The document contains 41 multiple choice questions related to finance and investments. The questions cover topics such as inflation, primary and secondary markets, equity shares, mutual funds, debt instruments, ratios, and other concepts. For each question there are 5 possible answer choices, with an option to mark the question as "Not Attempted." The questions range from 1 to 3 marks based on difficulty level.
Check your progress module c treasury managementVinayak Kamath
This document contains multiple choice questions from various units of a Treasury Management module. The questions cover topics like reserve requirements, integrated treasury operations, functions of treasury, globalization, exchange rates, nostro accounts, monetary aggregates, liquidity management tools of RBI, payment systems, risk management practices, derivatives, asset-liability management, and credit risk mitigation techniques. The answers to the multiple choice questions are also provided at the end of each unit's questions.
Check your progress module b risk managementVinayak Kamath
This document contains a series of questions and answers related to risk management concepts. It covers topics like types of risk (e.g. credit risk, market risk, operational risk), risk measurement techniques (e.g. Value at Risk), Basel accords on banking regulation, and operational risk management. The questions are multiple choice designed to test understanding of key risk management terms and frameworks.
This document is the question paper for an accounting exam with 71 multiple choice questions worth a total of 100 marks. The questions cover a range of accounting concepts, principles, statements and analysis including fixed/current assets, the accounting equation, balance sheet presentation, liquidity ratios, revenue recognition, and financial statement analysis.
This document contains check your progress questions and answers from modules on balance sheet management, liquidity management, and interest rate risk management. Some key points:
- Asset liability management (ALM) is required to minimize liquidity risk and market risk by matching assets and liabilities.
- Liquidity management objectives are to ensure both profitability and liquidity by meeting deposit withdrawals and loan demands. A bank's liquidity position depends on sources of funds and anticipated future needs.
- Interest rate risk arises from changes in interest rates that affect the market value of assets and liabilities. It can be managed by matching repriceable assets with liabilities and setting tolerance limits on interest rate sensitivity gaps.
This document contains 30 multiple choice questions related to risk management. The questions cover topics like market risk, yield curve risk, operational risk, asset liability management, and derivatives. Correct answer options are provided for each question to test understanding of risk management concepts.
This document appears to be a quiz covering various topics related to foreign exchange and risk management. It includes multiple choice questions and fill in the blank exercises testing understanding of key terms. Some of the topics covered include foreign exchange markets, exchange rates, derivatives, types of risk like settlement risk, and risk management strategies. The document provides answers to the questions and exercises for users to check their progress in learning the material.
This document appears to be a quiz on banking and finance concepts. It contains 26 multiple choice questions testing knowledge in areas like monetary aggregates, GDP calculation, interest rates, sampling, and bank lending practices. The answers to the questions are provided at the end.
This document contains 14 multiple choice questions and answers related to principles of banking in India. The questions cover topics such as instruments used to lend to the government, types of inter-bank lending, minimum values for certificates of deposit, eligibility for issuing commercial paper, parts of the money market, scheduled commercial banks, regulation of indigenous bankers, current requirements for SLR and CRR, priority sector lending targets, regulation of mutual funds, types of mutual funds, and an example of an asset management company established to acquire non-performing assets from banks.
Check your progress module c treasury managementVinayak Kamath
This document contains multiple choice questions from various units of a Treasury Management module. The questions cover topics like reserve requirements, integrated treasury operations, functions of treasury, globalization, exchange rates, nostro accounts, monetary aggregates, liquidity management tools of RBI, payment systems, risk management practices, derivatives, asset-liability management, and credit risk mitigation techniques. The answers to the multiple choice questions are also provided at the end of each unit's questions.
Check your progress module b risk managementVinayak Kamath
This document contains a series of questions and answers related to risk management concepts. It covers topics like types of risk (e.g. credit risk, market risk, operational risk), risk measurement techniques (e.g. Value at Risk), Basel accords on banking regulation, and operational risk management. The questions are multiple choice designed to test understanding of key risk management terms and frameworks.
This document is the question paper for an accounting exam with 71 multiple choice questions worth a total of 100 marks. The questions cover a range of accounting concepts, principles, statements and analysis including fixed/current assets, the accounting equation, balance sheet presentation, liquidity ratios, revenue recognition, and financial statement analysis.
This document contains check your progress questions and answers from modules on balance sheet management, liquidity management, and interest rate risk management. Some key points:
- Asset liability management (ALM) is required to minimize liquidity risk and market risk by matching assets and liabilities.
- Liquidity management objectives are to ensure both profitability and liquidity by meeting deposit withdrawals and loan demands. A bank's liquidity position depends on sources of funds and anticipated future needs.
- Interest rate risk arises from changes in interest rates that affect the market value of assets and liabilities. It can be managed by matching repriceable assets with liabilities and setting tolerance limits on interest rate sensitivity gaps.
This document contains 30 multiple choice questions related to risk management. The questions cover topics like market risk, yield curve risk, operational risk, asset liability management, and derivatives. Correct answer options are provided for each question to test understanding of risk management concepts.
This document appears to be a quiz covering various topics related to foreign exchange and risk management. It includes multiple choice questions and fill in the blank exercises testing understanding of key terms. Some of the topics covered include foreign exchange markets, exchange rates, derivatives, types of risk like settlement risk, and risk management strategies. The document provides answers to the questions and exercises for users to check their progress in learning the material.
This document appears to be a quiz on banking and finance concepts. It contains 26 multiple choice questions testing knowledge in areas like monetary aggregates, GDP calculation, interest rates, sampling, and bank lending practices. The answers to the questions are provided at the end.
This document contains 14 multiple choice questions and answers related to principles of banking in India. The questions cover topics such as instruments used to lend to the government, types of inter-bank lending, minimum values for certificates of deposit, eligibility for issuing commercial paper, parts of the money market, scheduled commercial banks, regulation of indigenous bankers, current requirements for SLR and CRR, priority sector lending targets, regulation of mutual funds, types of mutual funds, and an example of an asset management company established to acquire non-performing assets from banks.
The document compares the old and revised formats of Schedule VI of the Companies Act, 1956 regarding the balance sheet and statement of profit and loss. Some key changes highlighted include:
- The revised format only allows for a vertical presentation compared to both vertical and horizontal previously
- Headings were changed from "Sources of Funds" and "Application of Funds" to "Equity & Liabilities" and "Assets"
- Additional line items were added under shareholders' funds, non-current liabilities, current liabilities, non-current assets, and current assets.
- Definitions and disclosure requirements for items like share capital, reserves and surplus, borrowings, and receivables were expanded in the revised format
A bank reconciliation statement reconciles the balance in a bank account according to the cash book with the balance according to the bank statement. It is prepared using the bank statement and bank column of the cash book. Differences between the balances arise due to items like outstanding deposits and unpaid checks, which the bank reconciliation statement reconciles by listing all adjustments needed to agree the two balances.
This document provides a bank financial management primer that includes 44 multiple choice questions covering topics such as foreign exchange rates, export financing facilities like pre-shipment credit and post-shipment credit, foreign exchange markets, risk management, and international trade documentation standards. The questions are followed by explanations and address concepts important for understanding bank management of international trade and cross-border financing.
This document contains a 72 question financial management exam with multiple choice answers. The questions cover various topics related to financial management including capital structure, leverage, portfolio risk and return, capital asset pricing model (CAPM), and break-even analysis. Sample questions include calculating required rates of return for stocks based on CAPM, determining the effects of changes in market risk premium or beta on stock required returns, calculating capital gains from share price changes, and determining sales levels needed to increase earnings before interest and taxes by a given percentage based on information about costs, price, and quantity produced.
Acct 567 final exam solutions 100% correct answersProfessorLance
The document contains the solutions to an accounting exam with multiple choice questions covering topics such as government-wide financial reporting, transfers between funds, budgetary reporting requirements, revenue and expense recognition, and accounting for donations. It also provides journal entries and financial statements for various governmental and not-for-profit organizations.
Chapter3International Finance ManagementPiyush Gaur
This document provides sample answers and solutions to end-of-chapter questions and problems about balance of payments. It discusses key concepts like defining the balance of payments, reasons for examining BOP data, causes of US and Japan's current account balances, how countries can have overall BOP surpluses or deficits, components of official reserve assets, and how various transactions are classified in a country's BOP. It also provides an example of constructing a BOP table for Japan in 2006 and interpreting the data.
