2. 1 . Transdermal drug delivery systems offer the following
advantages except:
A. They produce high peak plasma concentration of the drug
B. They produce smooth and nonfluctuating plasma
concentration of the drug
C. They minimise interindividual variations in the achieved
plasma drug concentration
D. They avoid hepatic first-pass metabolism of the drug
3. 2. In addition to slow intravenous infusion, which of the
following routes of administration allows for titration of
the dose of a drug with the response:
A. Sublingual
B. Transdermal
C. Inhalational
D. Nasal insufflation
4. 3 . Which of the following drugs is administered by
intranasal spray/application for systemic action:
A. Phenylephrine
B. Desmopressin
C. Azelastine
D. Beclomethasone dipropionate
5. 4. Compared to subcutaneous injection, the intramuscular
injection of drugs:
A. Is more painful
B. Produces faster response
C. Is unsuitable for depot preparations
D. Carries greater risk of anaphylactic reaction
6. 5. Select the route of administration which carries the
highest risk of adversely affecting vital functions:
A. Intra arterial injection
B. Intrathecal injection
C. Intravenous injection
D. Intramuscular injection
7. 6. Alkalinization of urine hastens the excretion of:
A. Weakly basic drugs
B. Weakly acidic drugs
C. Strong electrolytes
D. Nonpolar drugs
8. 7. Majority of drugs cross biological membranes primarily
by:
A. Passive diffusion
B. Facilitated diffusion
C. Active transport
D. Pinocytosis
9. 8. Diffusion of drugs across cell membrane:
A. Is dependent upon metabolic activity of the cell
B. Is competitively inhibited by chemically related drugs
C. Is affected by extent of ionization of drug molecules
D. Exhibits saturation kinetics
10. 9. Which of the following drugs is most likely to be absorbed
from the stomach:
A. Morphine sulfate
B. Diclofenac sodium
C. Hyoscine hydrobromide
D. Quinine dihydrochloride
11. 10. Which of the following is a weakly acidic drug:
A. Atropine sulfate
B. Chloroquine phosphate
C. Ephedrine hydrochloride
D. Phenytoin sodium
12. 11. The most important factor which governs diffusion of
drugs across capillaries other than those in the brain is:
A. Blood flow through the capillary
B. Lipid solubility of the drug
C. pKa value of the drug
D. pH of the medium
13. 12. Active transport of a substance across biological
membranes has the following characteristics except:
A. It is specific
B. It is pH dependent
C. It is saturable
D. It requires metabolic energy
14. 13. Tricyclic antidepressants can alter the oral absorption of
many drugs by:
A. Complexing with the other drug in the intestinal lumen
B. Altering gut motility
C. Altering gut flora
D. Damaging gut mucosa
15. 14. Which of the following statements is not true of fixed
dose combination formulations:
A. They are more convenient
B. Contraindication to one of the components does not
contraindicate the formulation
C. The dose of any one component cannot be independently
adjusted
D. The time course of action of the different components may
not be identical
16. 15. Fixed dose combination formulations are not necessarily
appropriate for:
A. Drugs administered in standard doses
B. Drugs acting by the same mechanism
C. Antitubercular drugs
D. Antihypertensive drugs
17. 16. A fixed dose combination preparation meant for internal
use must not contain the following class of drug:
A. Thiazide diuretic
B. Fluoroquinolone antimicrobial
C. Corticosteroid
D. H2 blocker
18. 17. Interindividual variations in equieffective doses of a drug
are most marked if it is disposed by:
A. Glomerular filtration
B. Tubular secretion
C. Both glomerular filtration and tubular secretion
D. Hepatic metabolism
19. 18. The pharmacokinetics of drugs in the neonate differs
from that in adults, because their:
A. Intestinal transit is fast
B. Drug metabolizing enzymes are overactive
C. Tubular transport mechanisms are not well developed
D. Glomerular filtration rate is high
20. 19. Which adverse drug effect is more common in children
than in adults:
A. Isoniazid induced neuropathy
B. Chlorpromazine induced muscle dystonia
C. Digoxin induced cardiac arrhythmia
D. Penicillin hypersensitivity
21. 20. The elderly patients are relatively intolerant to:
A. Digoxin
B. Salbutamol
C. Propranolol
D. Nifedipine
22. 21. The following drug adverse effect is specially noted in
men compared to women:
A. Tardive dyskinesia due to neuroleptics
B. Levodopa induced abnormal movements
C. Ampicillin induced loose motions
D. Ketoconazole induced loss of libido
23. 22. Which racial difference in response to drugs has been
mentioned incorrectly below:
A. Africans require higher concentration of atropine to dilate
pupils
B. Black races are more responsive to antihypertensive action
of beta blockers
C. Japanese are more prone to develop SMON due to
halogenated hydroxyquinolines
D. Chloramphenicol induced aplastic anaemia is rare among
Indians
24. 23. Which of the following adverse drug reactions is due to
a specific genetic abnormality:
A. Tetracycline induced sunburn like skin lesions
B. Quinidine induced thrombocytopenia
C. Metoclopramide induced muscle dystonia
D. Primaquine induced massive haemolysis
25. 24. Drug metabolism can be induced by the following factors
except:
A. Cigarette smoking
B. Acute alcohol ingestion
C. Exposure to insecticides
D. Consumption charcoal broiled meat
26. 25. A drug which produces qualitatively different actions
when administered through different routes is:
A. Phenytoin sodium
B. Hydralazine
C. Magnesium sulfate
D. Nitroglycerine
27. 26. Which of the following is true of ‘placebos’:
A. Placebo is a dummy medication
B. Placebo is the inert material added to the drug for
making tablets
C. Placebos do not produce any effect
D. All patients respond to placebos
28. 27. In patients of hepatic cirrhosis:
A. The extent of change in pharmacokinetics of drugs can be
predicted from the values of liver function tests
B. High doses of furosemide can be safely used
C. Metformin is the preferred oral hypoglycaemic
D. Disposition of atenolol is not significantly affected
29. 28. In patients with renal insufficiency the clearance of the
following drug is reduced parallel to the reduction in
creatinine clearance:
A. Propranolol
B. Digoxin
C. Lignocaine
D. