The document is a model examination paper for a D.Pharm exit exam featuring a series of multiple-choice questions across various topics related to pharmacy, pharmacology, and drug regulations. It includes queries on the history of pharmacopoeias, pharmaceutical practices, and drug classifications alongside detailed instructions on how to complete the exam. The paper also covers regulatory aspects, patient care, and the practical application of pharmacy knowledge.

1. Paper-1 5
* *
D. PHARM. – EXIT EXAMINATION
PAPER-1
Model Paper
Shubham Maurya
Time: 3 Hours Total Marks: 150
SECTION-A
1. The first Indian Pharmacopoeia (IP) was published in ____.
a. 1955 b. 1962
c. 1986 d. 1965
2. The word „Pharmacy‟ is derived from the Greek word:
a. Pharmaces b. Pharma
c. Pharmacist d. Pharmakon
3. Hard rubber is formed by the process of:
a. Vulcanisation b. Oxidation
c. Polymorphism d. None
4. Which glass is used for non-parentral product?
a. Borosilicate glass
b. Treated soda lime glass
c. Regular soda lime glass
d. General purpose soda lime glass
5. Which of the following is cosolvent?
a. Ethanol b. Water
c. Alcohol d. Syrups
6. Which of the following is used to colour cosmetics, lotions, and
other preparations for external use?
a. Mineral colour b. Plant colour
c. Animal colour d. Synthetic colour
7. Most simple and most frequently used method for size separation
is _____.
a. Sieve shaker b. Cyclone separator
c. Air separator d. Elutriation
Instructions:
 Attempt All Questions.
 Use Black Ball point pen for shading only one circle for correct option of a question.
 No Marks will be awarded for cutting, erasing, overwriting and multiple circle shading.

2. 6 DPEE Practice Set
* *
8. Ball mill work on the principle of:
a. Impact b. Attrition
c. Crushing d. Impact and attrition
9. Very fine powders must be passed through sieve no.:
a. 22 b. 44
c. 10 d. 120
10. Time of drying in FBD is:
a. 10-15 min b. 15-20 min
c. 20-40 min d. 40-60 min
11. Theory of filtration is based on which of the following?
a. Stokes’ Law b. Darcy’s Law
c. Kick’s Law d. Fick’s Law
12. A clear, pleasantly flavoured sweetened hydro-alcoholic liquid is:
a. Solution b. Syrup
c. Drop d. Elixir
13. Lotion is applied to skin:
a. With friction b. Without friction
c. Both d. NOTA
14. Separation of emulsion into two phases is called:
a. Creaming b. Cracking
c. Phase inversion d. All
15. The range of solid particles in suspension is from______.
a. 0.5-5.0 b. 0.05-5.0
c. 0.5-50.0 d. 0.1-100.0
16. Which of the following preparation is used for topical
application?
a. Pessaries b. Ointment
c. Injection d. None of the above
17. ____________ tablets after oral administration release the
drug at a desired time and prolong the effect of the
medicament.
a. Press coated b. Film coated
c. Sugar coated d. Sustained action
18. GMP stands for_____.
a. Good Manufacturing Practice
b. Good Manufacturing Procedure
c. Good Marketing Practice
d. Good Marketing Procedure

3. Paper-1 7
* *
19. The term validation in calibration is used for __________.
a. Equipment b. Processes
c. All of the above d. None of the above
20. PEG stands for______.
a. Polystyrene Glycol Chain b. Polyethylene Glycol Chain
c. Polymorphine Glycol Chain d. None of the above
21. Size of nanoparticle is _____.
a. 10-100 nm b. 100-200 nm
c. 10-200 nm d. 200-400 nm
22. A vertical fluidised bed dryer is made up of stainless steel or
____________.
a. Iron b. Plastic
c. Copper d. Aluminium
23. The principle of freeze drying involves removal of water from
the frozen material by _______.
a. Drying b. Sublimation
c. Evaporation d. Lyophilisation
24. __________ tablets are prepared by compressing the granules
of incompatible ingredients around the previously compressed
tablet.
a. Layered b. Press coated
c. Sugar coated d. Film coated
25. ____________ tablets disintegrate in the intestines and not in
the stomach.
a. Implants b. Enteric coated
c. Vaginal d. Sustained action
26. In_____, hot air or gas (at high pressure) is introduced within
a container through its perforated bottom.
a. Vacuum dryer b. Fluidised bed dryer
c. Freeze dryer d. Tray dryer
27. What will be the suitable sieve number for screening the dry
granules?
a. 20-22 b. 15-27
c. 16-18 d. 14-20
28. FPC stands for_______?
a. Finished Product Control b. Final Product Control
c. Formal Product Control d. Finished production control