Merchant Banking and Financial Services November 2020 MCQ typeGanesha Pandian
This document contains details of a model examination for the subject Merchant Banking and Financial Services. The examination contains 100 multiple choice questions to be completed within 1 hour. The questions cover various topics related to merchant banking activities, financial institutions and their abbreviations, financial products and services, credit and financing, and other relevant terms.
This document contains a series of multiple choice questions related to economic and social issues in India. The questions cover topics such as reasons for food inflation, fiscal stimulus, current account deficit, base effect as it relates to inflation rates, teaser loans offered by banks, growth rates of GDP and per capita income, types of investments like FDI and FII, microfinance services, government objectives like inclusive growth, reasons for disinvesting in CPSEs, functions of the Reserve Bank of India, circumstances that give rise to capital gains, measures that increase the money supply, industries included in core sector growth rates, components of a country's balance of payments, and how changes in the bank rate impact monetary policy stances.
Chapter12 International Finance ManagementPiyush Gaur
Sara Lee Corporation issued its first Eurobonds, selling $100 million of three-year bonds with a 6% coupon rate. The bonds were fairly priced and offered a higher yield than US Treasuries. Sara Lee has an excellent credit rating and plans to use the bond proceeds for general corporate purposes. By issuing Eurobonds, Sara Lee can more quickly bring new debt issues to market than through domestic bonds and likely receives a lower borrowing rate. Sara Lee also raises funds in various currencies, matching its international cash flows and reducing exchange rate risk.
This document contains a 50 question practice test for the NISM Mutual Fund Distributors Certification Examination. The test covers topics related to mutual funds, including the structure and regulation of mutual funds in India. It aims to assess knowledge of key terms, concepts, and regulations pertaining to mutual funds. The test has a maximum of 50 marks, duration of 60 minutes, and pass marks of 25.
This document is the question paper for an accounting exam with 71 multiple choice questions worth a total of 100 marks. The questions cover a range of accounting concepts, principles, statements and analysis including fixed/current assets, the accounting equation, balance sheet presentation, liquidity ratios, revenue recognition, and financial statement analysis.
This document is an accounting exam question paper containing 71 multiple choice questions worth a total of 100 marks. The questions cover a range of accounting concepts and topics, including the categorization of assets, the accounting equation, balance sheet presentation, financial statement analysis, international accounting standards, and ratio analysis. The full document provides an accounting exam for students to test their knowledge across different areas of accounting principles and practices.
Ram wrote a covered call option on stock PNG with a strike price of Rs. 148 for a premium of Rs. 2.40. At expiration, PNG stock was Rs. 152. Ram's profit from the covered call strategy was Rs. 5.40, as the stock was called away at the strike price but Ram kept the premium received.
The National Stock Exchange administers a Capital Market Aptitude Test with multiple choice questions testing knowledge of concepts like options strategies, bond yields, regulatory bodies, and individuals' savings behavior. Correct answers are required to demonstrate proficiency in capital markets.
What does a company need to operate so that it has total control ove.docxjane3dyson92312
What does a company need to operate so that it has total control over its communications without dependence on other companies?
[removed]
a. Web site
[removed]
b. VSAT system
[removed]
c. extranet
[removed]
d. groupware site
[removed]
e. enterprise planning
Q2. Searching, sifting, and reorganizing pools of data to uncover useful information is called
[removed]
a. data warehousing
[removed]
b. data access
[removed]
c. data tapping
[removed]
d. data cleaning
[removed]
e. data mining
Q3. What is the major limitation of Wi-Fi?
[removed]
a. high cost
[removed]
b. privacy concerns
[removed]
c. productivity
[removed]
d. short range of distance
[removed]
e. installation challenges
Q4. Electronic conferencing is popular because it reduces travel expenses and saves money.
[removed]
a. True
[removed]
b. False
Q5. System software tells the computer's hardware how to interact with the software, what resources to use, and how to use them.
[removed]
a. True
[removed]
b. False
Q6. Which of the following best describes information?
[removed]
a. the useful interpretation of facts and figures
[removed]
b. a list of company names provided by the local Chamber of Commerce
[removed]
c. the collection of raw facts and figures
[removed]
d. controlled flow of words for a useful purpose
[removed]
e. databases and flowcharts
Q7. A cell phone store manager needs to forecast sales for the upcoming Black Friday sales weekend. Which information would be MOST helpful?
[removed]
a. the store with the least sales of all store locations for the past five years
[removed]
b. the store with the highest sales of all store locations for the past five years
[removed]
c. the cell phone model which earned the most revenue in all store locations for the past five years
[removed]
d. the total amount spent per customer in each cell phone store for all locations for the past five years
[removed]
e. the number of customers who entered the cell phone store for all locations
Q8. Trojan horses are malicious programs that replicate themselves like viruses.
[removed]
a. True
[removed]
b. False
Q9. Which type of IT threat can spread without a computer user needing to open any software?
[removed]
a. worms
[removed]
b. Trojan horses
[removed]
c. spam
[removed]
d. spyware
[removed]
e. computer viruses
Q10. What is a particularly sinister quality of spyware?
[removed]
a. It replicates itself, using up valuable computer memory.
[removed]
b. It often disguises itself as helpful software.
[removed]
c. It consumes bandwidth by flooding user inboxes with junk e-mail.
[removed]
d. It often leads to wireless mooching.
[removed]
e. It is completely legal.
Q11. The M-2 money supply includes everything that is in the M-1 money supply.
[removed]
a. True
[removed]
b. False
Q12. When buying from a supplier in France, LTD, based in Cleveland, O.
This document contains 60 multiple choice questions related to financial management concepts. The questions cover topics such as shareholders' wealth, objectives of financial management, capital structure, working capital management, capital budgeting techniques, and time value of money calculations. The correct answer is provided for each question to test understanding of fundamental finance principles.
1 bank of-baroda-probationary-officers-exam-general-socio-economic-and-bankin...Kumar Nirmal Prasad
This document contains a 50 question multiple choice exam on general socio-economic and banking awareness administered by Bank of Baroda. The exam covers topics such as open market operations, banking terms, financial instruments, fiscal and monetary policy, the structure of the Indian financial system, the objectives of SEZs, global emissions, future trading, inflation measurement, issues discussed at G8 summits, international leaders, relief allocation after natural disasters, agreements between India and Nepal, space programs, sports awards, ASEAN members, and social development schemes in India.
1 bank of-baroda-probationary-officers-exam-general-socio-economic-and-bankin...Kumar Nirmal Prasad
This document contains a 50 question multiple choice exam on general socio-economic and banking awareness administered by Bank of Baroda. The exam covers topics such as open market operations, banking terms, financial instruments, fiscal and monetary policy, the structure of the Indian financial system, the objectives of SEZs, global emissions, future trading, inflation measurement, issues discussed at G8 summits, international leaders, relief allocation after natural disasters, agreements between India and Nepal, space programs, sports awards, ASEAN members, and social development schemes in India.
CFIN 601 - Corporate Finance
Comprehensive Individual Assignment
Section 1: Multiple Choice (30 questions; 30 marks). Select the best alternative for each of the following statements.
1.
Deciding whether or not to open a new store is part of the process known as:
A)
Capital budgeting.
B)
Credit management.
C)
Capital structure.
D)
Cash management.
E)
Working capital management.
2. .
The total market value of the firm's equity is determined by _______________.
A)
the corporate treasurer
B)
the firm's financial manager
C)
the firm's stakeholders
D)
the firm's stockholders
E)
regulatory authorities
3.
Which of the following are disadvantages of the partnership form of ownership?
A)
Personal liability and double taxation
B)
Personal liability and limited firm life
C)
Double taxation and limited firm life
D)
Ease of formation and unlimited firm life
E)
Ease of formation and ease of ownership transfer
4.
Which of the following is generally true regarding liquidity as it relates to the firm?
A)
Liquidity is detrimental to a firm because it allows the firm to pay its bills more easily, thereby avoiding financial distress
B)
Liquidity is valuable to a firm because liquid assets can be sold quickly without much loss in value
C)
Liquidity is valuable to a firm because a firm can borrow money using its liquid assets, such as a warehouse, as collateral
D)
Assets are generally listed on a firm's balance sheet in the order of increasing liquidity
E)
Liquid assets generally earn a large return, especially in comparison to illiquid assets
5.
An income statement _____________________.
A)
measures performance as a snapshot on a specific date
B)
prepared according to GAAP, will show revenue when it accrues
C)
excludes accrued taxes payable
D)
includes expenses only when they are ultimately paid off in cash
E)
is an accurate representation of a firm's net cash flows
6.
