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1rst SUMMATIVE TEST IN
ENGLISH – IV
FIRST QUARTER
Name: __________________________________ Date: _____________ Score: ______________
I. Encircle the word that has long a sound.
1. A. bike B. back C. bake
2. A. came B. come C. camp
3. A. fast B. fuzz C. face
4. A. take B. tuck C. tick
5. A. plus B. place C. pluck
6. A. same B. sam C. sum
7. A. give B. gave C. gift
8. A. land B. lane C. line
9. A. aid B. add C. odd
10. A. brand B.band C. brain
II. Write the correct plural form of the underlined noun in each sentence.
11. My mother bought me a pair of glass. ________________.
12. They always look at their wristwatch. ________________.
13. My student are actively listening. _________________.
14. I love eating chocolate. ________________.
15. In EDSA, there are a lot of bus. _______________.
16. The player play their heart out. _______________.
17. I have visited many church last year. _______________.
18. The girl play volleyball. _______________.
19. The teacher are having a meeting. _______________.
20. The boy chops the potato very fast. ________________.
III. Answer the following questions.
21. Where did Kate found the box? ____________________________________.
22. Who owned the box? ____________________________________________.
23. What did Kate do to the box? _____________________________________.
Give at least two things that were found in the box of Mrs. Salas.
24. ____________________
25. ____________________
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IV. Listen to the story that the teacher will read and answer the questions that follow:
26. Who is the main character in the story?
___________________________________________________________________________
27. Describe the main character.
A. His good attitudes _________________________________________________________
B. His bad attitutes__________________________________________________________
28. Where did the story happen?
___________________________________________________________________________
29. What made the fairy angry?
___________________________________________________________________________
30. Why do you think Enteng should be punished?
___________________________________________________________________________
V. Look at the poster closely and complete the sentences below it.
31. This poster is about_________________________________________.
32. It tells us to ________________________________________________.
33. The poster reminds people to ____ ____________________________.
Enteng and The Bad Words
Enteng was a good boy. He was obedient and did what his mother told him to do. He
studied hard. He did his work well.
But he had one fault which his parents could not correct. He often used bad words.
Once he was crossing a shallow stream, he fell into the water. He screamed and said
some bad words. The gentle fairy of the stream heard him and became very angry.
She thought of punishing him.
“I’ll make a frog jump out of his mouth every time he says a bad word,” said the
fairy.
While going up a hill, Enteng slid and fell down. He said some bad words.
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2nd SUMMATIVE TEST IN
ENGLISH – IV
FIRST QUARTER
Name: __________________________________ Date: _____________ Score: ______________
I. Read the sentences. Underline the words with long (i) sounds.
1. The five nice mice will ride a bike.
2. It’s time to dine after five.
3. I will fly nine kites.
4. We saw a wide dike.
5. Mike had a nice dike.
II. Complete each sentence with the correct plural noun.
6.Father caught three (mouse) ______ in the rice field
7. One mouse had long (tooth) ______ that stuck out from its mouth.
8. Another mouse had very long (foot) ____________.
9-10 When the (child_____________) saw the three (mouse)__________,they felt afraid
III. Arrange the events as they happened in the story “ Tower To The Moon” that your teacher read.
(Number it 11-15)
________The king sent for the best carpenter in the kingdom.
_________The king climbed higher and higher until he came to the top of the tower.
_________The king commanded that every box in the kingdom be brought to the carpenter.
_________The carpenter yelled at the king that there were no more boxes anywhere.
_________The carpenter walked to the tower and pulled out the bottom box and the king fell down .
IV. Fill in each blank with the correct word to complete the rhymes.
joke open code rope
16. Tie a ________________.
17. To________________the door.
18. Or try the ________________.
19. It’s not a________________.
alone bone cone home
20. Give the dog a ________________.
21. Eat the ice cream ________________.
22. Clean your room ________________.
23. And be happy to be ________________.
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3rd SUMMATIVE TEST IN
ENGLISH – IV
FIRST QUARTER
Name: __________________________________ Date: _____________ Score: ______________
I. Complete each sentence with a long I word from the word box.
pie white find night Ice
kite fly smile type night
1. Matching socks are hard to __________.
2. I slipped on a patch of __________.
3. Penguins and birds that cannot __________.
4. I gave a big __________ for my class picture.
5. Apples are my favorite __________ of fruit.
II. Write the plural form of a given noun.
6. Mrs. Jones has two _________ . (child)
7. A flock of _________ just flew overhead. (goose)
8. Three _____ scurried through the kitchen. (mouse)
9. The dental hygienist cleaned my ________. (tooth)
10. The _________ at the bus stop had umbrellas. (woman)
11. Grandpa sharpened the ________ in the kitchen. (knife)
12. Those __________ were making a lot of noise. (person)
13. The _________ were fixing the hole in the street. (man)
14. The farmer had a dozen __________ . (sheep)
15-20 Sequencing Events.
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4th SUMMATIVE TEST IN
ENGLISH – IV
FIRST QUARTER
Name: __________________________________ Date: _____________ Score: ______________
I. Directions: Read each of the sentences below carefully. A word is underlined in each sentence. Choose the word from
the list that has about the same meaning.
1. Though Samantha's test was partially done, she received a low grade because it was not complete.
In this sentence, the word partially means
a. badly c. completely
b. finally d. incomplete
2. Mom had to sterilize, or clean, the baby's bottle.
In this sentence, the word sterilize means
a. dirty c. clean
b. throw out d. buy
3. My best friend has been a companion to me for five years.
In this sentence, the word companion means
a. mother c. brother
b. friend d. father
4. The ugly monster's face was hideous to look at.
In this sentence, the word hideous means
a. beautiful c. funny
b. scary d. lovely
5. The lady sat primly straight in the chair.
In this sentence, the word primly means
a. proper or tall c. up
b. slouched d. down
II. Direction: Write the word that best completes each sentence.
6. Brandi is fully capable of cleaning her room, but chooses not to (family, clean, seed, seat) it.
7. Do you have dreams when you (seed, busy, baby, sleep)?
8. The flock of sheep quietly chewed on the (eat, green, sleep, busy) grass
9. Each of us planted a (family, carry, seed, green) in a paper cup.
10. Will you pick me for your (seat, sleep, team, eat)?
III. Directions: Professor Plural is making a solution of words that end with ‘ies’, but some of the words only need an ‘s’.
Turn the following words into plurals and put them in the correct baker.
cry annoy fly boy toy
play carry diary holiday jelly
‘ies’ solution ‘s’ solution
11. ________ 16.________
12.________ 17.________
13.________ 18.________
14.________ 19.________
15.________ 20.________
III. Directions: Write the correct plural noun for each singular noun.
21. handkerchief _________ 24. wife __________
22. roof _________ 25. calf __________
23. elf _________
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5th SUMMATIVE TEST IN
ENGLISH – IV
FIRST QUARTER
Name: __________________________________ Date: _____________ Score: ______________
I. Arrange the events in the order they occur in the story listened. Number them from 1-5.
______ A. The farmer teased the dog for not catching the rabbit.
______ B. The dog ran after the rabbit as it came out of the hole.
______ C. The rabbit ran so fast and headed towards the forest.
______ D. The farmer and his dog were walking in the field.
______ E. Suddenly, a rabbit leaped before the farmer and his dog.
II. Identify whether the underlined word is used as count or mass noun.
__________ 6. She wears a nice dress.
__________ 7. We can see air around us.
__________ 8. Babies should drink milk every day.
__________ 9. The chairs are properly arranged.
III. Choose and underline the appropriate expression inside the parenthesis to complete each sentence.
___10. (A little, Several) girls eat apples.
___11. Mother needs (much, many) sugar when she makes gelatin.
___12. There are (many, much) people in the mall.
___13. Eating (a lot of, a little) candies causes toothache.
IV. Identify the meaning of the underlined word in each sentences, Write the letter of your choice.
14. If you don’t conquer your fear, they will beat you.
A. forget B. lose C. talk about D. win
15. Although Tom was anxious about the test, Tina was not worried at all.
A. calm B. cool C. relaxed D. worried
16. Two new girls started school this week. Beth has a gregarious personality. Jenna is rather quiet.
A. bashful B. outgoing C. shy D. timid
17. Mary was willing to play in the show, while Jack was reluctant because he was so cold.
A. excited B. not willing C. ready D. willing
V. Read the following story then fill in the chart after.
A Cat in the Forest Meets a Bear
A wild cat cried, “I’m lost! How will I find my way home? “A bear came by. “I can help you find your way
through the words, “he said.
The wild cat jumped on the bears back. The bear helped the wild cat get home. The cat invited the bear for
dinner to thank him.
VI. Write the steps on how to boil eggs. Use sequence signals. (4pts) 22-25.
22. ______________________________.
23. ______________________________.
24. ______________________________.
25. ______________________________.
18. Character:
19. Setting:
20. Problem:
21. Solution to the Problem:
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6th SUMMATIVE TEST IN
ENGLISH – IV
FIRST QUARTER
Name: __________________________________ Date: _____________ Score: ______________
A. Read the short story and answer the questions that follow.
Teddy is an eagle. He loves to fly to the east. One day, he found green bead on a leaf. The
eagle thought the bead was a seed. So he ate the bead. Teddy did not like the bead. He could feel
the hard bead. “Meat is better,” he said. “I will fly to the east to look for some meat.”
1. Who wants to fly to the east?
a. Teddy b. meat c. flying seed d. leaf
2. What did Teddy think about the bead?
a. meat b. leaf c. seed d. better
3. How did Teddy feel the bead?
a. better b. sweet c. yummy d. hard
Mike has a kite and a bike. He rides on his bike to the dike. He flies his kite by the dike. One
day, the kite fell in the dike. Mike was sad. He had no more kite.
4. How does Mike go to the dike?
a. flies his kite b. rides on bike c. fell in the dike d. by the dike
5. What happened to the kite?
a. fell in the dike b. was sad c. no more kite d. flies his kite
Susan made a peanut butter and jelly sandwich. Use signal words to sequence.
(a. first b. next c. then d. finally)
6. ______ she ate it.
7. ______ she spread jelly on another slice of bread.
8. ______ spreading the jelly, she put the two slices of bread together.
9. ______ she spread peanut butter on one slice of bread.
B. Choose the letter of the correct answer.
10. My father’s company will have a trip to Baguio. All his officemates will be in this tour. What word in the
sentence has similar meaning with trip?
a. company b.tour c. officemates d. Baguio
11. My family will dine at Shara’s Restaurant tonight. We will eat their special seafood pasta. What word in the
sentence has the same meaning as dine?
a. eat b. pasta c. restaurant d. special
12. The dead animal smells awful. It has an unpleasant smell. What word in sentence gives the meaning of the
word awful?
a. dead animal b. smell c. unpleasant d. animal
13. I love the fragrant smell of my mother’s perfume. It smells like fresh flowers. What other things smell
fragrant?
a. gasoline b. trash can c. polluted air d. cologne
14. Which set of words have a long /o/ sound?
a. bone, coil, done c. joke, phone, rode
b. cone , food , gone d. soup, tone, rose
15. Which set of words have the long /u/ sound?
a. cute, huge, sure c. some, sum, hum
b. cube, make, tore d. huge, look, none
16. Which set of words are read as place and lake?
a. make, leak b. beak, cake c. great,beat d. fake, rake
17. Father caught three (mouse) ____ in the rice field.
a. mouses b. mise c. mice d. mices
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18. One mouse had long (tooth) ______ that stuck out from its mouth.
a. teeth b. tooths c. teeths d. toothes
19. Another mouse had very long (foot) ___________.
a. footes b. feet c. foets d. feets
20. When the (child) _______ saw the three (mouse) _______, they felt afraid.
a. childs,mouses b. childes,mise c. children,mice d. childrens,mice
21. There were three (deer) _________ caught by some (man) _________ in the forest.
a. deers,man b. deer, mens c. deer,man d. deer,men
C. Identify the given nouns as mass or count nouns.
22. water - ___________
23. lotion - ___________
24. cement - ___________
25. pants - ___________
26. candies - ___________
D. Write the appropriate counter or quantifier. Choose the quantifier from the box.
27. A ________ of fries.
28. A ________ of water
29. A ________ of soup
30. A ________ of coffee
cup
bottle
bowl
jar
plateful
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7th SUMMATIVE TEST IN
ENGLISH – IV
FIRST QUARTER
Name: __________________________________ Date: _____________ Score: ______________
I. Read the sentences. Answer the questions after each sentence.
1. The five nice mice will ride a bike.
Who will ride a bike? ____________________________________________
2. We saw a wide dike. What did we see? ______________________________
3. Mike had a nice ride. Who had a nice ride? ___________________________
Write 1-3 to sequence the events as they happened in the story. Listen to the story to be read by the teacher.
( story on LM p. 25)
______4. Mike’s kite fell in the dike.
______5. Mike had no more kite.
______6. Mike rides on his bike.
II. Fill in each blank with the correct word to complete the rhymes.
Tie a 7.___________.
Remember the 8. _______.
To have an ice cream 9. _______.
III. Arrange the ff. words alphabetically.
10. arm _____ 11. thumb_____ 12. pray ______
ant _____ tray _____ pile ______
ash _____ tie _____ play ______
IV. Tell whether the ff. are count or mass nouns.
_______ 13. Eyelashes
________14. Boxes
________15. Hair
________16. Rain
V. Choose the correct counter for the mass nouns. Choose your answer in the flower’s petal.
bowl
17. a _________ of nata de coco
kilo slices 18. a _________ of meat
19. a _________ of coco jam
Cup spoonful 20. a _________ of milk.
rode cone
rope code
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8th SUMMATIVE TEST IN
ENGLISH – IV
FIRST QUARTER
Name: __________________________________ Date: _____________ Score: ______________
I. Listen to the story read and answer the questions after.
1. What best describes Prometheus?
A. dishonest B. faithful C. kind D. selfish
2. Listening at Jupiter’s reactions and words, how will you describe his character?
A. cheerful B. generous C. lazy D. selfish
II. Box the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence.
3. The best team usually prevails in the winner.
4. “ Put away your books and get ready for a short quiz.
Yes, that means a test.”
5. There is a 30 percent chance of precipitation, such as snow or sleet.
III. Complete each sentence by filling in the blanks with the possessive form of the nouns in parenthesis.
6. My ___________ bed is colorful. (baby)
7. The __________ smell is fragrant. (flower)
8. I heard _________ ringing earlier. (the bell of the cow)
9. Theresa met ________ when she was at the mall. ( the daughter of Chris)
10. The boy is cleaning his ______. (the shoes of father)
IV. Underline the compound word in each sentence.
11. Little girls like to buy ice cream.
12. We always take the freeway to get to the art museum.
13. My mother likes to wear lipstick when she goes to a party.
14. I found a pretty seashell while I was walking on the beach.
15. John is the editor-in-chief of the class.
V. Identify whether the underline noun in the sentence is concrete or abstract.
16. Naomi’s childhood was traumatic. ___________
17. Christine saw a kitten in the street. ____________
18. Patience is a virtue. ___________
19. Love is the greatest gift of all. ___________
20. Glen and Zymonne ordered a pizza for lunch. _________
VI. Write a letter of apology to your parents saying how sorry you are for disobeying them. (5pts.)
____________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________.
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SUMMATIVE TEST IN
MATHEMATICS – IV
FIRST QUARTER
Name: __________________________________ Date: _____________ Score: ______________
I - A. Read each item carefully. Write the letter of the correct answer on the blank before each number.
______ 1. Which of the following numbers in read as “sixty-nine thousand four hundred thirty-nine?
a. 69 439 b. 69 349 c. 69 394 d. 69 549
______ 2. 76 458 is read as ________________________________________________________.
a. Eighty-seven thousand three hundred forty-five
b. Ninety-seven thousand three hundred forty-five
c. Seventy-six thousand four hundred fifty-eight
d. Ninety-seven thousand four hundred thirty-five
______ 3. Which of the following is rounded to the nearest ten thousand?
a. 30 000 b. 23 000 c. 27 500 d. 27 090
______ 4. What is the place value of 9 in 97 564?
a. ten thousand b. thousand c. hundreds d. tens
______ 5. Which statement is correct?
a. 97 456 > 90 000 + 8000 + 500 + 10 + 0
b. 30 000 + 3000 + 500 + 60 + 7 = 33 567
c. 97454 < 87 976
d. 9154 > 9345
______6. What is the value of 3 in 43 755?
a. 30 000 b. 3000 c. 300 d. 30
______ 7. What does the underlined digit in the numeral 78 466 mean?
a. 8 b. 80 c. 800 d. 8000
______ 8. 70 000 is rounded to the nearest ________________________________.
a. Ten thousands b. thousands c. hundreds d. ones
______ 9. A school received donations from the private sector amounting to P33,453 for the school fence.
Which of the following shows the amount of donation?
a.
b.
.
c.
10 000
10 000
10 000
1000
1000
1000
100
100
100
100
10
10
10
10
10
1
1
1
10 000 1000
1000
100
100
100
10
10
1
1
1
10 000
10 000
1000
1000
1000
10
0
10
0
10
0 10
0
10
10
10
1
1
1
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d.
______ 10. What number is represented by these number discs?
a. 24 245 b. 24 434 c. 248 d. 32 245
______ 11. Which of the following groups of numbers is arranged in increasing order?
a. 58 112; 58 278; 58 365; 58 479 c. 21 789; 21 645; 21 534; 21 412
b. 94 567; 65 432; 98 341; 64 234 ` d. 76 123; 76 234; 76 042; 76 15
______ 12. A school received donations from the private sector amounting to Php 33 453 for their school
fence. Draw number discs to show the given numbers.
______ 13. Which of the following groups of numbers is arranged in increasing order?
a. 58 112; 58 278; 58 365; 58 479 c. 21 789; 21 645; 21 534; 21 412
b. 94 567; 65 432; 98 341; 64 234 d. 76 123; 76 234; 76 042; 76 153
______ 14. Which number is 10 000 smaller than 89 990?
a. 99 890 b. 79 990 c. 79 890 d. 69 990
______15. What is the number next to 76 368 ?
a. 76 369 b. 17 366 c. 17 367 d. 17 390
______16. Fifty five thousand sixteen is read as _______________.
a. 55 016 b. 55 160 c. 55 116 d. 55 061
______17. Using the digits 5, 1, 9, and 7 once, what is the greatest number that can be formed?
a. 9 751 b. 9 751 c. 9 571 d. 7 951
I – B. Round each number to the place value of the underlined digit.
18. 34 982 = _______ 19. 46 , 789 =____________ 20. 69 256 = _______________
I - C. Write true if the number sentence is true and false if the number sentence is false.
______ 21. thirty – three thousand nine hundred < 30 900
______ 22. 2 874 = 2 000 + 800 +70 + 4
______ 23. 23 999 > 32 999
______ 24. 56 , 786 < 57 ,7678
I - D. Write the numbers in increasing order.
25. 77 000 , 55 000 , 88 000 , 33 000 - __________ __________ __________ __________
26. 12 001 , 12 394 , 12 537 , 12 256 - __________ __________ __________ __________
10 000
10 000
10 000
1000
1000
100
100
100
10
10
10
1
1
1
10 000
10 000
1000
1000
1000
1000
100
100
100
100
10
10
10
1
1
1
1
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I - E. Write the numbers in decreasing order.
27. 27 345 , 34 456 , 18 290 , 19 450 - __________ __________ __________ __________
II. For numbers 28 - 31, refer to the table below.
The following are the household expenses and savings for the Ty family of 6 members in three months.
Expenses June July August
Food Php 5, 982 Php 6, 356 Php 6, 456
Transportation Php 2, 901 Php 2, 347 Php 2, 348
Clothing Php 3, 456 Php 4, 567 Php 5, 620
Education Php 12, 500 Php 13, 150 Php 13, 500
Electricity Php 2, 099 Php 2, 132 Php 2, 365
Water Php 348 Php 375 Php 390
Others Php 1, 345 Php 2, 110 Php 1, 392
Savings Php 1,500 Php 1, 640 Php 1, 925
______ 28. In which month did the family spend the most?
a. June b. July c. August d. September
______ 29. In which month did the family spend the least?
a. June b. July c. August d. September
______ 30. What relation symbol will make this sentence true?
June transportation expenses _______ July transportation expenses.
a. > b. < c. = d. +
______ 31. What were the total household expenses for the month of July when rounded to the nearest
thousand?
a. Php 32, 000 b. Php 33, 000 c. Php 34, 000 d. Php 35, 000
______ 32. What is the place value of the smallest digit in the number 93 657?
a. ten thousands b. thousands c. hundreds d. tens
______ 33. Write the missing digit in 23 456 < 23_ 56 to make the sentence true.
a. 8 b. 2 c. 1 d. 3
______ 34. What number is rounded to the nearest thousand?
a. 90 000 b. 45 000 c. 3700 d. 5200
______ 35. Which number will round down to 80 000
a. 79 578 b. 82 456 c. 87 456 d. 85 567
______ 36. What new number will be formed if the thousand digit of the number 82 798 is increased by 3 and the
tens digit is decreased by 5?
a. 85 748 b. 86 748 c. 87 759 d. 88 789
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SUMMATIVE TEST IN
MATHEMATICS – IV
FIRST QUARTER
Name: __________________________________ Date : _____________ Score: ___________
I. Compare the following pairs of numbers. Write <,>,or = on the blank
1. 30,004 ______ 45,756
2. 45,781 ______ 45,000 + 700 + 81
3.12,400 ______ twelve thousand one hundred
4. 56,789 ______ 56 879
5. 34 567 ______ 3 467
II. Arrange the numbers in increasing and decreasing order.
6. 34 567 32 568 25 678 27 789 34 566 ( Increasing)
______ ______ ______ ______ ______
7.12 457 12 458 14 567 14 677 10 345 ( Decreasing)
______ ______ ______ ______ ______
III. Multiply the following numbers without regrouping.
8. 234 9. 126 10. 304
x 11 x 10 x 22
IV. Find the product with regrouping using LATTICE METHOD.
11. 347 X 35 12. 356 X 45 13. 125X40 14. 180 X 43 15. 128 X 64
V. Read and Solve the problem?
A. In a forest conservation drive ,farmers, in the Bicol Region planted 45 coconuts in 52 rows. How many
coconuts were planted in all? ____________________________________
B. In a hardware store, there are 55 nails in a box. If the store has 324 boxes,how may nails are there?
____________________________________
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SUMMATIVE TEST IN
MATHEMATICS – IV
FIRST QUARTER
Name: __________________________________Date: _____________ Score: ______________
I. Direction: Read each item carefully. Encircle the letter of the correct answer.
1. Which of the following numbers is read as “sixty-nine thousand four hundred thirty-nine”?
A. 69 439 B. 69 349 C. 69 394 D. 69 549
2. 76 458 is read as ____________.
A. Eighty-seven thousand three hundred forty –five
B. Ninety-seven thousand three hundred fort-five.
C. Seventy-six thousand four hundred fifty-eight.
D. Ninety-seven thousand four hundred thirty –five.
3. How is one hundred five thousand three hundred twenty six written in figures?
A. 105 326 B. 501 326 C.326 501 D. 503 126
4. Write 53 038 in words. _____________________________________________________
5. Write forty-six thousand one hundred fifteen in symbols?
6. A school received donations from the private sector amounting to Php33 453 for the school fence. Which of
the following shows the amount of donation?
A.
B.
C.
D.
1
1
1
110100
100010 000
1100
1101001000
10 000
1101001000
10 000
1101001000
110100100010 000
110100100010 000
10
100
10 000
10 000
10 000
10 000
1 000
1 000
1 000
100
100
100
10
10
10
10
1
1000
100
10
100
1
100
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7. What number is represented by these number discs?