4. 8 DPEE Practice Set
* *
29. Which of the following is used to measure tablet friability?
a. Hydrophilicity b. Monsanto Hardness Tester
c. Roche Friabilator d. Vemier Calliper
30. ____ can be defined as the physical form of a dose of a
chemical compound used as a drug or medication intended for
administration or consumption.
a. Dosage form b. Liquid form
c. Solid form d. Gaseous form
31. __________ is a process of producing granules in a single
equipment utilising spraying of a binder solution against a
fluidised powder bed.
a. High shear mixture b. Fluid bed granulation
c. Extrusion d. Spheronisation
32. Fine silica, talc, and magnesium stearate are examples of
__________.
a. Lubricants b. Anti-adherents
c. Binders d. Glidants
33. ___________ in tablets occurs after storage.
a. Binding b. Capping
c. Picking d. Sticking
34. cGMP is a part of:
a. Quality control b. Quality assurance
c. Research and development d. Marketing
35. In cGMP, c stands for:
a. Critical b. Clinical
c. Current d. Council
36. SEDDS stands for______.
a. Sustain Emulsifying Drug Delivery System
b. Self-Emulsifying Drug Delivery System
c. Suitable Emulsifying Drug Delivery System
d. None of the above
37. Which one of the following is not an example of clinical
approved liposomal drug?
a. Doxorubicin b. Liposomal Daunorubicin
c. Liposomal Cytarabin d. Diclofenac
38. _______is an emergency lifesaving procedure in case of
poisoning, kidney failure, and in patients who have to undergo
a renal transplant.
a. Digestion b. Haemodialysis
c. Dialysis d. Peristalsis

5. Paper-1 9
* *
39. Supplement of the second edition of IP was added in____ .
a. 1960 b. 1975
c. 1965 d. 1968
40. Treated soda-lime glass is:
a. Type I b. Type II
c. Type III d. Type IV
SECTION-B
41. Pharmacy Council of India established in year ______.
a. 1953 b. 1948
c. 1956 d. 1958
42. ________ is oral communication of information by the
pharmacist to the patient or caregiver to ensure proper use of
drugs and devices.
a. Patient counselling b. Compounding
c. Therapeutics d. Patient care
43. Which schedule deals with the list of narcotic drugs and
psychotropic substances?
a. Schedule H b. Schedule N
c. Schedule G d. Schedule X
44. Opium Act was introduced in_________.
a. 1947 b. 1857
c. 1985 d. 1856
45. Patent Act was established in __________.
a. 1940 b. 1970
c. 1948 d. 1950
46. Any substance intended to be used for or in the diagnosis, cure;
treatment or prevention of disease in human beings or animals is
called _____.
a. Lepa b. Churnas
c. Kavachas d. Drug
47. The rules established by the central or State Government
under this Act should be published in the _______.
a. Online site b. Official gazette
c. Government magazine d. Documents
48. The head office of the FSSAI authority is located in ____
a. New Delhi b. Bangalore
c. Gujarat d. Maharashtra

6. 10 DPEE Practice Set
* *
49. The latest Drug Price Control Order was issued on ________.
a. 25th
May, 2018 b. 5th
May, 2017
c. 15th
March, 2013 d. 15th
May, 2013
50. Code of pharmaceutical ethics is developed by ___.
a. World Health Organization (WHO)
b. Pharmacy Council of India (PCI)
c. Indian Medical Association (IMA)
d. Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO)
51. What is the maximum duration of pregnancy for which
termination can be performed with the agreement of one
Registered Medical Practitioner?
a. 6 weeks b. 12 weeks
c. 20 weeks d. 24 weeks
52. What is the primary duty of a drug inspector when obtaining
drug samples?
a. To store the samples for future reference
b. To send the samples for analysis
c. To sell the samples to other dealers
d. To keep the samples as evidence
53. According to the Biopharmaceutics Classification System
(BCS), class III drugs have:
a. High solubility and high permeability
b. Low solubility and high permeability
c. High solubility and low permeability
d. Low solubility and low permeability
54. How long can blood usually be stored?
a. 7 days b. 14 days
c. 21 days d. 35-42 days
55. The Clinical Establishments Act was passed by the Indian
Parliament on ______.
a. 17th
August, 2009 b. 1st
March, 2020
c. 16th
March, 2010 d. 17th
August, 2010
56. Human anatomical wastes are categorised into which category
of biomedical waste?
a. Yellow b. Red
c. Blue d. Black
57. The term bioethics was coined by __________.
a. Dr. Van Rensslaer Potter II
b. Michael Faraday
c. Enrico Fermi
d. Wilhelm Conrad Röntgen