Suppose you have the 2003 income statement for a firm, along with the 12/31/2002 and 12/31/2003 balance sheets. How would you calculate net capital spending?
A)
Ending net fixed assets (2003) minus beginning net fixed assets (2002) plus 2003 depreciation
B)
Beginning net fixed assets (2002) minus ending net fixed assets (2003) plus 2003 depreciation
C)
Beginning net fixed assets (2002) plus ending net fixed assets (2003) minus 2003 depreciation
D)
Ending net fixed assets (2003) minus beginning net fixed assets (2002) plus 2003 taxes paid
E)
Ending net fixed assets (2003) plus beginning net fixed assets (2002) minus 2003 taxes paid
7.
The net change in cash over a period of time is equal to
A)
cash uses plus operating cash flows
B)
additions to current assets minus expenditures on fixed assets
C)
net income plus depreciation, minus taxes and dividends
D)
ending cash minus changes in long-term debt minus additions to fixed assets
E)
cash flow from operating activities plus net cash from investment and financing activiti ...
The document contains 51 multiple choice questions about derivatives markets. It covers topics like lot sizes for index futures contracts, expiry periods for futures contracts in India, risks associated with futures and options, breakeven points for call options, underlying assets for derivatives, participants in derivatives markets, settlement of trades, and examples of calculating profits and losses on futures and options positions. The questions are designed to test knowledge of basic concepts related to derivatives.
The document contains 51 multiple choice questions about derivatives markets. It covers topics like lot sizes for index futures contracts, expiry periods for futures contracts in India, risks associated with futures and options, breakeven points for call options, underlying assets for derivatives, participants in derivatives markets, examples of forwards and futures, and profit/loss calculations for positions in index futures and options. The questions are meant to test understanding of basic concepts in derivatives trading.
Exam
Name___________________________________
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the
question.
1) Which one of these is a correct definition?
A) Long-term debt is defined as a residual claim on a firm’s assets.
B) Tangible assets are fixed assets such as patents.
C) Net working capital equals current assets plus current liabilities.
D) Current assets are assets with short lives, such as inventory.
E) Current liabilities are debts that must be repaid in 18 months or less.
1)
2) Which one of these accounts is included in net working capital?
A) inventory
B) long-term debt
C) copyright
D) manufacturing equipment
E) common stock
2)
3) The ultimate control of a corporation lies in the hands of the corporate:
A) president.
B) stockholders.
C) chairman of the board.
D) board of directors.
E) chief executive officer.
3)
4) Net working capital is defined as:
A) fixed assets minus long-term liabilities.
B) current assets plus stockholders’ equity.
C) current assets minus current liabilities.
D) total assets minus total liabilities.
E) current assets plus fixed assets.
4)
5) An asset that can be quickly converted into cash without significant loss in value is
referred to as being:
A) liquid.
B) tangible.
C) intangible.
D) fixed.
E) marketable.
5)
1
6) Noncash items refer to:
A) expenses charged against revenues that do not directly affect cash flow.
B) the costs incurred for the purchase of intangible fixed assets.
C) all accounts on the balance sheet other than cash on hand.
D) the credit sales of a firm.
E) the accounts payable of a firm.
6)
7) The cash flow resulting from a firm’s ongoing, normal business activities is referred to
as the:
A) cash flow to investors.
B) net capital spending.
C) additions to net working capital.
D) operating cash flow.
E) cash flow to retained earnings.
7)
8) Projected future financial statements are called:
A) plug statements.
B) comparative statements.
C) reconciled statements.
D) aggregated statements.
E) pro forma statements.
8)
9) Which statement expresses all accounts as a percentage of total assets?
A) common-size income statement
B) common-size balance sheet
C) pro forma balance sheet
D) pro forma income statement
E) statement of cash flows
9)
10) The quick ratio is measured as:
A) current assets minus inventory minus current liabilities.
B) current liabilities divided by current assets, plus inventory.
C) current assets minus inventory, divided by current liabilities.
D) current assets divided by current liabilities.
E) cash on hand plus current liabilities, divided by current assets.
10)
11) Ratios that measure a firm’s financial leverage are known as ________ ratios.
A) asset management
B) profitability
C) long-term solvency
D) market value
E) short-term solvency
11)
2
12) The debt-equity ratio is measured as:
A) long-term debt divided by total equity.
B) total equity divided by total debt.
C) total debt divided by total eq ...
Outline for the Diversity Management Proposal1) Problem A thoro.docxalfred4lewis58146
Outline for the Diversity Management Proposal
1) Problem: A thorough description of the problem or opportunity
a. Include a summary of how your problem or opportunity is a diversity issue (written from the reader’s perspective)
b. What is being lost if you solution is not adopted?
c. An analysis of the factors contributing to the problem or opportunity should include answers to questions like:
i. Who does it affect?
ii. Where does it impact the business the most?
iii. When did the problem start and how long has it been going on?
iv. What are the business implications of the problem? (These implications should be quantifiable and affect the reader’s job.)
d. Be specific. Provide numbers or other measures to support your points.
2)
Solution
: how will your proposal solve the problem or allow the company to take advantage of the opportunity?
a. State your solution clearly.
b. Identify your top three criteria for selecting this solution as the “best” one. (Examples: Timing? Cost? Revenue?) Compare this chosen solution to other less-favorable options.
c. Consider objections and provide support for your solution before these objections are voiced/considered.
d. Who needs to be involved in the solution?
e. How will your solution make the problem you identified better, or what are the resulting benefits? (this should be specific and measurable and address the analysis in your problem statement)
f. Why must the solution be implemented now?
3) The plan:
a. Detail the plan of action or implementation
b. Set a schedule with specific deadlines.
c. What resources will you need? Where will they come from?
d. Review the challenges that must be overcome to implement this plan and make suggestions for overcoming them.
e. Suggest a control method for evaluating the success of the plan. (How will you measure success?)
4) Conclusion:
a. Briefly summarize key points focusing primarily on how the organizational will be better once they implement your solution
b. End with a call to action
Principles of Accounting 2
1) Issued stock is:
A) Authorized shares of stock that can be sold.
B) Stock only sold to another company
C) Shares sold and in stockholders’ possession
D) Stock sold to stockholders.
2) In the statement of cash flows, which event would cause net income to be increased?
A) A decrease in Inventory
B) An increase in Prepaid Insurance
C) A decrease in Accounts Payable
D) An increase in Accounts Receivable
3) Finished Goods Inventory appears on which of the following statements on the worksheet?
A) Statement of cost of goods manufactured and income statement
B) Statement of cost of goods manufactured and balance sheet
C) Income statement and balance sheet
D) Income statement and cost of goods sold statement
4) One reason a corporation might issue bonds rather than sell stock is that:
a. Bond interest is a tax-deductible expense
b. Interest rates are high
c. Dividends will lower th.
The document compares the old and revised formats of Schedule VI of the Companies Act, 1956 regarding the balance sheet and statement of profit and loss. Some key changes highlighted include:
- The revised format only allows for a vertical presentation compared to both vertical and horizontal previously
- Headings were changed from "Sources of Funds" and "Application of Funds" to "Equity & Liabilities" and "Assets"
- Additional line items were added under shareholders' funds, non-current liabilities, current liabilities, non-current assets, and current assets.
- Definitions and disclosure requirements for items like share capital, reserves and surplus, borrowings, and receivables were expanded in the revised format
A bank reconciliation statement reconciles the balance in a bank account according to the cash book with the balance according to the bank statement. It is prepared using the bank statement and bank column of the cash book. Differences between the balances arise due to items like outstanding deposits and unpaid checks, which the bank reconciliation statement reconciles by listing all adjustments needed to agree the two balances.
This document provides a bank financial management primer that includes 44 multiple choice questions covering topics such as foreign exchange rates, export financing facilities like pre-shipment credit and post-shipment credit, foreign exchange markets, risk management, and international trade documentation standards. The questions are followed by explanations and address concepts important for understanding bank management of international trade and cross-border financing.
This document contains a 72 question financial management exam with multiple choice answers. The questions cover various topics related to financial management including capital structure, leverage, portfolio risk and return, capital asset pricing model (CAPM), and break-even analysis. Sample questions include calculating required rates of return for stocks based on CAPM, determining the effects of changes in market risk premium or beta on stock required returns, calculating capital gains from share price changes, and determining sales levels needed to increase earnings before interest and taxes by a given percentage based on information about costs, price, and quantity produced.