A. 6 440 B. 44 600 C. 46 434 D. 64 434
8. Ana Marie used 7 pieces of 10 000s discs, 3 pieces of 1000s discs, 5 pieces of 100s discs, and 2 pieces of 10s
discs to represent a number. What number is shown by her number discs?
A. 7 352 B. 73 520 C. 37 052 D. 70 352
9. I have 2 pieces of 10 000s discs, 1 piece of 1000 discs, 6 pieces of 100s discs, 8 pieces of 10 discs and 5 pieces of
1s discs. Write my number in standard form.
II. Direction: Draw number discs to represent these numbers.
10. 17 845 =
11. 25 123 =
12. 42 089 =
13. 54 302 =
14. 82 134 =
15. 100 000 =
III. Direction: Encircle the letter that gives the correct answer.
16. Which number is in hundred thousand?
A. 12 556 B. 392 465 C. 2 746 D. 953
17. What number has 7 in the hundreds place?
A. 307 402 B. 823 417 C. 392 731 D. 131 572
18. What is the place value of 3 in 431 758?
A. Thousands C. Hundred thousands
B. Ten thousands D. Millions
19. In 72 430, what is the value of the underlined digit?
A. 70 000 B. 700 000 C. 700 D. 70
20. What number will be formed if the thousands digit of the number 82 798 is increased by 3 and the tens digit
is decreased by 5?
A. 85 748 B. 86 748 C. 87 759 D. 88 789
1
1
10100100010 000
1
10100100010 000
10 000
1
101001000
10 000
10 000
Answer:
10 000
1000 100
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SUMMATIVE TEST IN
MATHEMATICS – IV
FIRST QUARTER
Name: __________________________________Date: _____________ Score: ______________
I. Direction: Read each item carefully. Encircle the letter that gives the correct answer. If there are no
options, write the correct answer.
1. Rounding me to the nearest hundred makes me 600. Rounding me to the nearest ten makes me 630. The
sum of my digits is 13. What number am I?
A. 563 B. 634 C. 627 D. 589
2. What is the least number that can be rounded off to 900?
A. 850 B. 867 C. 890 D. 799
3. What is the greatest two-digit whole number that is rounded to the nearest tens rounds to a three digit
number?
A. 78 B. 129 C. 99 D. 95
4. What is the least number that can be rounded off to 90?
A. 85 B. 94 C. 89 D. 96
5. Which numeral round off to the nearest hundred?
A. 1 541 B. 1 540 C. 1 500 D. 2 000
6. Which of the following is rounded to the nearest ten thousands?
A. 30 000 B. 23 000 C. 27 500 D. 27 090
7. 70 000 is rounded to the nearest ______.
A. Ten thousands B. thousands C. hundreds D. ones
8. What number is rounded to the nearest thousands?
A. 90 000 B. 45 000 C. 3 700 D. 5 200
9. Which number will round down to 80 000?
A. 79 578 B. 88 456 C. 87 456 D. 85 567
10. Which of the following groups of numbers is arranged in increasing order?
A. 58 112; 58 278; 58 356; 58 479
B. 94 567; 65 432; 98 341; 64 234
C. 21 789; 21 645; 21 534; 21 412
D. 76 123; 76 234; 76 042; 76 153
11. A municipality is implementing a tree-planting activity. It has 5 678 Narra seedlings, 13 793 Mahogany
seedlings, and 14 067 Acacia seedlings. Arrange the numbers in decreasing order.
12. Which number has more ten thousands?
A. 29 077 B. 19 097 C. 9 097 D. 907
Answer:
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For numbers 13 to 16, refer to the table below.
The following are the household expenses and savings for the Ty family of 6 members in three months.
Expenses June July August
Food Php 5 982 Php 6 356 Php 6 456
Transportation Php 2 901 Php 2 347 Php 2 348
Clothing Php 3 456 Php 4 567 Php 5620
Education Php 12 500 Php 13 150 Php 13 500
Electricity Php 2 099 Php 2 132 Php 2 365
Water Php 348 Php 375 Php 390
Others Php 1 345 Php 2 110 Php 1 392
Savings Php 1 500 Php 1 640 Php 1 925
13. In which month did the family spend the most?
A. June B. July C. August D. September
14. In which month did the family spend the least?
A. June B. July C. August D. September
15. What relation symbol will make this sentence true?
June transportation expenses _____ July transportation expenses.
A. > B. < C. = D. ≈
16. What were the total household expenses for the month of July when rounded to the nearest thousand?
A. Php32 000 B. Php33 000 C. Php34 000 D. Php35 000
17. Which statement is correct?
A. 97 456 > 90 000+ 8 000+ 500 + 10 + 0
B. 30 000 + 3 000 + 500 + 60 + 7 = 33 567
C. 97 454 < 87 976
D. 9 154 > 9 345
18. Write the missing digit in 23 456 < 23 _ 56 to make the sentence true.
A. 8 B. 2 C. 1 D. 3
19. Which statement is not correct?
A. 10 000 > 10 000 + 1000 + 100 + 10 + 0
B. 20 000 + 3 000 + 200 + 50 + 4 = 23 254
C. 87 654 < 87 976
D. 5 6544 > 5 345
20. Use >, <, or = to compare the numbers. Write your answer in the box.
Fifty six thousand three hundred eighty four 58 384
KEY:
1. B 6. A 11. 14067; 13793; 5678 16. B
2. A 7. A 12. A 17. B
3. C 8. B 13. C 18. A
4. A 9. A 14. A 19. A
5. C 10. A 15. A 20. <
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(#1) SUMMATIVE TEST IN
SCIENCE – IV
FIRST QUARTER
Name: __________________________________ Date: _____________ Score: ______________
I. Choose the correct answer. Encircle the letter of the correct answer.
1. Which of the following materials float in water?
a. Big stone b. metal spoon c. empty plastic bottle d. crystal glass
2. Using the data below, which group of materials can be used to prevent oneself from drowning?
A B C
Materials that absorb
water
Materials that
float
Materials that
sink
Cloth
Sponge
Rug
Cotton roll
Twine cloth
Bamboo stem
Log
Plastic bottle
with cover
Piece of wood
Big stones
Metal bar
Hollow blocks
a. A, B and C b. B c. A d. C
3. Your mother asked you to give her medicine for fever. What are you going to do first?
a. Read the label of the medicine.
b. Get a glass of water and the medicine.
c. Get the medicine and give it right away to your mother.
d. Taste the medicine before giving it to your mother.
4. Why do boats float in water?
a. Boats are made of wood that make them float.
b. Uses paddle to make the boat float.
c. The sea breeze makes the boat float in water.
d. The boat is tied with plastic string that makes it float.
5. If you are going to dispose waste materials commonly found at home, what are you going to do with
decaying materials?
a. Make a compost. c. Mix them with the non-decaying.
b. Throw them in the river d. Keep them in the cabinet and use them again.
6. A glass of water spilled on the table. You want to dry the table at once. What are you going to use?
a. Cotton b. Rug made of cloth c. Tissue paper d. Handkerchief
7. If you are exposed to garbage, what illness would you probably get?
a. Heart failure b. Asthma c. Goiter d. Nose bleed
A B C
8. Which group of materials will undergo decay?
a. A and B b. C and A c. A d. B
9. Which group of materials is recyclables?
a. A and B b. B and C c. A and C d. C
10. Which group of materials can be turned into fertilizer?
a. A and C b. B and C c. B d. A
11. Which of the following show proper waste disposal?
a. Throwing garbage to the sea.
b. Putting all waste materials in one container.
Fish bone, chicken feathers,
kangkong stem, potato
peeling, left-over meat
Bottle of mineral water, glass,
empty container of catsup,
toyo/vinegar, broken pail,
basin
Empty can and empty bottle of
softdrinks, milk, cereal drink,
sardines, corned beef, meat loaf
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c. Throwing leftover foods in drainage canal.
d. Segregating waste into decaying and non-decaying.
12. You are going to buy can juice in the store for your visitor’s snack. The following can juices were
displayed in the store with its expiration date. Which of them are you going to buy?
a. Pineapple juice – best before January 2014
b. Orange juice – best before March 2014
c. Mango juice – best before July 2014
d. Apple juice – best before 2015
13. Why it is important to read the label of any product?
a. To know the price of the product.
b. To get the number of pieces sold in the market.
c. To know who buy product.
d. To use product correctly.
14. Why do some materials absorb water?
a. Because some materials have tiny holes that let the water in.
b. Some materials are soft that can easily get water in.
c. Some materials are made of vinyl.
d. Some materials are expensive.
15. Which of the following materials have the ability to sink in water?
a. Metal spoon b. Wood c. Plastic sheet d. Twigs
16. How should non-decaying wastes be disposed?
a. By composting b. Reusing c. By recycling d. both B and C
17. Wastes that are not properly disposed may _______.
a. Become breeding places of pests such as mosquitoes and flies.
b. Cause loss of humus soil.
c. Speed up the materials to decay.
d. Allow free flow of rain water run off.
18. Waste should be segregated into _____ groups.
a. Decaying and non-decaying c. Small and big
b. Bluish and yellowish d. Hard and soft
19. What safety precaution do you need to observe in disposing waste materials?
a. Use gloves or adequate equipment in handling waste materials to prevent puncture by sharp
items.
b. Taste and touch waste materials before disposing them.
c. Keep the waste materials in your kitchen.
d. Expose yourself to the waste materials.
20. What should people do with the garbage to prevent oneself from getting sick?
a. Dispose waste materials properly.
b. Take medicine.
c. Throw the waste materials anywhere in your surroundings.
d. Drink untreated water.
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2nd SUMMATIVE TEST IN
SCIENCE – IV
FIRST QUARTER
Name: __________________________________ Date : _____________ Score: ___________
I. TRUE OR FALSE ( IMPORTANCE OF PRODUCT LABELS)
______1. Product labels are intended to ensure the safety of the user.
______2.Product labels warn possible dangers.
______3. They describe the unsafe way of using the product.
______4.They describe the proper way of storing food.
______5.Product labels can’t help people to become safe.
II. Identify each of the materials whether they are kitchen waste, garden waste , or factory returnable.
(6-13)
Meal leftovers kangkong leaves camote leaves cartons/papers
Banana peelings weeds glass bottles pieces of cloth
KITCHEN WASTE GARDEN WASTE FACTORY RETURNABLE
III. Encircle the proper waste disposal according to the properties of each material.(14-16)
A. Waste should never disposed down sinks, drains, ditches, near wildlife habitats or ponds.
B. Products for disposal should be mixed together.
C. Separate materials into bio-degradable and non-biodegradable.
D. Recycle some of the non-biodegradable materials.
IV. Classify materials or wastes according to properties.
Bottles of shampoo empty cartridge syringe cardboard
Gloves containers leftoverfood empty boxes
HOME OFFICES CLASSROOMS LABORATORIES
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(#3) SUMMATIVE TEST IN
SCIENCE – IV
FIRST QUARTER
Name: __________________________________ Date: _____________ Score: ______________
I. Direction: Read the following carefully. Choose and encircle the letter of the correct answer.
1. Your mother asked you to give her medicine for fever. What are you going to do first?
A. Read the label of medicine.
B. Get a glass of water and the medicine.
C. Get the medicine and give it right away to your mother.
D. Taste the medicine before giving it your mother.
2. If you are going to dispose waste materials commonly found at home, what are you going to do with the
decaying materials?
