Prepare for the IITJEE with past papers solved by the coaching experts at Sri Chaitanya Junior College. Set your sights on the IITJEE 2014 Entrance examinations. To know more - visit www.srichaitanya.net or call 040 66060606. You can also stay in touch with us at www.facebook.com/SriChaitanyaEducationalInstitutes
Prepare for the IITJEE with past papers solved by the coaching experts at Sri Chaitanya Junior College. Set your sights on the IITJEE 2014 Entrance examinations. To know more - visit www.srichaitanya.net or call 040 66060606. You can also stay in touch with us at www.facebook.com/SriChaitanyaEducationalInstitutes
This document contains solutions to 19 questions regarding vectors from a Class XII maths textbook. It defines scalar and vector quantities, discusses the properties of equal, collinear and coinitial vectors. It also covers finding the magnitude and direction cosines of vectors, adding vectors, and determining the relationship between vectors in triangles using position vectors. The key concepts covered are the classification of scalars and vectors, properties and relationships between different types of vectors, and applications of vectors to geometry.
Smu bsc it sem 1 fall 2014 solved assignmentssmumbahelp
Dear students get fully solved assignments
Send your semester & Specialization name to our mail id :
“ help.mbaassignments@gmail.com ”
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(Prefer mailing. Call in emergency )
This document contains a test with questions 31-90 from the subjects of mathematics and science. It provides multiple choice questions on topics like ratios, exponents, geometry, mensuration, statistics, and science concepts in physics, chemistry, and biology. Candidates must answer either the mathematics and science questions or the social studies/social science questions from another section.
1) The document contains instructions for the National Entrance Screening Test (NEST) exam administered in 2012. It provides details on the exam structure, timing, scoring, and instructions for filling out the answer sheet.
2) The exam consists of 5 sections - a compulsory general section and 4 subject sections (biology, chemistry, math, and physics). Students must choose 3 of the 4 subject sections.
3) Strict instructions are provided on prohibited materials, matching question booklet and answer sheet codes, writing on the answer sheet, and correctly filling bubble responses.
The document is about Euclid's geometry from a Class IX math textbook. It includes definitions of terms like parallel lines, perpendicular lines, and segments. It also contains several proofs, such as proving a line segment has only one midpoint and that parallel lines are equidistant. The document tests understanding of Euclid's postulates and axioms through exercises asking students to rewrite the fifth postulate and explain implications of it.
Dear Students/Parents
APEX INSTITUTE has been established with sincere and positive resolve to do something rewarding for ENGG. / PRE-MEDICAL aspirants. For this the APEX INSTITUTE has been instituted to provide a relentlessly motivating and competitive atmosphere.
We at 'Apex Institute' are committed to provide our students best quality education with ethics. Moving in this direction, we have decided that unlike other expensive and 5star facility type institutes who are huge investors and advertisers, we shall not invest huge amount of money in advertisements. It shall rather be invested on the betterment, enhancement of quality and resources at our center.
We are just looking forward to have 'word-of-mouth' publicity instead. Because, there is only a satisfied student and his/her parents can judge an institute's quality and it's faculty members coaching.
Those coaching institutes, who are investing highly on advertisements, are actually, wasting their money on it, in a sense. Rather, the money should be invested on highly experienced faculty members and on teaching gears.
We all at 'Apex' are taking this initiative to improve the quality of education along-with each student's development and growth.
Committed to excellence...
With best wishes.
S . Iqbal
( Motivator & Mentor)
Prepare for the IITJEE with past papers solved by the coaching experts at Sri Chaitanya Junior College. Set your sights on the IITJEE 2014 Entrance examinations. To know more - visit www.srichaitanya.net or call 040 66060606. You can also stay in touch with us at www.facebook.com/SriChaitanyaEducationalInstitutes
This document contains solutions to 19 questions regarding vectors from a Class XII maths textbook. It defines scalar and vector quantities, discusses the properties of equal, collinear and coinitial vectors. It also covers finding the magnitude and direction cosines of vectors, adding vectors, and determining the relationship between vectors in triangles using position vectors. The key concepts covered are the classification of scalars and vectors, properties and relationships between different types of vectors, and applications of vectors to geometry.
Smu bsc it sem 1 fall 2014 solved assignmentssmumbahelp
Dear students get fully solved assignments
Send your semester & Specialization name to our mail id :
“ help.mbaassignments@gmail.com ”
or
Call us at : 08263069601
(Prefer mailing. Call in emergency )
This document contains a test with questions 31-90 from the subjects of mathematics and science. It provides multiple choice questions on topics like ratios, exponents, geometry, mensuration, statistics, and science concepts in physics, chemistry, and biology. Candidates must answer either the mathematics and science questions or the social studies/social science questions from another section.
1) The document contains instructions for the National Entrance Screening Test (NEST) exam administered in 2012. It provides details on the exam structure, timing, scoring, and instructions for filling out the answer sheet.
2) The exam consists of 5 sections - a compulsory general section and 4 subject sections (biology, chemistry, math, and physics). Students must choose 3 of the 4 subject sections.
3) Strict instructions are provided on prohibited materials, matching question booklet and answer sheet codes, writing on the answer sheet, and correctly filling bubble responses.
The document is about Euclid's geometry from a Class IX math textbook. It includes definitions of terms like parallel lines, perpendicular lines, and segments. It also contains several proofs, such as proving a line segment has only one midpoint and that parallel lines are equidistant. The document tests understanding of Euclid's postulates and axioms through exercises asking students to rewrite the fifth postulate and explain implications of it.
Dear Students/Parents
APEX INSTITUTE has been established with sincere and positive resolve to do something rewarding for ENGG. / PRE-MEDICAL aspirants. For this the APEX INSTITUTE has been instituted to provide a relentlessly motivating and competitive atmosphere.
We at 'Apex Institute' are committed to provide our students best quality education with ethics. Moving in this direction, we have decided that unlike other expensive and 5star facility type institutes who are huge investors and advertisers, we shall not invest huge amount of money in advertisements. It shall rather be invested on the betterment, enhancement of quality and resources at our center.
We are just looking forward to have 'word-of-mouth' publicity instead. Because, there is only a satisfied student and his/her parents can judge an institute's quality and it's faculty members coaching.
Those coaching institutes, who are investing highly on advertisements, are actually, wasting their money on it, in a sense. Rather, the money should be invested on highly experienced faculty members and on teaching gears.
We all at 'Apex' are taking this initiative to improve the quality of education along-with each student's development and growth.
Committed to excellence...
With best wishes.
S . Iqbal
( Motivator & Mentor)
IIT JEE 2013 Solved Paper by Prabhat GauravSahil Gaurav
The document provides information about the JEE Advanced 2013 exam, including sample questions from Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics. It outlines the format and structure of the exam, with three main sections. Section 1 contains multiple choice questions where one or more options may be correct. Section 2 has questions related to paragraphs describing concepts, and each question has a single correct answer. Section 3 also contains multiple choice questions related to paragraphs. The document provides examples of questions asked in previous JEE Advanced exams to help students prepare.
The document provides instructions for a physics exam. It specifies that the exam booklet contains questions in three parts: Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics. Each part contains three sections. Section 1 contains multiple choice questions where one or more answers are correct. Section 2 contains paragraphs with two multiple choice questions per paragraph. Section 3 also contains multiple choice questions related to paragraphs. The marking scheme awards points for correctly answering questions and deducts points for incorrect answers. The document also provides an example exam paper following this format and structure.
IIT JEE 2013 Solved Paper by Prabhat GauravSahil Gaurav
1. The document provides information about the JEE Advanced 2013 exam paper, including instructions, format, and marking scheme. It provides sample questions from Physics, Chemistry, and Math sections.
2. Several questions are marked with an asterisk, indicating they are from class 11 topics and can be attempted as a practice test within allocated time limits.
3. The paper contains three sections - multiple choice with single correct answer, multiple choice with one or more correct answers, and questions with a single digit integer answer.
This document provides instructions for a mechanical engineering exam. It specifies that the exam contains 65 multiple choice questions worth 100 marks. Questions 1-25 are worth 1 mark each, questions 26-55 are worth 2 marks each, and questions 56-65 in the general aptitude section are worth 1 or 2 marks depending on the question. The document provides details on how to fill out the answer sheet, how marks will be awarded and deducted, and exam policies regarding calculators, rough work, and start time.
IIT JEE 2012 Solved Paper by Prabhat GauravSahil Gaurav
The document provides instructions for a question paper for the IIT-JEE 2012 exam. It discusses:
1. General instructions including not separating the question booklet from the answer sheet, no additional materials allowed, and how to fill out personal details on the answer sheet.
2. The question paper format which includes 3 parts (Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics) with each part having 3 sections - Section I has 8 single answer multiple choice questions, Section II has 3 paragraphs with 2 questions each on single answers, and Section III has 6 questions where one or more answers are correct.
3. The marking scheme which awards 3 marks for a correct single answer, 0 marks for an incorrect or no answer, and
IIt Jee advanced-2014 Solved Paper by Prabhat GauravSahil Gaurav
1. The document provides instructions for a test being administered by FIITJEE Ltd. It details logistical information like the testing location, timing, and materials allowed or prohibited during the exam.
2. Test-takers are instructed to fill in answers on an optical response sheet, bubbling in the appropriate circles corresponding to their responses. They must write their personal details like name and roll number on the response sheet as well.
3. The question paper contains three parts (physics, chemistry, and math) with each part split into two sections. Section 1 contains multiple choice questions where one or more options can be correct, while Section 2 contains single-digit answer questions from 0-9.
IIT JEE 2012 Solved Paper by Prabhat GauravSahil Gaurav
The document provides instructions for a multiple choice exam paper. It details:
1) General instructions for the exam including not using additional materials and filling out answer sheets.