Acct 567 final exam solutions 100% correct answersProfessorLance
The document contains the solutions to an accounting exam with multiple choice questions covering topics such as government-wide financial reporting, transfers between funds, budgetary reporting requirements, revenue and expense recognition, and accounting for donations. It also provides journal entries and financial statements for various governmental and not-for-profit organizations.
Chapter3International Finance ManagementPiyush Gaur
This document provides sample answers and solutions to end-of-chapter questions and problems about balance of payments. It discusses key concepts like defining the balance of payments, reasons for examining BOP data, causes of US and Japan's current account balances, how countries can have overall BOP surpluses or deficits, components of official reserve assets, and how various transactions are classified in a country's BOP. It also provides an example of constructing a BOP table for Japan in 2006 and interpreting the data.
Merchant Banking and Financial Services November 2020 MCQ typeGanesha Pandian
This document contains details of a model examination for the subject Merchant Banking and Financial Services. The examination contains 100 multiple choice questions to be completed within 1 hour. The questions cover various topics related to merchant banking activities, financial institutions and their abbreviations, financial products and services, credit and financing, and other relevant terms.
This document contains a series of multiple choice questions related to economic and social issues in India. The questions cover topics such as reasons for food inflation, fiscal stimulus, current account deficit, base effect as it relates to inflation rates, teaser loans offered by banks, growth rates of GDP and per capita income, types of investments like FDI and FII, microfinance services, government objectives like inclusive growth, reasons for disinvesting in CPSEs, functions of the Reserve Bank of India, circumstances that give rise to capital gains, measures that increase the money supply, industries included in core sector growth rates, components of a country's balance of payments, and how changes in the bank rate impact monetary policy stances.
Chapter12 International Finance ManagementPiyush Gaur
Sara Lee Corporation issued its first Eurobonds, selling $100 million of three-year bonds with a 6% coupon rate. The bonds were fairly priced and offered a higher yield than US Treasuries. Sara Lee has an excellent credit rating and plans to use the bond proceeds for general corporate purposes. By issuing Eurobonds, Sara Lee can more quickly bring new debt issues to market than through domestic bonds and likely receives a lower borrowing rate. Sara Lee also raises funds in various currencies, matching its international cash flows and reducing exchange rate risk.
This document contains a 50 question practice test for the NISM Mutual Fund Distributors Certification Examination. The test covers topics related to mutual funds, including the structure and regulation of mutual funds in India. It aims to assess knowledge of key terms, concepts, and regulations pertaining to mutual funds. The test has a maximum of 50 marks, duration of 60 minutes, and pass marks of 25.
This document is the question paper for an accounting exam with 71 multiple choice questions worth a total of 100 marks. The questions cover a range of accounting concepts, principles, statements and analysis including fixed/current assets, the accounting equation, balance sheet presentation, liquidity ratios, revenue recognition, and financial statement analysis.
This document is an accounting exam question paper containing 71 multiple choice questions worth a total of 100 marks. The questions cover a range of accounting concepts and topics, including the categorization of assets, the accounting equation, balance sheet presentation, financial statement analysis, international accounting standards, and ratio analysis. The full document provides an accounting exam for students to test their knowledge across different areas of accounting principles and practices.
Ram wrote a covered call option on stock PNG with a strike price of Rs. 148 for a premium of Rs. 2.40. At expiration, PNG stock was Rs. 152. Ram's profit from the covered call strategy was Rs. 5.40, as the stock was called away at the strike price but Ram kept the premium received.
The National Stock Exchange administers a Capital Market Aptitude Test with multiple choice questions testing knowledge of concepts like options strategies, bond yields, regulatory bodies, and individuals' savings behavior. Correct answers are required to demonstrate proficiency in capital markets.
What does a company need to operate so that it has total control ove.docxjane3dyson92312
What does a company need to operate so that it has total control over its communications without dependence on other companies?
[removed]
a. Web site
[removed]
b. VSAT system
[removed]
c. extranet
[removed]
d. groupware site
[removed]
e. enterprise planning
Q2. Searching, sifting, and reorganizing pools of data to uncover useful information is called
[removed]
a. data warehousing
[removed]
b. data access
[removed]
c. data tapping
[removed]
d. data cleaning
[removed]
e. data mining
Q3. What is the major limitation of Wi-Fi?
[removed]
a. high cost
[removed]
b. privacy concerns
[removed]
c. productivity
[removed]
d. short range of distance
[removed]
e. installation challenges
Q4. Electronic conferencing is popular because it reduces travel expenses and saves money.
[removed]
a. True
[removed]
b. False
Q5. System software tells the computer's hardware how to interact with the software, what resources to use, and how to use them.
[removed]
a. True
[removed]
b. False
Q6. Which of the following best describes information?
[removed]
a. the useful interpretation of facts and figures
[removed]
b. a list of company names provided by the local Chamber of Commerce
[removed]
c. the collection of raw facts and figures
[removed]
d. controlled flow of words for a useful purpose
[removed]
e. databases and flowcharts
Q7. A cell phone store manager needs to forecast sales for the upcoming Black Friday sales weekend. Which information would be MOST helpful?
[removed]
a. the store with the least sales of all store locations for the past five years
[removed]
b. the store with the highest sales of all store locations for the past five years
[removed]
c. the cell phone model which earned the most revenue in all store locations for the past five years
[removed]
d. the total amount spent per customer in each cell phone store for all locations for the past five years
[removed]
e. the number of customers who entered the cell phone store for all locations
Q8. Trojan horses are malicious programs that replicate themselves like viruses.
[removed]
a. True
[removed]
b. False
Q9. Which type of IT threat can spread without a computer user needing to open any software?
[removed]
a. worms
[removed]
b. Trojan horses
[removed]
c. spam
[removed]
d. spyware
[removed]
e. computer viruses
Q10. What is a particularly sinister quality of spyware?
[removed]
a. It replicates itself, using up valuable computer memory.
[removed]
b. It often disguises itself as helpful software.
[removed]
c. It consumes bandwidth by flooding user inboxes with junk e-mail.
[removed]
d. It often leads to wireless mooching.
[removed]
e. It is completely legal.
Q11. The M-2 money supply includes everything that is in the M-1 money supply.
[removed]
a. True
[removed]
b. False
Q12. When buying from a supplier in France, LTD, based in Cleveland, O.
This document contains 60 multiple choice questions related to financial management concepts. The questions cover topics such as shareholders' wealth, objectives of financial management, capital structure, working capital management, capital budgeting techniques, and time value of money calculations. The correct answer is provided for each question to test understanding of fundamental finance principles.
1 bank of-baroda-probationary-officers-exam-general-socio-economic-and-bankin...Kumar Nirmal Prasad
This document contains a 50 question multiple choice exam on general socio-economic and banking awareness administered by Bank of Baroda. The exam covers topics such as open market operations, banking terms, financial instruments, fiscal and monetary policy, the structure of the Indian financial system, the objectives of SEZs, global emissions, future trading, inflation measurement, issues discussed at G8 summits, international leaders, relief allocation after natural disasters, agreements between India and Nepal, space programs, sports awards, ASEAN members, and social development schemes in India.
1 bank of-baroda-probationary-officers-exam-general-socio-economic-and-bankin...Kumar Nirmal Prasad
This document contains a 50 question multiple choice exam on general socio-economic and banking awareness administered by Bank of Baroda. The exam covers topics such as open market operations, banking terms, financial instruments, fiscal and monetary policy, the structure of the Indian financial system, the objectives of SEZs, global emissions, future trading, inflation measurement, issues discussed at G8 summits, international leaders, relief allocation after natural disasters, agreements between India and Nepal, space programs, sports awards, ASEAN members, and social development schemes in India.
CFIN 601 - Corporate Finance
Comprehensive Individual Assignment
Section 1: Multiple Choice (30 questions; 30 marks). Select the best alternative for each of the following statements.
1.
Deciding whether or not to open a new store is part of the process known as:
A)
Capital budgeting.
B)
Credit management.
C)
Capital structure.
D)
Cash management.
E)
Working capital management.
2. .
The total market value of the firm's equity is determined by _______________.
A)
the corporate treasurer
B)
the firm's financial manager
C)
the firm's stakeholders
D)
the firm's stockholders
E)
regulatory authorities
3.
Which of the following are disadvantages of the partnership form of ownership?