A. Make a compost
B. Throw them in the river
C. Mix them with the non-decaying
D. Keep them in the cabinet and use them again
3. If you are exposed to garbage, what kind of illness would you probably get?
A. Heart failure B. asthma C. goiter D. nose bleed
4. Which group of materials will undergo decay?
A. Left-over food B. Empty can of meat C. plastic bottle D. styro cup
5. The following materials are recyclable except one.
A. Kangkong leaves C. carton box
B. Plastic bottles D. empty bottles of softdrinks
6. Which of the following can be used as fertilizers?
A. Plastics B. rubber C. diapers D. potato peelings
7. Which of the following show proper waste disposal?
A. Throwing garbage to the sea
B. Putting all waste materials in one container
C. Throwing left-over foods in the drainage canal
D. Segregating waste into decaying-non-decaying
8. You are going to buy can juice in the store for your visitor’s snack. The following can juices were displayed
in the store with its expiration date. Which of them are you going to buy?
A. Pineapple juice - best before January 2015
B. Orange juice – best before March 2014
C. Mango juice – best before July 2014
D. Apple juice – best before January 2016
9. Why is it important to read the label of any product?
A. To know the price of the product.
B. To get the number of pieces sold in the market.
C. To know who buy product .
D. To use the product correctly.
10. Why do some materials absorb water?
A. Because some materials have tiny holes that let the water in.
B. Some materials are soft that can easily get the water in.
C. Some materials are made of vinyl.
D. Some materials are expensive.
11. How should non-decaying wastes be disposed?
A. composting B. reusing C. by recycling D. both b and c
12. Wastes that are not properly disposed may ____________.
A. Become breeding places of pests such as mosquitoes and flies
B. Cause loss of humus soil
C. Speed up the materials to decay
D. Allow free flow of rain water run off
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13. Waste should be segregated into ___________ groups
A. Decaying and non-decaying C. small and big
B. Bluish and yellowish D. hard and soft
14. What safety precaution do you need to observe in disposing waste materials?
A. Use gloves or appropriate equipment in handling waste materials
B. Taste and touch waste materials before disposing them
C. Keep the waste materials in your kitchen
D. Expose yourself to the waste materials.
15. What should people with the garbage do to prevent one from getting sick?
A. Dispose waste materials properly
B. Take medicine
C. Throw the waste materials anywhere in your surrounding
D. Drink untreated water
II. Look at the product below then answer the questions that follow.
16. What is the product’s/brand name?
_________________________________
17. When is the expiration date?
_________________________________
18. What is the precaution of the product?
_________________________________
III. 19-20 . Demonstrate ways of disposing them though a drawing.
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(#4) SUMMATIVE TEST IN
SCIENCE – IV
FIRST QUARTER
Name: __________________________________ Date: _____________ Score: ______________
A. Which of the following materials absorb water? Put a ( /) on the blank.
______ 1. Cotton ______ 4. Umbrella
______ 2. Glass ______ 5. Sponge
______ 3. Towel
B. Describe the materials that absorbs water. Write the letter of the correct answer.
6. A glass of water spilled on the table. You want to dry the table at once. What are you going to
use?
a. cotton b. tissue paper c. rug made of cloth d. handkerchief
7-9. Study the following pictures. Which materials do not absorbed water. Write the letters that
correspond to your answer.
a. b. c. d. e.
7. ______________ 8. __________________ 9. _________________
10. Cotton is a material that allows air and water to pass through it. How will you classify this
material?
a. it is a non- porous material c. it does not absorb water
b. it is a porous material d. it sinks
C. Classify materials that float and sink. Write them in their proper column. 11-15
Bottle of mineral water pencil tablespoon eraser ring
Materials that float Materials that sink
16. What will happen to a rock when you place it in a pail of water?
a. it will float b. it will sink c. it will absorb water d. it will break into pieces
17. MV Montenegro accidentally bumped into a cargo ship. The corrosion caused a big hole to the
passenger ship. What do you think will happen to this passenger ship?
a. It will still afloat in the water. c. It will cause fire
b. It will sink as it absorbs water through its holes d. it will not be affected by the corrosion
18. Why do some people use floaters in swimming pools?
a. It keeps them sank in the water. c. It lessens their weight.
b. It keeps them floated in the water. d. A, B, C are correct.
19. Some material floats no matter what their shape is. Which type of material had been described?
a. plastic b. rubber c. Styrofoam d. glass
20. Why do life vest keeps you afloat in the sea?
a. because of its shape c. because it is less dense
b. because it is filled with air d. because it is made of rubber
D. Write the letter of the correct answer.
21. It is a process of slowly destroying materials into bits or smaller pieces.
a. cutting b. decaying c. frying d. polluting
22. Which of the following materials undergo decay?
a. bread b. disposable cups c. foil d. wax paper
23. The following materials undergo decay. Which of them decay fast?
a. branches b. leaves c. left-over food d. vegetable peeling
24. What will happen to the decaying materials dumped in soil?
a. converted to fossil c. become pollutants
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b. becomes inorganic fertilizer d. become inorganic fertilizer
25. Left-over food must be stored in _______ to avoid spoilage.
a. glass containers b. plastic container c. refrigerator d. plate with cover
26. The best way to dispose decaying materials is to ______.
a. put in a garbage can c. put in a compost pit
b. put in a garbage can with plastic d. throw in a vacant space
27-30. What are the factors that contribute to the decaying process of the materials?
27. __________________ 29. _____________________
28. __________________ 30. _____________________
E. Classify the materials whether they decay or not decay. Write D for decay and ND for non-decay.
______31. dead animals ______36. Wax paper
______32. Jars ______37. Left-over food
______33. Ceramic plates ______38. Leaves
______34. Stool of animals ______39. Wood
______35. Aluminum foil ______40. Metals
F. Write the letter of the correct answer.
41. Which of the following ailments one can get in bathing a dirty water?
a. allergy b. diarrhea c. headache d. typhoid
42. It is a disease spread by specific type of mosquito.
a. allergy b. dengue c. diarrhea d. skin rashes
43. A waterborne disease from polluted water. People who drink becomes infected with _____.
a. dysentery b. diarrhea c. malaria d. typhoid
44. It is a disease that can cause severe diarrhea.
a. cholera b. dysentery c. skin allergy d. typhoid
45. _______ should be practiced to prevent diseases from exposure to decaying materials.
a. brushing b. cleaning c. good hygiene d. washing
G. Complete the statement below. (5pts)
To prevent diseases brought about by exposure to decaying materials in my
environment, I will _____________________________________________________________.
H. Write the letter of the correct answer.
51. What information are given by the labels of the product?
a. expiration date b. nutrients c. precautions d. all of the above
52. You are asked to give medicine for fever. What are you going to do first?
a. Read the label of the medicine.
b. Get a glass of water and a medicine.
c. Get the medicine and give it right away to your mother.
d. Taste the medicine before giving it to your mother.
53. You are going to buy can juice in the store for your visitor’s snack. The following can juices were
displayed in the store with its expiration date. Which of them are you going to buy?
a. Pineapple juice – best before January 2015
b. Orange juice – best before March 2015
c. Mango juice – best before July 2015
d. Apple juice – best before August2015
54. Why is it important to read the label of any product?
a. to know the price of any product
b. to get the number of pieces sold in the market
c. to know who buy the product
d. to use the product correctly
55. Do all the labels provide enough information about the food products?
a. Yes b. No c. Maybe d. I don’t know
I. Explain why people need to consider the information on product labels when buying. (5pts)
___________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________.
J. Write the letter of the correct answer.
61. If you are going to dispose waste materials commonly found at home, what are you going to do
with the decaying materials?
a. make a compost pit c. mix them with the non-decaying
b. throw them in the river d. keep them in the cabinet and use them again
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62. Wastes that are not properly disposed may ______.
a. become breeding places of pests such as mosquitoes and flies.
b. cause loss of humus soil.
c. speed up the materials to decay.
d. allow free flow of rain water run off.
63. Waste should be segregated into ______ groups.
a. decaying and non-decaying c. small and big
b. bluish and yellowish d. hard and soft
64. What safety precaution do you need to observe in disposing waste materials?
a. Use gloves or adequate equipment in handling waste materials to prevent puncture
by sharp items.
b. Taste and touch waste materials before disposing them.
c. Keep the waste materials in your kitchen.
d. Expose yourself to the waste materials.
65. What should people with the garbage do to prevent oneself from getting sick?
a. Dispose waste materials properly.
b. Take medicine.
c. Throw the waste materials in a vacant lot
d. Drink polluted water.
K. Classify materials or wastes according to properties.
Bottles of shampoo empty cartridge syringe cardboard
Gloves containers leftover food empty boxes
HOME OFFICES CLASSROOMS LABORATORIES
66. 68. 70. 72.
67. 69. 71. 73.
L. Draw a poster on proper disposal of waste according to its properties. (2 pts)
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(#4) SUMMATIVE TEST IN
SCIENCE – IV
FIRST QUARTER
Name: __________________________________ Date: _____________ Score: ______________
I. How these following materials can change.
A. By cutting, B. by bending, C. by melting, D. by coloring
______ 1. Butter use in cooking.
______ 2. Adding food color on a shake.
______ 3. Making a paper doll.
II. Choose the letter of the correct answer.
4. All of these are characteristics of a solid except one, what is it?
a. Solids are hard.
b. Solids are having compact particles.
c. Solids do not change its shape when putting to different container.
d. Solids are sometimes invisible.
5. Which of the following statement tells about the property of solid material?
a. falling down b. round table c. washing of clothes d. delicious food
6. Which of these group of words shows the properties of solid materials?
a. solid, liquid, gas b. bent, pressed, cut c. shape, texture, color d. hot, warm, cold
7. What changes happen to the materials when hammered?
a. change in odor b. change in shape c. change in color d. change in weight
8. All of these materials can be bent except one, what is it?
a. nail b. modeling clay c. broom stick d. stone
9. Which of the following materials can be pressed?
a. paper clip b. hallow blocks c. marshmallow d. metal spoon
10. Which of the following statements is true about bending.
a. All solid materials can be bent.
b. Solid materials can be bent depending on the property of the materials.
c. When solid materials are bended, new material will formed.
d. When the material is bended, it properties will change.
11.What is bent?
a. to cut b. to slide c. to change position d. to sharply curve.
12. It is usually use by the carpenter in beating and striking objects.
a. scissors b. wood c. machine d. hammer
13. Which of the following materials can be hammered?
a. tin can b. paper c. wood d. steel bars
14. Which of the following describes what happens to the modeling clay when it was pressed?
a. The clay changes its size and color. c. The clay changes its volume and odor.
b. The clay changes its size and shape. d. The clay changes its odor and texture.