2) The exam format which includes 3 sections - multiple choice, multiple answer multiple choice, and single digit answer questions.
3) The marking scheme which awards points differently based on the question type and correctness of answers.
The document provides instructions for correctly filling out an OMR answer sheet for a postgraduate entrance exam. It details that test-takers should:
1) Shade in their registration number and the question booklet details (serial number and version code) in the appropriate circles on the answer sheet.
2) Choose one answer for each multiple choice question and fully darken the corresponding circle on the answer sheet in blue or black ink within the allotted time.
3) Not damage or mark up the timing, marks or other printed areas on the answer sheet.
1) The document is a question booklet for a mechanical engineering exam containing 65 multiple choice questions worth a total of 100 marks.
2) It provides instructions for candidates on how to fill the answer sheet, details on the marking scheme and distribution of questions.
3) The questions cover topics in mechanical engineering as well as a general aptitude section worth a total of 15 marks.
- The document is the instruction sheet for a mechanical engineering exam.
- It provides instructions on the exam format, including that there are 65 total questions worth 100 marks. Questions 1-25 are 1 mark each, questions 26-55 are 2 marks each, and questions 56-65 are worth 1 or 2 marks each depending on the question.
- Instructions are given on how to fill out the answer sheet, including bubbling in answers, handling different types of questions, and that incorrect answers receive negative marks.
This document provides instructions for a physics exam. It describes the format and sections of the exam paper. Section 1 contains multiple choice questions with one or more correct answers. Section 2 contains paragraphs followed by related questions, each with a single correct answer. Section 3 has multiple choice questions with matching lists. The marking scheme awards marks for correct answers and deducts marks for incorrect answers. The document then provides sample exam questions in physics.
Prepare for the IITJEE with past papers solved by the coaching experts at Sri Chaitanya Junior College. Set your sights on the IITJEE 2014 Entrance examinations. To know more - visit www.srichaitanya.net or call 040 66060606. You can also stay in touch with us at www.facebook.com/SriChaitanyaEducationalInstitutes
The document provides instructions for a GATE exam. It states that the exam is 3 hours long and contains questions worth 1 or 2 marks. It provides details on how answers should be marked on the answer sheet, notes on calculators and rough work, and information that negative marks will be given for incorrect answers. The instructions emphasize accurately filling out identification details on the answer sheet and carefully reading the entire paper.
The document provides information about Section 1 of the JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 2 exam for physics. It includes:
- Section 1 contains 6 multiple choice questions with one or more correct options.
- The marking scheme awards full marks for selecting only the correct options, partial marks for selecting some but not all correct options, and negative marks for incorrect selections.
- An example is given to illustrate the marking scheme.
So in summary, the document outlines the format and scoring details for the multiple choice section of the JEE (Advanced) physics exam. It provides guidance on selecting answer options and how points will be awarded.
Class 11th & 12th Physics, Chemistry & Mathematics exam paper to practice for preparation of JEE Advanced 2019 exam by expert faculty. This is previous year paper on JEE Advanced exam. You can download free from https://bit.ly/2Peumhs
Prepare for the IITJEE with past papers solved by the coaching experts at Sri Chaitanya Junior College. Set your sights on the IITJEE 2014 Entrance examinations. To know more - visit www.srichaitanya.net or call 040 66060606. You can also stay in touch with us at www.facebook.com/SriChaitanyaEducationalInstitutes
1. The document is a booklet containing solutions to questions from the JEE (Advanced) 2013 exam. It provides instructions for taking the exam, details on the exam format and marking scheme, and sample questions with solutions.
2. The exam consists of three parts (Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics) with three sections each. Section 1 has 10 multiple choice questions with a single correct answer. Section 2 has 5 questions with one or more correct answers. Section 3 has 5 questions where the answer is a single digit integer.
3. The document provides sample questions from the Physics portion of the exam, marked with an asterisk. The questions cover topics like mechanics, optics, heat transfer, and thermodynamics.
This document provides instructions for a post graduate common entrance test being administered on August 8, 2015. It details the date, time, subjects covered, maximum marks, duration allowed, and instructions that candidates must follow. The test contains 75 multiple choice questions across various sections. Candidates are provided with a question booklet and OMR answer sheet and must fill in personal details correctly on the answer sheet. They have 120 minutes to complete the test. The document outlines dos and don'ts and provides important guidelines regarding marking answers, calculator usage, and handing in the answer sheet.
The document provides instructions for a JEE Advanced exam paper. It details the format and structure of the exam, including three sections in physics, chemistry, and math. Section 1 has 8 single-digit answer questions worth +4 points for correct answers. Section 2 has 8 multiple choice questions worth +4 for fully correct, 0 for unattempted, and -2 for incorrect answers. Section 3 has 2 paragraph-style questions each with multiple choice answers graded the same as Section 2.
Gate 2013 computer science and information technology previous year paperLokesh Kataria
The document provides instructions for a computer science and information technology exam. It details that the exam is 3 hours, contains 65 multiple choice questions worth 100 marks, and includes sections on computer science and general aptitude. Instructions are provided on filling out the optical response sheet, types of questions, marking scheme, and materials allowed.
Questions and Answer key for the Botany, Zoology, Physics, Chemistry Medical Code A, Medical Code B, Medical Code C and Medical Code D papers solved by the coaching experts at Sri Chaitanya. Set your sights on the EAMCET, AIIMS and other Medical Entrance exams and start your test preps for 2014 and 2015 entrance examinations. To know more - visit www.srichaitanya.net or call 040 66060606. You can also stay in touch with us at www.facebook.com/SriChaitanyaEducationalInstitutes
Answer key for the AIEEE Code A PCM, Code B - PCM, Code C - PCM and Code D - PCM papers solved by the coaching experts at Sri Chaitanya. Set your sights on the IITJEE, AIEEE Entrance exams and start your test preps for IITJEE Physics, IITJEE Chemistry and IITJEE Maths today for the IITJEE 2014 and 2015 entrance examinations
IIT JEE 2013 Solved Paper by Prabhat GauravSahil Gaurav
The document provides information about the JEE Advanced 2013 exam, including sample questions from Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics. It outlines the format and structure of the exam, with three main sections. Section 1 contains multiple choice questions where one or more options may be correct. Section 2 has questions related to paragraphs describing concepts, and each question has a single correct answer. Section 3 also contains multiple choice questions related to paragraphs. The document provides examples of questions asked in previous JEE Advanced exams to help students prepare.
The document provides instructions for a physics exam. It specifies that the exam booklet contains questions in three parts: Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics. Each part contains three sections. Section 1 contains multiple choice questions where one or more answers are correct. Section 2 contains paragraphs with two multiple choice questions per paragraph. Section 3 also contains multiple choice questions related to paragraphs. The marking scheme awards points for correctly answering questions and deducts points for incorrect answers. The document also provides an example exam paper following this format and structure.
IIT JEE 2013 Solved Paper by Prabhat GauravSahil Gaurav
1. The document provides information about the JEE Advanced 2013 exam paper, including instructions, format, and marking scheme. It provides sample questions from Physics, Chemistry, and Math sections.
2. Several questions are marked with an asterisk, indicating they are from class 11 topics and can be attempted as a practice test within allocated time limits.
3. The paper contains three sections - multiple choice with single correct answer, multiple choice with one or more correct answers, and questions with a single digit integer answer.
This document provides instructions for a mechanical engineering exam. It specifies that the exam contains 65 multiple choice questions worth 100 marks. Questions 1-25 are worth 1 mark each, questions 26-55 are worth 2 marks each, and questions 56-65 in the general aptitude section are worth 1 or 2 marks depending on the question. The document provides details on how to fill out the answer sheet, how marks will be awarded and deducted, and exam policies regarding calculators, rough work, and start time.
IIT JEE 2012 Solved Paper by Prabhat GauravSahil Gaurav
The document provides instructions for a question paper for the IIT-JEE 2012 exam. It discusses:
1. General instructions including not separating the question booklet from the answer sheet, no additional materials allowed, and how to fill out personal details on the answer sheet.
2. The question paper format which includes 3 parts (Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics) with each part having 3 sections - Section I has 8 single answer multiple choice questions, Section II has 3 paragraphs with 2 questions each on single answers, and Section III has 6 questions where one or more answers are correct.
3. The marking scheme which awards 3 marks for a correct single answer, 0 marks for an incorrect or no answer, and
IIt Jee advanced-2014 Solved Paper by Prabhat GauravSahil Gaurav
1. The document provides instructions for a test being administered by FIITJEE Ltd. It details logistical information like the testing location, timing, and materials allowed or prohibited during the exam.
2. Test-takers are instructed to fill in answers on an optical response sheet, bubbling in the appropriate circles corresponding to their responses. They must write their personal details like name and roll number on the response sheet as well.
3. The question paper contains three parts (physics, chemistry, and math) with each part split into two sections. Section 1 contains multiple choice questions where one or more options can be correct, while Section 2 contains single-digit answer questions from 0-9.
IIT JEE 2012 Solved Paper by Prabhat GauravSahil Gaurav
The document provides instructions for a multiple choice exam paper. It details:
1) General instructions for the exam including not using additional materials and filling out answer sheets.
2) The exam format which includes 3 sections - multiple choice, multiple answer multiple choice, and single digit answer questions.
3) The marking scheme which awards points differently based on the question type and correctness of answers.
The document provides instructions for correctly filling out an OMR answer sheet for a postgraduate entrance exam. It details that test-takers should:
1) Shade in their registration number and the question booklet details (serial number and version code) in the appropriate circles on the answer sheet.
