Ob chp09

Chapter 9 Foundations of Group Behavior
MULTIPLE CHOICE
Defining and Classifying Groups
1. Which one of the following characteristics is not necessarily true about groups?
a. Group members are interdependent.
b. Groups have two or more members.
c. Groups have assigned goals.
d. Groups interact.
e. Groups have shared fates.
(c; Moderate; p. 300)
2. What sort of groups are defined by the organization’s structure?
a. informal
b. task
c. friendship
d. interest
e. formal
(e; Easy; p. 300)
3. When do informal groups appear?
a. in response to the need for social contact
b. in reaction to formal groups
c. as a result of social needs
d. most frequently in bureaucracies
e. when formal groups cannot meet their goals
(a; Moderate; p. 300)
4. Julia, Bree and David work in different departments, but often eat lunch together. They are an
example of what type of group?
a. formal
b. informal
c. command
d. task
e. reactant
(b; Easy; p. 300)
5. Which of the following statements is true?
a. All task groups are also command groups.
b. All command groups are also task groups.
c. All task groups are also friendship groups.
d. All command groups are also informal groups.
e. All informal groups are also command groups.
(b; Moderate; p. 300)
6. The group type that is determined by the organization chart is the _____ group.
a. job
b. work
c. authority
d. social
e. command
(e; Moderate; p. 300)
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7. Which one of the following group types is organizationally determined?
a. job
b. task
c. work
d. authority
e. social
8. Groups based on support for a given sports team are examples of what sort of group?
a. booster
b. interest
c. friendship
d. sports
e. miscreant
(c; Easy; p. 300)
9. Employees who band together to seek improved working conditions form a(n) _____ group.
a. union
b. support
c. interest
d. work
e. emancipated
10. Which of the following statements most accurately describes interest groups?
a. They are longer lasting than friendship groups.
b. They develop because individual members have one or more common characteristics.
c. They are formed because of some common objective.
d. They are governed by labor laws.
e. They are likely to involve great social conflict.
11. Which of the following is not one of the most common reasons people join groups?
a. security
b. status
c. equity
d. power
e. goal achievement
Stages of Group Development
12. What are the five stages of group development?
a. generation, implementation, construction, production, termination
b. introduction, development, production, deterioration, adjournment
c. initiation, evolution, maturation, degeneration, termination
d. forming, storming, norming, performing, adjourning
e. acting, reacting, enacting, impacting, acting
(d; Moderate; p. 302)
13. Which stage in group development is most characterized by uncertainty?
a. introduction
b. storming
c. forming
d. evolution
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e. norming
14. Which is the stage of group development characterized by the development of close
relationships and cohesiveness?
a. bonding
b. norming
c. performing
d. initiating
e. forming
15. In the second stage of group development _____.
a. close relationships are developed
b. the group demonstrates cohesiveness
c. intragroup conflict often occurs
d. the job task is performed
e. groups disband
(c; Challenging; p. 302)
16. After which stage of a group’s development is there a relatively clear hierarchy of leadership
within the group?
a. norming
b. storming
c. development
d. evolution
e. forming
17. After which stage of a group’s development has the group formed a common set of expectations
of member behaviors?
a. norming
b. storming
c. maturation
d. development
e. forming
(a; Easy; p. 302)
18. When the group energy is focused on the task at hand, the group has moved to the _____ stage.
a. storming
b. norming
c. production
d. maturation
e. performing
19. Temporary groups with deadlines tend to follow the _____ model.
a. sociometry
b. five-stage group development
c. punctuated equilibrium
d. cluster variance
e. frantic action
20. A temporary task group working under a time-constrained deadline would be expected to behave
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in which of the following manners?
a. forming, then storming, then norming, then performing, and finally adjourning
b. exhibit long periods of inertia interspersed with brief revolutionary changes triggered by its
members’ awareness of looming deadlines
c. develop plans, assign roles, determine and allocate resources, resolve conflicts, and set
norms
d. group energy will move rapidly from getting to know and understand each other to performing
the task at hand
e. a period of activity where tasks are set and the bulk of the project is completed, followed by a
period of inertia where what little work remains is performed
(b; Challenging; p. 302)
21. According to the punctuated equilibrium model, groups tend to experience what for the first half
of the project?
a. inertia
b. reorganization and redirection
c. mid-life crisis
d. markedly accelerated activity
e. discord
Group Properties: Roles, Norms, Status, Size, and Cohesiveness
22. Roles, norms, status, and cohesiveness are examples of _____.
a. structural variables
b. team mechanisms
c. static factors
d. team factors
e. group properties
(e; Easy; p. 304)
23. What term is used for a set of expected behavior patterns associated with a particular position in
a social unit?