15. How do we change the appearance of solid materials?
a. by coloring, painting, pressing c. by cooking, heating, cooling
b. by cutting, pressing, bending d. all of the above
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16. All of these materials can be pressed except one, what is it?
a. cotton b. modeling clay c. donut d. stone
III. Directions: Choose the materials from the box that can be cut.
Stone water Stainless steel cabinet pail made of plastic
juice Plastic cover colored paper water glass made of palstic
leaves Fish string beans
17. _________________________
18. _________________________
19. _________________________
20. _________________________
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1rst SUMMATIVE TEST IN
ARALING PANLIPUNAN – IV
FIRST QUARTER
Pangalan: __________________________________ Petsa: _____________ Iskor: _________
I. Basahin ang mga pangungusap/tanong. Piliin ang at isulat ang letra ng sagot sa sagutang papel.
1. Ito ay tumutukoy sa lugar o teritoryo na may naninirahang mga grupo ng tao na may magkakatulad na
kulturang pinanggalingan kung kaya makikita ang iisa o pare-parehong wika, pamana, relihiyon, at lahi.
a. teritoryo b. bansa c. pamahalaan d. lalawigan
2. Ito ay tumutukoy sa lawak ng lupain at katubigan kasama na ang himpapawid at kalawakan sa itaas nito.
a. teritoryo b. bansa c. lalawigan d. mundo
3. Sila ay samahan o organisasyong political na itinataguyod ng mga grupo ng tao na naglalayong magtatag
ng kaayusan at magpanatli ng isang sibilisadong lipunan.
a. bansa b. pamahalaan c. departamento d. organisasyon
4. Ano-anu ang mga salik o katangian ng isang lugar para masabing isa itong bansa?
a. may tao c. may tao, teritoryo, at pamahalaan
b. may tao at teritoryo d. may tao, teritoryo, pamahalaan, at soberanya o ganap na kalayaan
5. Alin sa mga sumusunod na lugar sa mundo ang maituturing na bansa?
a. Pilipinas b. United States of America c. China d. lahat ng nabanggit
6. Saang bahagi ng mundo matatagpuan ang Pilipinas?
a. America b. Europe c. Africa d. Asya
7. Ito ang lokasyon ng isang lugar ayon sa kinalalagyan ng mga katabi o kalapit nitong lugar.
a. pangunahing direksiyon c. relatibong lokasyon o kaugnay na kinalalagyan
b. pangalawang direksiyon d. pagitan ng bansa
II. Gamit ang mapa, sabihin kung ang mga sumusunod na pangungusap ay TAMA o MALI.
_____ 8. Ang Taiwan ay nasa timog na Pilipinas.
_____ 9. Ang Pacific Ocean ay nasa silangang bahagi ng Pilipinas.
_____ 10. Ang Borneo ay matatagpuan sa hilagang-kanluran ng bansa.
_____ 11. Ang Cambodia ay nasa silangan ng Pilipinas.
_____ 12. Nasa hilagang-kanluran ng Pilipinas ang mga isla ng Paracel
III. Ibigay ang mga salitang hinihingi ng mga sumusunod
na salita/parirala
13. Mga Pangunahing Direksiyon
a.________________________
b.________________________
c. ________________________
d. ________________________
14. Mga Pangalawang Direksiyon
a. ________________________
b. ________________________
c. ________________________
d. ________________________
IV. Isulat ang kung ang pangungusap ay wasto at x kung hindi.
_____ 15. May sariling teritoryo ang Pilipinas.
_____ 16. Ang Pilipinas ay matatagpuan sa Timog-Silangang Asya.
_____ 17. Malapit ang Pilipinas sa mga bansang nasa kontinente ng United States of America at Europe.
_____ 18. Napapaligiran ang bansa ng Taiwan, China at Japan sa Timog.
_____ 19. Ang lawak ng bansa ay umaabot sa 300 000 kilometro kuwadrado.
_____ 20. Ang Pilipinas ay isang kapuluang napalibutan ng mga anyong tubig.
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(#2) LAGUMANG PAGSUSULIT SA
ARALING PANLIPUNAN – IV
UNANG MARKAHAN
Pangalan: __________________________________ Petsa : _____________ Iskor: ___________
I. Isulat ang T kung ang pangungusap ay naglalarawan ng Katangian ng isang bansang tropical at HT kung hindi.
______1. Ang mga naninirahan dito ay nakararanas ng matinding sikat ng araw.
______2. Umuulan ng yelo sa lugar na ito.
______3. Nakararanas ng apat na uri ng panahon
______4.Direktang tinatamaan ng sikat ng araw ang mga lugar na ito.
______5. Nakararanas ng tagsibol.
II. Piliin sa Hanay B ang inilalarawan sa Hanay A. Isulat ang letra ng tamang sagot.
HANAY A HANAY B
____6. Pagbabago sa klima na sanhi ng mga gawain ng tao
na maaring makapagpabago sa komposisyon ng atmospera. A. Babala blg.3
____7.Hanging mainit buhat sa Timog-Kanluran. B. Climate Change
____8. Malamig na hangin buhat sa Hilagang- Silangan. C. Hanging Amihan
____9. Paiba iba ang direksyon ng ihip ng hangin. D. Hanging Habagat
____10. May pantay-pantay na dami at pagkakabahagi ng ulan sa buong taon. E. Hanging Monsoon
____11. Maulan at may maikling panahon ng tag-araw. F. Ikaapat na uri
____12. Maulan sa buong taon. G. Ikalawang uri
____13. May kalahating taon ng tag-ulan at tag-araw. H. Ikatlong uri
____14. Nararanasang init o lamig sa isang lugar. I. Temperatura
____15. Ang Bilis ng hangin ay umaabot ng 185 km J. Unang uri
bawat oras sa loob ng 18 oras.
III. Ibigay ang hinihingi sa bawat bilang.
(16-17) Mga hanging monsoon
(18-20) Mga Uri ng Klima
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(#3) LAGUMANG PAGSUSULIT SA
ARALING PANLIPUNAN – IV
UNANG MARKAHAN
Pangalan: __________________________________ Petsa : _____________ Iskor: ___________
I. Basahing mabuti ang mga sumusunod. Piliin at isulat ang titik nang wastong sagot sa patlang bago ang bilang.
______ 1. Ano ang eksaktong lokasyon ng Pilipinas?
A. Pagitan ng 4-21 digri H latitud at 120-126 S longhitud
B. Pagitan ng 6-23 digir H latitud at 116-127 digri S longhitud
C. Pagitan ng 4-21 digri H latitud at 116-127 digri S longhitud
D. Pagitan ng 4-15 digri H latitud at 120-130 digri S longhitud
______ 2. Dahil nasa gitnang latitud ang Estados Unidos, ang klima rito ay may _________
A. apat na uri B. tatlong uri C. dalawang uri D. iisang uri
______ 3. Ang guhit na nasa 23 ½ timog latitud ay ang Tropiko ng Kaprikornyo, ano naman ang nasa 23 ½
hilagang latitud?
A. Kabilugang Arktiko C. Tropiko ng Kaprikornyo
B. Tropiko ng Kanser D. Kabilugang Antartiko
______ 4. Ang guhit na nasa 66 ½ hilagang latitud mula sa ekwador ay Kabilugang Arktiko, ano naman ang
nasa 66 ½ timog latitud?
A. Kabilugang Arktiko C. Tropiko ng Kaprikornyo
B. Tropiko ng Kanser D. Kabilugang Antartiko
______ 5. Saang hatingglobo matatagpuan ang Kabilugang Arktiko?
A. timog B. hilaga C. kanluran D. silangan
______ 6. Bakit mainit ang klima ng Pilipinas?
A. Dahil malapit ito sa Polong Hilaga C. Dahil mapalit ito sa International Date Line
B. Dahil malapit ito sa ekwador D. Dahil mapalit sa Polong Timog
______ 7. Alin ang tamang paglalarawan sa klima ng bansa?
A. Napakainit sa Pilipinas C. Malamig at mainit sa Pilipinas
B. Napakalamig sa Pilipinas D. Hindi gaanong mainit at malamig sa Pilipinas
______ 8. Saang lungsod nakapagtala ng pinakamataas na temperature?
A. Lungsod ng Tuguegarao C. Lungsod ng Baguio
B. Lungsod ng Tagaytay D. Metro Manila
______ 9. Saang lalawigan nakapagtala ng pinakamababang temperature?
A. Baguio B. Tagaytay C. Bukidnon D. Atok, Benguet
______ 10. Aling pangungusap ang maling paglalarawan tungkol sa temperature ng isang lugar?
A. Kainaman ang temperature sa Pilipinas.
B. Hindi magkakatulad ang tindi ng init at lamig sa Pilipinas.
C. Malamig ang klima sa mga lugar na mataas ang kaniroroonan.
D. May kinalaman ang kinaroroonang latitude ng mga lugar sa temperature.
______ 11. Aling lalawigan ang hindi kabilang sa mga nakararanas ng ikalawang uri ng klima?
A. Batanes B. Quezon C. Catanduanes D. Camarines Sur
______ 12. Kailan inilalagay sa babala bilang 3 ang isang bagyo?
A. Kapag ang bilis ng hangin ay hindi bababa sa 185 kilometro bawat oras sa loob ng 12 oras.
B. Kapag ang bilis ng hangin ay nasa 30 hanggang 60 kilometro bawat oras sa loob ng 36 na oras.
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C. Kapag ang bilis ng hangin ay nasa 60 hanggang 100 kilometro bawat oras sa loob ng 24 na oras.
D. Kapag ang bilis ng hangin ay nasa 100 hanggang 185 kilometro bawat oras sa loob ng 18 na oras.
______ 13. Anong Uri ng klima ang may kalahating taon ng tag-araw at tag-ulan?
A. Unang Uri B. Ikalawang Uri C. Ikatlong Uri D. Ikaapat na Uri
______ 14. Anong uri ng klima ang nararanasan ng mga tao sa lalawigan sa kanlurang bahagi ng Cagayan at
silangang Palawan?
A.Unang Uri B. Ikalawang Uri C. Ikatlong Uri D. Ikaapat na Uri
II. Punan ng wastong sagot ang mga sumusunod. Piliin ang inyong sagot sa loob ng kahon.
15. Ang ____________________________ay ang hindi pangkaraniwang nangyayari sa kalikasan dulot ng mga
gawain ng mga tao.
16. Ang ______________________ ay nabubuo sa Karagatang Pasipiko.
17. Ito ay ang hanging pabago bago ng direksiyon. ________________________
18. Ang ________________________ ang tumutukoy sa nararanasang lamig at init ng isang lugar.
19. Ang __________________________ ay hanging nagmumula sa hilagang silangan.
20. Gumagamit ang _____________________ ng mga babala ng bagyo upang maipaabot sa mga mamamayan kung
gaano kalakas o kahina ang dating na dulot nito.
Temperature Hanging Habagat
Climate Change Hanging Amihan
Hanging Monsoon bagyo
PAGASA
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(#1) LAGUMANG PAGSUSULIT SA
E.P.P- ICT – IV
UNANG MARKAHAN
Pangalan: __________________________________ Petsa: _____________ Iskor: _________
I. Piliin ang titik ng wastong sagot.
1. Ano ang kahulugan ng ICT?
A. International Convention Technonlogy B. Information Communication Technology
C. Information Training Center
2. Alin sa mga sumusunod ang hindi kasiya siyang paggamit ng computer?
A. Nakakatulong upang makuha ng impormasyon.
B. Nakakatulong ito sa pakikipagbalitaan sa mga kamag anak sa ibang lugar.
C. Nakakatulong ito upang makuha at magamit ang files ng ibang tao.
3. Alin sa mga sumusunod ang idenisenyo upang makasira sa computer?
A. avira B. malware o malicious software C. avast
4. Alin sa mga sumusunod na paraan ang pwedeng upang maiwasan ang pagkakaroon ng malware sa computer?
A. Pagiging maingat sa pagbabahagi ng files.
B. Pag iinstall ng lahat ng application na lumalabas sa computer.
C. Pag click sa mga link sa tuwi - tuwina.
5. Alin sa mga sumusunod ang hindi magandang kapakinabangan ng ICT?
A. Mas nagiging maunlad ang komersyo.
B. Mas madali ang pangangalap, pag iimbak at pagbabahagi ng impormasyon.
C. Mas madali ng makapanood ng mga malalaswang palabas.
II. Piliin ang salita sa kahon sa tinutukoy ng mga pangungusap sa ibaba.
COMPUTER VIRUS INTERNET DIALERS MALWARE AVIRA
SPYWARE COMPUTER ICT KEYLOGGERS KOMUNIKASYON
___________ 6. Software na may kakayahang tumawag sa mga telepono gamit ang computer kung may dial up modem
ang gamit na computer.
___________ 7. Isang application sa computer na pwedeng magtanggal ng mga virus.
___________ 8. Isang programa na ginawa upang makapanira ng mga lehitimong application o iba pang programa sa
computer.
___________ 9. Ito ay idenesenyo upang makasira sa mg computer.
___________ 10. Electronic device na ginagamit upang mabilis na makapagproseso ng mga datos o impormasyon.
___________ 11. Ito ay isang gawain na napapabilis sa tulong ng ICT.
___________ 12. Ito ay malawak na ugnayan ng may computer network sa buong mundo.
___________ 13. Malware na nagtatala ng lahat ng mga pinindot sa keyboard keystrokes at ipinadadala ang mga ito sa
umaaatake upang magnakaw ng password at personal data ng biktima.