A)
Personal liability and double taxation
B)
Personal liability and limited firm life
C)
Double taxation and limited firm life
D)
Ease of formation and unlimited firm life
E)
Ease of formation and ease of ownership transfer
4.
Which of the following is generally true regarding liquidity as it relates to the firm?
A)
Liquidity is detrimental to a firm because it allows the firm to pay its bills more easily, thereby avoiding financial distress
B)
Liquidity is valuable to a firm because liquid assets can be sold quickly without much loss in value
C)
Liquidity is valuable to a firm because a firm can borrow money using its liquid assets, such as a warehouse, as collateral
D)
Assets are generally listed on a firm's balance sheet in the order of increasing liquidity
E)
Liquid assets generally earn a large return, especially in comparison to illiquid assets
5.
An income statement _____________________.
A)
measures performance as a snapshot on a specific date
B)
prepared according to GAAP, will show revenue when it accrues
C)
excludes accrued taxes payable
D)
includes expenses only when they are ultimately paid off in cash
E)
is an accurate representation of a firm's net cash flows
6.
Suppose you have the 2003 income statement for a firm, along with the 12/31/2002 and 12/31/2003 balance sheets. How would you calculate net capital spending?
A)
Ending net fixed assets (2003) minus beginning net fixed assets (2002) plus 2003 depreciation
B)
Beginning net fixed assets (2002) minus ending net fixed assets (2003) plus 2003 depreciation
C)
Beginning net fixed assets (2002) plus ending net fixed assets (2003) minus 2003 depreciation
D)
Ending net fixed assets (2003) minus beginning net fixed assets (2002) plus 2003 taxes paid
E)
Ending net fixed assets (2003) plus beginning net fixed assets (2002) minus 2003 taxes paid
7.
The net change in cash over a period of time is equal to
A)
cash uses plus operating cash flows
B)
additions to current assets minus expenditures on fixed assets
C)
net income plus depreciation, minus taxes and dividends
D)
ending cash minus changes in long-term debt minus additions to fixed assets
E)
cash flow from operating activities plus net cash from investment and financing activiti ...
The document contains 51 multiple choice questions about derivatives markets. It covers topics like lot sizes for index futures contracts, expiry periods for futures contracts in India, risks associated with futures and options, breakeven points for call options, underlying assets for derivatives, participants in derivatives markets, settlement of trades, and examples of calculating profits and losses on futures and options positions. The questions are designed to test knowledge of basic concepts related to derivatives.
The document contains 51 multiple choice questions about derivatives markets. It covers topics like lot sizes for index futures contracts, expiry periods for futures contracts in India, risks associated with futures and options, breakeven points for call options, underlying assets for derivatives, participants in derivatives markets, examples of forwards and futures, and profit/loss calculations for positions in index futures and options. The questions are meant to test understanding of basic concepts in derivatives trading.
Exam
Name___________________________________
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the
question.
1) Which one of these is a correct definition?
A) Long-term debt is defined as a residual claim on a firm’s assets.
B) Tangible assets are fixed assets such as patents.
C) Net working capital equals current assets plus current liabilities.
D) Current assets are assets with short lives, such as inventory.
E) Current liabilities are debts that must be repaid in 18 months or less.
1)
2) Which one of these accounts is included in net working capital?
A) inventory
B) long-term debt
C) copyright
D) manufacturing equipment
E) common stock
2)
3) The ultimate control of a corporation lies in the hands of the corporate:
A) president.
B) stockholders.
C) chairman of the board.
D) board of directors.
E) chief executive officer.
3)
4) Net working capital is defined as:
A) fixed assets minus long-term liabilities.
B) current assets plus stockholders’ equity.
C) current assets minus current liabilities.
D) total assets minus total liabilities.
E) current assets plus fixed assets.
4)
5) An asset that can be quickly converted into cash without significant loss in value is
referred to as being:
A) liquid.
B) tangible.
C) intangible.
D) fixed.
E) marketable.
5)
1
6) Noncash items refer to:
A) expenses charged against revenues that do not directly affect cash flow.
B) the costs incurred for the purchase of intangible fixed assets.
C) all accounts on the balance sheet other than cash on hand.
D) the credit sales of a firm.
E) the accounts payable of a firm.
6)
7) The cash flow resulting from a firm’s ongoing, normal business activities is referred to
as the:
A) cash flow to investors.
B) net capital spending.
C) additions to net working capital.
D) operating cash flow.
E) cash flow to retained earnings.
7)
8) Projected future financial statements are called:
A) plug statements.
B) comparative statements.
C) reconciled statements.
D) aggregated statements.
E) pro forma statements.
8)
9) Which statement expresses all accounts as a percentage of total assets?
A) common-size income statement
B) common-size balance sheet
C) pro forma balance sheet
D) pro forma income statement
E) statement of cash flows
9)
10) The quick ratio is measured as:
A) current assets minus inventory minus current liabilities.
B) current liabilities divided by current assets, plus inventory.
C) current assets minus inventory, divided by current liabilities.
D) current assets divided by current liabilities.
E) cash on hand plus current liabilities, divided by current assets.
10)
11) Ratios that measure a firm’s financial leverage are known as ________ ratios.
A) asset management
B) profitability
C) long-term solvency
D) market value
E) short-term solvency
11)
2
12) The debt-equity ratio is measured as:
A) long-term debt divided by total equity.
B) total equity divided by total debt.
C) total debt divided by total eq ...
Outline for the Diversity Management Proposal1) Problem A thoro.docxalfred4lewis58146
Outline for the Diversity Management Proposal
1) Problem: A thorough description of the problem or opportunity
a. Include a summary of how your problem or opportunity is a diversity issue (written from the reader’s perspective)
b. What is being lost if you solution is not adopted?
c. An analysis of the factors contributing to the problem or opportunity should include answers to questions like:
i. Who does it affect?
ii. Where does it impact the business the most?
iii. When did the problem start and how long has it been going on?
iv. What are the business implications of the problem? (These implications should be quantifiable and affect the reader’s job.)
d. Be specific. Provide numbers or other measures to support your points.
2)
Solution
: how will your proposal solve the problem or allow the company to take advantage of the opportunity?
a. State your solution clearly.
b. Identify your top three criteria for selecting this solution as the “best” one. (Examples: Timing? Cost? Revenue?) Compare this chosen solution to other less-favorable options.
c. Consider objections and provide support for your solution before these objections are voiced/considered.
d. Who needs to be involved in the solution?
e. How will your solution make the problem you identified better, or what are the resulting benefits? (this should be specific and measurable and address the analysis in your problem statement)
f. Why must the solution be implemented now?
3) The plan:
a. Detail the plan of action or implementation
b. Set a schedule with specific deadlines.
c. What resources will you need? Where will they come from?
d. Review the challenges that must be overcome to implement this plan and make suggestions for overcoming them.
e. Suggest a control method for evaluating the success of the plan. (How will you measure success?)
4) Conclusion:
a. Briefly summarize key points focusing primarily on how the organizational will be better once they implement your solution
b. End with a call to action
Principles of Accounting 2
1) Issued stock is:
A) Authorized shares of stock that can be sold.
B) Stock only sold to another company
C) Shares sold and in stockholders’ possession
D) Stock sold to stockholders.
2) In the statement of cash flows, which event would cause net income to be increased?
A) A decrease in Inventory
B) An increase in Prepaid Insurance
C) A decrease in Accounts Payable
D) An increase in Accounts Receivable
3) Finished Goods Inventory appears on which of the following statements on the worksheet?
A) Statement of cost of goods manufactured and income statement
B) Statement of cost of goods manufactured and balance sheet
C) Income statement and balance sheet
D) Income statement and cost of goods sold statement
4) One reason a corporation might issue bonds rather than sell stock is that:
a. Bond interest is a tax-deductible expense
b. Interest rates are high
c. Dividends will lower th.
Objective questions and answers of financial managementVineet Saini
- The document contains questions and answers related to financial management concepts like ratio analysis, financial planning, and capital budgeting.
- It includes true/false and multiple choice questions testing understanding of various financial ratios, their calculations and interpretations. Key ratios covered include liquidity, activity, profitability and solvency ratios.
- Multiple choice questions also assess knowledge of financial planning techniques like budgeting, cash budgeting and projected financial statements. Key concepts tested include percentage of sales method and assumptions in projections.
- Capital budgeting questions examine understanding of concepts like evaluation criteria, relevant costs, cash flows and techniques like payback period, NPV and IRR.
This document contains multiple choice questions about corporate finance concepts like valuation methods, ratios like price-earnings ratio and how they are calculated, capital budgeting techniques like net present value, internal rate of return and payback period. It also includes questions about corporate social responsibility, governance, and decisions around mutually exclusive investment projects.
Unit: 1 Introduction to Indian Economy : Alternative Development Strategies – Trends in
National Income, Growth and Structure since 1991 - New Industrial Policy 1991 – Recent changes
in Trade Policy - Competition Policy - Public Sector Reform - Privatization and Disinvestments –
Progress of Human Development in India
Unit: 2 Planning and Economic Development : Redefining the Role of the State – Human Capital
Formation in India – Problem of Foreign Aid – Economic Reforms and Reduction of Poverty –
Measures to Remove Regional Disparities
Unit: 3 Indian Industries : Review of Industrial Growth under 10th and 11th Five year plan -
Growth and present state of IT industry in India – Outsourcing, Nationalism and Globalization –
Small Sector Industrial Policy
Unit: 4 a) Foreign Trade: Trends of Exports and Imports of India – Composition of India’s
Foreign Trade - Direction of India’s Foreign Trade – Growth and Structure of India’s Foreign
Trade since 1991 – Balance of Payments since the New Economic Reforms of 1991.
b) Foreign Capital : Need for Foreign Capital – Foreign Investment Inflows – Role of Special
Economic Zones (SEZ)
Unit: 5 India in the Global Setting : India in Global Trade – Liberalization and Integration with
the Global Economy – Globalization Strategies – India’s Foreign Exchange Reserves –
Convertibility of the Rupee – WTO and India.
1) Which of the following statements is true about money A) Money is.pdffashionfootwear1
1) Which of the following statements is true about money? A) Money is sometimes viewed as a
lubricant that greases the wheels of economic activity B) Without money, most transactions
would be very difficult. C) Money influences the behavior of the economy as a whole D) All of
the above are true. 2) Which of the following items are NOT considered to be money by all
economists? A) Money market accounts B) Certificates of Deposit C) Travelers\' checks D)
Stock and bonds 3) All financial securities share the characteristic that they represent a claim to
future ownership B) interest income C) cash flows D) dividend payments 4) Holders of exchange
their bonds into bonds can shares of the company\'s common stock at a predetermined price. A)
investment grade B) callable C) convertible D) junk 5) Transaction costs, portfolio
diversification, and asymmetric information all refer to A) the reasons the public prefers indirect
finance to direct finance the reasons the public prefers the primary market to the secondary
market. C) the reasons the public prefers direct finance to indirect finance D) the reasons the
public prefers the secondary market to the primary market. 6) The Glass-Steagall Act A) did not
allow commercial banks to give mortgage loans B) did not allow commercial banks to sell T-
bills did not allow commercial banks to buy T-bills D) did not allow commercial banks to engage
in investment banking
Solution
(1) (D)
Money is the medium of exchange, which impacts economic behavior and without which most
transactions will become difficult.
(2) (D)
Stocks and bonds are capital market instruments which are not included in money.
(3) (C)
Stocks represent claim in future dividends (a cash inflow) and Bonds represent a claim to future
interest payments (a cash inflow).
(4) (C)
(5) (C)
Indirect finance is characterized by high transaction costs, information asymmetry and lack of
portfolio diversification.
(6) (D).
- India's current account balance ended in a surplus of 0.9% of GDP in FY21 for the first time in 17 years due to a narrowing of the trade deficit as imports contracted during the COVID-19 pandemic. However, the current account slipped back into a deficit in the fourth quarter as the economy reopened.
- India has traditionally had a trade deficit with countries like China and Switzerland but a surplus with the US, UAE, and other nations. Remittances are a significant source of foreign exchange.
- Tools like the Sovereign Gold Bond scheme aim to reduce India's trade deficit by mobilizing domestic gold reserves and lowering gold imports. However, full capital account convertibility could increase
The document appears to be an exam for a finance course consisting of multiple choice questions covering various finance topics. It includes 20 questions testing concepts such as the MM extension with growth, private placements, net advantage of leasing, purchasing power parity, residual dividend policy, bond pricing, effects of recapitalization, bankruptcy law, foreign exchange rates, mergers and acquisitions, option types, and swaps. The questions require understanding and application of key principles in these areas of corporate finance.
This document contains a model test paper for the Common Proficiency Test (CPT) administered by the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India. The test has 4 sections and 200 total marks. Section A covers fundamentals of accounting with 60 marks. It contains 46 multiple choice questions testing concepts like the accounting equation, double entry system, inventory valuation, depreciation, partnership accounts, and more. Correct answers receive 1 mark while wrong answers are penalized 0.25 marks.
Vicinity Jobs’ data includes more than three million 2023 OJPs and thousands of skills. Most skills appear in less than 0.02% of job postings, so most postings rely on a small subset of commonly used terms, like teamwork.
Laura Adkins-Hackett, Economist, LMIC, and Sukriti Trehan, Data Scientist, LMIC, presented their research exploring trends in the skills listed in OJPs to develop a deeper understanding of in-demand skills. This research project uses pointwise mutual information and other methods to extract more information about common skills from the relationships between skills, occupations and regions.
How Does CRISIL Evaluate Lenders in India for Credit RatingsShaheen Kumar
CRISIL evaluates lenders in India by analyzing financial performance, loan portfolio quality, risk management practices, capital adequacy, market position, and adherence to regulatory requirements. This comprehensive assessment ensures a thorough evaluation of creditworthiness and financial strength. Each criterion is meticulously examined to provide credible and reliable ratings.
Independent Study - College of Wooster Research (2023-2024) FDI, Culture, Glo...AntoniaOwensDetwiler
"Does Foreign Direct Investment Negatively Affect Preservation of Culture in the Global South? Case Studies in Thailand and Cambodia."
Do elements of globalization, such as Foreign Direct Investment (FDI), negatively affect the ability of countries in the Global South to preserve their culture? This research aims to answer this question by employing a cross-sectional comparative case study analysis utilizing methods of difference. Thailand and Cambodia are compared as they are in the same region and have a similar culture. The metric of difference between Thailand and Cambodia is their ability to preserve their culture. This ability is operationalized by their respective attitudes towards FDI; Thailand imposes stringent regulations and limitations on FDI while Cambodia does not hesitate to accept most FDI and imposes fewer limitations. The evidence from this study suggests that FDI from globally influential countries with high gross domestic products (GDPs) (e.g. China, U.S.) challenges the ability of countries with lower GDPs (e.g. Cambodia) to protect their culture. Furthermore, the ability, or lack thereof, of the receiving countries to protect their culture is amplified by the existence and implementation of restrictive FDI policies imposed by their governments.
My study abroad in Bali, Indonesia, inspired this research topic as I noticed how globalization is changing the culture of its people. I learned their language and way of life which helped me understand the beauty and importance of cultural preservation. I believe we could all benefit from learning new perspectives as they could help us ideate solutions to contemporary issues and empathize with others.
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Lecture slide titled Fraud Risk Mitigation, Webinar Lecture Delivered at the Society for West African Internal Audit Practitioners (SWAIAP) on Wednesday, November 8, 2023.
5 Tips for Creating Standard Financial ReportsEasyReports
Well-crafted financial reports serve as vital tools for decision-making and transparency within an organization. By following the undermentioned tips, you can create standardized financial reports that effectively communicate your company's financial health and performance to stakeholders.
"Does Foreign Direct Investment Negatively Affect Preservation of Culture in the Global South? Case Studies in Thailand and Cambodia."
Do elements of globalization, such as Foreign Direct Investment (FDI), negatively affect the ability of countries in the Global South to preserve their culture? This research aims to answer this question by employing a cross-sectional comparative case study analysis utilizing methods of difference. Thailand and Cambodia are compared as they are in the same region and have a similar culture. The metric of difference between Thailand and Cambodia is their ability to preserve their culture. This ability is operationalized by their respective attitudes towards FDI; Thailand imposes stringent regulations and limitations on FDI while Cambodia does not hesitate to accept most FDI and imposes fewer limitations. The evidence from this study suggests that FDI from globally influential countries with high gross domestic products (GDPs) (e.g. China, U.S.) challenges the ability of countries with lower GDPs (e.g. Cambodia) to protect their culture. Furthermore, the ability, or lack thereof, of the receiving countries to protect their culture is amplified by the existence and implementation of restrictive FDI policies imposed by their governments.
My study abroad in Bali, Indonesia, inspired this research topic as I noticed how globalization is changing the culture of its people. I learned their language and way of life which helped me understand the beauty and importance of cultural preservation. I believe we could all benefit from learning new perspectives as they could help us ideate solutions to contemporary issues and empathize with others.
Falcon stands out as a top-tier P2P Invoice Discounting platform in India, bridging esteemed blue-chip companies and eager investors. Our goal is to transform the investment landscape in India by establishing a comprehensive destination for borrowers and investors with diverse profiles and needs, all while minimizing risk. What sets Falcon apart is the elimination of intermediaries such as commercial banks and depository institutions, allowing investors to enjoy higher yields.
Economic Risk Factor Update: June 2024 [SlideShare]Commonwealth
May’s reports showed signs of continued economic growth, said Sam Millette, director, fixed income, in his latest Economic Risk Factor Update.
For more market updates, subscribe to The Independent Market Observer at https://blog.commonwealth.com/independent-market-observer.
Eco-Innovations and Firm Heterogeneity.Evidence from Italian Family and Nonf...
Financial markets questionpaper
1. 1. At 10% annual inflation rate, an item costing Rs. 100 today, would cost Rs. _______
after two year.
[2 Marks]
(a) Rs. 141
(b) Rs. 121
(c) Rs. 142
(d) Rs. 122
(e) Not Attempted
2. Which of the following is true?
[3 Marks]
(a) The initial public issues are made in primary market whereas all subsequent issues are
made in the secondary markets.
(b) Primary markets are legal whereas secondary markets are not.
(c) Primary markets deal in shares whereas secondary markets are meant for debentures.
(d) Corporates raise resources directly from the investors through the Primary Market,
whereas in the Secondary Markets, investors buy and sell securities from one another.
(e) Not Attempted
3. Which short-term (up to one year) instrument is issued by government as a means of
financing it's cash requirements?
[1 Marks]
(a) ADRs
(b) Treasury bills
(c) Equity
(d) GDRs
(e) Not Attempted
2. 4. The future value of a Rs.10,000 investment done today, which gives an annual rate of return
of 10% per annum, after two years would grow to ________.
[2 Marks]
(a) Rs. 12,100
(b) Rs. 12,200
(c) Rs. 12,500
(d) Rs. 12,600
(e) Not Attempted
5. The benchmark stock market index of India is ________.
[3 Marks]
(a) S&P 500
(b) Nikkei 225
(c) Dow Jones
(d) the NSE Nifty 50
(e) Not Attempted
6. Profitability Ratio is measured as _________.
[1 Marks]
(a) sales growth of a firm
(b) future growth prospects of a company
(c) operating / management efficiency of a firm
(d) payout to shareholders
(e) Not Attempted
7. Which of the following is the most suitable option for an investor with low risk appetite?
[2 Marks]
(a) Junk Bonds
(b) Equities
(c) Fixed Deposits
(d) Derivatives
(e) Not Attempted
8. Which securities amongst these have proved to be a better bet against inflation?
3. [1 Marks]
(a) Debentures
(b) Bank Deposit
(c) Fixed Deposit
(d) Equity
(e) Not Attempted
9. The Best Sell order is the order with the ________.
[1 Marks]
(a) Average Buy price
(b) Lowest Sell Price
(c) Average Sell price
(d) Highest Buy Price
(e) Not Attempted
10. Which of the following is not a Leverage/Capital structure ratios?
[1 Marks]
(a) Interest Coverage
(b) Current Ratio
(c) Debt-Asset
(d) Debt-Equity
(e) Not Attempted
11. Which rate of return accounts for intra-year compounding?
[2 Marks]
(a) Effective
(b) Stated
(c) Both of the above
(d) None of the above
(e) Not Attempted
12. Which of the following is TRUE about Primary Markets?
[3 Marks]
(a) Primary Market is the place where public can buy and sell securities from one another.
4. (b) Primary Markets refer to the mobilization of funds from the public by corporates
through the issue of shares / debentures.
(c) Primary Markets are places where only short term instruments are traded.
(d) Primary Markets are markets where commodities are sold.
(e) Not Attempted
13. If a client buys shares worth Rs. 3,30,000 and sells shares worth Rs. 5,70,000 through a
broker, then the maximum brokerage payable to the broker is _____________.
[2 Marks]
(a) Rs. 22000
(b) Rs. 25000
(c) Rs.32500
(d) Rs. 22500
(e) Not Attempted
14. Money market mutual funds can invest in _______.
[2 Marks]
(a) treasury bills
(b) certificate of deposits
(c) commercial paper
(d) All of the above
(e) Not Attempted
15. The holders of which instrument are members of the company and have voting rights?
[1 Marks]
(a) Commercial Paper
(b) Treasury Bill
(c) Debenture
(d) Equity
(e) Not Attempted
16. ________________ is maintained by an Exchange to make good investor claims, which
may arise out of non-settlement of obligations by the trading member, who has been
declared defaulter, in respect of trades executed on the Exchange.
5. [2 Marks]
(a) Investor Protection Fund (IPF)
(b) Investor Reimbursement Fund (IRF)
(c) Investor Education and Reimbursement Fund (IERF)
(d) Investor Education and Protection Fund (IEPF)
(e) Not Attempted
17. How can an investor acquire equity shares?
[2 Marks]
(a) Secondary Market only
(b) Through the Primary Market or Secondary Market
(c) Money Market
(d) Primary Market only
(e) Not Attempted
18. What is the function of the securities market?
[1 Marks]
(a) A place where buyers and sellers of securities meet to enter into a transaction.
(b) A place where entrepreneurs can raise resources for their businesses.
(c) A place where various financial products such as shares, debentures, bonds, etc.
are available for buying and selling.
(d) All of the above
(e) Not Attempted
19. Calculate the value 4 years hence of a deposit of Rs. 1,000 made today if the interest rate is
8% (compounded annually).
[2 Marks]
(a) Rs.1,320
(b) Rs.1,040
(c) Rs.1,000
(d) Rs.1,360
(e) Not Attempted
6. 20. At 10% annual inflation rate, an item costing Rs. 100 today, would cost Rs. _______
after one year.
[2 Marks]
(a) Rs. 110
(b) Rs.101
(c) Rs.115
(d) Rs. 109
(e) Not Attempted
21. ______________ the interest coverage ratio better is the firm's ability to meet its interest
burden.
[1 Marks]
(a) Higher
(b) Lower
(c) Does not matter
(d) None of the above
(e) Not Attempted
22. Which of the following is not true about ADR?
[2 Marks]
(a) An ADR is a U.S. dollar denominated form of equity ownership in a non-U.S. company.
(b) ADRs may be used in public or private markets inside or outside US.
(c) ADRs do not eliminate the currency risk associated with an investment in a non-U.S.
company.
(d) ADR represents the foreign shares of the company held on deposit by a custodian bank
in the company's home country.
(e) Not Attempted
23. _________ is the process by which physical certificates of an investor are converted to
an equivalent number of securities in electronic form.
[1 Marks]
(a) Materialisation
(b) Rematerialisation
(c) Conversion
(d) Dematerialization
(e) Not Attempted
7. 24. The future value of a Rs.12,000 investment made today, which gives an annual rate of
return of 10% per annum, after one year should be _________.
[2 Marks]
(a) Rs. 13,100
(b) Rs. 13,200
(c) Rs. 12,200
(d) Rs. 12,500
(e) Not Attempted
25. Book Building exercise through the NSE's on-line system offers the following benefits:
[1 Marks]
(a) A fair, efficient & transparent method for collecting bids using latest electronic systems.
(b) Costs involved in the issue are far less than those in a normal IPO.
(c) The system reduces the time taken for completion of the issue process.
(d) All of the above
(e) Not Attempted
26. If a client buys shares worth Rs. 2,25,000 and sells shares worth Rs. 5,75,000 through a
broker, then the maximum brokerage payable to the broker is _____________.
[2 Marks]
(a) Rs. 21000
(b) Rs. 25000
(c) Rs. 20000
(d) Rs. 22000
(e) Not Attempted
27. Which of the following is not true of Demat account?
[1 Marks]
(a) One is not restricted to having account with only one DP.
(b) One does not need to keep any minimum balance of securities in a Demat account with a
DP.
(c) One cannot open more than one account with the same DP.
(d) One can dematerialise and hold investments such as debt instruments, mutual fund units,
government securities etc. in a single demat account.
(e) Not Attempted
28. Which of the following is not true about Exchange Traded Funds (ETF)?
8. [3 Marks]
(a) An ETF is like a Bank deposit.
(b) An ETF represents a basket of stocks that reflect an index such as the Nifty.
(c) An ETF's price changes throughout the day, fluctuating with supply and demand.
(d) By owning an ETF, you get the diversification of an index fund plus the flexibility of a
stock.
(e) Not Attempted
29. Who among the following can invest in the Debt market?
[1 Marks]
(a) Financial Institutions
(b) Retail Investors
(c) Mutual Funds
(d) All of the above
(e) Not Attempted
30. NCDEX is _________.
[1 Marks]
(a) National Commodities and Derivatives Exchange
(b) National Currency and Derivatives Exchange
(c) New York Commodity & Derivatives Exchange
(d) None of the above
(e) Not Attempted
31. Buying and selling of shares can be done through a ________.
[2 Marks]
(a) Depository
(b) Bank
(c) Stock Exchange
(d) Finance company
(e) Not Attempted
9. 32. What is an ISIN?
[1 Marks]
(a) International Securities Identification Number
(b) Intermediate Securities Identification Nomenclature
(c) Internal Securities Identification Number
(d) Indian Securities Identification Number
(e) Not Attempted
33. In the balance sheet of a company, amounts due to the suppliers of goods and services
brought on credit, will reflect under the head ____________.
[2 Marks]
(a) Loans and Advances
(b) Current Liabilities and Provisions
(c) Miscellaneous expenditure
(d) Contingent Liabilities
(e) Not Attempted
34. Equity shares have mostly __________ all other forms of investments in the long term.
[1 Marks]
(a) remained neutral when compared to
(b) outperformed
(c) underperformed
(d) given negative returns when compared to
(e) Not Attempted
35. Which of the following problems have been eliminated by Depositories?
[1 Marks]
(a) Reduction in the share transfer time to the buyer.
(b) Risk of stolen, fake, forged shares.
(c) Stamp duty on transfer of shares in dematerialized form.
(d) All of the above
(e) Not Attempted
10. 36. What is the current yield if 11.50% bond sells in the market for Rs. 125?
[2 Marks]
(a) 9
(b) 9.2
(c) 9.25
(d) 9.15
(e) Not Attempted
37. Which is/are the ways by which companies can raise foreign currency resources?
[2 Marks]
(a) American Depository Share
(b) Global Depository Receipts
(c) Euro Issues
(d) All of the above
(e) Not Attempted
38. If a client buys shares worth Rs. 4,40,000 and sells shares worth Rs. 5,60,000 through a
broker, then the maximum brokerage payable to the broker is _____________.
[2 Marks]
(a) Rs. 12000
(b) Rs. 24000
(c) Rs. 25000
(d) Rs. 22000
(e) Not Attempted
39. Which of the following has voting rights in a company?
[2 Marks]
(a) Equity shareholders
(b) Creditors
(c) Debenture holders
(d) Preference shareholders
(e) Not Attempted
11. 40. 'Ask' means the ________.
[1 Marks]
(a) Traded Price
(b) Market price
(c) Seller's price
(d) Buyer's price
(e) Not Attempted
41. What is an Index?
[3 Marks]
(a) A basket of shares
(b) An indicator of market movement.
(c) An indicator of the economic conditions of the country.
(d) All of the above
(e) Not Attempted
42. Listing of securities means ______________.
[1 Marks]
(a) admission of securities of an issuer to trading privileges without a formal agreement
with the stock exchange
(b) admission of securities of an issuer to trading privileges on a stock exchange through a
formal agreement
(c) admission of securities of an issuer to clearing privileges on a stock exchange without a
formal agreement
(d) admission of securities of an issuer to clearing privileges on a stock exchange through a
formal agreement
(e) Not Attempted
43. Nifty index is used in _________.
[1 Marks]
(a) Derivatives
(b) Index Funds
(c) Exchange Traded Funds (ETFs)
(d) All of the above
(e) Not Attempted
12. 44. Which instrument among these have historically shown to give the highest returns
when invested over long periods?
[1 Marks]
(a) Debentures
(b) Bank Deposit
(c) Equity
(d) Fixed Deposit
(e) Not Attempted
45. Demutualisation of stock exchanges refer to _________.
[2 Marks]
(a) the legal structure of an exchange whereby the ownership, the management and the
trading rights at the exchange are segregated from one another
(b) the legal structure of an exchange whereby the ownership and the management at
the exchange are segregated from one another
(c) the legal structure of an exchange whereby the ownership, the management and the
trading rights at the exchange vests in one person
(d) None of the above
(e) Not Attempted
46. Which of the following is not true about offer of shares through normal public issue?
[1 Marks]
(a) In normal Public issue, investors bid for shares at the floor price or above and after the
closure of the process the price is determined for allotment of shares.
(b) In case of the normal public issue the demand for an issue is known at the close of the
issue.
(c) In case of offer of shares through normal public issue price at which securities will be
allotted is known to an investor in advance .
(d) None of the above
(e) Not Attempted
47. If a client buys shares worth Rs. 2,25,000 and sells shares worth Rs. 75,000 through
a broker, then the maximum brokerage payable to the broker is _____________.
13. [2 Marks]
(a) Rs. 7500
(b) Rs. 6000
(c) Rs. 6500
(d) Rs. 8000
48. The price band in book building is decided by ___________.
[1 Marks]
(a) The market regulator
(b) The Stock Exchange
(c) the issuing company in consultancy with Merchant Bankers
(d) Controller of Capital Issue
(e) Not Attempted
49. What factor/s affect the interest rate?
[2 Marks]
(a) Government borrowings
(b) Supply of money
(c) Inflation rate
(d) All of the above
(e) Not Attempted
50. The Best Buy order is the order with the _______.
[1 Marks]
(a) Highest Buy price
(b) Average Sell price
(c) Average Buy price
(d) Lowest Sell price
(e) Not Attempted
51. The future value of a Rs.12,000 investment, which gives an annual rate of return of 10% per
annum, after two years would grow to ___________.
[2 Marks]
14. (a) Rs. 14,750
(b) Rs. 14,500
(c) Rs. 12,600
(d) Rs. 14,520
(e) Not Attempted
52. The value of Rs.10,000 received today is ________ than the value of Rs. 10,000
received after one year.
[2 Marks]
(a) can't say
(b) the same
(c) more
(d) less
(e) Not Attempted
53. Which of the following is true about mutual fund?
[3 Marks]
(a) Mutual funds are risk-free investments.
(b) Mutual Funds assure fixed returns.
(c) In mutual funds the target investors are the High Net worth investors.
(d) None of the above
(e) Not Attempted
54. T+2 settlement cycle in a stock exchange means, the trade is settled ______ days after the
trade
[2 Marks]
(a) 1 day
(b) Same day as the trade
(c) 2 days
(d) 3 days
(e) Not Attempted
55. Who are the participants in the Securities Market?
15. [1 Marks]
(a) Investor
(b) Intermediaries, such as merchant bankers, brokers etc.
(c) Issuers, i.e. companies who issue shares
(d) All of the above
(e) Not Attempted
56. The safer the debt instrument, the ___________ is the rate of interest.
[1 Marks]
(a) Lower
(b) Higher
(c) Safety of debt instrument will not have any impact on the interest rate
(d) None of the above
(e) Not Attempted
57. What will be the future value of Rs.12,000 invested today with an annual rate of return of
20% per annum after one year?
[2 Marks]
(a) Rs. 14,000
(b) Rs, 14,250
(c) Rs. 14,400
(d) Rs. 14,500
(e) Not Attempted
58. Calculate the value 5 years hence of a deposit of Rs. 1,000 made today if the interest rate is
8% (compounded annually).
[2 Marks]
(a) Rs.1,040
(b) Rs.1,400
(c) Rs.1,000
(d) Rs.1,469
(e) Not Attempted
59. Stock Split leads to ________.
16. [1 Marks]
(a) No change in market capitalization
(b) Increase in the number of outstanding shares
(c) Decrease in the face value of the share of the company
(d) All of the above
(e) Not Attempted
60. At 6% annual inflation rate, an item costing Rs. 100 today, would cost Rs. _______ after
two years.
[2 Marks]
(a) Rs. 124.30
(b) Rs. 122.46
(c) Rs. 224
(d) Rs. 112.36
(e) Not Attempted