a. role
b. role perception
c. role identity
d. role expectation
e. identity
(a; Easy; p. 304-305)
24. When Judith became a doctor she modeled her manner on her observations of more
experienced doctors, and also on the behavior of doctors in medical dramas she had enjoyed
watching as a child on TV. What is Judith modeling her manner upon?
a. the role behaviors of doctors
b. her role perception of doctors
c. the role identity of doctors
d. her role expectation of doctors
e. the core role actions of doctors
(b; Easy; p. 305)
25. Which of the following is true of role identity?
a. Role perception creates the attitudes and actual behaviors consistent with a role.
b. People have the ability to shift roles rapidly when the situation requires change.
c. There is considerable inertia in role identity after roles are changed.
d. Everyone is required to play one specific role in every situation.
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e. No two people ever agree on what constitutes a role.
26. Most people assume that a police officer should behave in a lawful manner, and not show any
favoritism to any particular group, and do their best to uphold the law. What term is used for this
kind of belief?
a. a norm
b. a norm identity
c. a role expectation
d. a role perception
e. a norm violation
(c; Moderate; p. 305-306)
27. What term is used for the mutual expectations of what management expects from workers, and
what workers expect from management?
a. group norm
b. role expectation
c. role identity
d. psychological contract
e. reactive goals
(d; Moderate; p. 306)
28. Zach is devout and very active in his church. He is also a very dedicated employee. His
manager offers him a promotion but the new role will require him to work Sundays. Zach would
like the promotion, but realizes that it would force him to miss some church activities. It is likely
that Zach is experiencing which of the following?
a. role conflict
b. role expectation
c. role perception
d. psychological conflict
e. cognitive reactance
(a; Easy; p. 306)
29. Which of the following was the major finding of Zimbardo’s simulated prison experiment?
a. status differences between groups will always result in conflict between those groups
b. group cohesiveness is so important that individuals will restrain their natural impulses in order
to remain part of the group
c. individuals can rapidly assimilate new roles very different from their inherent personalities
d. an individual’s emotions and the behavioral responses to those emotions are congruent
e. when given the opportunity, people will tend to act in an oppressive manner to those around
them
30. Which of the following is not a finding of Elton Mayo’s Hawthorne studies?
a. a worker’s behavior and sentiments are closely related
b. group standards are highly effective in establishing individual worker output
c. money was less a factor in determining worker output than were group standards, sentiments,
and security
d. competition between groups will maximize group output
e. group influences are significant in affecting individual behavior
(d; Challenging; p. 308-309)
31. What term is used for acceptable standards of behavior that are shared by a group’s members?
a. norms
b. rules
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c. standards
d. codes of behavior
e. explicit contracts
(a; Easy; p. 308)
32. Which is not a common class of norms appearing in most work groups?
a. performance
b. appearance
c. in-group status
d. social arrangement
e. allocation of resources
(c; Easy; p. 310)
33. Which of the following is not an example of a work group norm dealing with performance?
a. when an employee needs to look busy
b. how hard an employee should work
c. the appropriate levels of tardiness
d. the acceptable level of output
e. the importance of promptness
(a; Challenging; p. 310)
34. Norms that dictate with whom group members eat lunch, friendships on and off the job, and
social games are _____ norms.
a. appearance
b. social arrangement
c. performance
d. leisure
e. confluence
35. A local government work-crew cleans up parks and other public spaces. In this crew the dirtiest
jobs are generally given to the newest members, while the more senior members of the crew
tend to do little except draw their pay. What is the class of norms that encompasses
arrangements like this?
a. performance.
b. appearance
c. allocation of resources
d. financial rewards
e. confluence
36. What norms include things like appropriate dress and loyalty to the group or organization?
a. Performance
b. Appearance
c. Social arrangement
d. Allocation of resources
e. Confluence
(b; Easy; p. 310)
37. What term is used for the process by which an individual’s desire for acceptance by the group
and the pressure by the group on individual members to match its standards results in a change
in individual attitudes and behaviors?
a. conformity
b. coercion
c. commitment
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d. convergence
e. confluence
(a; Easy; p. 310)
38. The major contribution of the Asch study was to demonstrate the impact of _____.
a. group pressures
b. seating arrangements
c. convergence
d. status
e. cognitive dissonance
39. What term is used for antisocial actions by organizational members who voluntarily violate
established norms and that result in negative consequences for the organization, its members, or
both?