___________ 14. Malware na nangongolekta ng impormasyon mula sa mga tao nang hindi nila alam.
___________ 15. Ito ay tumutukoy sa ibat ibang uri ng teknolohiya na ginagamit sa komunikasyon upang magproseso,
mag imbak, lumikha at magbahagi ng impormasyon.
III.Isulat ang mga salita na hinihiling ng mga sumusunod.
A. HALIMBAWA NG ICT B. GUMUHIT NG BAHAGI NG COMPUTER (15-20)
11.
12
13.
14.
15.
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(#1) LAGUMANG PAGSUSULIT SA
E.P.P – IV
AGRICULTURE
UNANG MARKAHAN
Pangalan: __________________________________ Petsa: _____________ Iskor: _________
I.PANUTO: Isulat sa puwag kug ang uri halaman ang sumusunod.
Halamang puno Butong Gulay Dahong gulay Shurbs aerial plants
1. Kamatis __________________
2. Petchay __________________
3. Gumamela __________________
4. Orchid __________________
5 . Manga __________________
II. Isulat ang T kung Tama at M kung Mali.
_____ 6. Ang pagbabalak ay isang paraan para maisagawa nang maayos at tumpak ang isang gawain.
_____ 7. Makakatulong ang pagpaplano o disenyo upang makatipid ng pera, kagamitan , lakas at oras sa
pagtatanim ng halaman.
_____ 8. Hindi kailangang malaman sa pagpaplano o disenyo ang sukat ng lugar ng pagtataniman,
pangangailangan ng mag-anak, at lugar na kailangan.
_____ 9. Mahirap isakatuparan ang mga gawain kapag nakaplano.
_____ 10. Ang halamang gulay ang pinaka angkop na isama sa mga halaman ornamental.
III. Lagyan ng √ kung tuwirang pagtatanim at × kung di- tuwirang pagatatnim.
_____ 11. Ihanda ang kahong punlaan.
_____ 12. Ihanda ang lupang taniman at punlaan.
_____ 13. Ibabad nang magdamag ang mga butong pantanim o sangang pantanim sa tubig.
_____ 14. Lagyan ng patpat o tali na may buhol upang maging gabay.
_____ 15.Ipunla sa kahong punlaan at takpan habang di pa lumalabas ang unang sibol.
_____ 16. Gumawa ng butas sa ilalim ng buhol.
_____ 17. Kapag nagsimula nang sumibol ang mga buto, unti- unting ilantad sa araw ang kahong punlaan.
_____ 18. Takpan ng manipis na lupa ang bawat butas o sangang pantanim.
_____ 19. Kapag nakabuo na ng tatlo o apat na dahon, maari na itong ilipat sa kamang taniman.
_____ 20. Maingat na diligan ang paligid ng butas.
IV. Panuto: Isulat ang titik ng tamang sagot sa patlang bago ang bilang.
_____ 21. May mga pakinabang na makukuha sa pagtatanim ng halamang ornamental gaya ng mga
sumusunod. Alin ang hindi kabilang sa grupo?
a. napagkakakitaan c. nagbibigay ng liwanag
b. nagpapaganda ng kapaligiran d. naglilinis ng maruming hangin
_____ 22. Paano nakapagpapaganda ng kapaligiran ang pagtatanim ng halamang ornamental sa pamilya at
pamayanan?
a. nagsisilbi itong palamuti sa tahanan at pamayanan c. nagpapaunlad ng pamayanan
b. nagbibigay kasiyahan sa pamilya d. lahat ng mga sagot sa itaas
_____ 23. Paano makakatulong sa pagsugpo ng polusyon ang pagtatanim ng halamang ornamental?
a. Nililinis nito ang maruming hangin sa kapaligiran.
b. Naiiwas nito na malanghap ng pamilya ay pamayanan ang maruming hangin sa kapaligiran.
c. a at b
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d. walang tamang sagot
_____ 24.Ang sangang pipiliin upang mapatubo muli ang panibagong halaman ay dapat na ________.
a. magulang c. walang ugat
b. mura d.bagong usbong
_____ 25. Ang intercropping ay paraan ng pagtatanim ng halamang ornamental na maaring ________.
a. isama ang mga halamang gulay
b. ihiwalay ang mga gulay sa mga halamang pampalamuti
c. itabi sa isang sulok ang mga halamang naiiba
d.paghihiwalay ng halamang may iba’t ibang katangian
_____ 26. Alin sa mga sumusunod na halaman ang maaring pagsamahin?
a. mga puno at herbs c. mga herbs at gumagapang
b. mga gumagapang at mga puno d. mga herbs at namumulaklak
_____ 27. Ang _______ay makabagong pamamaraan na nakapagpapabilis ng isang gawain.
a. teknolohiya c. pananaliksik
b. internet d. survey
_____ 28. Ito ay isang kagamitang mekanikal na ginagamit ng buong mundo upang madaling maipadalaang
anumang impormasyon sa pamamagitan ng computer.
a. teknolohiya c. pananaliksik
b. internet d. survey
_____ 29. Ito ay ang pagtuklas upang malutas ang ang isang suliranin na nangangailangang bigyan ng
kalutasan.
a. teknolohiya c. pananaliksik
b. internet d. survey
_____ 30. Ito ay isang pamamaraan ng kung saan ginagamit ang sukat ng pagkaisipan, opinyon at pandamdam.
a. teknolohiya c. pananaliksik
b. internet d. survey
V. Panuto: Isulat ang Tama kung wasto ang ipinahahayag ng pangungusap at Mali naman kung hindi.
_____ 31. Ang pagtatanim ng halamang ornamental ay nakatutulong sa pagbibigay ng malinis na hangin.
_____ 32. Ang halamang ornamental ay walang naidudulot na mabuti sa pamilya at pamayanan.
_____ 33. Maaring ipagbili ang itatanim na halamang ornamental.
_____ 34. Nakapagbibigay kasiyahan sa pamilya at pamayanan ang pagtatanim ng halamang ornamental.
_____ 35. Nakapagpapaganda ng kapaligiran ang mga itatanim na halamang ornamental.
VI. Panuto: Isulat kung namumulaklak o di namumulaklak ang mga sumusunod na halamang ornamental.
___________ 36. Santan
___________ 37. Gumamela
___________ 38. San francisco
___________ 39. Fortune plant
___________ 40. Sampaguita
VII. Panuto: Basahin at unawain ang bawat pangungusap.Bilugan ang titik ng tamang sagot..
41. Ang bunga ng talong ay pinapaabot ng paggulang sa puno. Ano ang dapat gawin sa magulang na bunga na
hindi kailangan?
a. itapon nalang c. anihin at itago ang buto sa malinis na sisidlan
b. ipamigay kahit kanino d. ipagbili sa magsasaka
42. Alin sa mga sumusunod ang maaring gamiting punlaan para sa mga halamang nais patubuin?
a. kahon na yari sa kahoy c. pasong malalapad
b. kama ng lupa d. lahat ng mga nabanggit
43. Ano hindi dapat mapinsala sa paglilipat ng punla sa taniman?
a. dahon c. bunga
b. sanga d. ugat
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44. Ano ang dapat gamitin upang makuha ang tamang agwat ng mga nilipat na punla?
a. panukat c. tali na may buhol
b. patpat d. kasankapang panghalaman
45. Ano pang ibang disenyo ang pwede sa pagpapatubo ng halamang ornamental ang maaring gawin bukod sa
pagtatanim sa paso at lata?
a. Sculpture forming c. Floral form
b. Braiding d. Lahat ng mga ito
46.Ang pag-aayos ng iba’t ibang halamang ornamental sa tahanan, parke, paaralan, hotel at restaurant ay
_______.
a. vegetable gardening c. orchidaruim
b. lanscaping d. acquaphonies
47. Saan makikita ang magagandang lanscaping?
a. Parke o Memorial Park c. Tahanan at Paaralan
b. Hotel at Restaurant d. Lahat ng mga ito
48. Alin sa mga halimbawa ng halamang ornamental ang may malambot at di makahoy na tangkay?
a. Daisy c. Rosal
b. Morning Glory d. Bermuda Grass
49. Saan maaring itanim ang halamang ornamental na bermuda grass o carpet grass?
a. Sa paso sa loob ng tahanan c. sa malawak o bakanteng lugar
b. Sa paso sa labas ng tahanan d. sa mababatong lugar
50. Alin sa mga ito ang halamang ornamental na di namumulaklak?
a. Santan c. Bermuda Grass
b. Rosas d. Daisy
51. Bakit kailangan ang masusing paghahanda sa itatanim?
a. upang mabilis lumaki ang mga halaman
b. upang maisakatuparan ang proyekto ng wasto
c. upang mapadali ang pagsugpo sa mga sakit nito
d. upang maibenta kaagad ang mga produkto
52. Aling mga halamang ornamental ang hindi dapat na itinatanim sa harapan o unahan ng ng maliliit na
halaman?
a. mga lumalaki at yumayabong na halaman c. mga maliliit na halaman
b. mga may kulay na halaman d. mga nabubuhay sa tubig
53. Anu-ano ang dapat pagsama-samahin sa pagsasaayos ng mga halamang ornamental?
a. magkakasing kulay na halaman c. magkakasinlaking halaman
b. magkakauring halaman d. lahat ng mga ito
54. Saan maaring magsimula ang mga halamang ornamental?
a. paso at lupa c.buto at sangang pantanim
b. dahon at bunga d.walaa sa mga ito
55. Alin sa mga halamang ornamental na nakasaad sa ang lumalaki at yumayabong?
a. Kalachuchi c. Ilang-ilang
b. Balete d. Lahat ng mga ito
VIII. Isulat kung halamang puno, namumulaklak, nabubuhay sa tubig, di namumulaklak, o mahirap buhayin ang mga
sumusunod na halamang ornamental.
_________________56. Pine tree _______________58. Orchids _____________60. San Francisco
_________________57. Water lily _______________59. Rosas
IX. Panuto: Basahin at unawain ang bawat pangungusap.Bilugan ang titik ng tamang sagot.
61. Ito ay ginagamit sa pagbubungkal ng matigas na lupa.
a. piko b. pala c. asarol d.regadera
62. Ito ay ginagamit sa paglilipat ng lupa.
a. piko b. pala c. asarol d.regadera
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63. Ito ay ginagamit sa pagbubungkal ng lupa at paglilipat ng punla
a. piko b. pala c. asarol d.regadera
64. Ito ay ginagamit sa pagdidilig ng halaman.
a. piko b. pala c. asarol d.regadera
65. Ito ay ginagamit upang linisin ang mga kalat sa bakuran tulad ng mga tuyong dahon at iba pang basura.
a. kalaykay b. pala c. asarol d.regadera
X. Isulat ang T kung tama ang isinasaad ng pangungusap at M naman kung mali.
_____ 66. Ang air layering ay maari din tawaging marcotting.
_____ 67. Kailangang pumili ng matabang sanga at walang sakit para sa isasagawang marcotting.
_____ 68. Ang butong ipupunla o itatanim ay kailanagang magulang at galing sa malusog na bunga.
_____ 69. Mainam din na ibabad magdamag sa tubig na may kahalong kemikal ang butong itatanim.
_____ 70. Kailangang sundin ang lahat ng panuntunan sa pagpapaugat, pagpapaugat, at pagpuputol.
_____ 71. Ang tubig ay mahalaga sa buhay ng halaman.
_____ 72. Ang organikong abono ay maaaring makuha sa madaling pamamaraan.
_____ 73. Ang halaman ay kailangang bungkalin ng 2 hanggang 3 beses sa isang linggo.
_____ 74. Ang compost pit ay ay inilalagay sa maayos na lugar para madaling makita ng tao.
_____ 75. Ang halaman ay lumalago din kahit walang abono.
_____ 76. May dalawang uri ng abono organiko at di organikong pataba.
_____ 77. Ang organikong pataba ay galing sa nabubulok na dahon at prutas, dumi ng hayop, at iba.
_____ 78. Ang abono ay nagdadagdag ng sustansiya na nagsisilbing pagkain.
_____ 79. Mayroon tayong mga paraan ng paglalagay ng abono sa halaman ay hand method, side dressing,
foliar spray, broadcasting at topdressing.