2) Choose one answer for each multiple choice question and fully darken the corresponding circle on the answer sheet in blue or black ink within the allotted time.
3) Not damage or mark up the timing, marks or other printed areas on the answer sheet.
1) The document is a question booklet for a mechanical engineering exam containing 65 multiple choice questions worth a total of 100 marks.
2) It provides instructions for candidates on how to fill the answer sheet, details on the marking scheme and distribution of questions.
3) The questions cover topics in mechanical engineering as well as a general aptitude section worth a total of 15 marks.
- The document is the instruction sheet for a mechanical engineering exam.
- It provides instructions on the exam format, including that there are 65 total questions worth 100 marks. Questions 1-25 are 1 mark each, questions 26-55 are 2 marks each, and questions 56-65 are worth 1 or 2 marks each depending on the question.
- Instructions are given on how to fill out the answer sheet, including bubbling in answers, handling different types of questions, and that incorrect answers receive negative marks.
This document provides instructions for a physics exam. It describes the format and sections of the exam paper. Section 1 contains multiple choice questions with one or more correct answers. Section 2 contains paragraphs followed by related questions, each with a single correct answer. Section 3 has multiple choice questions with matching lists. The marking scheme awards marks for correct answers and deducts marks for incorrect answers. The document then provides sample exam questions in physics.
Prepare for the IITJEE with past papers solved by the coaching experts at Sri Chaitanya Junior College. Set your sights on the IITJEE 2014 Entrance examinations. To know more - visit www.srichaitanya.net or call 040 66060606. You can also stay in touch with us at www.facebook.com/SriChaitanyaEducationalInstitutes
The document provides instructions for a GATE exam. It states that the exam is 3 hours long and contains questions worth 1 or 2 marks. It provides details on how answers should be marked on the answer sheet, notes on calculators and rough work, and information that negative marks will be given for incorrect answers. The instructions emphasize accurately filling out identification details on the answer sheet and carefully reading the entire paper.
The document provides information about Section 1 of the JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 2 exam for physics. It includes:
- Section 1 contains 6 multiple choice questions with one or more correct options.
- The marking scheme awards full marks for selecting only the correct options, partial marks for selecting some but not all correct options, and negative marks for incorrect selections.
- An example is given to illustrate the marking scheme.
So in summary, the document outlines the format and scoring details for the multiple choice section of the JEE (Advanced) physics exam. It provides guidance on selecting answer options and how points will be awarded.
Class 11th & 12th Physics, Chemistry & Mathematics exam paper to practice for preparation of JEE Advanced 2019 exam by expert faculty. This is previous year paper on JEE Advanced exam. You can download free from https://bit.ly/2Peumhs
Prepare for the IITJEE with past papers solved by the coaching experts at Sri Chaitanya Junior College. Set your sights on the IITJEE 2014 Entrance examinations. To know more - visit www.srichaitanya.net or call 040 66060606. You can also stay in touch with us at www.facebook.com/SriChaitanyaEducationalInstitutes
1. The document is a booklet containing solutions to questions from the JEE (Advanced) 2013 exam. It provides instructions for taking the exam, details on the exam format and marking scheme, and sample questions with solutions.
2. The exam consists of three parts (Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics) with three sections each. Section 1 has 10 multiple choice questions with a single correct answer. Section 2 has 5 questions with one or more correct answers. Section 3 has 5 questions where the answer is a single digit integer.
3. The document provides sample questions from the Physics portion of the exam, marked with an asterisk. The questions cover topics like mechanics, optics, heat transfer, and thermodynamics.
This document provides instructions for a post graduate common entrance test being administered on August 8, 2015. It details the date, time, subjects covered, maximum marks, duration allowed, and instructions that candidates must follow. The test contains 75 multiple choice questions across various sections. Candidates are provided with a question booklet and OMR answer sheet and must fill in personal details correctly on the answer sheet. They have 120 minutes to complete the test. The document outlines dos and don'ts and provides important guidelines regarding marking answers, calculator usage, and handing in the answer sheet.
The document provides instructions for a JEE Advanced exam paper. It details the format and structure of the exam, including three sections in physics, chemistry, and math. Section 1 has 8 single-digit answer questions worth +4 points for correct answers. Section 2 has 8 multiple choice questions worth +4 for fully correct, 0 for unattempted, and -2 for incorrect answers. Section 3 has 2 paragraph-style questions each with multiple choice answers graded the same as Section 2.
Gate 2013 computer science and information technology previous year paperLokesh Kataria
The document provides instructions for a computer science and information technology exam. It details that the exam is 3 hours, contains 65 multiple choice questions worth 100 marks, and includes sections on computer science and general aptitude. Instructions are provided on filling out the optical response sheet, types of questions, marking scheme, and materials allowed.
Questions and Answer key for the Botany, Zoology, Physics, Chemistry Medical Code A, Medical Code B, Medical Code C and Medical Code D papers solved by the coaching experts at Sri Chaitanya. Set your sights on the EAMCET, AIIMS and other Medical Entrance exams and start your test preps for 2014 and 2015 entrance examinations. To know more - visit www.srichaitanya.net or call 040 66060606. You can also stay in touch with us at www.facebook.com/SriChaitanyaEducationalInstitutes
Answer key for the AIEEE Code A PCM, Code B - PCM, Code C - PCM and Code D - PCM papers solved by the coaching experts at Sri Chaitanya. Set your sights on the IITJEE, AIEEE Entrance exams and start your test preps for IITJEE Physics, IITJEE Chemistry and IITJEE Maths today for the IITJEE 2014 and 2015 entrance examinations
Answer key for the AIEEE Code A PCM, Code B - PCM, Code C - PCM and Code D - PCM papers solved by the coaching experts at Sri Chaitanya. Set your sights on the IITJEE, AIEEE Entrance exams and start your test preps for IITJEE Physics, IITJEE Chemistry and IITJEE Maths today for the IITJEE 2014 and 2015 entrance examinations
Este documento proporciona la clave de respuestas para un examen de ingeniería de 2012 en matemáticas, física y química. Contiene 160 preguntas de opción múltiple con sus respectivas respuestas enumeradas del 1 al 4.
Solutions for the IITJEE papers solved by the coaching experts at Sri Chaitanya. Set your sights on the IITJEE, AIEEE Entrance exams and start your test preps for IITJEE Physics, IITJEE Chemistry and IITJEE Maths today for the IITJEE 2014 and 2015 entrance examinations
Solutions for the IITJEE Entrance Papers solved by the coaching experts at Sri Chaitanya. Set your sights on the IITJEE, AIEEE Entrance exams and start your test preps for IITJEE Physics, IITJEE Chemistry and IITJEE Maths today for the IITJEE 2014 and 2015 entrance examinations
Answer key with detailed explanations for the AIEEE Code A PCM, Code B - PCM, Code C - PCM and Code D - PCM papers solved by the coaching experts at Sri Chaitanya. Set your sights on the IITJEE, AIEEE Entrance exams and start your test preps for IITJEE Physics, IITJEE Chemistry and IITJEE Maths today for the IITJEE 2014 and 2015 entrance examinations
This document provides answers and solutions to physics, chemistry, and mathematics questions for an AIEEE exam from 2010. It includes 10 multi-part chemistry questions with explanations of the answers. The questions cover topics such as ionization constants, solubility products, ionic radii, chemical reactions, phase equilibria, spectroscopy, and organic compound analysis.
Answer key for the AIEEE Code A PCM, Code B - PCM, Code C - PCM and Code D - PCM papers solved by the coaching experts at Sri Chaitanya. Set your sights on the IITJEE, AIEEE Entrance exams and start your test preps for IITJEE Physics, IITJEE Chemistry and IITJEE Maths today for the IITJEE 2014 and 2015 entrance examinations
Prepare for the IITJEE with past papers solved by the coaching experts at Sri Chaitanya Junior College. Set your sights on the IITJEE Entrance examinations. To know more - visit www.srichaitanya.net or call 040 66060606. You can also stay in touch with us at www.facebook.com/SriChaitanyaEducationalInstitutes
Prepare for the IITJEE with past papers solved by the coaching experts at Sri Chaitanya Junior College. Set your sights on the IITJEE 2014 Entrance examinations. To know more - visit www.srichaitanya.net or call 040 66060606. You can also stay in touch with us at www.facebook.com/SriChaitanyaEducationalInstitutes
This document provides the key and solutions to questions from the AIEEE 2012 B.Tech exam for the mathematics section. It contains 19 multiple choice questions related to topics in mathematics like trigonometry, calculus, sequences and series, probability, and functions. Each question is followed by the answer and a brief explanation of the solution steps. The document is intended to help students understand the concepts tested in the exam and check their work.
LAND USE LAND COVER AND NDVI OF MIRZAPUR DISTRICT, UPRAHUL
This Dissertation explores the particular circumstances of Mirzapur, a region located in the
core of India. Mirzapur, with its varied terrains and abundant biodiversity, offers an optimal
environment for investigating the changes in vegetation cover dynamics. Our study utilizes
advanced technologies such as GIS (Geographic Information Systems) and Remote sensing to
analyze the transformations that have taken place over the course of a decade.
The complex relationship between human activities and the environment has been the focus
of extensive research and worry. As the global community grapples with swift urbanization,
population expansion, and economic progress, the effects on natural ecosystems are becoming
more evident. A crucial element of this impact is the alteration of vegetation cover, which plays a
significant role in maintaining the ecological equilibrium of our planet.Land serves as the foundation for all human activities and provides the necessary materials for
these activities. As the most crucial natural resource, its utilization by humans results in different
'Land uses,' which are determined by both human activities and the physical characteristics of the
land.