a. ethical dilemmas
b. deviant workplace behavior
c. abnormal behavior
d. discommitment behavior
e. reactive affirmation behavior
40. Sally works as a salesperson in a department store. Whenever a customer asks for an item that
is in stock but not on display, she usually tells them that the product is out of stock. “It’s a pain
going into the stock-room to find an item,” says Sally “Nobody in my department ever tells a
customer the truth about what is in stock.” This example illustrates which of the following facts
about deviant workplace behavior?
a. deviant workplace behavior will arise when tasks that an employee is supposed to perform
are unpleasant or difficult
b. most workers do not consider lying to a customer be deviant workplace behavior
c. workers will lie to customers as long as the customers do not complain about it
d. deviant workplace behavior flourishes where it’s supported by group norms
e. groups will come to their own conclusions about what is and isn’t appropriate
(d; Challenging; p. 312)
41. What term is used for the socially defined position or rank given to groups or group members by
others?
a. regency
b. authority
c. status
d. command
e. magnus
42. Which of the following statements about status is not true?
a. Status is an important motivator
b. possession of personal characteristics that are positively valued by the group will give a
member higher status.
c. Low status members are given more freedom to deviate from norms than are other members.
d. High status members are better able to resist conformity pressures than lower status
members.
e. Conformity is affected by status.
43. High status people tend to _____.
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a. be more assertive
b. assist more
c. be more reflective
d. have superior insight
e. be well liked
44. A group is most likely to tolerate deviation from a group’s conformity norms by which of the
following individuals?
a. a high status individual who does not care about the social rewards the group provides
b. a high status individual who is tightly integrated into the group’s social structure
c. a low status individual who has only recently entered the group
d. a low status individual who strongly wishes to integrate within the group
e. a low status individual who is not well regarded by the rest of the group
45. Your group is engaged in problem solving and your goal is fact-finding. Which of the following
size group should be most effective?
a. 2
b. 4
c. 8
d. 10
e. 15
(e; Challenging; p. 316)
46. What term is used for the tendency for individuals to spend less effort when working collectively?
a. groupthink
b. the rule of diminishing returns
c. social loafing
d. groupshift
e. clustering
(c; Easy; p. 316)
47. Which of the following is an effective means of countering social loafing?
a. increase the rewards the group is given if it succeeds
b. increase the amount by which the group’s progress is monitored
c. provide means by which individual efforts can be identified
d. increase the size of the group
e. increase the group’s workload
(c; Easy; p. 317)
48. If your group must take action, which size should be most effective?
a. 3
b. 7
c. 12
d. 24
e. 100
49. What did Ringelmann conclude after he compared the results of individual and group
performance?
a. the larger the group, the greater the individual productivity
b. individual productivity goes down as group size goes up
c. total productivity tends to decline in large groups
d. group size is not a determinant of individual productivity
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e. groups served little purpose in organizations
50. Research indicates that the group size that exercises the best elements of both small and large
groups is _____.
a. 4
b. 7
c. 9
d. 12
e. 20
51. Which of the following statements about groups is true?
a. Groups with an odd number of members are preferable to those with an even number
b. Groups with an even number of members are preferable to those with an odd number
c. Groups made up of four members exercise the best elements of both small and large
groups.
d. Groups that are larger are more likely to be homogenous.
e. The relationship between an individual’s input and the group’s output is generally clear.
52. What is it called when an employee uses the organization’s Internet access for personal
purposes?
a. eTheft
b. cyberloafing
c. cybertheft
d. web surfing
e. smurfing
(b; Moderate; 317)
53. What term is used for the degree to which group members are attracted to one another and are
motivated to stay in the group?
a. cohesiveness
b. integration
c. sociability
d. reliability
e. interdependence
(a; Easy; p. 318)
54. Which of the following is not likely to increase group cohesiveness?
a. a high level of group productivity
b. members spending a lot of time together
c. the existence of external threats
d. the group is physically isolated
e. bonding opportunities exist between members
55. What will happen if group cohesiveness is high and performance norms are low?
a. internal conflict will be high
b. internal conflict will be low
c. productivity will be high
d. productivity will be low
e. it will have little effect on internal conflict or productivity
(d; Challenging; 318)
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Group Decision Making
56. Group decisions are generally preferable to individual decisions when which of the following is
sought.
a. acceptance of the solution
b. speed
c. efficiency
d. clear responsibility
e. a conjunctive solution
57. Which is not a weakness of group decision making?
a. It is time consuming.
b. There is less originality.
c. It suffers from ambiguous responsibility.
d. It can be dominated by one or a few members.
e. It’s not clear who is accountable for bad decisions.