7. Paper-1 11
* *
58. Consumer day is celebrated on _______every year.
a. 15th
March b. 6th
August
c. 15th
July d. 15th
June
59. Drugs Enquiry Committee was constituted under the
chairmanship of _________.
a. William Procter Jr. b. Col. R. N. Chopra
c. Dr. B. Mukherjee d. Prof. M.L. Schroff
60. The factory act was passed in the year _______.
a. 1940 b. 1942
c. 1945 d. 1948
61. Pharmacy Council of India was constituted in:
a. 1951 b. 1950
c. 1955 d. 1948
62. Schedule C is related to:
a. List of biological and immunological products
b. List of Homeopathy products
c. List of Ayurvedic products
d. List of Allopathic products
63. If the drug contains any harmful or toxic substance which may
render it injurious to health then it is deemed to be______.
a. Adulterated drugs b. Spurious cosmetics
c. Misbranded drugs d. Proprietary medicines
64. The provisions made under Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic
Substances Act shall be included in the provisions made
under_________.
a. The Pharmacy Act b. Food and Drugs Act
c. Drugs and Cosmetics Act d. Drugs Act
65. The insect repellents, insecticides which kill insects causing
diseases in human beings, etc., are not believed to be drugs in
________.
a. Drugs and Cosmetics Act
b. The Pharmacy Act
c. Food and Drugs Act
d. Drugs and Magic Remedies Act
66. Poison act was passed on______.
a. 5th
August, 1919 b. 3rd
September, 1919
c. 3rd
November, 1919 d. 4th
September, 1919
67. In which year was the Food Safety and Standards Authority of
India (FSSAI) established?
a. 2005 b. 2006
c. 2008 d. 2010

8. 12 DPEE Practice Set
* *
68. The WHO model list of Essential Medicines is updated in
________.
a. Every 1 years b. Every 5 years
c. Every 2 years d. Every 7 years
69. On________, the Rajya Sabha passed the Medical
Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Bill, 2021.
a. 6th
March, 2002 b. 26th
March, 2019
c. 6th
April, 2020 d. 16th
March, 2021
70. Indian Pharmacopoeia Commission headquarter is located at:
a. Delhi b. Mumbai
c. Hyderabad d. Ghaziabad
71. The fee for grant of license for wholesale license is____.
a. `2000.00 b. `1500.00
c. `1900.00 d. `3000.00
72. Which class of BCS drugs has high solubility but low
permeability?
a. Class I b. Class II
c. Class III d. Class IV
73. A new bill for the Consumer Protection Act, was passed by the
president on _____.
a. 6th
August, 2019 b. 6th
July, 2019
c. 5th
June, 2018 d. 5th
March, 2017
74. Food and adulteration act, was passed in ______.
a. 1953 b. 1954
c. 1955 d. 1956
75. The Pharmacy act extends to the whole of India, except the
state:
a. Rajasthan b. Assam
c. Jammu and Kashmir d. Himachal Pradesh
SECTION-C
76. Community pharmacies have relied on technology to support
their operations and use of pharmacy computer systems, also
known as __________.
a. Maceration record systems
b. Macroevolution record systems
c. Medication record serine
d. Medication record systems