The utilization of land is impacted by human needs and environmental factors. In countries
like India, rapid population growth and the emphasis on extensive resource exploitation can lead
to significant land degradation, adversely affecting the region's land cover.
Therefore, human intervention has significantly influenced land use patterns over many
centuries, evolving its structure over time and space. In the present era, these changes have
accelerated due to factors such as agriculture and urbanization. Information regarding land use and
cover is essential for various planning and management tasks related to the Earth's surface,
providing crucial environmental data for scientific, resource management, policy purposes, and
diverse human activities.
Accurate understanding of land use and cover is imperative for the development planning
of any area. Consequently, a wide range of professionals, including earth system scientists, land
and water managers, and urban planners, are interested in obtaining data on land use and cover
changes, conversion trends, and other related patterns. The spatial dimensions of land use and
cover support policymakers and scientists in making well-informed decisions, as alterations in
these patterns indicate shifts in economic and social conditions. Monitoring such changes with the
help of Advanced technologies like Remote Sensing and Geographic Information Systems is
crucial for coordinated efforts across different administrative levels. Advanced technologies like
Remote Sensing and Geographic Information Systems
9
Changes in vegetation cover refer to variations in the distribution, composition, and overall
structure of plant communities across different temporal and spatial scales. These changes can
occur natural.
Beyond Degrees - Empowering the Workforce in the Context of Skills-First.pptxEduSkills OECD
Iván Bornacelly, Policy Analyst at the OECD Centre for Skills, OECD, presents at the webinar 'Tackling job market gaps with a skills-first approach' on 12 June 2024
Leveraging Generative AI to Drive Nonprofit InnovationTechSoup
In this webinar, participants learned how to utilize Generative AI to streamline operations and elevate member engagement. Amazon Web Service experts provided a customer specific use cases and dived into low/no-code tools that are quick and easy to deploy through Amazon Web Service (AWS.)
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How to Setup Warehouse & Location in Odoo 17 InventoryCeline George
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In Odoo, making a field required can be done through both Python code and XML views. When you set the required attribute to True in Python code, it makes the field required across all views where it's used. Conversely, when you set the required attribute in XML views, it makes the field required only in the context of that particular view.
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This document provides an overview of wound healing, its functions, stages, mechanisms, factors affecting it, and complications.
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Main Java[All of the Base Concepts}.docxadhitya5119
This is part 1 of my Java Learning Journey. This Contains Custom methods, classes, constructors, packages, multithreading , try- catch block, finally block and more.
2. 2013 JEE-ADVANCED_P2_Code::1 QPaper with & Key &
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IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS: CODE :1
A. General:
* This booklet is your Question Paper. Do not break the seals of this booklet before being instructed to do
so by the invigilators.
* The question paper CODE is printed on the right hand top corner of this sheet and on the back page
(Page No.44) of this booklet.
* Blank spaces and blank pages are provided in the question paper for your rough work. No additional
sheets will be provided for rough work.
* Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cameras, cellular phones, pagers and elec-
tronic gadgets are NOT allowed inside the examinatioin hall.
* Write your name and roll number in the space provided on the back cover of this booklet.
* Answers to the questions and personal details are to be filled on a two-part carbon-less paper, which is
provided separately. These parts should only be separated at the end of the examination when in-
structed by the invigilator. The upper sheet is a machine-gradable Objective Response Sheet (ORS)
which will be retained by the invigilator. You will be allowed to take away the bottom sheet at the end of
the examination.
* Using a black ball point pen darken the bubbles on the upper original sheet. Apply sufficient pressure so
that the impression is created on the bottom duplicate sheet.
* DO NOT TAMPER WITH/MUTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET.
* On breaking the seals of the booklet check that it contains 44 pages and all the 60 questions and
corresponding answer choices are legible. Read carefully the instruction printed at the beginning of
each section.
* B. Filling the right part of the ORS
The ORS also has a CODE printed on its left and right parts.
* Check that the CODE printed on the ORS (on both sheets) is the same as that on this booklet and put your
signature affirming that you have verified this.
* IF THE CODES DO NOT MATCH, ASK FOR A CHANGE OF THE BOOKLET.
Write your Name, Rol No. and the name of centre and sign with pen in the boxes provided on the right
part of ORS. Do not write any of this anywhere else. Darken the appropriate bubble UNDER each digit
of your Roll No. in such a way that the impression is created on the bottom sheet.
C. Question Paper Format
The question paper consisits of three parts ( Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics). Each part consists of
three sections.
Section 1 contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of
which ONE or MORE are correct
Section 2 contains 4 paragraphs each describing theory, experiment, data etc. Eight questions relate to
four paragraph with two question on each paragraph. Each question of a paragraph has ONLY ONE
correct answer among the four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D).
Section 3 Contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has matching lists. The codes for the lists
have choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
D. Marking Scheme
For each question in section 1, you wil be awarded 3 marks if you darken all the bubble(s) corresponding
to only the correct answer(s) and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. In all other cases, minus one (-
1) mark will be awarded.
For each question Section 2 and 3, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble correspond-
ing to only the correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. In all other cases, minus one
(-1) mark will be awarded.
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PART-I_PHYSICS
Section-1
(One or more options correct type)
This section contains 8 Multiple Choice questions. Each Question has Four choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D). Out of Which One or MORE are correct
01. Using the expression 2dsin , one calculates thevalues of d by measuring the corre-
sponding angles in therange 0 to 900
. Thewavelength is exactly known and the error in
is constant for all values of . As increases from 00
A) the absolute error in d remains constant.
B) the absolute error in d increases
C) the fractional error in d remains constant
D) the fractional error in d decreases.
Ans : D
Sol. 2dsin d sin constant K
d cos d sin dd 0
d d tan dd
Fractional error in d is
dd d
d tan
d constant (given). tan increases with increase in the above fraction decreases.
Again d tan dd
2sin
Absolute error in d is
2
d cos
dd
2sin
d and are constant (given). Clearly dd decreases with increase in .
02. Two non-conducting spheres of radii R1
and R2
and carrying uniform volume charge densi-
ties and respectively, are placed such that they partially overlap, as showin in the
figure. At all points in the overlapping region.
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A) the electrostatic field is zero
B) the electrostatic potential is constant
C) the electrostatic field is constant in magnitude
D) the electrostatic field has same direction.
Ans : C,D
Sol. At P, due to 1st sphere, 1 1
0
E r
3
due to 2nd sphere, 2 2
0
E r
3
P 1 2 1 2
0 0
E E E r r x
3 3
PE is independent of 1r or 2r but depends upon constant vector x .
E = constant V is variable.
03. The figure below shows the variation of specific heat capacity(C) of a solid as a function of
temperature (T).The temperature is increased continuously from 0 to 500 K at a constant
rate. Ignoring any volume change, the following statement(s) is (are) correct to a reason-
able approximation.
A) the rate at which heat is absorbed in the range 0-100 K varies linearly with temperature
T
B) heat absorbed in increasing the temperature from 0-100 K is less than the heat required
for increasing the temperature from 400-500K
C) there is no change in the rate of heat absorption in the range 400-500K
D) the rate of heat absirption increases in the range 200-300K
Ans : B,C,D
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Sol. Rate of heat absorption
dQ
R
dt
dT
R mC
dt
dT
dt
is constant R C
From T = 0 to T = 100K. The graph is not a straight line passing through origin.
c and hence R does not vary linearly with T
dQ m CdT
Q = m[area under C - T graph]
Q area.
From graph, the area from0 to 100 K is less than the area from400 to 500 K. Hence option
B is correct
From 400K to 500K, C and hence R is constant.
From 200K to 300K, C and hence R increases.
04. The radius of the orbit of an electron in a Hydrogen-like atom is 4.5 0 , where 0 is the
Bohr radius. Its orbital angular momentum is
3h
2
. It is given that h is Planck constant and R
is Rydbergconstant.The possible wavelength(s), when the atom de-excites, is(are)
A)
9
32R
B)
9
16R
C)
9
5R
D)
4
3R
Ans:A,C
Sol. Radius of nth orbit
2
n 0
n
r a
Z
2 2
0 0
n n
4.5a a 4.5 1
Z Z
nh 3h
n 3 2
2 1
Substituting (2) in (1), Z = 2
From Ridberg’s equation,
2
2 2
1 2
1 1 1
RZ
n n
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n = 3 to 1 transition :- 1
1
1 1 9
4R 1
9 32R
n = 3 to 2 transition :- 2
2
1 1 1 9
4R
4 9 5R
n = 2 to 1 transition :- 3
3
1 1
4R 1 3R
4
05. Two bodies, each of mass M, are kept fixed with a separation 2L. A particle of mass m is
projected from the midpoint of the line joining their centres, perpendicular to the line. The
gravitational constant is G. The correct statement(s) is (are)
A) The minimum initial velocity of the mass m to escape the gravitational field of the two
bodoies is
GM
4
L
B) The minimum initial velocity of the mass m to escape the gravitational field of the two
bodies is
GM
2
L
C) The minimum initial velocity of the mass m to escape the gravitational field of the two
bodies is
2GM
L
D) The energy of the mass m remains constant
A ns : B,D or B
Sol. W KE
2GMm 1 GM
2 mv v 2
L 2 2
If t he gravitational PE of system of M,M and m is considered as P.E of m itself, (which is
reasonable only when m <<M)
Total energy of m can be taken as constant.
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06. A particle of mass m is attached to one end of a mass-less spring of force constant k, lying
on a frictionless horizontal plane. The other end of the spring is fixed. The particle starts
movinghorizontallyfrom itsequilibrium positionat timet =0 withan initialvelocity u0
.When
the speed of the particle is 0.5 u0
, it collides elastically with a rigid wall. After this colli-
sion,
A) the speed of the particle when it returns to its equilibrium position is u0
B) the time at which the particle passes through the equilibrium position for the first time is
m
t
k
C) the time at which the maximum compression of the spring occurs is
4 m
t
3 k
.