58. Individual decisions are generally preferable to group decisions when which of the following is
sought?
a. speed
b. creativity
c. acceptance
d. quality
e. broad unanimity
59. What is generally the result of groupthink?
a. higher quality decisions
b. more risky decisions
c. less critical analysis
d. unpopular decisions
e. social reification
60. Which of the following is a phenomenon in which group pressures for conformity deter the group
from critically appraising unusual, minority, or unpopular views?
a. group conformity
b. groupshift
c. groupthink
d. compromise
e. risk transfer
(c; Easy; p. 321)
61. What result does groupshift have on the decisions a group makes?
a. They are made by groups rather than individuals.
b. They are generally riskier.
c. They are made more quickly.
d. They are less effective.
e. They are objectively incorrect.
(b; Moderate; p. 322-323)
62. Which of the following is not an explanation for the phenomenon of groupshift?
a. discussion creates familiarization among members
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b. most first-world societies value risk
c. the group leader usually gets the credit or blame for the group action
d. the group diffuses responsibility
e. high cohesion
(c; Challenging; p. 323)
63. Which of the following is likely to generate the least innovative alternatives?
a. face-to-face interacting groups
b. brainstorming
c. Delphi technique
d. nominal group technique
e. electronic meeting
64. What is brainstorming?
a. a technique used to build group cohesiveness
b. a technique that tends to restrict independent thinking
c. a process for generating ideas
d. a process used mainly when group members cannot agree on a solution
e. the most effective means of generating answers
(c; Easy; p. 323)
65. Which type of decision-making group is most committed to the group solution?
a. interacting
b. brainstorming
c. nominal
d. electronic
e. social
(a; Challenging; 324)
66. Which of the following techniques most restricts discussion or interpersonal communication
during the decision-making process?
a. groupthink
b. nominal group
c. brainstorm
d. electronic meeting
e. formal process
67. Which of the following is not considered an advantage of electronic meetings?
a. honesty
b. speed
c. receiving credit for the best ideas
d. anonymity
e. accurate exchange of opinions
68. Which type of meeting is most likely to generate the greatest commitment to the solution?
a. interacting
b. brainstorming
c. nominal
d. electronic
e. social
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69. What sort of group should you avoid if you want to minimize interpersonal conflict?
a. interacting
b. brainstorming
c. nominal
d. electronic
e. social
TRUE/FALSE
Defining and Classifying Groups
70. A group must have at least two members and one or more objectives.
(True; Moderate; p. 300)
71. Members in a group are interdependent.
(True; Easy; p. 300)
72. The tasks in groups within an organization must be directed toward organizational goals.
(False; Moderate; p. 300)
73. Command and task groups are dictated by the formal organization whereas interest and
friendship groups are not.
74. All task groups are also command groups.
75. A command group is composed of the individuals who report directly to a given manager.
76. Whereas command groups are determined by the organization chart, task, and interests;
friendship groups instead develop because of the necessity to satisfy one’s work needs.
77. The types of interactions among individuals, though informal, deeply affect behavior and
performance.
78. There is no single reason why individuals join groups.
79. Different groups provide different benefits to their members.
Stages of Group Development
80. Temporary groups with task specific deadlines follow the five-stage model of group
development.
81. Most conflicts are resolved by the completion of the first stage in a group’s development.
82. The norming stage of group development is characterized by camaraderie.
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83. For temporary work groups, performance is the last stage in their development.
84. High levels of conflict are always detrimental to group performance.
85. The stages of group development occur sequentially and never simultaneously.
86. The five-stage model of group development ignores organizational context.
(True; Challenging; p. 303)
87. In the punctuated equilibrium model, the group’s direction is reexamined frequently in the first
half of the group’s life and is likely to be altered.
(False; Challenging; p. 303)
88. The punctuated equilibrium model characterizes groups as exhibiting long periods of inertia
interspersed with brief revolutionary changes triggered primarily by members’ awareness of time
and deadlines.
Group Properties: Roles, Norms, Status, Size, and Cohesiveness
89. Work groups have a structure that shapes the behavior of members and makes it possible to
explain and predict a large portion of individual behavior within the group as well as the
performance of the group itself.
90. People generally cannot shift roles quickly.
(False; Moderate; p. 304-305)
91. Our perceptions of roles are generally formed early in our lives and remain stable.
92. We all are usually required to play one role and our behavior stabilizes with that role.
(False; Easy; p. 305)
93. One’s view of how one is supposed to act in a given situation is a role perception.
94. Role identity is created by group pressure to conform.
95. The psychological contract defines behavioral expectations that go with every role.
96. When an individual is confronted by divergent role expectations, the result is role divergence.
97. Zimbardo’s simulated prison experiment demonstrated that people with no prior personality
pathology or training in their roles could execute extreme forms of behavior consistent with the
roles they were playing.
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98. Zimbardo’s study was very important in demonstrating how individual behavior impacts group
conformity.
