Trung tâm luyện thi Đại học CLC QSC

Trung tâm Luyện thi Đại học CLC QSC-45

1-5. Choose the underlined part among A, B, C or D that needs correcting.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.

The (A) top of the mountain (B) covered (C) with snow (D) during winter.
He (A) has been hoped for a rise for the (B) last four months, but his boss is reluctant (C) to give him (D) one.
(A) Mining over 2,000 years (B) ago, copper is one of (C) the earliest (D) known metals.
The (A) price of crude oil used to be a (B) great deal (C) lower than now, (D) wasn‟t it?
The duties of the secretary (A) are (B) to take the minutes, (C) mailing the correspondence, and calling the members
before the (D) meetings.

6-10. Pick out the word that has the stress differently from that of the other words.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.

A. overwhelming
A. kitchen
A. justice
A. tendency
A. bamboo

B. incredible
B. mountain
B. diverse
B. importance
B. cactus

C. optimistic
C. fountain
C. series
C. incidence
C. camel

D. intellectual
D. maintain
D. current
D. difference
D. hummock

11-20. Choose the word or phrase that best fits the blank space in the following passage.
Speech is one of the most important (11)................ of communicating. It consists of far more than just making
noises. To talk and also (12)................ to by other people, we have to speak a language, that is, we have to use
combinations of (13)................ that everyone agrees to stand for a particular object or idea. Communication would be
impossible if everyone made up their own language. Learning a language properly is very (14).................
The basic (15)................ of English is not very large, and not only about 2,000 words are needed to speak it quite
(16).................But the more idea you can (17).............. the more precise you can be about their exact meaning. Words are
the (18)............. thing we use in communicating what we want to say. The way we (19)............. the words is also very
important. Our tone of voice can express many emotions and (20)............. whether we are pleased or angry, for instance.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.

A. reason
A. be spoken
A. systems
A. easy
A. grammar
A. fluent
A. need
A. main
A. talk
A. show

B. tests
B. be examined
B. sounds
B. important
B. word
B. good
B. grow
B. certain
B. say
B. ask

C. ways
C. be understood
C. languages
C. simple
C. vocabulary
C. well
C. express
C. full
C. pass
C. understand

D. rules
D. be talked
D. talks
D. expensive
D. structure
D. perfect
D. pass
D. most
D. send
D. know

21-50. Choose the best answer among A, B, C or D that best completes each sentence.
21. ................ patient, and you will succeed.
A. To be
B. Are
C. Be
22. It is believed ................causes weight loss.
A. much stress
B. much stress that
C. it is much stress
23. He doesn‟t seem to be successful ................ hard he works.
A. whatever
B. although
C. but
24. Are there any interesting ................ in the paper?
A. news
B. pieces of news
C. piece of news
25. We‟ve decided to interview only ten ................ for the job.
A. applicants
B. applicable
C. appliances
26. “Which of the two boys is a boy scout?”
“................ of them is.”
A. All
B. None
C. Neither
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D. Being
D. that much stress
D. however
D. new
D. applications

D. Both
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27. The child was told to eat all his vegetables or ................he would get no ice cream.
A. in case
B. in fact
C. instead
D. else
28. The stolen jewels were ................a lot of money.
A. priced
B. worth
C. cost
D. valued
29. My brother is intelligent but he ................ common sense.
A. fails
B. lacks
C. misses
D. wants
30. I am ................ tired to think about that problem at the moment.
A. simply
B. far too
C. much more
D. nearly
31. His ................ of the school regulations really can‟t be ignored any longer.
A. carelessness
B. inattention
C. unfamiliarity
D. disregard
32. ................after trying three times, he passed the examination.
A. Last of all
B. Lastly
C. Last
D. At last
33. I think you should stay................
A. calm
B. tranquil
C. peaceful
D. quiet
34. “Help!”
“................................................................”
A. Just a minute!
B. Moment!
C. I come at once!
D. Wait on!
35. All work is better than ................at all.
A. no
B. no one
C. none
D. not
36. The question of late payment of the bills was ................again at the meeting
A. raised
B. risen
C. brought
D. taken
37. None of us has ever ................of cheating in class.
A. declared
B. persisted
C. approved
D. concluded
38. We have been working hard. Let‟s ................ a break.
A. make
B. find
C. do
D. take
39. It never ................my mind he will tell lies to me .
A. crosses
B. takes
C. enters
D. happens
40. I‟m afraid you‟ll have to make a decision at once. We have no time to .................
A. save
B. spare
C. draw
D. adjust
41. Those men are paid by .................
A. an hour
B. hour
C. every hour
D. the hour
42. “Take me some medicine from the first aid kit, ................ you?
A. don‟t
B. can
C. do
D. will
43. “I am terribly sorry!”
“ ................................”
A. It‟s nothing
B. Nothing
C. Don‟t worry
D. Never mind!
44. The ship was put into quarantine and the passengers and the crew were ....................... to land
A. ordered
B. forbidden
C. permitted
D. let
45. “Could I speak to Susie May, please?”
“Yes,.................................”
A. Answering
B. Talking
C. Saying
D. Speaking
46. He spent his entire life ................ round the world, never setting down anywhere.
A. scattering
B. vesting
C. roaming
D. roaring
47. “Would you mind helping me with these heavy boxes?”
“................................”
A. “Yes, I would.”
B. “Not at all.”
C. “What a pity!”
D. “my Gosh!”
48. I wish you wouldn‟t call him ................that insulting name.
A. by
B. with
C. in
D. under
49. They received a ten-year sentence for ................armed robbery .
A. committing
B. practicing
C. doing
D. making
50. In life ................can make a mistake; we‟re all human.
A. anyone
B. someone
C. some people
D. not anybody
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51-60. Choose the item among A, B, C or D that best answers the question about the passage.
The ocean bottom- a region nearly 2.5 times greater than total land area of the Earth- is a vast frontier that even
today is largely unexplored and uncharted. Until about a century ago, the deep-ocean floor was completely inaccessible,
hidden beneath waters averaging over 3.6000 meters deep. Totally without light and subjected to intense pressures
hundreds of times greater than at the Earth‟s surface, deep-ocean bottom is a hostile environment to humans, in some
ways as forbidding and remote as the void of outer space.
Although researchers have taken samples of deep-ocean rocks and sediments for over a century, the first detailed
global investigation of the ocean bottom did not actually start until 1968, with the beginning of the National Science
Foundation‟s Deep Sea Drilling Project (DSDP). Using techniques first developed for the offshore oil gas industry, the
Dad‟s drill ship, the Glomar Challenger, was able to maintain a steady position on the ocean‟s surface and drill in very
deep waters, extracting samples of sediments and rock from the ocean floor.
The Glomar Challenger completed 96 voyages in a 15 –year research program that ended in November 1983.
During this time, the vessel logged 600,000 kilometers and took almost 20,000 core samples of seabed sediments and
rocks at 624 drilling sites around the world. The Glomar Challenger‟s core samples have allowed geologists to
reconstruct what the planet looked like hundreds of millions of years ago and to calculate what it problem look will like
millions of years in the future. Today, largely on the strength of evidence gathered during the Glomar Challenger‟s
voyages, nearly all earth scientists agree on the theories of plate tectonics and continental drift that explain many of the
geological processes that shape the Earth.
The cores of sediment drilled by the Glomar Challenger have also yielded information critical to understanding the
worlds past climates. Deep-ocean sediments provide a climatic record stretching back hundreds of millions of years;
because they are largely isolated from the mechanical erosion and the intense chemical and biological activity that
rapidly destroy much land-based evidence of past climates. This record has already provided insights into the patterns
and causes of past climatic change-information that may be used to predict future climates
51. The author refers to the ocean bottom as a “frontier” because it................
A. attracts courageous explorers
B. is not a popular area for scientific research
C. contains a wide variety of life forms
D. is an unknown territory
52. The word “inaccessible” is closest meaning to .................
A. unusable
B. unreachable
C. unrecognizable
D. unsafe
53. The author mentions outer space in the first paragraph because.................
A. it is similar to the ocean floor in being alien to the human environment
B. techniques used by scientists to explore outer space were similar to those used in ocean exploration.
C. the Earth‟s climate millions of years ago was similar to condition in outer space.
D. rock formations in outré space are similar to those found on the ocean floor
54. Which of the following is True of the Glomar Challenger?
A. It is a type of submarine.
B. It has gone on over 100 voyages.
C. It made its first DSDP voyage in 1968.
D. It is an ongoing project.
55. The word “extracting” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to .................
A. locating
B. breaking
C. analyzing
D. removing
56. The Deep Sea Drilling Project was significant because it was .................
A. attempt to find new sources of oil and gas
B. funded entirely by the gas and oil industry
C. the first extensive exploration of the ocean bottom
D. composed of geologists from all over the world
57. The word “strength” in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to .................
A. endurance
B. basis
C. discovery
D. purpose
58. The word “they” in the last paragraph refers to .................
A. sediments
B. cores
C. climates
D. years
59. The DSDP can be said to be ................in terms of geological exploration.
A. a total flop
B. of crucial importance C. a great success
D. a west of time and effort
60. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as being a result of the Deep Sea Drilling Project?
A. Geologists were able to determine the Earth‟s appearance hundreds of millions of years ago.
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B. Two geological theories became more widely accepted by scientists.
C. Geologists observed forms of marine life never before seen
D. Information was revealed about the Earth‟s past climatic changes.
Are organically grown foods the best choices? The advantages claimed for such foods over conventionally grown
and marketed food products are now being debated. Advocates of organic foods – a term whose meaning varies greatly –
frequently proclaim that such products are safer and more nutritious than others.
The growing interest of consumers in the safety and more nutritional quality of the typical North American diet is a
welcome development. However, much of this interest has been sparked by sweeping claims that the food supply is
unsafe or inadequate in meeting nutritional needs. Although most of these claims are not supported by scientific
evidence, the preponderance of written material advancing such claims makes it difficult for the general public to
separate fact from fiction. As a result, claims that eating a diet consisting entirely of organically grown foods prevents or
cures disease or provides other benefits to health have become widely publicized and form the basis for folklore.
Almost daily the public is besieged by claims for “no-aging” diets, new vitamins, and other wonder foods. There are
numerous unsubstantiated reports that natural vitamins are superior to synthetic ones, that fertilized eggs are nutritionally
superior to fertilized eggs, that untreated grains are better than fumigated grains and the like. One thing that most
organically grown food products seem to have in common is that they cost more than conventionally grown foods. But in
many cases consumers are misled if they believe organic foods can maintain health and provide better nutritional quality
than conventionally grown foods. So there is real cause for concern if consumers, particularly those with limited
incomes, distrust the regular food and buy only expensive organic foods instead
61. The word “Advocates” is closest in meaning to which of the following?
A. Proponents
B. Inspectors
C. Consumers
D. Merchants
62. In the first paragraph, the word “other” refers to .................
A. advocates
B. products
C. advantages
D. organic foods
63. The “welcome development” mentioned is an increase in.................
A. the amount of health food grown in North American
B. interest in food safety and nutritional quality of the typical North American diet
C. the number of consumers in North American
D. the nutritional quality of the typical North American diet
64. According to the first paragraph, which of the following is true about the terms “organic foods”?
A. It has been used only in recent years.
B. It is seldom used by consumers.
C. It has no fixed meaning.
D. It is accepted by most nutritionists.
65. The word “unsubstantiated” is closest in meaning to .................
A. uncontested
B. unbelievable
C. unverified
D. unpopular
66. The word “maintain” is closest in meaning to .................
A. preserve
B. retire
C. improve
D. monitor
67. Who does the author think should NOT buy organic foods?
A. Advocated of organic food
B. Wealthy people
C. Concerned consumers
D. Low income consumers
68. The author implies that there is cause for concern if consumers with limited incomes buy organic foods instead of
conventionally grown foods because .................
A. too many farmers will stop using conventional method to grow food crops
B. many organic foods are actually less nutritious than similar conventionally grown foods
C. conventionally grown foods are more readily available than organic foods
D. organic foods can be more expensive but are often no better than conventionally grown foods
69. According to the last paragraph, consumers who believe that organic foods are better than conventionally grown
foods are often .................
A. wealthy
B. mistaken
C. thrifty
D. careless
70. What is the author‟s attitude toward the claims made by advocates of health foods?
A. Very enthusiastic
B. Neutral
C. Skeptical
D. Somewhat favorable