D) the time at which the particle passes through the equilibrium position for the second
time is
5 m
t
3 k
Ans:A,D
Sol. O toA : 0v u cos wt
0
0
u 2 t 2 t T
u cos t
2 T 3 T 6
From conservation of energy, it will have a speed 0u while crossing mean position every
time.
First time of crossing mean position
1
T 1 m 2 m
t 2t 2
3 3 K 3 K
Compression is max. when the particle reaches left extreme position. That time
2
T T 7T 7 m 7 m
t 2
3 4 12 12 K 6 K
second time mean position crossing time
3
T T 5 5 m 5 m
t T 2
3 2 6 6 K 3 K
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07. A steady current I flows along an infinitely long hollow cylindrical conductor of radius R.
This cylinder is placed coaxially inside an infinite solenoid of radius 2R.The solenoid has n
turns per unit length and carries a steady current I. Consider a point P at a distance r from the
common axis. The correct statement(s) is (are)
A) In the region 0 < r < R, the magnetic field in non-zero
B) In the region R < r < 2R, the magnetic field is along the common axis.
C) In the region R < r < 2R, the magnetic field is tangential to the circle radius r, centered
on the axis.
D) In the region r > 2R, the magnetic field is non-zero
Ans:A,D
Sol. At P : 0 < r < R, B due to current in pipe is zero but due to solenoid, 0B nI 0
At Q : R < r < 2R, B due to solenoid is parallel to the common axis and that due to I in pipe
is tangential to the circle of radius r i.e. the two fields are perpendicualr to each other. Their
resultant will make some angle with common axis.
At S : r > 2R, B = 0 due to solenoid but it is non zero due to current in pipe.
08. Two vehicles, each moving with speed u on the same horizontal straight road, are approach-
ing each other. Wind blows along the road with velocity w. One of these vehicles blows a
whistle of frequency f1
.An observer in the other vehicle hears the frequency of the whistle
to be f2
. The speed of sound in still air is V. The correct statement(s) is (are)
A) If the wind blows from the observer to the source, f2
> f1
B) If the wind blows from the source to the observer, f2
> f1
C) If the wind blows from observer to the source, f2
< f1
D) If the wind blows from the course to the observer, f2
< f1
Ans: A,B
Sol. f2
> f1
for any direction of motion of wind as there will be relative velocity of approach in
both the cases.
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Section-2
(Paragraph Type)
This section contains 4 paragraphs each describing theory, experiment, data etc. Eight
questions relate to four paragraphs with two questions on each paragraph. Each question
of a paragraph has only one correct answer among the four choices A,B,C and D.
Paragraph for Questions 9 to 10
A point charge Q is moving in a circular orbit of radius R in the x-y plane with an
angular velocity . This can be considered as equivalent to a loop carrying a steady
current
Q
2
. A uniform magnetic field along the positive z-axis is now switched on,
which increases at a constant rate from 0 to B in one second. Assume that the raduis
of the orbit remains constant.The application of the magnetic field induces an emf in
the orbit. The induced emf is defined as the work done by an induced electric field in
moving a unit positive charge around a closed loop.It is known that, for an orbiting
charge, the magnetic dipole moment is proportional to the angular momentum with
a proportionality constant .
09. The magnitude of the induced electric field in the orbit at any instant of time duringthe time
interval of the magnetic field change is
A)
BR
4
B)
BR
2
C) BR D) 2BR
Ans : B
Sol. 2B 0 BR
E 2 R R E
1 2
10. The change in the magnetic dipole moment associated with the orbit, at the end of the time
interval of the magnetic field change, is
A) 2
BQR B)
2
BQR
2
C)
2
BQR
2
D) 2
BQR
Ans : B or C
Sol. Induced electric filed will do work and it leads to change in KE of the particle
Fdt mdv EQ m dv 1 dt 1
Dipole moment
2 2 QV QVR
R I R
2 R 2
R,Q are constant
QR
d dv
2
,
2
dv d 2
QR
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Substituting (2) in (1)
2
EQ m d
QR
BR 1 d
Q
2 r R
[ It is given that, r
L 2m
]
2
rBR
d
2
. d may be +ve or –ve depending upon sense of revolution (clockwise or
anticlockwise) of the particle.
Paragraph for Questions 11 to 12
The mass of a nucleus A
Z X is less than the sum of the masses of(A-Z) number of neu-
trons and Z number of protons in the nucleus. The energy equivalent to the corre-
sponding mass difference is known as ther binding energy of the nucleus. A heavy
nucleus of mass M can break into two light nuclei of masses m1
and m2
only if (m1
+
m2
) < M. Also two light nuclei of mass m3
and m4
can undergo complete fusion and
form a heavy nucleus of mass M1
only if (m3
+ m4
) > M1
. The masses of some neutral
atoms are given in the table below.
1
1H 1.007825 u 2
1 H 2.014102u 3
1 H 3.016050u 4
2 He 4.002603 u
6
3 Li 6.015123u 7
3 Li 7.016004u 70
30 Zn 69.925325u 82
34Se 81.916709u
152
64 Gd 151.919803 u 206
82 Pb 205.974455 u 209
83 Bi 208.980388 u 210
84 Po 209.982876u
11. The correct statement is
A) The nucleus 6
3 Li can emit an alpha particle
B) The nucleus 210
84 Po can emit a proton
C) Deuteron and alpha particle can undergo complete fusion
D) The nuclei 70
30 Zn and 82
34Se can undergo complete fusion
Ans : C
Sol. A : 6 4 2
3 2 1Li H
Here sum of masses of products is more than the mass of 6
3 Li . Hence this is not possible
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B : 210 1 209
0 1 83P H Bi
This is also not possible as sum of masses 1
1H and 209
83 Bi is more than that of 210
84 0P .
C : 2 4 6
1 2 3H Li
Sum of the masses of 2
1 H and 4
2 is more than that of 6
3 Li . Hence this reaction is pos-
sible.
70 82 152
30 34 64Zn Se Gd
This is not possible.
12. The kinetic energy (in keV) of the alpha particle, when the nucleus 210
84 Po at rest undergoes
alpha decay, is
A) 5319 B) 5422 C) 5707 D) 5818
Ans:A
Sol. 210 4 206
84 0 2 82P Pb
mass deffect 1 2M M m m 209.982876 4.002603 205.974455 0.00582amu
aviable energy E 0.00582 931.5 5.419467MeV
Momentum is same in magnitude for and Pb.
2
Pb a
Pb
K MP
K
2m K M
Pb Pb
Pb
Pb Pb
K M M
1 1 K K K
K M M M
Pb
Pb
M 205.974455
K E 5.419467 5.31616MeV 5316.16KeV
M M 209.977058
Paragraph for Questions 13 to 14
A small block of mass 1kg is released from rest at the top of a rough track.The track
is a circular arc of radius 40 m. The block slides along the track without toppling
and a frictional force acts on it in the direction opposite to the instantaneous
velocity.The work done in overcoming the friction up to the point Q, as shown in the
figure below, is 150J. (Take the acceleration due to gravity, g = 10 ms-2
).
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13. The speed of the block when it reaches the point Q is
A) 5 ms-1
B) 10 ms-1
C) 1
10 3ms D) 20 ms-1
Ans: B
Sol.
0 21
mgR sin30 150 mv
2
2 11 1
1 10 40 150 1 v v 10ms
2 2
14. The magnitude of the normal reaction that acts on the block at the point Q is
A) 7.5 N B) 8.6 N C) 11.5 N D) 22.5 N
Ans :A
Sol.
2
0 mv
N mgcos60
R
1 1001
N 1 10 7.5N
2 40
Paragraph for Questions 15 to 16
A thermal power plant produces electric power of 600kW at 4000V, which is to be
transported to a place 20 km away from the power plant for consumers usage. It can
be transported either directly with a cable of large current carrying capacity or by
using a combination of step-up and step-down transformers at the two ends. The
drawback of the direct transmission is the large energy dissipation. In the method
using transformers, the dissipation is much smaller. In this method, a step-up trans-
former is used at the plant side so that the current is reduced to a smaller value. AT
the consumers’ end a step-down transformer is used to supply power to the consum-
ers at the specified lower voltage. It is reasonable to assume that the power cable is
purely resistive and the transformers are ideal with a power factor unity. All the
current and voltages mentioned are rms values.
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15. If the direct transmission method with a cable of resistance 1
0.4 km
is used, the power
dissipation (in %) during transmission is
A) 20 B) 30 C) 40 D) 50
Ans : B
Sol. Current produced
5
0
3
0
P 6 10
I 150A
V 4 10
Resistance of cable R 0.4 20 8 .
Percentage of power disspation when compared with produced power
22
5
0
150 8I R
100 30
P 6 10
16. In the method using the transformers assume that the ratio of the number of turns in the
primary to that in the secondary in the step-up transformer is 1:10.If the power to the con-
sumers has to be supplied at 200V, the ratio of the number of turns in the primary to that in
the secondary in the step- down transformer is
A) 200 : 1 B) 150 : 1 C) 100 : 1 D) 50 : 1
Ans:A
Sol. At the step-up transformed, output voltage v1
is given by
41
13
v 10
v 4 10 v
4 10 1
This is input voltage to the step down transformed . Its output voltage v2
is given as 200v.
The ratio number of turns in step-down transformed
4
4 10
200
200
.