9. Paper-1 13
* *
77. Preparation of SOPs in pharmacy is responsibility of:
a. Drug inspector b. Pharmacy assistant
c. Pharmacist d. None of these
78. A ______ is a written order from a doctor to a chemist that
includes instructions for preparing and dispensing medicines
to a patient.
a. Prescription b. Order
c. Discharge d. Medication chart
79. Another special way of communication in which no words and
sentences are used, is termed as ___.
a. Non-verbal communication b. Telephone communication
c. Face-to-face communication d. One-to-one communication
80. The term „communication‟ is derived from the___.
a. Communicare b. Communicate
c. Communion d. None of the above
81. ______is not a disease, but is an important risk factor for
several complications that ultimately results in organ damage.
a. Leukemia b. Hypertension
c. Diabetes d. Lymphoma
82. The degree to which the person‟s behaviour corresponds with
the agreed recommendations from a health care provider is
called as ______.
a. Medication adherence b. Patient counselling
c. Medical coding d. Medical writing
83. The health belief model developed in _______.
a. 1964 b. 1954
c. 1984 d. 1974
84. Which screening test is used to assess kidney function and
disease risk?
a. Bone Mineral density test b. Creatinine levels test
c. Pap smear test d. Lipid profile test
85. What type of test is commonly used to screen for diabetes?
a. Oral Glucose Tolerance Test (OGTT)
b. Blood Pressure Measurement
c. Body Mass Index (BMI) Calculation
d. Spirometry
86. Which of the following should be avoided during diarrhea?
a. Electrolyte-balanced fluids b. The BRAT diet
c. High-fiber foods d. Lactose-containing foods

10. 14 DPEE Practice Set
* *
87. Which OTC drug is primarily used to treat symptoms of
allergic rhinitis?
a. Ibuprofen b. Cetirizine
c. Omeprazole d. Hydrocodone
88. Which of the following is not a component of the CRM process?
a. Acquisition
b. Customer Interaction Management (CIM)
c. Customer attrition
d. Employee training
89. Community pharmacies are independently owned and run by
____________.
a. OT technicians b. Doctors
c. Pharmacists d. Nurses
90. Which practice model was prevalent in the mid-1900s but
did not disappear in the 1920s?
a. Automated dispensing
b. Compounding
c. Mail-order pharmacies
d. Chain pharmacy operations
91. _____are tools that minimise misunderstandings on a drug
treatment, strengthening comprehension as well as recall of
medicines-related information and attract attention.
a. Dispensing error b. Pharmaceutical pictograms
c. Medical prescription d. General inscription
92. LASA stands for:
a. Like-Alike and Sing-Alike
b. Leaf-Alike and Sound-Active
c. Look-Alike and Sound-Alike
d. Lost-Alike and Source-Alike
93. Which of the following is not a component of non-verbal
communication?
a. Paralanguage b. Space language
c. Touch language d. Written communication
94. Which of the following elements accounts for the highest
percentage of communication according to the Mehrabian Rule?
a. Words b. Tone of Voice
c. Body Language d. Written Text
95. Which of the following is not a characteristic of written
communication?
a. Creative activity b. Requires immediate feedback
c. Less number of cycles d. Conventional in nature

11. Paper-1 15
* *
96. Mammogram is done to look for early signs of_______.
a. Breast cancer b. Bone disorder
c. Anaemia d. Sore throat
97. Which test determines the amount of air a person can inhale
and exhale?
a. Tidal volume b. Spirometry
c. Plethysmography d. Fasting plasma glucose test
98. Body Mass Indexing (BMI) is the most common screening test
for:
a. Obesity b. Eye disorders
c. Anaemia d. Skin disorders
99. Medical devices rules were established in the year________.
a. 1971 b. 1917
c. 1997 d. 1979
100. Over the counter drugs are also known as ____.
a) Non-prescription drugs b) Prescription drugs
c) Scheduled drugs d) Ancillary drugs
101. What is the BRAT diet composed of?
a. Bananas, Rice, Applesauce, Toast
b. Bread, Rice, Applesauce, Tea
c. Beans, Rice, Applesauce, Tea
d. Bananas, Rice, Avocado, Toast
102. Which policy supports public-private collaboration to improve
healthcare infrastructure in India?
a. Telemedicine Guidelines
b. National Health Policy 2017
c. Jan Aushadhi Scheme
d. Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana (PMBJP)
103. Which process guideline involves ensuring that medications
are stored correctly?
a. Prescription handling
b. Procurement and inventory management
c. Dispensing
d. Storage inventory management
104. Compounded prescriptions are also known as ______.
a. Remedium constituens b. Formula magistralis
c. Remedium cardinale d. Remedium adjuvans
105. ℞ is commonly used to symbolise _______.
a. Signatura b. Superscription
c. Prescriber’s Information d. Inscription