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71-75. Choose the correct sentence among A, B, C or D which has the same meaning as the given one.
71. His handwriting is so small that I can hardly read it.
A. His handwriting is too bad to read.
B. He is used to small writing so I can hardly read it
C. His handwriting is the smallest I have ever read.
D. He has such small writing that I can hardly read it.
72. The only student who failed the exam was John.
A. Everyone passed the exam.
B. Together with other students, John failed the exam.
C. With the exception of John, everyone passed the exam.
D. Everyone, apart from John, failed the exam
73. “Why don‟t you get your hair cut, Gavin?” said Adam.
A. Adam advised Gavin to cut his hair
B. Gavin was suggested to have a haircut.
C. It was suggested that Adam get Gavin‟s hair cut.
D. Adam suggested that Gavin should have his hair cut
74. You are all welcome to take any food you like.
A. Any food welcomes to take if you like.
B. It‟s my pleasure to take any food you like.
C. You don‟t have to pay for any food that you like.
D. Please help yourselves to any food you like.
75. Without skillful surgery he would not have survived the operation.
A. With skillful surgery he would have survived the operation.
B. Had it not been for skillful surgery he would not have survived the operation.
C. But for skillful surgery he would not have survived the operation.
D. He wouldn‟t have survived the operation if he hadn‟t had skillful surgery.
76. It is important that .................................................
A. an exact record should be kept
B. an exact record to be kept
C. to keep an exact record
D. keeping an exact record
77. ................................................ the book, please return it to me.
A. Should you find
B. Will you have found C. Will you be finding
D. Will you find
78. ................................. we went swimming.
A. So hot was the day
B. It was a hot day
C. Being a hot day
D. Due to a hot day
79. I know Jimmy ................................him.
A. too well so as to trust B. so well as to trust
C. too well to trust
D. well enough as to trust
80. ................ is the price of this car.
A. What interested in us
B. That we are interested in
C. That interested us
D. What we are interested in
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1-2. Pick the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the italic part in each of the following sentences.
1. Henry has found a temporary job in a factory.
A. eternal
B. genuine
2. Mr. Smith‟s new neighbors appear to be very friendly.
A. amicable
B. inapplicable

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C. permanent

D. satisfactory

C. hostile

D. futile

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3-7. Pick the word that has the stress differently from that of the other words.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.

A. punctuality
A. equip
A. effectiveness
A. prevention
A. dynamism

B. technological
B. vacant
B. accountancy
B. implement
B. accompany

C. characteristic
C. secure
C. satisfaction
C. fertilize
C. comfortable

D. representative
D. oblige
D. appropriate
D. enterprise
D. interview

8. We ....................... today and I got into trouble because I hadn't done it.
A. were checked our homework
B. had our homework checked
C. have our homework checking
D. had checked our homework
9. You can go to the party tonight you are sober when you come home.
A. as long as
B. as far as
C. as soon as
D. as well as
10. She must ....................... in the garage when we came that's why she didn't hear the bell.
A. have been working
B. be working
C. have worked
D. work
11. I'm sorry, but I've got ....................... much work to do to come to the beach today.
A. too
B. such
C. enough
D. so
12. It‟s essential that every student ....................... the exam before attending the course.
A. passes
B. would pass
C. passed
D. pass
13. I decided to go to the library as soon as I ........................
A. would finish what I did
B. finished what I did
C. finished what I was doing
D. finish what I did
14. Ancient Egyptians mummified the dead bodies through the use of chemicals, ....................... ancient
Peruvians did through natural processes.
A. because
B. whereas
C. whether or not
D. even though
15. Please cut my hair ....................... the style in this magazine.
A. the same length like
B. the same length as
C. the same long like
D. the same long as
16. ....................... in this national park declined from a few thousand to a few hundred in ten years.
A. For a number of tigers
B. The number of tigers
C. A number of tigers
D. That the number of tigers
17. ......................., he would have been able to pass the exam.
A. Studying more
B. Had he studied more C. If he studied more
D. If he were studying more
18. Study harder .......................
A. if you will pass the exam
B. unless you pass the exam
C. or you won‟t pass the exam
D. and you pass the exam
19. Fire safety in family houses,....................... most fire deaths occur, is difficult.
A. how
B. when
C. why
D. where
20. ....................... of the financial crisis, all they could do was hold on and hope that things would improve.
A. In the end
B. At the height
C. On the top
D. At the bottom
21. When I got my case back, it had been damaged ....................... repair.
A. over
B. further
C. above
D. beyond
22. We intend to ....................... with the old system as soon as we have developed a better one.
A. do up
B. do in
C. do away
D. do down
23. ....................... that she burst into tears.
A. So angry was she
B. Such her anger
C. She was so anger
D. Her anger was so
24. We regret to tell you that the materials you ordered are
.
A. out of reach
B. out of practice
C. out of stock
D. out of work
25. Do you remember Daisy? I ran ....................... her at the Fair yesterday.
A. by
B. down
C. across
D. in