_____ 80. Pinagpatong-patong na damo, nabubulok na basura, dumi ng mga hayop at lupa ang tamang
paglalagay sa compost pit.
XI. Panuto: Lagyan ng tsek (/) kung tama ang ang pangungusap at ekis (x) kung mali.
_____ 81. Maaring gumamit ng lata ng gatas at bubutasn ito at gagawing pandilig kung walang regadera.
_____ 82. Ang dulos ay angkop na gamiting pambungkal ng lupa sa paligid ng halaman.
_____ 83. Ang regadera ay ginagamit pambungkal ng lupa.
_____ 84. Ang asarol naman ay ginagamit pandukal ng lupa.
_____ 85. Ang piko naman ay ginagamit upang hukayin at durugin ang lupa.
_____ 86. Ang pag aani ng halamang ornamental ay naayon sa panahon ng selebrasyon.
_____ 87. Kailangang malusog ang halamang aanihin.
_____ 88. Ilagay kung saan-saan ang inaning halaman.
_____ 89. Dapat ay mayroong tamang sukat sa pagpuputol sa mga halamang ornamental.
_____ 90. Mas maganda ang pag aani kung mura sa palengke ang mga ito.
_____ 91.Mainam na isipin sa pagpaplano kung saan, kailan, at paano mabebenta ang mga produkto.
_____ 92. Kailangang nasusunod ang mga hakbang sa ginawang plano.
_____ 93. Kailangang magbenta ng magbenta habang may bumibili.
_____ 94. Nararapat na isinasaalang-alang ang panahon kung kailan maaring magbenta ng mga produkto.
_____ 95. Dapat isama sa pagpaplano ang kagamitang gagamitin.
_____ 96. Mayroong dalawang paraan ng pagbebenta; tingian at pakyawan.
_____ 97. Kailangang kaakit- akit ang paninda mo.
_____ 98. Dapat isaalang –alang ang panahon, mga okasyon, at lugar ng pagtitindahan.
_____ 99. Ang nagtitinda ay may kaukulang tungkulin tulad ng pagkuha ng lisensya o magbayad ng
kaukulang buwis.
_____ 100. Ang nagtitinda ay marunong makisama sa mga mamimili.
_____ 101. Sa talaan makikita ang kabuuan ng ginastos.
_____ 102. Sa paggawa ng talaan, kailangang isama ang lahat ng mga karagdagang ginastos sa gawain.
_____ 103. Kaya umuunlad ang mga negosyante dahil may talaan sila ng puhunan, ginastos at iba pang
gastusin.
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_____ 104. Maaring maging maunlad ang ang tindahan na walang ginagawang talaan.
_____ 105. Sa pagtatala kailangang isama pati bayad sa pamasahi, upa ng tindahan, at bayad sa mga taong
gumawa.
XII.Panuto: Basahin at unawain ang pangungusap. Bilugan ang titik ng tamang sagot.
106. Alin sa mga ito ang hindi inalagaan sa loob o sa likod ng bahay?
a. baka b. manok c. pusa d. kuneho
107. Ano ang kapakinabangang nakukuha ng mga mag anak sa pag-aalaga ng hayop?
a. Nagbibigay ng karne at itlog sa mag –anak.
b. Nagbibigay ng dagdag na kita sa mag-anak.
c. Nagbibigay kasiyahan sa mag-anak.
d. Lahat ng nabanggit.
108. Alin sa mga ito ang hindi katangian ng isang maayos na bahay ng alagang hayop?
a. malawak at malinis na kapaligiran c. nasisikatan ng araw
b. may sapat na malinis na tubig d. maliit at marupok ang bubong
109. Ang mga sumusunod na pangungusap kabutihang dulot ng malawak at malinisna lugar ng mga hayop
maliban sa isa.
a. mainit at masikip ang pakiramdam ng mga hayop
b. ligtas sa sakit ang mga hayop
c. maiiwasan ang ang pagsisiksikan ng mga ito
d. laging sariwa ang kanilang pakiramdam
110. Bakit kailangang bigyan ng tamang nutrisyon ang mga alagang hayop?
a. upang maging malusog c. upang madaling lumaki
b. upang may panlaban sa sakit d. lahat ng nabanggit
111. Anong hayop sa tahanan ang maaaring paramihin?
a. aso c. bayawak
b. kalabaw d. palaka
112. Ano ang kahalagahan ng paggawa ng plano sa pagpaparami ng mga alagang hayop?
a. Matitiyak ang paraan ng pagpaparami ng alagang hayop.
b. Maibebenta kaagad ang aalagang hayop.
c. Makakain ng marami ang alagang hayop.
d. Mapapaglaruan ng mga bata ang alagang hayop.
113. Alin ang dapat tandaan sa paggawa ng plano ng pagpaparami ng hayop upang kumita?
a. Uri ng produkto na maaring ibigay ng alagang hayop.
b. Kulay ng alagang hayop
c. Kalagayan ng pamumuhay
d. Uri ng hayop na aalagan
114. Ano ang maaring idulot ng paggawa ng plano bago simulan ang pagpaparami ng alagang hayop?
a. Upang matiyak na kikita ang naparaming alagang hayop.
b. Upang makapagbigay ng maraming uri ng hayop.
c. Malalaman ang kasanayan ng nag-aalga ng hayop.
d. Maibibigay ang kagustuhan ng nag-aalaga.
115. Bakit kailangang piliin ang paparamihing aalagang hayop?
a. Upang gawing kasiyahan sa loob ng tahanan.
b. Upang maibenta at pagkakikitaan.
c. Upang maging kapakipakinabang ang gawain.
d. Upang may makakatulong sa paglilinang sa bukid.
116. Alin sa mga sumusunod ang batayan sa pagpili ng pararamihing alagang hayop?
a. Mabilis lumaki at madaling dumami.
b. Nakapagbibigay ng matibay na kulungan
c. Madaling kapitan ng sakit.
d. Nanganganak ng isang beses sa isang taon lamang.
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117. Isa sa mga alagang hayop na dapat paramihin dahil sa pagbibigay aliw at mabuting kasama sa bahay ay
ang_____.
a. kuneho b. aso c. kalabaw d. kambing
118. Alin sa mga sumusunod ang makatutulong sa pagtitipid ng oras, lakas at panahon?
a. Talaan b. Talatakdaan c. Panuntunan d. Gawain
119. Ito ang pinaghati- hating gawain sa lahat ng kasap ng mag-anak para gampanan sa takdang oras at araw.
a. Pansariling Talatakdaan c. Pangmaramihan talaan
b. Pang mag-anak na talatakdaan d. Maraming gawain
120. Anong kaso ang maaring harapin ng taong mahuhuling nananakit ng mga hayop?
a. Paglabag sa Animal Welfare Act
b. Paglabag sa Animal Rights policy
c. Paglabag sa Animal Protection Law
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(#1) LAGUMANG PAGSUSULIT SA
E.P.P – IV
HOME ECONOMICS
UNANG MARKAHAN
Pangalan: __________________________________ Petsa: _____________ Iskor: _________
I. Bilugan ang titik ng tamang sagot.
1. Ano ang dapat mong gawin paggising sa umaga?
a. Buksan agad ang TV at manood ng paborito mong palabas.
b. Kunin ang iyong laruan.
c. Maligo, magsepilyo ng ngipin, at magbihis ng malinis na damit.
2. Alin sa sumusunod ang hindi mo dapat gamitin?
a. shampoo b. sariling tuwalya c. damit ng kapatid mo d. sepilyo ng nanay mo
3. Alin sa sumusunod ang dapat isinuot bilang pantulog?
a. maong at polo b. gown c. damit pangsimba d. pajama
4. Ano ang tamang gawin bago umupo upang hindi kaagad marumihan ang kasuotan?
a. Punasan ang uupuan c. Puwedeng umupo kahit saan
b. basta na lang uupo d. Pagulong gulong sa sahig
5. Ito ay ginagamit sa pagsusukat ng tela.
a. medida b. ruler c. metro d. yarda
6. Itinutusok dito ang aspili at karayom kapag hindi ginagamit upang hindi kalawangin.
a. sewing box b. pin cushion c. emery bag d. didal
7. Inilalagay sa ___________ ang karayom at aspili kapag hindi ginagamit kapag nananahi upang
maiwasan ang sakuna.
a. pin cushion b. emery bag c. timbol d. medida
8. Upang hindi nakakalat ang mga gamit sa pananahi, saan ito itatago?
a. sewing box b. tool box c. medicine kit d. medicine box
9. Ginagamit na pangkuskos kapag naliligo.
a. sabon b. Bimpo c. tuwalya d. Bato
10. May sangkap na flouride at pinatitibay at pinapuputi ang ngipin.
a. toothpaste b. mouthwash c. tartar d. sepilyo
II. Lagyan ng T kung TAMA at M kung MALI.
_____ 1. Ang maayos na tindig ay magiging sanhi ng pagiging kuba.
_____ 2. Kaaya-ayang tingnan ang magandang posisyon sa pag-upo.
_____ 3. Ang pagtulog ng maaga ay mabuti sa ating katawan.
_____ 4. Puwedeng kainin lahat upang maging malusog.
_____ 5. Ang pag-ehersisyo ay maganda sa ating katawan.
III. Lagyan ng ang pangungusap na nagpapakita ng mabuting pag-uugali, bilang kasapi ng mag-anak.
_____ 11. Pagmamano sa magulang pag-alis at pagdating sa bahay.
_____ 12. Pagkain ng mga junkfoods.
_____ 13. Pagsunod sa utos ng magulang.
_____ 14. Paggawa sa mga tungkulin na ibinigay sa tahanan.
_____ 15. Pagsunod sa mga itinakdang patakaran sa tahanan.
_____ 16. Panonood ng balita sa libreng oras.
_____ 17. Pagganap sa tungkulin ng kapatid na nag-aaral.
_____ 18. Pakikipag-usap ng mahinahon sa mga nakatatanda.
_____ 19. Hindi pakikisabat sa usapan ng mga matatanda.
_____ 20. Pagpapaalam sa magulang kung may pupuntahan.
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IV. Isulat sa patlang ang letra ng tamang sagot.
21. Ang silid ng may sakit ay kailangang mapanatiling kaaya-aya at ___________ .
a. malinis b. malamig c. maaliwalas d. mabango
22. Hayaang palaging bukas ang bintana ng silid ng maysakit upang makapasok ang _______ .
a. huni ng ibon b. sikat ng araw c. sariwang hangin d. mga bisita
23. Kinakailangang punasan ang maysakit ng _____ na tubig upang maging maginhawa ang pakiramdam.
a. malamig b. Mainit c. may yelo d. maligamgam
24. Bukod sa mga katas ng prutas maaring bigyan ang maysakit ng ______ .
a. tubig b. kape c. softdrinks d. lemonade
25. Upang hindi makalimutan ng kasapi ng mag-anak ang oras at paraan ng pag-papainom ng
gamot, magpaskil sa isang lantad na lugar ang _____ .
a. iskedyul b. oras c. pangalang ng gamot d. mga pangalan ng kasambahay
26. Paliguan ang bata sa _____ oras araw –araw.
a. oras b. wastong c. hapong d. gabi
27. Basaing ang bimpo ng _____ na tubig.
a. mainit b. malamig c. malinis d. maligamgam
28. Gamitin sa pagpapakain ng bata ang kanyang _____ kagamitan.
a. bagong b. lumang c. sariling d. pampamilyang
29. _____ ang bata sa iyong bisig bago ihiga sa kama.
a. isandal b. ilapag c. iupo d. idapa
30. Lagyan ng _____ ang katawan ng bata pagkatapos maligo.
a. lotion o langis b. Polbos c. pabango d. gel
V. Lagyan ng ang bilang kung ang ginagawang pagtulong ay may pag-iingat at paggalang.
_____ 31. Masayang ginagawa ang tungkulin.
_____ 32. Umaalis sa bahay ng tahimik at walang paalam, kapag inuutusan.
_____ 33. Magiliw na nakikipagtulungan sa mga kapatid kapag naglilinis ng bahay.
_____ 34. May kusang nagpupunas ng mga kagamitan sa bahay sa mga araw na walang pasok.
_____ 35. Malugod na sinasamahan ang nanay sa pamamalengke.
_____ 36. Ipinagpapaalam sa tatay ang mga bagay na nais gawin sa loob ng tahanan.
_____ 37. Magalang na nakikiraan sa mga nag-uusap sa tahanan habang nagwawalis.
_____ 38. Umaawit habang maingat na pinupunasan ang mga sofa sa bahay.
_____ 39. Magiliw na pinapanood ang mga kasapi ng mag-anak habang ginagampanan ang kani-kanilang
tungkulin.