12. 16 DPEE Practice Set
* *
106. ____is defined as clear expression of ideas in writing; includes
grammar, organisation, and structure.
a. Written communication b. Telephone communication
c. Face-to-face communication d. One-to-one communication
107. _______ are those problems that crop up during encoding or
decoding of messages.
a. Psychological barriers b. Gender barriers
c. Cultural barriers d. Semantic barriers
108. Which one is a common malignancy among women?
a. Cervical Cancer b. Breast Cancer
c. Prostate Cancer d. Colorectal Cancer
109. Which of the following is a patient-based barrier to effective
counselling?
a. Time restraints b. Lack of training
c. Low health literacy d. Provider burnout
110. Which type of counselling helps patients deal with urgent
situations related to HIV/AIDS?
a. Family and relationship counselling
b. Bereavement counselling
c. Crisis intervention
d. Structured psychological support
111. Which concept describes the overall duration a patient
continues to take their medication?
a. Adherence b. Compliance
c. Persistence d. Conformity
112. Which one is a common malignancy among women?
a. Breast cancer b. Prostate cancer
c. Cervical cancer d. Colorectal cancer
113. Which cancer screening test is recommended for all sexually
active women?
a. Mammography
b. Prostate Specific Antigen (PSA) test
c. Pap Smear test
d. Urine test
114. OTC stands for:
a. Oral The Counter b. Over The Counter
c. Over The Case d. Over The Country
115. Who discovered the term tall man lettering?
a. ISMP b. WHO
c. FDA d. CDSCO

13. Paper-1 17
* *
SECTION-D
116. _______ pharmacy should be located in each floor of the
hospital.
a. Clinical b. Satellite
c. Community d. Hospital
117. The minimum area required for hospital pharmacy is _______.
a. 100 Sq. ft. b. 200 Sq. ft.
c. 250 Sq. ft. d. 400 Sq. ft.
118. The main role of pharmacist in PTC is ____.
a. Management of formulary b. Drug distribution
c. Drug order d. Patient diagnosing
119. Which statement is incorrect regarding schedule H drugs?
a. These are OTC drugs
b. Appendices under Drugs and Cosmetic rule, 1945
c. Dangerous to take without medical advice
d. Cannot be purchased without prescription of registered
medical practitioner
120. ICCU is concerned with the care of:
a. Cardiac patients b. Pediatric patients
c. Obstetric patients d. Geriatric patients
121. Sterile medicinal products are manufactured in
_______________ intended to decrease the microbial and
particulate contamination at every stages of manufacturing.
a. Aseptic area b. Warehouse area
c. Quarantine area d. Dispensing area
122. Which of the following technique mostly utilises highly active
gamma-emitting isotopes, like 60
Co or 137
Cs?
a. Implantation therapy b. Teletherapy
c. Contact therapy d. Irradiation therapy
123. _______ is the diagnostic application of radio pharmaceuticals.
a. Radiotherapy
b. Positron Emission Tomography (PET)
c. Chemotherapy
d. Radiology
124. A fast working system named Medline was introduced in
_________.
a. 1964 b. 1971
c. 1985 d. 1990

14. 18 DPEE Practice Set
* *
125. Clinical pharmacy services were initiated in India in _____.
a. 1953 b. 1982
c. 1992 d. 1972
126. Increase in heart rate is called as _________.
a. Bradycardia b. Tachycardia
c. Arrhythmia d. Hypertension
127. Which of the following tests is used for detecting antibody or
complement on the cell surface?
a. HbS test b. Coombs test
c. ESR test d. Prothrombin time
128. BAL is also known as__________.
a. Dimercaprol b. Desferrioxamine
c. Nalorphine d. Sodium nitrate
129. Which of the following is an antidote for lead poisoning?
a. Ca EDTA b. Ethanol
c. Naloxone d. Physostigmine
130. The science and activities concerned with the detection,
assessment, understanding and prevention of adverse reactions
to medicines is called as ___________.
a. Pharmacology b. Pharmacovigilance
c. Pharmacokinetics d. Pharmacodynamics
131. Phase I clinical trial involved ________.
a. 20 -100 patients b. 100- 300 patients
c. 100-200 patients d. 200-500 patients
132. ________ combinations are prone to cause confusion during
prescribing, dispensing, and administration or consumption.
a. Look-alike, sound-alike b. High-alert
c. Fixed-dose d. Multi-drug
133. Which type of medication error involves administering
medication at the wrong time?
a. Omission error b. Timing error
c. Route error d. Wrong patient error
134. Pharmacodynamic interactions primarily involve changes in:
a. The drug’s absorption
b. The drug’s metabolism
c. The drug’s effect on the body
d. The drug’s excretion
135. ________ in pharmaceutical industry refers to a person who is
engaged in the activity of selling or supplying the drugs.
a. Vendor b. Pharmacist
c. Manufacturer d. Retailer