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26. I‟m really sleepy today. I wish I ....................... Bob to the airport late last night,
A. weren‟t taking
B. didn‟t take
C. hadn‟t had to take
D. didn‟t have to take
27. Matthew‟s hands were covered in oil because he ....................... his bike.
A. had been mending
B. has mended
C. has been mending
D. had mended
28. “I think we should recycle these bags. It will help protect the environment.”
“....................... ”
A. Never mind
B. I can‟t agree with you more
C. You can say that again
D. It‟s rubbish. We shouldn‟t use it.
29. Mark: -“.......................”
Helen: “Oh, thank you. I just got it yesterday.”
A. What a beautiful dress you have on!
B. How a beautiful dress you‟re wearing!
C. You‟ve just bought this beautiful dress, haven‟t you?
D. When have you got this beautiful dress?
30. Host: “I‟m terribly sorry for this inconvenience.”
Guests: -"......................."
A. It‟s mine. I came late
B. It‟s not your fault
C. I‟ll do better next time
D. Fine, thanks
31. Once known as the “Golden State” because of its gold mines,.......................
A. North Carolina today mines few metallic minerals
B. few metallic minerals are mined in North Carolina today
C. there are few metallic minerals mined in North Carolina today
D. today in North Carolina few metallic minerals are mined
32. Anyone who has ever pulled weeds from a garden ....................... roots firmly anchor plants to the soil.
A. well aware
B. is well aware that
C. is well aware of
D. well aware that
33. Children‟s games, which are amusements (A) involve more than one individual, (B) appear to be (C) culturally (D)
universal.
34. When I (A) came back I (B) realized that (C) my camera (D) had been disappeared.
35. If (A) either of you (B) take a vacation now, we (C) won‟t be able (D) to finish this work.
36. Among the (A) world‟s 44 (B) richest countries, (C) there has been (D) not war since 1945.
37. (A) What we know about certain diseases (B) are still not sufficient to prevent them (C) from spreading easily (D)
among the population.
38-40 Pick out the word or phrase that is closest in meaning to the italic part in each of the following sentences.
38. The lost hikers stayed alive by eating wild berries and drinking spring water.
A. revived
B. surprised
C. connived
D. survived
39. Father has lost his job, so we‟ll have to tighten our belt to avoid getting into debt.
A. earn money
B. save money
C. sit still
D. economize
40. She was brought up in a well-off family. She can‟t understand the problems we are facing.
A. wealthy
B. kind
C. broke
D. poor
The modern comic strip started out as ammunition in a newspaper war between giants of the American press in the
late nineteenth century. The first full-color comic strip appeared in January 1894 in the New York World, owned by
Joseph Pulitzer. The first regular weekly full-color comic supplement, similar to today‟s Sunday funnies, appeared two
years later, in William Randolph Hearst‟s rival New York paper, the Morning Journal.
Both were immensely popular and publishers realized that supplementing the news with comic relief boosted the sale
of papers. The Morning Journal started another feature in 1896, the “Yellow Kid”, the first continuous comic character
in the United States, whose creator, Richard Outhaul, had been lured away from the World by the ambitious Hearst. The
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“Yellow Kid” was in many ways a pioneer. Its comic dialogue was the strictly urban farce that came to characterize later
strips, and it introduced the speech balloon inside the strip, usually placed above the characters‟ heads.
The first strip to incorporate all the elements of later comics was Rudolph Dirks‟s “Katzenjammer Kids”, based on
Wilhelm Busch‟s Max and Moritz, a European satire of the nineteenth century. The “Kids” strip, first published in 1897,
served as the prototype for future American strips. It contained not only speech balloons, but a continuous cast of
characters, and was divided into small regular panels that did away with the larger panoramic scenes of earlier comics.
Newspaper syndication played a major role in spreading the popularity of comic strips throughout the country.
Though weekly colored comics came first, daily black-and-white strips were not far behind. The first appeared in the
Chicago American in 1904. It was followed by many imitators, and by 1915 black-and-white comic strips had become a
staple of daily newspapers around the country.
41. In what order does the author discuss various comic strips in the passage?
A. In the order in which they were created.
B. From most popular to least popular.
C. According to the newspaper in which they appeared.
D. In alphabetical order by title.
42. According to the passage, the “Yellow Kid” was the first comic strip to do all of the following EXCEPT............ .
A. feature the same character in each episode
B. include dialogue inside a balloon
C. appear in a Chicago newspaper
D. characterize city life in a humorous way
43. The word “prototype” is closest in meaning to .......................
A. model
B. story
C. humor
D. drawing
44. The word “staple” is closest in meaning to .......................
A. new version
B. huge success
C. regular feature
D. popular edition
45. The word “incorporate” is closest in meaning to .......................
A. combine
B. mention
C. create
D. affect
46. Why does the author mention Joseph Pulitzer and William Randolph Hearst?
A. Their comic strips are still published today.
B. They owned major competitive newspapers.
C. They established New York‟s first newspaper.
D. They published comic strips about the newspaper war.
47. The word “it” refers to .......................
A. balloon
B. farce
C. dialogue
D. the “Yellow Kid”
48. The passage suggests that comic strips were popular for which of the following reasons?
A. Readers enjoyed the unusual drawings.
B. They were about real-life situations.
C. Readers could identify with the characters.
D. They provided a break from serious news stories.
49. To say that Richard Outhaul had been “lured away from” the World by Hearst means which of the following?
A. Hearst warned Outhaul not to leave the World.
B. Hearst convinced Outhaul to leave the World.
C. Hearst fired Outhaul from the World.
D. Hearst wanted Outhaul to work for the World.
50. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The differences between early and modern comic strips.
B. Features of early comic strips in the United States.
C. The effects of newspapers on comic strip stories.
D. A comparison of two popular comic strips.
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51. The noise next door did not stop until after midnight.
A. It was not until after midnight that the noise next door stopped.
B. It was midnight and the noise next door stopped.
C. The noise next door stopped at midnight
D. Not until after midnight the noise next door stopped.
52. Their dog was so fierce that nobody would visit them.
A. They had a so fierce dog that nobody would visit them.
B. Their dog was too fierce to visit.
C. They had a such fierce dog that nobody would visit them.
D. They had so fierce a dog that nobody would visit them.
53. If you want to be kept informed about current affairs, you should listen to the radio.
A. Listening to the radio and you will be kept informed about current affairs.
B. A good way of keeping yourself informed about current affairs is listen to the radio.
C. Listening to the radio is a good way of keeping yourself informed about current affairs.
D. Only by listening to the radio, you can keep yourself informed about current affairs.
54. I travel by bus only when I have no alternative.
A. I travel by bus only as a last resort.
B. It‟s my only alternative to travel by bus.
C. I resort to travel by bus only when I have no alternative.
D. Travelling by bus is my only alternative.
55. Calling Jim is pointless because his phone is out of order.
A. It‟s worth not calling Jim because his phone is out of order.
B. It‟s no use to call Jim because his phone is out of order.
C. It‟s useless calling Jim because his phone is out of order.
D. There‟s no point calling Jim because his phone is out of order.
56. The Prime Minister is unlikely to call an early general election.
A. The likelihood is that the Prime Minister will call an early general election.
B. The likelihood is great that the Prime Minister will call an early general election.
C. It‟s likely that the Prime Minister will call an early general election.
D. There is little likelihood of the Prime Minister calling an early general election.
57. Lin‟s success took us all by surprise.
A. We were taken aback by all of Lin‟s successes.
B. Lin‟s success was surprised to all of us.
C. Lin was successful, which surprised all of us.
D. We took all of Lin‟s successes surprisingly.
58. You are in this mess right now because you didn‟t listen to me in the first place.
A. If you listened to my advice in the first place, you wouldn‟t be in this mess right now.
B. If you had listened to my advice in the first place, you wouldn‟t be in this mess right now.
C. If you listen to my advice in the first place, you will not be in this mess right now.
D. If you had listened to my advice in the first place, you wouldn‟t have been in this mess right now.
59. Fiona goes to the theater once in a blue moon.
A. Fiona goes to the theater when the moon is full.
B. Fiona rarely goes to the theater.
C. Fiona goes to the theater when the blue moon is on.
D. Fiona goes to the theater only once a month.
60. What the politician was saying fell on deaf ears last night.
A. The politician fell deaf when he was speaking last night.
B. What the politician was saying deafened the listeners last night.
C. No one listened to what the politician was saying last night.
D. No one listened to what the politician was saying last night because they had deaf ears.
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61-70. Choose the word or phrase among A, B, C or D that best fits the blank space in the following passage.
Mobile phones emit microwave radio emissions. Researchers are questioning whether exposure to these radio waves
might (61)....................... to brain cancer. So far, the data are not conclusive. The scientific evidence does not
(62)....................... us to say with certainly that mobile phones are categorically (63)....................... On the other hand,
current research has not yet (64)....................... clear adverse effect associated with the prolonged use of mobile phones.
Numerous studies are now going (65)....................... in various countries. Some of the results are contradictory but
others have shown an association between mobile phone use and cancer. (66)......................., these studies are preliminary
and the issue needs further, long - term investigation.
(67)....................... the scientific data is more definite, it is prudent for people to try not to use mobile phone for long
(68)....................... of time. Don't think that hands free phones are any safer either. At the moment, research is in fact
showing the (69)....................... and they may be just as dangerous. It is also thought that young people
(70)....................... bodies are still growing may be at particular risk.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.

A. cause
A. make
A. risky
A. proved
A. on
A. While
A. Until
A. quantities
A. way
A. whose

B. bring
B. let
B. secure
B. created
B. about
B. Though
B. When
B. periods
B. truth
B. that

C. produce
C. able
C. unhealthy
C. demonstrated
C. through
C. Additionally
C. Provide
C. amounts
C. opposite
C. with

D. lead
D. enable
D. safe
D. caused
D. by
D. However
D. As
D. intervals
D. fact
D. as

Butterflies are among the most extensively studied insects, an estimated 90 percent of the world‟s species have
scientific names. As a consequence, they are, perhaps, the best group of insects for examining patterns of terrestrial biotic
diversity and distribution. Butterflies also have a favorable image with the general public. Hence, they are an excellent
group for communicating information on science and conservation issues such as diversity.
Perhaps the aspect of butterfly diversity that has received the most attention over the past century is the striking
difference in species richness between tropical and temperate regions.
For example, in 1875 one biologist pointed out the diversity of butterflies in the Amazon when he mentioned that
about 700 species were found within an hour's walk, whereas the total number found on the British islands did not exceed
66, and the whole of Europe supported only 321. This early comparison of tropical and temperate butterfly richness has
been well confirmed.
A general theory of diversity would have to predict not only this difference between temperate and tropical zones,
but also patterns within each region, and how these patterns vary among different animal and plant groups. However, for
butterflies, variation of species richness within temperate or tropical regions, rather than between them, is poorly
understood. Indeed, comparisons of numbers of species among the Amazon basin, tropical Asia, and Africa are still
mostly "personal communication" citations, even for vertebrates. In other words, unlike comparison between temperate
and tropical areas, these patterns are still in the documentation phase.
In documenting geographical variation in butterfly diversity, some arbitrary, practical decisions are made. Diversity,
number of species, and species richness are used synonymously; little is known about the evenness of butterfly
distribution. The New World butterflies make up the preponderance of examples because they are the most familiar
species. It is hoped that by focusing on them, the errors generated by imperfect and incomplete taxonomy will be
minimized.
71. Which aspect of butterflies does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Their physical characteristics
B. Their adaptation to different habitats
C. Their names
D. Their variety
72. The word "consequence" in the passage is closest in meaning to "……………………….".
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A. requirement
B. analysis
C. result
D. explanation
73. Butterflies are a good example for communicating information about conservation issues because they……………
A. are found mainly in temperate climates
B. have been given scientific names
C. are simple in structure
D. are viewed positively by people
74. The word "striking" in the passage is closest in meaning to "……………………….".
A. noticeable
B. successful
C. confusing
D. physical
75. The word “exceed” in the passage is closest in meaning to "……………………….".
A. allow
B. go beyond
C. come close to
D. locate
76. All of the followings are mentioned as being important parts of a general theory of diversity EXCEPT …………..
A. differences between temperate and tropical zones
B. variation of patterns of distribution of species among different animals and plants
C. patterns of distribution of species in each region
D. migration among temperate and tropical zones
77. The author mentions "tropical Asia" in the passage as an example of a location where .
A. a general theory of butterfly diversity has not yet been firmly established
B. butterflies are affected by human populations
C. butterfly behavior varies with climate
D. documenting plant species is more difficult than documenting butterfly species
78. Which of the following is NOT well understood by biologists?
A. European butterfly habitats
B. Comparisons of behavior patterns of butterflies and certain animal groups
C. Differences in species richness within a temperate or a tropical region
D. Differences in species richness between temperate and tropical regions
79. The idea "little is known about the evenness of butterfly distribution" is that …………………………
A. there are many other things that we don't know about butterfly evenness distribution
B. we don't know anything about butterfly evenness distribution
C. we know much about butterfly evenness distribution
D. we know about butterfly evenness distribution to some extent
80. The word "generated" in the passage is closest in meaning to "……………………….".
A. assisted
B. estimated
C. requested
D. caused
***********************************************************

1.
2.
3.
4.