Section-3
(Matching List Type)
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has matching lists. The
codes for lists have choices A,B,C and D out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
17. Match List I with List IIand select the correct answer using the codes given below the List:
LIST- I LIST-II
P) Boltzmann constant 1) [ML2
T–1
]
Q) Coefficient of viscosity 2) [ML–1
T–1
]
R) Plank constant 3)[MLT-3
K-1
]
S) Thermal conductivity 4) [ML2
T–2
K–1
]
P Q R S P Q R S
A) 3 1 2 4 B) 3 2 1 4
C) 4 2 1 3 D) 4 1 2 3
Ans : C
Sol. Conceptual
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18. A right angled prism of refractive index 1 is placed in a rectangular block of refractive
index 2 , which is surrounded by a medium of refractive index 3 , as shown in the figure.
A ray of light ‘e’ enters the rectangular block at normal incidence. Depending upon the
relationships between 1 2, and 3 it takes one of the four possible paths ‘ef’, ‘eg’, ‘eh’or
‘ei’.
Match the paths in List I with conditions of refractive indices in List II and select the cor-
rect answer using the codes given below the lists:
LIST -I LIST- II
P) e f 1) 1 22
Q) e g 2) 2 1 and 2 3
R) e h 3) 1 2
S) e i 4) 2 1 22 and 2 3
P Q R S P Q R S
A) 2 3 1 4 B) 1 2 4 3
C) 4 1 2 3 D) 2 3 4 1
Ans : D
Sol. Conceptual
19. Match List I of the nuclear processes with List II containing parent nucleus and one of the
end products of each process and then select the correct answer using the codes given
below the lists.
LIST- I LIST-II
P)Alpha decay 1) 15 15
8 7O N ......
Q)
decay 2) 238 234
92 90U Th ..........
R) Fission 3) 185 184
83 82Bi Pb ...........
S) Proton emission 4) 239 140
94 57Pu La ..........
P Q R S P Q R S
A) 4 2 1 3 B) 1 3 2 4
C) 2 1 4 3 D) 4 3 2 1
Ans : C
Sol. Conceptual
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20. One mole of a monatomic ideal gas is taken along two cyclic processes E F G E
and E F H E as shown in the PV diagram.The processes involved are purely
isochoric. isobaric, isothermal or adiabatic.
Match the path in List I with the magnitudes of the work done in List II and select the
correct answer using the codes given below the lists.
LIST- I LIST-II
P) G E 1) 160 P0
V0
ln2
Q) G H 2) 36 P0
V0
R) F H 3) 24 P0
V0
S) F G 4) 31 P0
V0
P Q R S P Q R S
A) 4 3 2 1 B) 4 3 1 2
C) 3 1 2 4 D) 1 3 2 4
Ans:A
Sol. E H :
5/3
r r 0 H
1 1 2 2 H 0
0 0
32P V
P V P V V 8V
P V
G E 0 0 0 0 0W P 32V V 31P V
G H 0 0 0 0 0W P 32V 8V 24P V
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PART-II_CHEMISTRY
Section-1
(One or more options correct type)
This section contains 8 Multiple Choice questions. Each Question has Four choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D). Out of Which One or MORE are correct
21. The correct statement(s) about O3
is (are)
A) O – O bond lengths are equal
B) Thermal decomposition of O3
is endothermic
C) O3
is diamagnetic in nature D) O3
has a bent structure
Ans:A,C,D
Sol. 3O exihibits resonance ; its formation is endothermic but decomposition is exothermic ; it
is diamagnetic with ben strucuture
22. In the nuclear transmutation
9 8
4 4Be X Be Y (X,Y) is (are)
A) ,n B) (p,D) C) (n,D) D) ,p
Ans: A,B
Sol. 9 0 8 1
4 0 4 0Be Be n
9 0 8 2
4 0 4 1Be P Be D
23. The carbon – based reduction method is NOT used for the extraction of
A) tin from 2SnO B) iron from 2 3Fe O
C) aluminium from 2 3Al O D) magnesium from 3 3MgCO .CaCO
Ans : C,D
Sol. 2SnO C 8n CO 2 3Fe O C Fe CO
But 2 3Al O and dolamite cannot be reduced
24. The thermal dissociation equilibrium of 3CaCO s is studied under different conditions.
3 2CaCO s CaO s CO g
For this equilibrium, the correct statement(s) is (are)
A) H is dependent on T
B) K is independent of the initial amount of 3CaCO
C) K is dependent on the pressure of 2CO at given T
D) H is independent of the catalyst, if any
Ans: A,B,D
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Sol. (1) BH depends on T but not an catalyst
(2) K is independenc of conc.
25. The spK of 2 4Ag CrO is 12
1.1 10
at 298K. The solubility (in mol/L) of 2 4Ag CrO in 0.1M
3AgNO solution is
A) 11
1.1 10
B) 10
1.1 10
C) 12
1.1 10
D) 9
1.1 10
Ans : B
Sol.
2 2
sp 4K Ag CrO
212 2
41.1 10 0.1 CrO
2
4CrO
solubility = 1.1 × 10–10
26. In the following reaction, the product(s) formed is (are)
OH
CH3
CHCl3
OH-
?
(P)
OH
CH3
OHC CHO
(Q)
O
CHCl2
H3C
(R)
OH
CHCl2
H3C
(S)
OH
CH3
CHO
A) P (major) B) Q (minor) C) R (minor) D) S (major)
Ans : D
Sol. Reimer teimann reaction
OH
CH3
CHCl3
OH-
OH
CH3
CHO
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27. The major product(s) of the following reaction is (are)
OH
SO3H
aqueous Br2 (3.0 equivalents)
?
A) P B) Q C) R D) S
Ans : B
Sol.
OH
SO3H
+ 3Br2
OH
Br
Br Br
28. After completion of the reactions (I and II), the organic compound(s) in the reaction mix-
tures is(are)
Reaction I : H3C CH3
O
(1.0 mol)
Br2 (1.0 mol)
aqueous/NaOH
Reaction II : H3C CH3
O
(1.0 mol)
Br2 (1.0 mol)
CH3COOH
(P)
H3C CH2Br
O
(Q)
H3C CBr3
O
(R)
Br3C CBr3
O
(S)
BrH2C CH2Br
O
(T)
H3C ONa
O
(U) CHBr3
A) Reaction I : P and Reaction II : P
B) Reaction I : U, acetone and Reaction II : Q, acetone
C) Reaction I : T,U, acetone and Reaction II : P
D) Reaction I : R, acetone and Reaction II : S, acetone
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Ans : C
Sol. Acetone + Br + NaOh 3 3CH COONa CHBr
3CH COOH
3 3 2 3 2CH C CH Br CH C CH Br
O O
Section-2
(Paragraph Type)
This section contains 4 paragraphs each describing theory, experiment, data etc. Eight
questions relate to four paragraphs with two questions on each paragraph. Each question
of a paragraph has only one correct answer among the four choices A,B,C and D.
Paragraph for Question 29 and 30
A fixed mass ‘m’ of a gas is subjected transformation of states from K to L to M to N
and back to K as shown in the figure
K L
MN
Pressure
Volume
29. The succeeding operations that enable this transformation of states are
A) Heating, cooling, heating, colling B) Cooling, heating, cooling, heating
C) Heating, cooling, cooling, heating D) Cooling, heating, hetaing, cooling
Ans : C
Sol. K L – expantion which needs heating
L M – Isochloric which needs heating process
M N – Isobaric which needs cooling process
N K – Isochoric which needs heating process
30. The pair of isochoric processes among the transformation of state is
A) K to L and L to M B) L to M and N to K
C) L to M and M to N D) M to N and N to K
Ans : B
Sol. Conceptual
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Paragraph for Question 31 and 32
The reactions of Cl2
gas with cold-dilute and hot-concentrated NaOH in water give
sodium salts of two (different) oxoacids of chlorine, P and Q, respectively. The Cl2
gas reacts with SO2
gas, in presence of charcoal, to give a product R. R reacts with
white phosphorus to give a compound S. On hydrolysis, S gives an oxoacid of phos-
phorus T.
31. P and Q, respectively, are the sodium salts of
A) hypochlorus and chloric acids B) hypochlorus and chlorus acids
C) chloric and perchloric acids D) chloric and hypochlorus acids
Ans:A
Sol.
2 2NaOH Cl NaCl NaClO H O
Salt of HOCl
cold
Salt of HOCl3
hot
2 3 2NaOH Cl NaCl NaClO H O
32. R,S and Trespectively, are
A) 2 2 5SO Cl ,PCl and 3 4H PO B) 2 2 3SO Cl ,PCl and 3 3H PO
C) 2 3SOCl ,PCl and 3 2H PO D) 2 5SOCl ,PCl and 3 4H PO
Ans:A
Sol. 2 2 2 2SO Cl SO Cl
2 2 5SO Cl P PCl
5 2 3 4PCl H O H PO HCl
Paragraph for Question 33 and 34
An aqueous solution of a mixture of two inorganic salts, when treated with dilute
HCl, gave a precipitate (P) and a filtrate (Q). The precipitate P was found to dissolve
in hot water. The filtrate (Q) remained unchanged, when treated with H2
S in a dilute
mineralacid medium. However, it gave a precipitate (R) with H2
S in an ammoniacal
medium. The precipitate R gave a coloured solution (S), when treated with 2 2H O in
an aqueous NaOH medium.
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33. The precipitate P contains
A) 2
Pb B) 2
2Hg
C) Ag
D) 2
Hg
Ans:A
Sol. 2PbCl is soluble is hot water
34. The coloured solution S contains
A) 2 4 3
Fe SO B) 4CuSO C) 4ZnSO D) 2 4Na CrO
Ans : D
Sol. 2 4Na CrO is coloured solution.
