followings except:
a. Thrombo-embolic disease
b. Carcinoma of the breast.
c. Coronary heart disease.
d. Smoking.
e. Pregnancy.