99. Zimbardo’s study suggested that in some circumstances we can change roles very quickly. .
100. Norms tell members what they ought and ought not to do under certain circumstances.
101. Only some groups have established norms.
102. The Hawthorne studies were initiated by Western Electric officials and later overseen by Harvard
professor Elton Mayo.
103. One conclusion of the Hawthorne studies was that worker output was highly effective in
establishing group standards
104. Performance norms include things like appropriate dress and when to look busy.
105. Social arrangement norms are usually formal in nature.
106. If group acceptance were not important to you, the need to conform to the group’s norms would
decrease.
107. Conformity is the degree to which members are attracted to each other and are motivated to stay
in the group.
108. “Don’t be a chiseler” is one example of norms the group established in the Hawthorne studies.
109. Evidence indicates that Asch’s findings about group conformity are culture bound.
110. Deviant workplace behavior covers a wide range of antisocial actions by organizational members
that intentionally violate established norms.
111. Cultures differ on the criteria that define status.
112. High status members of groups are given less freedom to deviate from norms than other group
members.
113. When an employee believes there is an inequity between the perceived ranking of an individual
and the status amenities he or she receives from the organization, this is known as status
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congruence.
114. As group performance increases with group size, the addition of new members to the group has
positive returns on productivity.
115. Research on group size concludes that groups with an even number of members tend to be
preferred over those with an odd number.
116. If the goal is fact-finding, smaller groups are the most effective.
117. Ringelmann’s research found that groups can generate more output than the sum of the
individuals.
118. Social loafing may be caused by the concentration of responsibility.
119. Social loafing is the tendency for individuals to expend less energy when working individually
than when working collectively.
120. Physically isolating a group will make it more cohesive.
121. Giving rewards to individuals in a group will generally increase cohesiveness.
Group Decision Making
122. Group decisions generate higher quality decisions than individual decisions.
123. Group decisions are more likely to be accepted than individual decisions.
124. Individual decisions are more time consuming than group decisions.
125. If a low-to-medium ability person dominates the group, the group’s overall effectiveness will
suffer.
126. Individual decisions tend to be more creative than group decisions.
127. Groupthink improves group performance.
128. Groupshift can cause groups to make more risky decisions.
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129. The Challenger space shuttle disaster was an example of groupshift.
Group Decision-Making Techniques
130. Brainstorming is meant to overcome pressures for conformity.
131. The chief advantage of the nominal group technique is that it permits the group to meet formally
but does not restrict independent thinking, as does the interacting group.
132. One of the advantages of the electronic meeting is that ideas are processed quickly.
133. The primary contingency variable moderating the relationship between group processes and
performance is the group’s cohesiveness.
SCENARIO-BASED QUESTIONS
Application of Stages of Group Development
Astro Inc. is reorganizing and your new work group begins working together on Monday morning. Your
college course in organizational behavior contained information about the stages of group development
and your supervisor has asked your advice about the predictable stages of group development.
134. You should tell your supervisor that in the first stage of group development, the team members
will probably be _____.
a. uncertain
b. excited
c. in conflict
d. focused on the task at hand
e. confident
(a; Moderate; p. 302-303)
135. You should predict that the most productive stage will be _____.
a. producing
b. increasing
c. maturity
d. performing
e. omitting
(d; Moderate; p. 302-303)
136. The final stage for this permanent work group should be _____.
a. termination
b. maturity
c. performing
d. adjourning
e. the omega stage
(c; Challenging; p. 302-303)
Application of Roles
Several years ago you began a small retail store to sell computer parts. The store grew and the business
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expanded to offer computer repair and custom programming. You have noticed that people have definite
expectations about what their appropriate roles within the expanding company should be.
137. You can help the people in the company understand their roles and the roles of other people by
explaining some common facts about roles. Which of the following is not true?
a. Each person will be expected to play a number of diverse roles.
b. Most people have the ability to shift roles rapidly when they recognize that the situation and
its demands require major changes.
c. Role perception is how people believe others are expected to act in their given roles.
d. It may be helpful for them to view role expectations through the perspective of a
psychological contract.
e. People can be flexible in the roles that they play.
138. John is expected to help customers in the retail store as well as perform computer repair work.
He feels that every time he gets started on a repair, he is interrupted and doesn’t know whether
to finish his repair or wait on the customer. John suffers from role _____.
a. conflict
b. expectations
c. perception
d. identity
e. duality
(a; Moderate; p. 304-305)
139. To clear up role confusion, you have decided that you must come to an unwritten agreement with
each employee about your mutual expectations. You are developing a(n) _____.
a. role playing document
b. role expectation contract
c. psychological contract
d. employment contract
e. implicit role adherence schedule
Application of Group Size
Joe is restructuring departments and is creating teams to increase the effectiveness of his departments.