5.
6.

Will the cost of living ................. down again, do you think?
(A) come
(B) move
(C) turn
(D) bring
.......................immense distances, quasars have relatively high magnitudes.
(A) Whereas
(B) In spite of
(C) Although
(D) Yet
At this point, Shannon wishes she ........................ mechanical drawing. She hates the course.
(A) didn't take
(B) wouldn't take
(C) hadn't taken
(D) were to take
That house ........................ empty for a year. But they ........................ down the "For Sale" sign, so I suppose
someone ........................ it.
(A) has been … just take … has bought
(B) is have … just taken … buy
(C) is … just take … has bought
(D) has been … have just taken … has bought
If the neighbors ........................ down, I would have had to call the police.
(A) has not quieted
(B) had not quieted
(B) hadn't quieted
(D) B or C
It is believed ................. causes insomnia.
(A) too much caffeine
(B) that too much caffeine
(C) it is too much caffeine
(D) too much caffeine that
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7.

8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.

It ........................ for two hours and the ground is too wet to play on, so the match ........................
(A) has rained … has been postponed
(B) rained has been postponed
(C) has rained was postponed
(D) rained was postponed
........................ of all modern domestic poultry is the red jungle fowl is widely believed.
(A) The ancestor
(B) The ancestor is
(C) That the ancestor
(D) How the ancestor
He always has a behavior to conflict people‟s opinion in the conference.
(A) extreme
(B) manner
(C) feature
(D) appearance
Subtropical zones, ........................ temperate zones, but they still have distinct summer and winter seasons.
(A) that are warmer
(B) warmer
(C) are warmer as
(D) are warmer than
'That old paint that you have stored in your garage is a fine hazard.' 'You're right. I should ................. it.
(A) get away from
(B) get rid of
(C) get through with
(D) get along with
If she talked less, people ........................ her more.
(A) will like
(B) like .
(C) liked
(D) would like
When ........................ he ....................... when you saw him last?
A has lived
(B) does ' live
(C) was living
(D) have lived
I wish we ........................ to get to' know one another better in the time we had.
A will be able
(B) were able
(C) would have been able (D) had been able
Seldom........................ a newspaper.
A buys Anna
(B) does Anna buy
(C) bought Anna
(D) Anna does buy
........................ the severe weather conditions all the cars completed the course.
(A) In spite
(B) Despite
(C) However
(D) Yet
Wood floats on water because it is ........................ water.
(A) less dense than
(B) the less dense as
(C) of lesser, density as (D) not as much density than
Solar heat penetrates more deeply into water than .......................
(A) it does into soil
(B) does it into soil
(C) that it does into soil (D) it is penetrating into the soil
What word has the pronunciation as [t] in the following words?
(A) demanded
(B) naked
(C) named
(D) overlooked
Some people waste food ........................ others don't have enough.
(A) as
(B) in case
(C) while
(D) before
....................... the sun rose, the fog dispersed.
(A) As
(B) When
(C) Before
(D) After
Nowhere ........................ such cooperative staff.
(A) you can find
(B) you found
(C) you could find
(D) can you find
The number of people at the exhibit ....................... amazing.
(A) are
(B) were
(C) was
(D) has
None of the information ........................ made public.
(A) was
(B) were
(C) are
(D) have
In a fortnight's time we ........................ our exam.
(A) will have taken
(B) have taken
(C) took
(D) take
Strong ........................ he was, he couldn't lift it.
(A) like
(B) as
(C) or
(D) and
'Who ................. out that tie for you?' 'No one. I chose it myself.
(A) bought
(B) brought
(C) turned
(D) picked
The bank is taking ................. no more staff the moment.
(A) on
(B) off
(C) at
(D) in

29. In spite of my father is old, he still goes to work.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
30. The result of that test must be inform before August.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
31. It‟s high time the government made something about air pollution.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
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32. My little daughter is going to being taken to day care center.
(A)
(B)
(C) (D)
33. There are also many single mothers and single fathers which are raising children by themselves.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
34. If listen to the questions carefully, you would answer them easily you
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
35. Many people have complain about the dirty smoke from the factory
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
36. The more honest we are in our trade, the more customer we‟ll have
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
37. He is believed be the best player in our team
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
38. The older people are, the more weaker they are
(A) (B)
(C)
(D)
Man‟s rise to a position as the dominant creature on this earth has been closely involved with his mammalian
cousins. Even in highly industrialized nations, mammals provide food, drink, clothing, transportation, and power. It‟s
interesting, however, that man‟s interdependency is limited to a few dozen domesticated species. The other mammals are
either in the category of “enemies” or of little interest at all.
Man has waged a war against his mammalian enemies with little result. Despite trapping, shooting, poisoning,
gassing, and a dozen other ploys, most of our enemies are still with us. The victims of man‟s dominance have been rather
the ones in which we have little interest. In fact, the majority of the animals that have become extinct during man‟s march
to global dominance have been just these uninteresting creatures.
For all of man‟s success, he is still a newcomer. It is only in the past century that we have been able to cross water
better than a porpoise or to dive as deeply as whale. It is only recently that we have been able to travel on land faster than
a cheetah or fly faster than a bird. With this new power, man has a responsibility to his cousins, because he is
interdependent, even with the mammals for which he cares little.
39. What is the main idea of this passage?
(A) The evolution of man
(B) The interdependence of man and mammals.
(C) The extinction of mammals
(D) The success of man
40. According to this passage, man has been dependent on mammals for
(A) food and drink
(B) technology
(C) evolution
41. According to the passage, which of the following statements is NOT TRUE?
(A) Man is the dominant creature on earth.
(B) Many mammals have become extinct.
(C) Man has little need for most mammals.
(D) Man is interdependent with other mammals.
42. According to the passage, what must man do now?
(A) Develop more synthetic goods
(B) Assume more responsibility for our interdependence with mammals.
(C) Put all the mammals in the zoo where they will be protected.
(D) Intensify our efforts to control our traditional enemies.
43. According to the passage, what has man accomplished in his rise to dominance?
(A) Developed human speech
(B) Domesticated some animals
(C) Put a man on the moon
(D) Extinguished many mammalian enemies

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Samuel Morse accomplished something that is rarely accomplished: he achieved fame and success in two widely
differing areas. Throughout his youth he studied art, and after graduating from Yale University he went on to London in
1811 where his early artistic endeavors met 5 with acclaim. In London he was awarded the gold medal of the Adelphi
Arts Society for a clay figure of Hercules, and his paintings The Dying Hercules and The Judgment of Jupiter were
selected for exhibit by the Royal Academy. Later in life, after returning to America, Morse became known for his
portraits. His portraits of the Marquis 10 de Lafayette today are on exhibit in the New York City Hall and the New York
Public Library. In addition to his artistic accomplishments, Morse is also well-known today for his work developing the
telegraph and what is known as Morse Code. He first had the idea of trying to develop the telegraph in 1832, on board a
ship returning to America 15 from Europe. It took eleven long years of ridicule by his associates, disinterest by the
public, and a shortage of funds before Congress finally allocated $30,000 to Morse for his project. With these funds,
Morse hung a telegraph line from Washington, DC to Baltimore, and on May 24, 1844, a message in the dots and dashes
of Morse Code was 20 successfully transmitted.
44. Which of the following is the best topic of this passage?
(A) Samuel Morse's artistic talents
(B) The use of Morse Code in art
(C) The invention of the telegraph
(D) Samuel Morse's varied successes
45. According to the passage, in his early life, Morse concentrated on preparing for which of the following careers?
(A) A career as an inventor
(B) A career as an artist
(C) A career as a telegraph operator
(D) A career developing Morse Code.
46. According to the passage, Morse won a prize for which of the following works?
(A) A statue of Hercules
(B) The Dying Hercules
(C) The Judgment of Jupiteronists
(D) A portrait of Lafayette
47. According to the passage, which of the following best describes the development of the telegraph?
(A) It was a long and difficult process.
(B) It happened almost overnight.
(C) Morse's friends were highly supportive of his work.
(D) Money was not an issue in the development of the telegraph.
48. How was the first telegraph message sent from Washington to Baltimore?
(A) A voice was transmitted over the wires.
(B) The telegraph line carried a written message.
(C) The message was in a special code developed by Morse.
(D) Funds were transmitted from Washington to Baltimore.
51-65. Choose the word or phrase among A, B, C or D that best fits the blank space in the following passage.
In child development there is an important phenomenon that shows very clearly the process of preparation for the
future: play. (51) ........................ to popular belief, its importance should never be underestimated. Games are not the
haphazard creations of parents or educators. They should be seen as educational (52) ........................ and as stimuli for
the child‟s (53) ......................., imagination and life skills. Every game is a preparation for the future.
The manner in which children (54) ........................ a game, their choice of game and the importance they (55)
........................ upon it, show their attitude and relationship to their environment and how they relate to their
(56) ........................ human beings. Whether they are hostile or whether they are friendly, and particularly whether they
show qualities as leaders, are clearly (57) ....................... in their play. In observing children at play we can see their
whole attitude towards life; play is of the (58) ........................ importance to every child.
But play is more than preparation for life. Games are (59) ........................ communal exercises that enable children to
develop their social feeling. Children who avoid games and play are always (60) ........................ to the suspicion that they
have not (61) ........................ satisfactorily to life. These children gladly withdraw from all games, or when they are sent
to the playground with other children usually (62) ........................ the pleasure of others. Pride, lack of (63)
........................ and the consequent fear of „getting it wrong‟ are the main reasons for this behavior. In general, by
watching children at play, we can determine (64) ........................ great certainty the (65) ........................ a nd quality of
their social feeling.
49.