Paragraph for Question 35 and 36
P and Q are isomers of dicarboxylic acid 4 4 4C H O . Both decolorize 2 2Br / H O . On heat-
ing P forms the cyclic anhydride.
Upon treatment with dilute alkaline 4KMnO , P as well as Q could produce one or
more than one from S,T and U.
(S)
COOH
H OH
COOH
H OH (T)
COOH
H OH
COOH
HO H (U)
COOH
HO H
COOH
H OH
35. Compounds formed from P and Q are, respectively
A) Optically active S and optically active pair (T,U)
B) Optically inactive S and optically inactive pair (T,U)
C) Optically active pair (T,U) and optically active S
D) Optically inactive pair (T,U) and optically inactive S
Ans : B
Sol. P – malie acid (cis compound)
Q – fumeric acid (trans compound)
4KMnO
OH
P meso compound S
4KMnO
OH
Q resmic mixture (T & U)
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36. In the following reaction sequences V and W are, respectively
2 /H Ni
Q V
+ V AlCl3 (anhydrous) 1.Zn-Hg/HCl
2.H3PO4
W
A)
O
O
OV
and
O
W
B) CH2OH
CH2OH
V
and
W
C)
O
O
OV
and
W
D)
HO H2C
CH2O HV
and
CH2OH
W
Ans:A
Sol. Fumeric acid 2H / Ni
Butane dioic acid
O
O
O
O
O
O
+ 3AlCl
acylation
2 2CH CH COOH
An Hg/HCl
2 2CH CH CH COOH
3 4H PO
O
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Section-3
(Matching List Type)
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has matching lists. The
codes for lists have choices A,B,C and D out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
37. Match the chemical conversions in List I with the appropriate reagents in List II and select
the correct answer using the code given below the lists :
List I List II
P) Cl 1) 42
i Hg OAc ; ii NaBH
Q) ONa OEt
2) NaOEt
R)
OH
3) Et–Br
S)
OH
4) 3 2 2i BH ; ii H O / NaOH
Codes :
P Q R S P Q R S
A) 2 3 1 4 B) 3 2 1 4
C) 2 3 4 1 D) 3 2 4 1
Ans:A
Sol. Cl
C2H5ONa
;
ONa + C2H5Br
OC2H5
Oxymeruration
demeruration OH
;
Hydroboration
oxidation
OH
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38. The unbalanced chemical reactions given in List I show missing reagent or condition (?)
which are provided in List II. Match List Iwith ListII and select the correct answer using the
code given below the lists :
List I List II
P) ?
2 2 4 4 2PbO H SO PbSO O other product 1) NO
Q) ?
2 2 3 2 4Na S O H O NaHSO + other product 2) 2I
R) ?
2 4 2N H N other product 3) Warm
S) ?
2XeF Xe other product 4) 2Cl
Codes :
P Q R S P Q R S
A) 4 2 3 1 B) 3 2 1 4
C) 1 4 2 3 D) 3 4 2 1
Ans : D
Sol. warm
2 2 4 4 2 2PbO H SO PbSO O H O
2Cl
2 2 3 2 4Na S O H O NaHSO S HCl
2 4 2 2N H I N HI
2XeF NO Xe NOF
39. The standard reduction potential data at 250
C is given below.
0 3 2
E Fe ,Fe 0.77V
;
0 2
E Fe ,Fe 0.44V
0 2
E Cu ,Cu 0.34V
;
0
E Cu ,Cu 0.52V
0
2 2E O g 4H 4e 2H O 1.23V
0
2 2E O g 2H O 4e 4OH 0.40V
0 3
E Cr ,Cr 0.74V
0 2
E Cr ,Cr 0.91V
Match 0
E of the redox pair in List I with the values given in List II and select the correct
answer using the code given below the lists :
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List I List II
P) 0 3
E Fe ,Fe
1) –0.18V
Q) 0
2E 4H O 4H 4OH
2) –0.4V
R) 0 2
E Cu Cu 2Cu
3) –0.04V
S) 0 3 2
E Cr ,Cr
4) –0.83V
Codes :
P Q R S P Q R S
A) 4 1 2 3 B) 2 3 4 1
C) 1 2 3 4 D) 3 4 1 2
Ans : D
Sol. Conceptual
40. An aqueous solution of X is added slowly to an aqueous solution ofYas shown in List I. The
variation in conductivity of these reactions is given in List II. Match List I with List II and
select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :
List I List II
P)
2 5 33
C H N CH COOH
X Y
1) Conductivity decreases and then increases
Q)
X Y
3KI 0.1M AgNO 0.01M
2) Conductivity decreasesand then does not change much
R)
X Y
3CH COOH KOH
3) Conductivity increases and then does not chnage much
S)
X Y
NaOH HI
4) Conductivity does not change much and then increases
Codes :
P Q R S P Q R S
A) 3 4 2 1 B) 4 3 2 1
C) 2 3 4 1 D) 1 4 3 2
Ans:A
Sol. Conceptual
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PART-III_MATHEMATICS
Section-1
(One or more options correct type)
This section contains 8 Multiple Choice questions. Each Question has Four choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D). Out of Which One or MORE are correct
41. Let
3 i
w
2
and n
P w : n 1,2,3,... . Further 1
1
H z C :Rez
2
and
2
1
H z C: Rez
2
, where C is the set of all complex numbers. if 1 1z P H ,
2 2z P H and O represents the origin, then 1 2z Oz
A)
2
B)
6
C)
2
3
D)
5
6
Ans: C,D
Sol :From diagram 1 2
2 5
z z ,
3 6
42 If x x 1
3 4
then x=
A)
3
3
2log 2
2log 2 1 B)
2
2
2log 3 C)
2
1
1 log 3 D)
2
2
2log 3
2log 3 1
Ans:- A,B,C
Sol:
3
3 2
2log 2 2
x log3 (x 1)log 4 x
2log 2 1 2 log 3
43. Let be a complex cube root of unity with 1 and ijP p be a n n
matrix with i j
ijp
. Then 2
p 0 , when n=
A) 57 B) 55 C) 58 D) 56
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Ans:- B,C,D
Sol: 4 6 8 2n 2
2P 0 w w w .............. w 0
4 2n
2n
2
w (1 w )
0 w 1 n 55,58,56
1 w
44. The function f x 2 x x 2 x 2 2 x has a local minimum or a
local maximum at x=
A) -2 B)
2
3
C) 2 D)
2
3
Ans:- A,B
Sol: f(x) = 0 for
2
x 2, ,0,2
3
f(x) has extremum at
2
x 2,
3
45. For a R (the set of all real numbers), a 1,
a a a
a 1n
1 2 ... n 1
lim
60n 1 na 1 na 2 ... na n
Then a=
A) 5 B) 7 C)
15
2
D)
17
2
Ans:- B,D
Sol: -
1
a
0
1
n
0
x dx
1 2 1 17
Lt a 7 or
(a 1) (2a 1) 60 2
(a x)dx
46. Circle(s) touching x-axis at a distance 3 from the origin and having
an intercept of length 2 7 on y-axis is (are)
A) 2 2
x y 6x 8y 9 0 B) 2 2
x y 6x 7y 9 0
C) 2 2
x y 6x 8y 9 0 D) 2 2
x y 6x 7y 9 0
Ans:- A,C
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Sol: 2 2 2
x 2gx c (x 3) x 6x 9
2
2 f 9 2 7 f 4
47. Two lines 1
y z
L : x 5,
3 2
and 2
y z
L : x ,
1 2
are coplanar. Then
can take value(s)
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4
Ans:- A,D
Sol: lines are x - 5 = 0, 2y (3 )z 0
x , (2 )y z 0
since lines are coplanar
0 3 2
0 1 2 0
5 0 0
2
( 5)( 5 4) 0 1,4
48. In a triangle PQR, P is the largest angle and
1
cos P
3
. Further the
incircle of the triangle touches the sides PQ, QR and RP at N,L and
M respectively, such that the lengths of PN, QL and RM are con-
secutive even integers. Then possible lengths of the sides of the
triangle is (are)
A) 16 B) 18 C) 24 D) 22
Ans:- B,D
P
RQ
N M
L
2K
2K+2
2K+42K+2
2K+4
2K
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Sol:
2 2 2
1 (4k 4) (4k 4) (4k 6)
cosP
3 2(4k 2)(4k 4)
2 2 2 2 2
2
(2k 1) (2k 2) (2k 3) 4k 4 k 1
4
8(2k 1)(2k 2) 4(2k 1)(k 1) 2k 3k 1
2 2
3k 3 2k 3k 1
2
k 3k 4 0
(k-4)(k+1)=0
k = 4
sides: 18, 22
But B D options are correct
Section-2
(Paragraph Type)
This section contains 4 paragraphs each describing theory, experiment, data etc. Eight
questions relate to four paragraphs with two questions on each paragraph. Each question
of a paragraph has only one correct answer among the four choices A,B,C and D.
Let 1 2 3S S S S , where
1 2
z 1 3i
S z C: z 4 ,S z C: Im 0
1 3i
and
3S z C : Rez 0
49. Area of S=
A)
10
3
B)
20
3
C)
16
3
D)
32
3
50. z S
min 1 3i z
A)
2 3
2
B)
2 3
2
C)
3 3
2
D)
3 3
2
Sol: Q.No.: 49 & 50
2 2 2
1S x y 4 ,
2 m
(x 1) i(y 3)
S I 0
1 3i
3(x 1) y 3 0 3x y 0
3S x 0
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30. 2013 JEE-ADVANCED_P2_Code::1 QPaper with & Key &
Sol Solutions
Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy., India
#Corporate Office : Plot No 304, Kasetty Heights, Ayyappa Society Madhapur, Hyderabad
E-Mail - iconcohyd@srichaitanya.net, Web - www.srichaitanya.net 30/36
P(1,-3)
x
y
3
3x y 0
49 Ans:- B
Area of
2 21 1
S 4 4 20
4 2 3 3
50. Ans:- C
min 1 3i z perpendicular distance from (1, -3)
the line 3x y 0
3 3 3 3
2 2
Paragraph for Questions 51 and 52
A box 1B contains 1 white ball, 3 red balls and 2 black balls. An-
other box 2B contains 2 white balls, 3 red balls and 4 black balls.