He recognizes that the size of groups impacts their overall behavior.
140. Joe has learned in an OB course that _____.
a. small groups are good for developing ideas
b. large groups are better at taking action
c. social loafing is the tendency for individuals to expend less effort when working collectively
d. team spirit always spurs individual effort and enhances the group’s overall productivity
e. groups composed of all men or all women are the most effective groups, in general
141. Given what Joe knows about groups, what is a good size for a group that must take action?
a. 4
b. 7
c. 9
d. 12
e. over 12
142. Joe is forming a fact-finding group. What would be the better group size to gain diverse input?
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a. 3
b. 7
c. 9
d. 10
e. over 12
Application of Group Decision Making
Your organization is considering the use of team decision making. You have read the literature on
decision making and are trying to inform your manager about the advantages and disadvantages of
group decision making.
143. You should expect to find that _____.
a. group decision making will be faster
b. group discussions will be shared equally
c. there will be increased acceptance of the decision
d. group decision making will be very costly
e. groups will find reaching a decision to be less effortful than individuals
144. You should expect a weakness of group decision making to be _____.
a. less complete knowledge
b. more time will be used to make the decision
c. employees will be less accepting of the group decision
d. the decision will probably be a lower quality decision
e. decreased risky shift
145. You have observed that the group tends to come to consensus very quickly and you know that
the group is very cohesive. You conclude that they may be suffering from _____.
a. inefficiency syndrome
b. groupshift
c. disintegrating norms
d. groupthink
e. risky shift
Application of Group Decision-Making Techniques
You decide that your company’s choice of which new product to manufacture needs to have widespread
acceptance and that this decision needs to be of the highest quality possible. Having read the literature
on decision making, you believe that this choice needs to be made by a group of your best managers.
146. Your managers are located in Taiwan, India, Brazil, and the United States. Which group
decision-making technique seems most reasonable for your situation?
a. an interacting groups method
b. a brainstorming session
c. a nominal group
d. an electronic meeting
e. a postal service interaction
147. You have decided to use the electronic meeting technique. Which of the following is not true
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about this type of meeting?
a. Participants type their responses onto a computer screen.
b. You can expect participants to be honest.
c. Participants will be anonymous.
d. Group cohesiveness will be high.
e. It can be highly effective under certain conditions.
(d; Moderate; pp 323-324)
148. You have decided to use the nominal group technique. Which is true about this method?
a. This method is good for building group cohesiveness.
b. This method is good for processing ideas rapidly.
c. This method is good for encouraging independent thinking.
d. This method is an inexpensive means for generating a large number of ideas.
e. This method requires a great deal of face-to-face interaction.
SHORT DISCUSSION QUESTIONS
149. List and briefly describe the stages in the five-stage model of group development.
The five-stage group development model characterizes groups as proceeding through
five distinct stages: forming, storming, norming, performing, and adjourning. Forming is
characterized by a great deal of uncertainty about the group’s purpose, structure, and
leadership. Members are testing the waters to determine what types of behavior are
acceptable. In the storming stage members accept the existence of the group, but there
is resistance to the constraints that the group imposes on individuality. There is conflict
over who will control the group. The third stage is one in which close relationships
develop and the group demonstrates cohesiveness. There is now a strong sense of
group identify and camaraderie. This norming stage is complete when the group
structure solidifies and the group has assimilated a common set of expectations of what
defines correct member behavior. The fourth stage is performing. The structure at this
point is fully functional and accepted. Group energy has moved from getting to know
and understand each other to performing the task at hand. In the adjourning stage, the
group prepares for its disbandment. High task performance is no longer the group’s top
priority. Instead, attention is directed toward wrapping up activities. (Page 302)
150. What is the punctuated equilibrium model?
The punctuated equilibrium model is an alternative model for temporary groups with
deadlines. They don’t follow the five-stage group development model. They have their
own unique sequencing of actions. Their first meeting sets the group’s direction. This
first phase of group activity is one of inertia. A transition takes place at the end of this
phase, which occurs exactly when the group has used up half its allotted time. A
transition initiates major changes. A second phase of inertia follows the transition and
the group’s last meeting is characterized by markedly accelerated activity. (Page 303)
151. Explain the psychological contract.
The psychological contract is the unwritten agreement that exists between employees
and their employer. This sets out mutual expectations – what management expects from
workers, and vice versa. Management is expected to treat employees justly, provide
acceptable working conditions, clearly communicate what is a fair day’s work, and give
feedback on how well the employee is doing. Employees are expected to respond by
demonstrating a good attitude, following directions, and showing loyalty to the
organization. (Page 306)
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152. What are norms?