(A) In contrast

(B) Contrary
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(C) According

(D) Due
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50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.

(A) means
(A) psyche
(A) operate
(A) give
(A) fellow
(A) distinct
(A) great
(A) without doubts
(A) attached
(A) survived
(A) spoil
(A) maturity
(A) on
(A) level

(B) sources
(B) physiology
(B) approach
(B) accord
(B) contemporary
(B) evident
(B) utmost
(B) in all
(B) open
(B) adjusted
(B) damage
(B) egoism
(B) in
(B) scale

(C) tools
(C) mindset
(C) process
(C) place
(C) present
(C) noticeable
(C) prime
(C) by far
(C) prone
(C) changed
(C) vanish
(C) self-esteem
(C) with
(C) scope

(D) aids
(D) nerves
(D) experience
(D) lay
(D) peer
(D) marked
(D) most
(D) above all
(D) likely
(D) grown
(D) worsen
(D) development
(D) for
(D) extent

64. Nothing but the whole story would satisfy Tim.
(A) Tim wouldn't be satisfied with anything.
(B) Tim wanted to know just the end of the story.
(C) On the whole, Tim was satisfied with the story.
(D) Tim insisted on being told the complete story.
65. Hardly are appeals allowed against the council decisions.
(A) The council always allows appeals against its decision.
(B) It's too hard for the council to allow appeals again its decisions.
(C) Allowing appeals against its decisions is not good.
(D) The council rarely allows appeals against1ts decisions.
66. The students did not take to their new lecturer.
(A) The students didn't understand what the new lecturer said.
(B) The new lecturer was unpopular with his students.
(C) The new lecturer didn't care his students.
(D) The students didn't follow the new lecturer.
67. No matter how hard Fred tried to start the car, he didn't succeed.
(A) Fred tried very hard to start the car, and succeeded.
(B) However hard Fred tried, he couldn't start the car.
(C) It's hard for Fred to start the car because he never succeeded.
(D) Fred tried hard to start the, car, and with success.
68. There is not much to choose between the two essays.
A Both essays are great.
(B) One essay is just as bad as the other.
(C) One of the essays is optional.
(D) Either essays can be chosen.
69. Nobody is to blame for the fact that the meeting was cancelled
(A) Everybody is responsible for the cancelled meeting
(B) Nobody should, be held responsible for the fact that the meeting was cancelled
(C) It‟s nobody‟s faulty that the meeting was cancelled
(D) B and C
70. It never occurred to me to go by train.
(A) I used to go by train.
(B) I was used to going by train.
(C) I never thought of going by train
.
(D) I never find it boring to go by train.
71. I travel by bus as a last resort
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(A) Travelling by bus is my favorite.
(B) I always travel by bus
(C) I resort to bus when I am the last to come
(D) I only travel by bus when there‟s no other alternatives.
72. It doesn't matter to them which film they go to.
(A) No matter what film are shown, they never go.
(B) They have a good taste for films.
(C) They don't mind which film they go to.
(D) Which film they go to matters more than the cost.
73. The onset of the disease is shown by a feeling of faintness.
(A) A feeling of faintness signals the final stage of the disease.
(B) One feels faint if the disease is over.
(C) The first sign of the disease is a feeling 'of faintness.
(D) Faintness causes the disease.
76-80. Choose the correct sentence among A, B, C or D to complete the meaningful sentence from the given words.
74. hard / the garden / very / morning / always / in / my brother / every / works .
(A) My brother always works in the garden very hard every morning.
(B) My brother always works in the garden every morning very hard.
(C) My brother always works very hard in the garden every morning.
(D) All of them are correct
75. Tom and Mary / good / skiing
(A) Tom and Mary are good at skiing
(B) Tom or Mary are good at skiing.
(C) Tom and Mary are good for skiing
(D) Tom or Mary is good for skiing.
76. It / most dangerous / corner / I / see.
(A) It is most dangerous to corner I saw
(B) It is the most dangerous corner that I saw
(C) It is most dangerous corner for me to seeing
(D) It‟s the most dangerous corner I have ever seen.
77. I / speak / Chinese / well / but / my wife / not
(A) I speak Chinese well but my wife is not
(B) I spoke Chinese very well but my wife doesn‟t
(C) I speak Chinese very well but my wife doesn‟t. (D) I spoke Chinese well but my wife is not either.
78. It / take / a few hours / fly / London / New York.
(A) It takes a few hours to fly from London to New York
(B) It takes a few hour to flying from London to New York.
(C) It took a few hour fly between London and New York.
(D) It took a few hours flying between London to New York.
**************************************************

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 1: Chemistry is my ................................ subject at school.
A. favourite
B. popular
C. liking
D. wanted
Question 2: - "Would you like to join our volunteer group this summer?"
- "................................"
A. Do you think I would?
B. I wouldn't. Thank you.
C. Yes, you're a good friend.
D. Yes, I'd love to. Thanks.
Question 3: - "Wow! What a nice coat you are wearing!"
- "................................"
A. Certainly. Do you like it, too?
B. I like you to say that.
C. Yes, of course. It's expensive.
D. Thanks. My mother bought it for me.

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Question 4: My supervisor is angry with me. I didn't do all the work I ................................ last week.
A. should have done
B. may have done
C. need to have done
D. must have done
Question 5: He runs a business, ................................ he proves to have managerial skills.
A. however
B. otherwise
C. and
D. despite
Question 6: Whenever he had an important decision to make, he ................................ a cigar to calm his nerves.
A. would light
B. would be lighting
C. would have lit
D. had lit
Question 7: Preparing for a job interview can be very .................................
A. stress
B. stressful
C. stressed
D. stressing
Question 8: My brother left his job last week because he did not have any ................................ to travel.
A. position
B. chance
C. ability
D. location
Question 9: Not until the end of the 19th century ................................ become a scientific discipline.
A. plant breeding has
B. did plant breeding
C. plant breeding had
D. has plant breeding
Question 10: "How can you live in this messy room? Go and ................................ it up at once."
A. dust
B. sweep
C. tidy
D. do
Question 11: - "I can't speak English well enough to apply for that post."
- "................................."
A. Me neither
B. Me too
C. Me either
D. Me also
Question 12: Tears contain an antiseptic ................................ helps protect our eyes from infection.
A. that
B. what
C. how
D. where
Question 13: She is very absent-minded: she ................................ her cellphone three times!
A. has lost
B. loses
C. was losing
D. had lost
Question 14: - "Which hat do you like better?"
- "................................"
A. Yes, I like it best.
B. The one I tried on first.
C. Which one do you like?
D. No, I haven't tried any.
Question 15: He always ................................ the crossword in the newspaper before breakfast.
A. writes
B. makes
C. works
D. does
Question 16: It is hard to get ................................ him; he is such an aggressive man.
A. by
B. on with
C. into
D. over to
Question 17: The new director of the company seems to be an intelligent and ................................ man.
A. well-educated
B. well-educate
C. well-educational
D. well-education
Question 18: The movie is ................................ Shakespeare‟s Hamlet in a number of ways.
A. like to
B. alike with
C. similar to
D. same as
Question 19: Although the exam was difficult, ................................ the students passed it.
A. most of
B. none of
C. a few
D. a lot
Question 20: - "Our team has just won the last football match."
- "................................"
A. Good idea. Thanks for the news.
B. Yes. I guess it's very good.
C. Well, that's very surprising!
D. Yes, it's our pleasure.
Question 21: Vietnam's rice export this year will decrease ....................... about 10%, compared with that of last year.
A. with
B. at
C. by
D. on
Question 22: By ................................ the housework done, my mother has more time to pursue her career.
A. ordering
B. taking
C. having
D. making
Question 23: The youths nowadays have many things to do in their ................................ time.
A. leisure
B. entertainment
C. fun
D. amusement
Question 24: Mary is unhappy that she hasn't ................................ for the next round in the tennis tournament.
A. qualified
B. quality
C. qualification
D. qualifying
Question 25: Working hours will fall to under 35 hours a week, ................................?
A. will they
B. won't they
C. won't it
D. will it
Question 26: This factory produced ................................ motorbikes in 2008 as in the year 2006.
A. twice as many
B. as twice as many
C. as twice many
D. as many as twice