A third box 3B contains 3 white balls, 4 red balls and 5 black
balls.
51. If 1 ball is drawn from each of the boxes 1 2B ,B and 3B , the probabil-
ity that all 3 drawn balls are of the same colour is
A)
82
648
B)
90
648
C)
558
648
D)
566
648
52. If 2 balls are drawn (without replacement) from a randomly se-
lected box and one of the balls is white and the other ball is red,
the probability that these 2 balls are drawn from box 2B is
A)
116
181
B)
126
181
C)
65
181
D)
55
181
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31. 2013 JEE-ADVANCED_P2_Code::1 QPaper with & Key &
Sol Solutions
Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy., India
#Corporate Office : Plot No 304, Kasetty Heights, Ayyappa Society Madhapur, Hyderabad
E-Mail - iconcohyd@srichaitanya.net, Web - www.srichaitanya.net 31/36
Sol: Q.No.: 51 & 52
B1
B2
B3
1 2 3
3R 3R 4R
2B
6
4B
9
5B
12
51. Ans:- A
Prob = www (or) RRR (or) BBB
=
1 2 3 3 3 4 2 4 5 82
6 9 12 6 9 12 6 9 12 648
52. Ans: D
9
2
6 9 12
2 2 2
1 2 3
553 C
Prob
1 1 3 1 2 3 1 3 4 181
3 C 3 C 3 C
Paragraph for Questions 53 and 54
Let f : 0,1 R (the set of all real numbers) be a function. Suppose
the function f is twice differentiable, f 0 f 1 0 and satisfies
x
f " x 2f ' x f x e ,x 0,1 .
53. Which of the following is true for 0<x<1 ?
A) 0 f x B)
1 1
f x
2 2
C)
1
f x 1
4
D) f x 0
54. If the function x
e f x
assumes its minimum in the interval 0,1 at
1
x
4
, which of the following is true ?
A)
1 3
f ' x f x , x
4 4
B)
1
f ' x f x ,0 x
4
C)
1
f ' x f x ,0 x
4
D)
3
f ' x f x , x 1
4
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32. 2013 JEE-ADVANCED_P2_Code::1 QPaper with & Key &
Sol Solutions
Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy., India
#Corporate Office : Plot No 304, Kasetty Heights, Ayyappa Society Madhapur, Hyderabad
E-Mail - iconcohyd@srichaitanya.net, Web - www.srichaitanya.net 32/36
Sol: Q.No.: 53 & 54
53 Ans: D
11 1 n
f (x) 2f (x) f (x) e
x 11 1
e (f (x) 2f (x) f (x) 1
x 11
e g (x) 1
11
g (x) 0
g(x) 0 x (0,1)
x
e f (x) 0 x (0,1)
f(x) 0 x (0,1)
54. Ans: C
x
g(x) e f (x)
1 x 1
g (x) e (f (x) f (x)) 0
at x = 1/4
From graph
1
0 x
4
g(x) is decreasing
1
g (x) 0
x 1 1
e (f (x) f (x) 0 f (x) f (x) 0
1
f (x) f (x)
Paragraph for Questions 55 and 56
Let PQ be a focal chord of the parabola 2
y 4ax . The tangents to
the parabola at P and Q meet at a point lying on the line
y 2x a,a 0
55. Length of chord PQ is
A) 7a B) 5a C) 2a D) 3a
56. If chord PQ subtends an angle at the vertex of 2
y 4ax , then tan
A)
2
7
3
B)
2
7
3
C)
2
5
3
D)
2
5
3
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33. 2013 JEE-ADVANCED_P2_Code::1 QPaper with & Key &
Sol Solutions
Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy., India
#Corporate Office : Plot No 304, Kasetty Heights, Ayyappa Society Madhapur, Hyderabad
E-Mail - iconcohyd@srichaitanya.net, Web - www.srichaitanya.net 33/36
Sol:
55. Ans:- B
1
a t a
t
,
2
1
t 1
t
,
2
1 1
t t 4 5
t t
2
1
PQ a t 5a
t
56. Ans:- D
1 2
2 2
m , m 2t
1t
t
,
2
2t
2 1 2t
tan t 5
1 4 3 t 3
Section-3
(Matching List Type)
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has matching lists. The
codes for lists have choices A,B,C and D out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
57. A line L : y mx 3 meets y-axis at E(0,3) and the arc of the parabola
2
y 16x,0 y 6 at the point 0 0F x ,y . The tangent to the parabola at 0 0F x ,y
intersects the y-axis at 1G 0,y . The slope m of the line L is chosen such that the
area of the triangle EFG has a local maximum.
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below
the lists :
List I List II
P) m = 1)
1
2
Q) Maximum area of EFG is 2) 4
R) 0y 3) 2
S) 1y 4) 1
P Q R S P Q R S
A) 4 1 2 3 B) 3 4 1 2
C) 1 3 2 4 D) 1 3 4 2
Ans:- A
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34. 2013 JEE-ADVANCED_P2_Code::1 QPaper with & Key &
Sol Solutions
Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy., India
#Corporate Office : Plot No 304, Kasetty Heights, Ayyappa Society Madhapur, Hyderabad
E-Mail - iconcohyd@srichaitanya.net, Web - www.srichaitanya.net 34/36
Sol:
2 2 31
(3 4t)4t 2(3t 4t )
2
2d 1
0 6t 12t 0 t
dt 2
1 2
t
2
8t 3 4 3
m [slope] 1
14t 4
4
m 1 P 4 ,
1 1
Q (1) 1 Q 1
2 2
, 0y 4 R 2 , 1y 2 S 3
A is the correct option
58. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below
the lists :
List I List II
P)
2
1 1
4
2 1 1
cos tan y ysin tan y1
y
y cot sin y tan sin y
1)
1 5
2 3
Q) If cos x cos y cosz 0 sin x sin y sin z then possible 2) 2
value of
x y
cos
2
is
R) If cos x cos2x sin xsin 2xsecx cos xsin 2xsec x cos x
4 4
cos2x then possible value of secx is 3)
1
2
S) If 1 2 1
cot sin 1 x sin tan x 6 , x 0
, then possible value 4) 1
of x is
P Q R S P Q R S
A) 4 3 1 2 B) 4 3 2 1
C) 3 4 2 1 D) 3 4 1 2
Ans:- B
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35. 2013 JEE-ADVANCED_P2_Code::1 QPaper with & Key &
Sol Solutions
Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy., India
#Corporate Office : Plot No 304, Kasetty Heights, Ayyappa Society Madhapur, Hyderabad
E-Mail - iconcohyd@srichaitanya.net, Web - www.srichaitanya.net 35/36
Sol: cosx + cosy + cosz = sinx + siny + sinz
x x, y 120 x, z 240 x
0x y 1
cos cos60
2 2
, S) 1 2 1
cot sin 1 x sin tan x 6
2 2
x x 6
1 x 1 6x
,
2 2 2 1 5
1 6x 6 6x 12x 5 x
2 3
B is correct answer
59. Consider the lines 1
x 1 y z 3
L : ,
2 1 1
2
x 4 y 3 z 3
L :
1 1 2
and the
planes 1 2P :7x y 2z 3,P :3x 5y 6z 4 . Let ax by cz d be the equa-
tion of the plane passing through the point of intersection of lines
1L and 2L , and perpendicular to planes 1P and 2P
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the
code given below the lists :
List I List II
P) a= 1) 13
Q) b= 2) -3
R) c= 3) 1
S) d= 4) -2
P Q R S
A) 3 2 4 1
B) 1 3 4 2
C) 3 2 1 4
D) 2 4 1 3
Ans:-A
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36. 2013 JEE-ADVANCED_P2_Code::1 QPaper with & Key &
Sol Solutions
Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy., India
#Corporate Office : Plot No 304, Kasetty Heights, Ayyappa Society Madhapur, Hyderabad
E-Mail - iconcohyd@srichaitanya.net, Web - www.srichaitanya.net 36/36
Sol: (a, b, c) = (3, 5, -6) x (7, 1, 2) = (1, -3, -2)
A is the correct option
60. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below
the lists :
List - I List - II
P) Volume of parallelepiped determined by vectors a,b 1) 100
and c is 2. Then the volume of the parallelepiped
determined by vectors 2 a b ,3 b c and c a is
Q) Volume of parallelepiped determined by vectors a,b 2) 30
and c is 5. Then the volume of the parallelepiped determined by
vectors 3 a b , b c and 2 c a is
R) Area of a triangle with adjacent sides determined by vectors 3) 24
a and b is 20. Then the area of the triangle with adjacent
sides determined by vectors 2a 3b and a b is
S) Area of a parallelogram with adjacent sides determined by 4) 60
vectors a and b is 30. Then the area of the parallelogram with
adjacent sides determined by vectors a b and a is
P Q R S P Q R S
A) 4 2 3 1 B) 2 3 1 4
C) 3 4 1 2 D) 1 4 3 2
Ans:- C
Sol:
2
V 6 a b b c c a 6 a b c 6 4 24
P 3
C is correct answerThis section contains 10 Multiple Choice questions. Each Ques-
tion has Four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D). Out of Which Only One is correct
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