Norms are acceptable standards of behavior that are shared by the group’s members.
Norms tell members what they ought and ought not to do under certain circumstances.
From an individual’s standpoint, they tell what is expected of you in certain situations.
When agreed to and accepted by the group, norms act as a means of influencing the
behavior of group members with a minimum of external controls. Norms differ among
groups, communities, and societies, but they all have them. (Page 308)
153. How does group size affect a group’s behavior?
The evidence indicates that smaller groups are faster at completing tasks than are larger
ones. However, if the group is engaged in problem solving, large groups consistently get
better marks than their smaller counterparts. Large groups – with a dozen or more
members – are good for gaining diverse input. So if the goal of the group is fact finding,
larger groups should be more effective. Smaller groups are better at doing something
productive with that input. Groups of approximately seven members tend to be more
effective for taking action. Social loafing is the tendency for individuals to expend less
effort when working collectively than when working individually. Groups with an odd
number of members tend to be preferable to those with an even number, and groups
made up of five or seven members do a pretty good job of exercising the best elements of
both small and large groups. (Page 316)
154. What is cohesiveness?
Cohesiveness is the degree to which members are attracted to each other and are
motivated to stay in the group. Groups differ in their cohesiveness. (Page 318)
155. What is the relationship between cohesiveness and productivity?
The relationship of cohesiveness and productivity depends on the performance-related
norms established by the group. If performance-related norms are high, a cohesive
group will be more productive than will a less cohesive group. But if cohesiveness is
high and performance norms are low, productivity will be low. If cohesiveness is low and
performance norms are high, productivity increases but less than in the high
cohesiveness – high norms situation. When cohesiveness and performance-related
norms are both low, productivity will tend to fall into the low-to-moderate range. (Page
318)
156. Explain groupthink and groupshift.
Groupthink is related to norms. It describes situations in which group pressures for
conformity deter the group from critically appraising unusual, minority, or unpopular
views. Groupthink is a disease that attacks many groups and can dramatically hinder
their performance. Groupshift indicates that in discussing a given set of alternatives and
arriving at a solution, group members tend to exaggerate the initial positions that they
hold. In some situations, caution dominates, and there is a conservative shift. More
often, however, the evidence indicates that groups tend toward a risky shift. (Page 321-
322)
MEDIUM LENGTH DISCUSSION QUESTIONS
157. Differentiate between formal and informal groups.
193

Formal groups are those defined by the organization’s structure, with designated work
assignments establishing tasks. In formal groups, the behaviors that one should engage
in are stipulated by and directed toward organizational goals. Informal groups are
alliances that are neither formally structured nor organizationally determined. These
groups are natural formations in the work environment that appear in response to the
need for social contact. (Page 300)
158. Differentiate the terms role identity, role perception, and role expectation.
There are certain attitudes and actual behaviors consistent with a role, and they create
the role identity. People have the ability to shift roles rapidly when they recognize that
the situation and its demands clearly required major changes. One’s view of how one is
supposed to act in a given situation is a role perception. Based on an interpretation of
how we believe we are supposed to behave, we engage in certain types of behavior. Role
expectations are defined as how others believe you should act in a given situation. How
you behave is determined to a large extent by the role defined in the context in which you
are acting.
(Page 305-306)
159. What are four common classes of norms?
The most common class of norms is performance norms. Work groups typically provide
their members with explicit cues on how hard they should work, how to get the job done,
their level of output, appropriate levels of tardiness, and the like. Appearance norms
include things like appropriate dress, loyalty to the work group or organization, when to
look busy, and when it’s acceptable to goof off. Social arrangement norms come from
informal work groups and primarily regulate social interactions within the group. With
whom group members eat lunch, friendship on and off the job, social games, and the like
are influenced by these norms. Allocation of resources norms can originate in the group
or in the organization and cover things like pay, assignment of difficult jobs, and
allocation of new tools and equipment.
(Page 308)
160. Discuss strengths and weaknesses of group decision making.
Groups generate more complete information and knowledge. Groups bring more input
into the decision process. They offer increased diversity of views. This opens up the
opportunity for more approaches and alternatives to be considered. Groups will almost
always outperform even the best individual. Groups generate higher quality decisions.
Finally, groups lead to increased acceptance of a solution. Members who participated in
making a decision are likely to enthusiastically support the decision and encourage
others to accept it.