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Question 27: In many big cities, people have to ................................ up with noise, overcrowding and bad air.
A. keep
B. catch
C. face
D. put
Question 28: Had she worked harder last summer, she .................................
A. wouldn't have been sacked
B. wouldn't have sacked
C. wouldn't sack
D. wouldn't be sacked
Question 29: Listening is the most difficult language ................................ for me to master.
A. one
B. way
C. skill
D. job
Question 30: In the modern world, women's ................................ roles have been changing.
A. natured
B. naturally
C. nature
D. natural
Question 31: Successful salespeople know their products thoroughly .................................
A. and the needs of the market understood
B. but the needs of the market are understood properly
C. and understand the needs of the market properly
D. understanding the needs of the market
Question 32: The Vietnamese students have to take an entrance exam .................................
A. for going to a college and university
B. in order that they should go to a college or university
C. so as go to a college or university
D. so that they can go to a college or university
Question 33: ................................, many animals can still survive and thrive there.
A. Being severe weather conditions in the desert
B. Although the weather conditions in the desert are severe
C. The weather conditions in the desert to be severe
D. Even though the weather conditions in the desert severe
Question 34: Hillary changed her major from linguistics to business, .................................
A. hoping she can easier get a job
B. with the hope for being able finding a better job
C. hoping to find a job more easily
D. with hopes to be able easier to get employment
Question 35: An excellent hairstylist can make a man seem to have more hair .................................
A. as has actually he
B. than he actually has
C. than it actually is
D. as is it actually
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction.
Question 36: My father used to (A) giving me (B) some good advice (C) whenever I had (D) a problem.
Question 37: The woman (A) of whom the red car (B) is parked in (C) front of the bank is (D) a famous pop star.
Question 38: The (A) better you (B) are at English, (C) more chance you have to (D) get a job with international
organizations.
Question 39: (A) There are differences (B) and similarities between (C) Vietnamese and American (D) culture.
Question 40: (A) Society (B) will be having to change radically to keep pace (C) with the technology (D) available.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the questions from 41 to 50.
Today we take electricity for granted and perhaps we do not realize just how useful this discovery has been.
Steam was the first invention that replaced wind power. It was used to drive engines and was passed through pipes and
radiators to warm rooms. Petrol mixed with air was the next invention that provided power. Exploded in a cylinder, it
drove a motor engine. Beyond these simple and direct uses, those forms have not much adaptability.
On the other hand, we make use of electricity in thousands of ways. From the powerful voltages that drive our
electric trains to the tiny current needed to work a simple calculator, and from the huge electric magnet in steel works
that can lift 10 tons to the tiny electric magnet in a doorbell, all are powered by electricity. An electric current can be
made with equal ease to heat a huge mass of molten metal in a furnace, or to boil a jug for a cup of coffee.
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Other than atomic energy, which has not as yet been harnessed to the full, electricity is the greatest power in the
world. It is flexible, and so adaptable for any task for which it is wanted. It travels so easily and with incredible speed
along wires or conductors that it can be supplied instantly over vast distances.
To generate electricity, huge turbines or generators must be turned. In Australia they use coal or water to drive
this machinery. When dams are built, falling water is used to drive the turbines without polluting the atmosphere with
smoke from coal.
Atomic power is used in several countries but there is always the fear of an accident. A tragedy once occurred at
Chernobyl, in Ukraine, at an atomic power plant used to make electricity. The reactor leaked, which caused many deaths
through radiation.
Now scientists are examining new ways of creating electricity without harmful effects to the environment. They
may harness the tides as they flow in and out of bays. Most importantly, they hope to trap sunlight more efficiently. We
do use solar heaters for swimming pools but as yet improvement in the capacity of the solar cells to create more current is
necessary. When this happens, electric cars will be viable and the world will rid itself of the toxic gases given off by
trucks and cars that burn fossil fuels.
Question 41: The author mentions the sources of energy such as wind, steam, petrol in the first paragraph to ............
A. suggest that electricity should be alternated with safer sources of energy
B. emphasize the usefulness and adaptability of electricity
C. imply that electricity is not the only useful source of energy
D. discuss which source of energy can be a suitable alternative to electricity
Question 42: Before electricity, what was sometimes passed through pipes to heat rooms?
A. Gas.
B. Petrol.
C. Steam.
D. Hot wind.
Question 43: What does the author mean by saying that electricity is flexible?
A. It is cheap and easy to use.
B. It is used to drive motor engines.
C. It can be adapted to various uses.
D. It can be made with ease.
Question 44: What do we call machines that make electricity?
A. Voltages.
B. Electric magnets.
C. Generators or turbines. D. Pipes and radiators.
Question 45: The main forms of power used to generate electricity in Australia are .................................
A. atomic power and water
B. water and coal
C. sunlight and wind power
D. wind and gas
Question 46: The word "they" in the last paragraph refers to .................................
A. harmful effects
B. the tides
C. scientists
D. new ways
Question 47: Electric magnets are used in steel works to .................................
A. lift heavy weights up to ten tons
B. test the steel for strength
C. heat the molten steel
D. boil a jug of water
Question 48: The advantage of harnessing the power of the tides and of sunlight to generate electricity is that they
................_.
A. do not pollute the environment
B. are more reliable
C. are more adaptable
D. do not require attention
Question 49: Which of the following power sources causes pollution by emitting harmful gases?
A. Sunlight.
B. Petrol.
C. Water.
D. Wind.
Question 50: The best title for this passage could be .................................
A. “Types of Power Plants”
B. “Electricity: Harmful Effects on Our Life”
C. “How to Produce Electricity”
D. “Why Electricity Is So Remarkable”
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced
differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions.
Question 51: A. exist
Question 52: A. eternal
Question 53: A. ancient
Question 54: A. desert
Question 55: A. astound

B. extinct
B. energy
B. educate
B. reserve
B. account
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C. explorer
C. eradicate
C. strange
C. observant
C. country

D. expand
D. eliminate
D. address
D. conserve
D. mounting
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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word(s) for
each of the blanks from 56 to 65.
In the United States and Canada, it is very important to (56)................................ a person directly in the eyes when
you are having a conversation (57)................................ him or her. If you look down or to the side when the
(58)................................ person is talking, that person will think that you are not interested in (59)................................ he
or she is saying. This, (60)................................, is not polite. If you look down or to the side when you are talking, it
might (61)................................ that you are not honest.
However, people who are speaking will sometimes look away for (62)................................ seconds when they are
thinking or (63)................................ to find the right word. But they always turn immediately (64)................................ to
look the listener directly in the eyes. These social "rules" are (65)................................ for two men, two women, a man
and a woman, or an adult and a child.
Question 56: A. talk
Question 57: A. with
Question 58: A. others
Question 59: A. which
Question 60: A. yet
Question 61: A. become
Question 62: A. a little
Question 63: A. trying
Question 64: A. up
Question 65: A. like

B. notice
B. to
B. another
B. what
B. in addition
B. come
B. a few
B. looking
B. back
B. the same

C. get
C. for
C. one
C. that
C. of course
C. seem
C. little
C. achieving
C. down
C. likely

D. look
D. about
D. other
D. where
D. although
D. turn
D. few
D. managing
D. over
D. such as

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the questions from 66 to 75.
If parents bring up a child with the sole aim of turning the child into a genius, they will cause a disaster.
According to several leading educational psychologists, this is one of the biggest mistakes which ambitious parents
make. Generally, the child will be only too aware of what his parents expect, and will fail. Unrealistic parental
expectations can cause great damage to children.
However, if parents are not too unrealistic about what they expect their children to do, but are ambitious in a
sensible way, the child may succeed in doing very well – especially if the parents are very supportive of their child.
Michael Collins is very lucky. He is crazy about music, and his parents help him a lot by taking him to concerts
and arranging private piano and violin lessons for him. They even drive him 50 kilometers twice a week for violin
lessons. Michael‟s mother knows very little about music, but his father plays the trumpet in a large orchestra. However,
he never makes Michael enter music competitions if he is unwilling.
Winston Smith, Michael‟s friend, however, is not so lucky. Both his parents are successful musicians, and they set
too high a standard for Winston. They want their son to be as successful as they are and so they enter him for every piano
competition held. They are very unhappy when he does not win. Winston is always afraid that he will disappoint his
parents and now he always seems quiet and unhappy.
Question 66: One of the serious mistakes parents can make is to .................................
A. push their child into trying too much
B. help their child to become a genius
C. make their child become a musician
D. neglect their child‟s education
Question 67: Parents‟ ambition for their children is not wrong if they .................................
A. force their children into achieving success
B. themselves have been very successful
C. understand and help their children sensibly
D. arrange private lessons for their children
Question 68: Who have criticized the methods of some ambitious parents?
A. Successful musicians. B. Unrealistic parents.
C. Their children.
D. Educational psychologists.