_____ 40. Hindi tinutulungan ang nakababatang kapatid sa ginagawa.
VI. Punan ng salita o mga salita ang patlang.
41. Ang bisita ay nararapat na __________ kung hindi kakilala ng buong mag-anak.
42. Marapat na __________ ang bisita ng maiinom o makakain.
43. Maging __________ sa pagtanggap ng mga kung hindi ito kakilala.
44. Makipag-usap nang may __________ sa bisita.
45. Iwasan pag-usapan ang mga __________ na makapagdudulot ng kalungkutan sa bisita.
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(#2) LAGUMANG PAGSUSULIT SA
E.P.P – IV
HOME ECONOMICS
UNANG MARKAHAN
Pangalan: __________________________________ Petsa: _____________ Iskor: _________
I. Tukuyin ang mga sumusunod tungkol sa paglilinis ng tahanan. Piliin ang sagot sa kahon sa ibaba.
1. Ang ___________ ay de-kuryenteng kasangkapan sa paglilinis na nagpapakintab ng sahig.
2. Ang ___________ ay ginagamit sa pagpapakintab ng sahig.
3. Ang ___________ ay ginagamit sa pagwawalis ng magaspang na sahig at sa bakuran.
4. Ang ___________ ay ginagamit na pampunas ng sahig.
5. Ang ___________ ay ginagamit upang pulutin ang mga dumi o basura.
6. Ang mga kasangkapan ay medaling maalikabukan. Kailangan punsan ng ______________ araw-araw.
7. Ang sahig ay ___________________ upang kumintab.
8. Ang pagwawalis ng sahig ay ginagawa ng ________ upang hindi lumipad ang alikabok.
9. Sa pag aalikabok, simulan sa mataas na bahagi ng mga kasangkapan _________.
10. Ang pagwawalis sa sahig ay sinisimulan sa mga _____ patungo sa gitna.
II. Lagyan ng tsek (√) ang patlang kung ang isinasaad ng pangungusap ay wastong paraan ng paglilinis ng tahanan at
ekis (x) kung hindi.
_______ 11. Pagkatapos walisin ang mga tuyong dahon, sunugin ito.
_______ 12. Gamitin ang pandakot kung ilalagay na ang mga basurang naipon sa basurahan.
_______ 13. Ang bakurang malinis ay nakatutulong sa pagpapanatiling malinis ang pamayanan.
_______ 14. Linisin ang daanan ng tubig o kanal upang maiwasan ang pamamahay ng mga daga at iba pang mga hayop.
_______ 15. Ang mga damong ligaw ay nakadaragdag sa kagandahan ng kapaligiran.
_______ 16. Kinakailangang walisin ang mga tuyong dahon at ibang kalat sa loob at labas ng bakuran.
_______ 17. Bunutin ang mga ugat ng mga ligaw na damo upang tumubo ulit.
_______ 18. Maglinis sa loob ng bahay lang.
_______ 19. Ang mga nabubulok na basura ay pampataba sa mga halaman.
_______ 20. Magsimula sa sahig pataas sa kisame ang paglilinis ng tahanan.
III. Basahin at unawain ang sumusunod na tanong. Piliin at isulat ang titik ng tamang sagot sa inyong sagutang papel.
21. Ano ang inyong gagawin upang hindi malanghap ang alikabok habang naglilinis?
A. gumamit ng apron C. talian ang buhok
B. takpan ang ilong D. magdamit ng maluwang
22. May nabasag na baso habang naglilinis ka sa kusina. Ano ang gagawin mo?
A. Pupulutin isa-isa ang mga bubog. C. Babalutin ng lumang dyaryo at ilalagay sa basurahang may takip.
B. Dadakutin at ilalagay sa basurahan. D. Pupulutin at itatapon sa bakanteng lote.
23. Alin sa mga sumusunod ang dapat na una mong gagawin?
A. paglilinis ng kisame C. paglilinis ng sahig
B. paglilinis ng dingding D. paglilinis ng bakuran
24. Ano ang dapat tandaan sa paggamit ng mga de kuryenteng kagamitan upang maiwasan ang sakuna?
A. Tiyaking tuyo ang mga kamay bago isaksak at bunutin ang plug sa outlet.
B. Basahin ang panuto kung paano ita gagamitin.
C. Hayaan itong nakabukas kahit tapos ng gamitin.
D. Tanggalin sa saksakan ang kawad.
25. Nagkalat ang basura sa inyong bahay, ano ang gagawin mo?
A. Ipunin lahat at ibalot sa plastic.
B. Ilagay sa basurahan at hintayin ang trak na kukuha nito.
C. Ihiwalay ang nabubulok sa di-nabubulok at ibaon sa compost pit ang nabubulok.
D. Paghalu-haluin ang mga basura at sunugin ang mga ito.
tuyong basahan binubunot dahan-dahan floor polisher
pababa pandakot bunot sulok
walis ting-ting mop
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(#1) LAGUMANG PAGSUSULIT SA
E.P.P – IV
ENTERPTENEURSHIP
UNANG MARKAHAN
Pangalan: __________________________________ Petsa: _____________ Iskor: _________
I :Basahin at unawaing mabuti ang mga katanungan. Piliin ang titik ng tamang sagot at isulat sa patlang.
______ 1. Ito ay mga wastong pangangasiwa ng tindahan maliban sa alin?
a. Tiyaking malinaw ang pagkakasulat ng presyo ng paninda
b. Magbigay ng tamang sukli at pagkukuwenta ng binilhan
c. Maging matapat sa pakikipag-usap sa mamimili
d. Ayusin ang paninda ayon sa presyo
______ 2. Ang namamahala ng negosyo bilang isang entrepreneur ay handang ______.
a. makipagtalo b. makipagsapalaran c. magpautang d. mamigay
______ 3. Pinagbubukod-bukod ayon sa _______ ang mga itlog.
a. bigat b. itsura c. laki d. kinis o gaspang
______ 4. _______ ang tawag sa naglalako ng paninda sa iba’t-ibang lugar gaya ng magtataho, magsosorbetes atbp.
a. Tindahang semi-permanent c. Tindahang tingian
b.Tindang kooperatiba d.Tindahang di-permanent
______ 5.Ang pangunahing gawain ng negosyong nagbibigay serbisyong may __________ ay ang pagbigay ng
komportable at kasiya-siyang paglilingkod.
a. personal view b. personal like c. personal touch d. personal belongings
______ 6. Si _________ ang nagtatag ng Facebook, ang pinakasikat na social networking site na nag-umpisa sa Estados
Unidos.
a. Chen b. Sergey Brinn c. Mark Zuckerberg d. Chad Hurley
______ 7. Isang uri ng negosyo na naghahatid at sundo sa mga mga bata sa eskuwelahan.
a.Vulcanizing Shop b. School Bus Services c. Electrical Schop d. Home Carpentry
______ 8. Nagpapakilala ng mga bagong ______ sa pamilihan ang entrepreneur.
a. tao b. negosyo c. produkto d. teknololohiya
______ 9. Ang isang ______ ay isang indibidwal na nagsaayos, nangangasiwa, at nakikipagsapalaran sa isang
negosyo.
a. negosyante b. namumuhunan c. Entrepreneur d. nagtitinda
______ 10. Ito ay tumutukoy sa pagtupad ng ating gustong marating sa buhay.
a. Vision b. Estratehiya c. Pagtitiyaga d.Pagtitiwala sa Sarili
II. Paghambingin ang Hanay A at Hanay B. Isulat ang titik ng tamang sagot sa patlang.
Hanay A Hanay B
______1. Manny Villar a. San Miguel Corporation
_____2. Lucio Tan b. Pampanga’s Best
_____3. Socoro Ramos c. Aklatan
______4. Danding Cojuangco d. Zest-O Juice
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(#2) LAGUMANG PAGSUSULIT SA
E.P.P – IV
ENTERPTENEURSHIP
UNANG MARKAHAN
Pangalan: __________________________________ Petsa: _____________ Iskor: _________
I. Piliin at isulat ang titik ng tamang sagot.
1.Ang _______________ ay siyensya at arte ng pangangalakal ng mga bagay-bagay at paglilingkod na maaaring
makapag-paunlad sa kabuhayan ng isang tao.
a. Entrepreneur b. Entrepreneurship c. Businessman
2.Ang mga negosyante ay tinatawag din nating ______________
a. Enterpreneur b. Entrepreneurship c. Supervisor
3.Alin sa mga sumusunod ang maaaring ibenta ng por dosena o por trey ?
a. Gatas b. Manok c. Itlog
4.Ano ang nararapat sa mga karneng natira dahil hindi naubos sa pagtitinda?
a. Hayaan sa puwesto b. Itago sa palamigan c. Takpan na lamang
5.Alin sa mga sumusunod ang wastong paraan ng pagbebenta ng sariwang gatas?
a. Pinakukuluan bago ilagay sa malinis na bote c. Hindi sigurado kung may mikrobyo
b. Ipinagbibili nang naka- karton.
6.Ang mga karneng ibenebenta sa palengke ay dapat nasusuri ng mga _________.
a. Inspektor ng mga sasakyan b. inspektor sa mga pagawaan c. Inspektor pangkalusuagan
7.Alin sa mga sumusunod ang maaaring pagbukud-bukurin ayon sa laki bago ipagbili?
a. Itlog b. karne c. Manok
8.Ang tindahang ___________ o gumagala ay naglalako ng paninda sa iba’t-ibang lugar.
a. Semi –permanent b. Di permanent c. permanent
9.Anong uri ng serbisyo ang hindi iniaalok sa mga “Beauty Parlor ?”
a. Paglilinis ng mga kuko sa paa at kamay
b. Pagkukulot ng buhok
c. Pagsisilbi ng pagkain
10. Ang mga sumusunod ay mga salitang may “personal touch “na dapat taglayin ng isang nagpapahalaga sa negosyo
maliban sa isa. Ano ito?
a. Ma’am , naiwan po ninyo ang inyong pitaka. C. Hmmmp. Maghintay ka diyan!
b. Kamusta? Magandang umaga po.
II. Isulat ang T kung tama at M kung mali ang mga sumusunod na pangungusap.
______ 11. Ang isang negosyo ay dapat walang “personal touch” basta nasisilbihan ang mga mamimili.
______ 12. Kailangan sa negosyo ang pagbibigay ng serbisyong mabilis at nasa tamang oras.
______ 13. Sa pangangasiwa ng negosyo , hindi kailangan na may kasanayan at kaalaman sa proyektong ipinagbibili.
______ 14. Maaring magsimula ang isang negosyo kahit sa maliit na puhunan lamang.
______ 15. Hindi kailangan ang pagtitipid ng tubig at kuryente dahil wala itong kinalaman sa negosyo.
______ 16. Magbigay ng tamang sukli at pagkukwenta ng binilhan.
______ 17. Mas madaling maipagbili sa mataas na halaga ang mga produkto kung mataas ang uri ng mga ito.
______ 18. Mabibili sa mga tingiang tindahan ang mga produkto ng isahan o kaunting dami lamang.
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