Groups also have drawbacks. They are time consuming. They take more time to reach a
solution than would be the case if an individual were making the decision alone. There
are conformity pressures in groups. The desire by group members to be accepted and
considered an asset to the group can result in squashing any overt disagreement. Group
discussion can be dominated by one or a few members. If this dominant coalition is
composed of low- and moderate-ability members, the group’s overall effectiveness will
suffer. Finally, group decisions suffer from ambiguous responsibility. In an individual
decision, it’s clear who is accountable for the final outcome. In a group decision, the
responsibility of any single member is watered down. (Page 319-320)
COMPREHENSIVE ESSAYS
194

161. Compare and contrast the five-stage model for group development with the punctuated
equilibrium model.
The five-stage group development model characterizes groups as proceeding through
five distinct stages: forming, storming, norming, performing, and adjourning. Forming is
characterized by a great deal of uncertainty about the group’s purpose, structure, and
leadership. Members are testing the waters to determine what types of behavior are
acceptable. The storming stage is one of intragroup conflict. Members accept the
existence of the group, but there is resistance to the constraints that the group imposes
on individuality. There is conflict over who will control the group. The third stage is one
in which close relationships develop and the group demonstrates cohesiveness. There is
now a strong sense of group identify and camaraderie. This norming stage is complete
when the group structure solidifies and the group has assimilated a common set of
expectations of what defines correct member behavior. The fourth stage is performing.
The structure at this point is fully functional and accepted. Group energy has moved
from getting to know and understand each other to performing the task at hand. In the
adjourning stage, the group prepares for its disbandment. High task performance is no
longer the group’s top priority. Instead, attention is directed toward wrapping up
activities.
The punctuated equilibrium model is an alternative model for temporary groups with
deadlines. They don’t follow the five-stage group development model. They have their
own unique sequencing of actions. Their first meeting sets the group’s direction. This
first phase of group activity is one of inertia. A transition takes place at the end of this
phase, which occurs exactly when the group has used up half its allotted time. A
transition initiates major changes. A second phase of inertia follows the transition and
the group’s last meeting is characterized by markedly accelerated activity.
The punctuated equilibrium model characterizes groups as exhibiting long period of
inertia interspersed with brief revolutionary changes triggered primarily by their
members’ awareness of time and deadlines. Keep in mind, however, that this model
doesn’t apply to all groups. It’s essentially limited to temporary task groups who are
working under a time-constrained completion deadline. (Page 302-303)
162. Describe the Stanford prison experiment. What were its goals? What was learned through this
experiment? What were the ethical costs associated with this experiment? Relate Zimbardo’s
findings to the concepts of roles, role identity, role perception, role expectations, and role
conflict.
The Stanford prison experiment aimed at illustrating the power of the situation over the
power of the individual. In this study, unexceptional individuals were randomly assigned
to play the role of a prisoner or a guard in a mock prison set up in the basement of the
Stanford psychology department. Zimbardo himself played the role of prison
superintendent. This experiment showed how quickly people are capable of falling into
roles and playing parts that are contrary to their nature. Most modern social scientists
believe that this study was highly unethical due to the conditions that were forced onto
the subjects of this study, which included humiliation, abduction, and extensive verbal
abuse. Roles, with their associated sets of expected behaviors, were assigned as an
experimental variable of this study. The role identities of the subjects included attitudes
that related to the treatment of the guards or the defiance of the prisoners. Role
perceptions developed for both guards and prisoners over the course of the 6 days of the
study as both groups grew into their parts. Role expectations were left intentionally
vague in this study since Zimbardo wanted to see how the prisoners and guards would
manage themselves with a minimum of guidance on his part. Finally, role conflicts
resulted from the divide between the roles that the subjects played coming into the study
195

(normal college students) and those they gained in their roles in the prison. (Page 306)
163. Identify the benefits and disadvantages of cohesive groups and ways that you can encourage
cohesiveness.
Studies consistently show that the relationship of cohesiveness and productivity
depends on the performance-related norms established by the group. If performance-
related norms are high (for example, high output, quality work, cooperation with
individuals outside the group), a cohesive group will be more productive than will a less
cohesive group. But if cohesiveness is high and performance norms are low,
productivity will be low. If cohesiveness is low and performance norms are high,
productivity increases, but less than in the high-cohesiveness/high-norms situation.
When cohesiveness and performance-related norms are both low, productivity will tend
to fall into the low-to-moderate range.
To encourage group cohesiveness, you might try one or more of the following
suggestions:
(1) Make the group smaller. (2) Encourage agreement with group goals. (3) Increase the
time members spend together. (4) Increase the status of the group and the perceived
difficulty of attaining membership in the group. (5) Stimulate competition with other
groups. (6) Give rewards to the group rather than to individual members. (7) Physically
isolate the group. (Page 318-319)
196

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