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Question 69: Michael Collins is fortunate in that .................................
A. his father is a musician
B. his parents are quite rich
C. his mother knows little about music
D. his parents help him in a sensible way
Question 70: The phrase "crazy about" in the passage mostly means .................................
A. "surprised at"
B. "extremely interested in"
C. "completely unaware of"
D. "confused about"
Question 71: Winston‟s parents push their son so much and he .................................
A. has won a lot of piano competitions
B. cannot learn much music from them
C. has become a good musician
D. is afraid to disappoint them
Question 72: The word "They" in the passage refers to .................................
A. concerts
B. violin lessons
C. parents in general
D. Michael‟s parents
Question 73: All of the following people are musical EXCEPT ................__.
A. Winston‟s father
B. Winston‟s mother
C. Michael‟s father
D. Michael‟s mother
Question 74: The word "unwilling" in the passage mostly means .................................
A. "getting ready to do something"
B. "eager to do something"
C. "not objecting to doing anything"
D. "not wanting to do something"
Question 75: The two examples given in the passage illustrate the principle that .................................
A. successful parents always have intelligent children
B. successful parents often have unsuccessful children
C. parents should let the child develop in the way he wants
D. parents should spend more money on the child‟s education
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to the original
sentence in each of the following questions.
Question 76: Unless someone has a key, we cannot get into the house.
A. We could not get into the house if someone had a key.
B. If someone does not have a key, we can only get into the house.
C. We can only get into the house if someone has a key.
D. If someone did not have a key, we could not get into the house.
Question 77: She knows a lot more about it than I do.
A. I know as much about it as she does.
B. I do not know as much about it as she does.
C. She does not know so much about it as I do.
D. I know much more about it than she does.
Question 78: The boy was not allowed to have any friends, so he felt lonely.
A. Having no friends, the boy felt so lonely.
B. Not having friends, they made the boy feel lonely.
C. Having a lot of friends, the boy felt lonely.
D. Deprived of friends, the boy felt lonely.
Question 79: Is it essential to meet your aunt at the station?
A. Did your aunt have to be met at the station?
B. Does your aunt have to meet at the station?
C. Does your aunt have to be met at the station?
D. Was your aunt met at the station?
Question 80: Conan said to me, "If I were you, I would read different types of books in different ways."
A. Conan ordered me to read different types of books in different ways.
B. I said to Conan to read different types of books in different ways to me.
C. I read different types of books in different ways to Conan as he told me.
D. Conan advised me to read different types of books in different ways.
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Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is closest in meaning to the
underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 1: We have lived there for years and grown fond of the surroundings. That is why we do not want to leave.
A. planted many trees in the surroundings
B. haunted by the surroundings
C. loved the surroundings
D. possessed by the surroundings
Question 2: His new work has enjoyed a very good review from critics and readers.
A. viewing
B. regard
C. look
D. opinion
Question 3: Such problems as haste and inexperience are a universal feature of youth.
A. marked
B. shared
C. hidden
D. separated
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
Question 4: (A) Publishing in the UK, the book (B) has won a number of awards (C) in recent regional (D) book fairs.
Question 5: During our tour of (A) the refinery, (B) it was seen that both propane (C) and gasoline were produced (D) in
large volumes.
Question 6: (A) The first important requirements for you (B) to become a mountain climber (C) are your strong passion
and (D) you have good health.
Question 7: Hardly (A) did he enter the room (B) when all (C) the lights (D) went out.
Question 8: A professor of (A) economy and history at our university (B) developed a new theory of the relationship (C)
between historical events and (D) financial crises.
Read the following passage adapted from Understanding Rural America – Info USA and mark the letter A, B, C, or D
on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks from 9 to 18.
The well-being of America‟s rural people and places depends upon many things – the availability of good-paying
jobs; (9)................................_ to critical services such as education, health care, and communication; strong communities;
and a healthy natural environment. And, (10) ................................_ urban America is equally dependent upon these things,
the challenges to well-being look very different in rural areas than in urban areas. Small-scale, low-density settlement (11)
................................_ make it more costly for communities and businesses to provide critical services. Declining jobs and
income in the natural resource-based industries that many rural areas depend on (12) ................................_ workers in those
industries to find new ways to make a living. Low-skill, low-wage rural manufacturing industries must find new ways to
challenge the increasing number of (13) ................................_ competitors. Distance and remoteness impede many rural
areas from being connected to the urban centers of economic activity. Finally, changes in the availability and use of natural
resources located in rural areas (14) ................................_ the people who earn a living from those resources and those who
(15) ................................_ recreational and other benefits from them.
Some rural areas have met these challenges successfully, achieved some level of prosperity, and are ready (16)
................................_ the challenges of the future. Others have neither met the current challenges nor positioned
themselves for the future. Thus, concern for rural America is real. And, while rural America is a producer of critical
goods and services, the (17) ................................_ goes beyond economics. Rural America is also home to a fifth of the
Nation‟s people, keeper of natural amenities and national treasures, and safeguard of a/an (18) ................................_ part
of American culture, tradition, and history.
Question 9:
Question 10:
Question 11:
Question 12:
Question 13:
Question 14:
Question 15:
Question 16:

A. challenge
A. because
A. styles
A. offer
A. foreign
A. effect
A. involve
A. in

B. key
B. while
B. tools
B. turn
B. abroad
B. encourage
B. evolve
B. of

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C. access
C. when
C. means
C. force
C. lateral
C. stimulate
C. bring
C. with

D. advantage
D. since
D. patterns
D. make
D. rural
D. affect
D. derive
D. for

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Question 17:
Question 18:

A. research
A. abnormal

B. impatience
B. simple

C. concern
C. incredible

D. stimulus
D. unique

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 19: Fruit and vegetables grew in abundance on the island. The islanders even exported the surplus.
A. sufficiency
B. excess
C. large quantity
D. small quantity
Question 20: There is growing concern about the way man has destroyed the environment.
A. attraction
B. speculation
C. ease
D. consideration
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the
following questions.
Question 21: “Don‟t forget to tidy up the final draft before submission,” the team leader told us.
A. The team leader asked us to tidy up the final draft before submission.
B. The team leader reminded us to tidy up the final draft before submission.
C. The team leader ordered us to tidy up the final draft before submission.
D. The team leader simply wanted us to tidy up the final draft before submission.
Question 22: “My company makes a large profit every year. Why don‟t you invest more money in it?” my friend said to me.
A. My friend suggested his investing more money in his company.
B. My friend persuaded me to invest more money in his company.
C. I was asked to invest more money in my friend‟s company.
D. My friend instructed me how to put more money into his company.
Question 23: “Mum, please don‟t tell dad about my mistake,” the boy said.
A. The mother was forced to keep her son‟s mistake as a secret when he insisted.
B. The boy earnestly insisted that his mother tell his father about his mistake.
C. The boy begged his mother not to tell his father about his mistake.
D. The boy requested his mother not to talk about his mistake any more.
Question 24: “You shouldn‟t have leaked our confidential report to the press, Frank!” said Jane.
A. Jane accused Frank of having cheated the press with their confidential report.
B. Jane criticized Frank for having disclosed their confidential report to the press.
C. Jane suspected that Frank had leaked their confidential report to the press.
D. Jane blamed Frank for having flattered the press with their confidential report.
Question 25: “If you don‟t pay the ransom, we‟ll kill your boy,” the kidnappers told us.
A. The kidnappers pledged to kill our boy if we did not pay the ransom.
B. The kidnappers ordered to kill our boy if we did not pay the ransom.
C. The kidnappers threatened to kill our boy if we refused to pay the ransom.
D. The kidnappers promised to kill our boy if we refused to pay the ransom.
Read the following passage adapted from Cultural Guide – OALD, and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer
sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 26 to 35.
The issue of equality for women in British society first attracted national attention in the early 20 th century,
when the suffragettes won for women the right to vote. In the 1960s feminism became the subject of intense debate when
the women‟s liberation movement encouraged women to reject their traditional supporting role and to demand equal
status and equal rights with men in areas such as employment and pay.
Since then, the gender gap between the sexes has been reduced. The Equal Pay Act of 1970, for instance, made
it illegal for women to be paid less than men for doing the same work, and in 1975 the Sex Discrimination Act aimed to
prevent either sex having an unfair advantage when applying for jobs. In the same year the Equal Opportunities
Commission was set up to help people claim their rights to equal treatment and to publish research and statistics to show
where improvements in opportunities for women need to be made. Women now have much better employment
opportunities, though they still tend to get less well-paid jobs than men, and very few are appointed to top jobs in
industry.

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In the US the movement that is often called the “first wave of feminism” began in the mid 1800s. Susan B.
Anthony worked for the right to vote, Margaret Sanger wanted to provide women with the means of contraception so that
they could decide whether or not to have children, and Elizabeth Blackwell, who had to fight for the chance to become a
doctor, wanted women to have greater opportunities to study. Many feminists were interested in other social issues.
The second wave of feminism began in the 1960s. Women like Betty Friedan and Gloria Steinem became
associated with the fight to get equal rights and opportunities for women under the law. An important issue was the Equal
Rights Amendment (ERA), which was intended to change the Constitution. Although the ERA was not passed, there was
progress in other areas. It became illegal for employers, schools, clubs, etc. to discriminate against women. But women
still find it hard to advance beyond a certain point in their careers, the so-called glass ceiling that prevents them from
having high-level jobs. Many women also face the problem of the second shift, i.e. the household chores.
In the 1980s, feminism became less popular in the US and there was less interest in solving the remaining
problems, such as the fact that most women still earn much less than men. Although there is still discrimination, the
principle that it should not exist is widely accepted.
Question 26: It can be inferred from paragraph 1 that in the 19 th century,................................
A. British women did not complete their traditional supporting role
B. most women did not wish to have equal status and equal rights
C. British women did not have the right to vote in political elections
D. suffragettes fought for the equal employment and equal pay
Question 27: The phrase “gender gap” in paragraph 2 refers to................__.
A. the visible space between men and women
B. the difference in status between men and women
C. the social distance between the two sexes
D. the social relationship between the two sexes
Question 28: Susan B. Anthony, Margaret Sanger, and Elizabeth Blackwell are mentioned as ................__.
A. American women with exceptional abilities
B. American women who were more successful than men
C. pioneers in the fight for American women‟s rights D. American women who had greater opportunities
Question 29: The Equal Rights Amendment (ERA)................__.
A. was not officially approved
B. changed the US Constitution
C. was brought into force in the 1960s
D. supported employers, schools and clubs
Question 30: In the late 20th century, some information about feminism in Britain was issued by................__.
A. the Equal Rights Amendment
B. the Equal Pay Act of 1970
C. the Equal Opportunities Commission
D. the Sex Discrimination Act
Question 31: Which of the following is true according to the passage?
A. The movement of feminism began in the US earlier than in Britain.
B. The women‟s liberation movement in the world first began in Britain.
C. The US movement of feminism became the most popular in the late 20 th century.
D. The British government passed laws to support women in the early 20th century.
Question 32: The phrase “glass ceiling” in paragraph 4 mostly means................................_.
A. an imaginary barrier
B. an overlooked problem
C. a ceiling made of glass
D. a transparent frame
Question 33: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. There is now no sex discrimination in Britain and in the US.
B. Many American women still face the problem of household chores.
C. An American woman once had to fight for the chance to become a doctor.
D. British women now have much better employment opportunities.
Question 34: It can be inferred from the passage that.................................
A. the belief that sex discrimination should not exist is not popular in the US
B. women in Britain and the US still fight for their equal status and equal rights
C. the British government did not approve of the women‟s liberation movement
D. women do not have better employment opportunities despite their great efforts
Question 35: Which of the following would be the best title for the passage?
A. Opportunities for Women Nowadays
B. Women and the Right to Vote
C. The Suffragettes in British Society
D. Feminism in Britain and the US
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the
main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 36:
Question 37:
Question 38:
Question 39:
Question 40:

A. future
A. facilitate
A. represent
A. romantic
A. optimist

B. prospect
B. hydrology
B. permanent
B. reduction
B. immediate

C. guidance
C. participate
C. continent
C. popular
C. fabulous

D. involve
D. intimacy
D. sentiment
D. financial
D. accuracy

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences
in the following questions.
Question 41: He behaved in a very strange way. That surprised me a lot.
A. He behaved very strangely, which surprised me very much.
B. I was almost not surprised by his strange behaviour.
C. What almost surprised me was the strange way he behaved.
D. His behaviour was a very strange thing, that surprised me most.
Question 42: He cannot lend me the book now. He has not finished reading it yet.
A. Having finished reading the book, he cannot lend it to me.
B. He cannot lend me the book until he has finished reading it.
C. Not having finished reading the book, he will lend it to me
D. As long as he cannot finish reading the book, he will lend it to me.
Question 43: Crazianna is a big country. Unfortunately, it has never received respect from its neighbours.
A. Crazianna has never received respect from its neighbours because it is a big country.
B. Crazianna is such a big country that it has never received respect from its neighbours.
C. It is Crazianna, a big country, that has never received respect from its neighbours.
D. Though Crazianna is a big country, it has never received respect from its neighbours.
Question 44: His academic record at high school was poor. He failed to apply to that prestigious institution.
A. His academic record at high school was poor because he didn‟t apply to that prestigious institution.
B. His academic record at high school was poor as a result of his failure to apply to that prestigious institution.
C. Failing to apply to that prestigious institution, his academic record at high school was poor.
D. His academic record at high school was poor; as a result, he failed to apply to that prestigious institution.
Question 45: Smoking is an extremely harmful habit. You should give it up immediately.
A. When you give up smoking immediately, you will affect your health with this harmful habit.
B. You should give up smoking immediately and you will fall into an extremely harmful habit.
C. Stop your smoking immediately so it will become one of your extremely harmful habits.
D. As smoking is an extremely harmful habit, you should give it up immediately.
Question 46: “Why don‟t you sit down and................................?”
A. make yourself at peace
B. make yourself at rest
C. make it your own home
D. make yourself at home
Question 47: “You ................................have cooked so many dishes. There are only three of us for lunch.”
A. wouldn‟t
B. oughtn‟t
C. needn‟t
D. couldn‟t
Question 48: The Second World War................................in 1939.
A. brought about
B. turned up
C. broke out
D. took out
Question 49: “We‟d better................__ if we want to get there in time.”
A. turn down
B. speed up
C. take up
D. put down
Question 50: The temperature................................_takes place varies widely from material to material.
A. which melting
B. at which melting
C. at which they melt
D. which they melt
Question 51: The village was................__ visible through the dense fog.
A. only
B. barely
C. mostly
D. hard
Question 52: ................................ without animals and plants?

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A. What would life on earth be like
B. How would life on earth be for
C. What will life on earth be like
D. How will life on earth be like
Question 53: Harry: “Are you ready, Kate? There‟s not much time left.”
Kate: “Yes, just a minute. ................................!”
A. No longer
B. I won‟t finish
C. I‟d be OK
D. I‟m coming
Question 54: “................................ you treat him, he‟ll help you. He‟s so tolerant.”
A. No matter how
B. In addition to
C. Even though
D. As if
Question 55: I could not................_ the lecture at all. It was too difficult for me.
A. get along
B. make off
C. take in
D. hold on
Question 56: I did not want to believe them, but in fact, ................__ was true
A. what they said
B. what has said
C. that they were said
D. which they said
Question 57: “You‟ll recognize Jenny when you see her. She................__a red hat.”
A. will wear
B. will be wearing
C. wears
D. is wearing
Question 58: Alfonso: “I had a really good time. Thanks for the lovely evening.”
Maria: “................__.”
A. I‟m glad you enjoyed it
B. Yes, it‟s really good
C. Oh, that‟s right
D. No, it‟s very kind of you
Question 59: This shirt is ................__that one.
A. as much expensive as
B. not nearly as expensive as
C. a bit less expensive
D. much far expensive than
Question 60: The sign “NO TRESPASSING” tells you................_”
A. not to photograph
B. not to smoke
C. not to enter
D. not to approach
Question 61: Sue: “Can you help me with my essay?”
Robert: “................................”
A. Yes, I‟m afraid not.
B. I think that, too.
C. Not completely
D. Why not?
Question 62: The instructor blew his whistle and................__.
A. off the runners were running
B. off ran the runners
C. off were running the runners
D. the runners run off
Question 63: She built a high wall round her garden................__.
A. to enable people not taking her fruit
B. so that her fruit would be stolen
C. to prevent her fruit from being stolen
D. in order that her fruit not be stolen
Question 64: Before I left for my summer camp, my mother told me to take warm clothes with me ................_ it was
cold.
A. despite
B. in case
C. so that
D. whereas
Question 65: “Never be late for an interview,................................ you can‟t get the job.”
A. unless
B. otherwise
C. or so
D. if not
Question 66: If it................ for the heavy storm, the accident would not have happened.
A. weren‟t
B. hadn‟t been
C. isn‟t
D. were
Question 67: The sky was cloudy and foggy. We went to the beach, ................_.
A. however
B. even though
C. so
D. yet
Question 68: He never lets anything................_ him and his weekend fishing trip.
A. come between
B. come on
C. come up
D. come among
Question 69: Joan: “Our friends are coming.................__, Mike?”
Mike: “I‟m sorry, but I can‟t do it now.”
A. Shall you make some coffee, please
B. Shall I make you like some coffee
C. Why don‟t we cook some coffee
D. Would you mind making some coffee
Question 70: Our boss would rather................_ during the working hours.
A. us not chatting
B. we didn‟t chat
C. us not chat
D. we don‟t chat
Read the following passage adapted from A. Briggs’ article on culture, Microsoft  Student 2008, and mark the letter
A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 71 to 80.

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Culture is a word in common use with complex meanings, and is derived, like the term broadcasting, from the
treatment and care of the soil and of what grows on it. It is directly related to cultivation and the adjectives cultural and
cultured are part of the same verbal complex. A person of culture has identifiable attributes, among them a knowledge of
and interest in the arts, literature, and music. Yet the word culture does not refer solely to such knowledge and interest nor,
indeed, to education. At least from the 19th century onwards, under the influence of anthropologists and sociologists, the
word culture has come to be used generally both in the singular and the plural (cultures) to refer to a whole way of life of
people, including their customs, laws, conventions, and values.
Distinctions have consequently been drawn between primitive and advanced culture and cultures, between elite
and popular culture, between popular and mass culture, and most recently between national and global cultures.
Distinctions have been drawn too between culture and civilization; the latter is a word derived not, like culture or
agriculture, from the soil, but from the city. The two words are sometimes treated as synonymous. Yet this is misleading.
While civilization and barbarism are pitted against each other in what seems to be a perpetual behavioural pattern, the use
of the word culture has been strongly influenced by conceptions of evolution in the 19th century and of development in
the 20th century. Cultures evolve or develop. They are not static. They have twists and turns. Styles change. So do
fashions. There are cultural processes. What, for example, the word cultured means has changed substantially since the
study of classical (that is, Greek and Roman) literature, philosophy, and history ceased in the 20 th century to be central to
school and university education. No single alternative focus emerged, although with computers has come electronic
culture, affecting kinds of study, and most recently digital culture. As cultures express themselves in new forms not
everything gets better or more civilized.
The multiplicity of meanings attached to the word made and will make it difficult to define. There is no single,
unproblematic definition, although many attempts have been made to establish one. The only non-problematic definitions
go back to agricultural meaning (for example, cereal culture or strawberry culture) and medical meaning (for example,
bacterial culture or penicillin culture). Since in anthropology and sociology we also acknowledge culture clashes, culture
shock, and counter-culture, the range of reference is extremely wide.
Question 71: According to the passage, the word culture................_.
A. is related to the preparation and use of land for farming
B. develops from Greek and Roman literature and history
C. comes from a source that has not been identified
D. derives from the same root as civilization does
Question 72: It is stated in paragraph 1 that a cultured person................__.
A. has a job related to cultivation
B. takes care of the soil and what grows on it
C. has knowledge of arts, literature, and music
D. does a job relevant to education
Question 73: The author remarks that culture and civilization are the two words that................__.
A. share the same word formation pattern
B. are both related to agriculture and cultivation
C. have nearly the same meaning
D. do not develop from the same meaning
Question 74: It can be inferred from the passage that since the 20 th century.................................
A. schools and universities have not taught classical literature, philosophy, and history
B. classical literature, philosophy, and history have been considered as core subjects
C. classical literature, philosophy, and history have not been taught as compulsory subjects
D. all schools and universities have taught classical literature, philosophy, and history
Question 75: The word “attributes” in paragraph 1 most likely means.................................
A. aspects
B. fields
C. qualities
D. skills
Question 76: The word “static” in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by “................__”.
A. regular
B. balanced
C. unchanged
D. dense
Question 77: Which of the following is NOT stated in the passage?
A. Anthropology and sociology have tried to limit the references to culture.
B. Distinctions have been drawn between culture and civilization.
C. The word culture can be used to refer to a whole way of life of people.
D. The use of the word culture has been changed since the 19th century.
Question 78: It is difficult to give the definitions of the word culture EXCEPT for its.................................
A. agricultural and medical meanings
B. historical and figurative meanings
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