15. Paper-1 19
* *
136. Which factor is crucial for delivery in vendor selection?
a. Price accuracy b. Delivery time
c. Quality of the drug d. Billing errors
137. Which type of audit is carried out by a regulatory agency to
ensure compliance or certification?
a. Internal audit b. External audit
c. Regulatory audit d. Compliance audit
138. The number of beds in district hospital is _______.
a. 6 b. 50
c. 200 d. 500
139. The term “hospital” is derived from the Latin word:
a. Hospes b. Hospitium
c. Hostis d. Hospita
140. The number of pharmacists required for a 200 bedded hospital
is __________:
a. 8 b. 5
c. 4 d. 12
141. Good Pharmacy Practice (GPP) standards were distributed to
WHO Information Officers in which year?
a. 1990 b. 1992
c. 1993 d. 1995
142. Drugs for the emergency box contain heparin in the quantity
of _______.
a. 10,000 units b. 20,000 units
c. 30,000 units d. 40,000 units
143. _______ drugs comprise of sensitive antibiotics, and drugs with
severe side effects if used without supervision and prescription
of a registered medical practitioner.
a. Schedule C b. Schedule P
c. Schedule N d. Schedule H1
144. Which inventory control method involves using the oldest stock first?
a. FIFO method b. FEFO method
c. EOQ method d. VED analysis
145. Which is life-saving drug used in emergency?
a. Nimesulide b. Adrenaline
c. Ranitidine d. Glimepiride
146. Which type of outpatient is referred to another specialist or
facility for further diagnosis or treatment?
a. General outpatient b. Referred outpatient
c. Emergency outpatient d. Ambulatory patient

16. 20 DPEE Practice Set
* *
147. The Walk-in-cold rooms are used for bulk storage of:
a. Soft gelatine capsules b. Packaged drinking water
c. Vaccines d. Suppositories
148. Drug incompatibilities can reduce ______________.
a. Drug nature b. Drug shape
c. Drug taste d. Drug activity
149. Radiopharmaceuticals are stored in __________.
a. Lead containers b. Plastic containers
c. Vials d. Ampoules
150. Increase in the number of RBC is known as____.
a. Leukopenia b. Anemia
c. Polycythemia d. Thrombocytopenia
ANSWERS
Section-A
1. a 2. d 3. a 4. d 5. a 6. a 7. a 8. d 9. d
10. c 11. b 12. d 13. b 14. a 15. a 16. b 17. d 18. a
19. b 20. b 21. a 22. b 23. b 24. b 25. b 26. b 27. d
28. a 29. c 30. a 31. b 32. d 33. b 34. b 35. c 36. b
37. d 38. b 39. b 40. b
Section-B
41. b 42. a 43. d 44. b 45. b 46. d 47. b 48. a 49. d
50. b 51. b 52. b 53. c 54. d 55. d 56. a 57. a 58. a
59. b 60. d 61. d 62. a 63. a 64. c 65. d 66. b 67. c
68. c 69. d 70. d 71. d 72. c 73. a 74. b 75. c
Section-C
76. d 77. c 78. a 79. a 80. a 81. b 82. a 83. b 84. b
85. a 86. d 87. b 88. d 89. c 90. b 91. b 92. c 93. d
94. c 95. b 96. a 97. b 98. a 99. c 100. a 101. a 102. b
103. d 104. b 105. b 106. a 107. d 108. b 109. c 110. c 111. c
112. a 113. c 114. b 115. a
Section-D
116. b 117. c 118. a 119. a 120. a 121. a 122. b 123. b 124. a
125. c 126. b 127. b 128. a 129. a 130. b 131. a 132. a 133. b
134. c 135. a 136. b 137. c 138. c 139. b 140. c 141. c 142. a
143. d 144. a 145. b 146. d 147. c 148. d 149. a 150. c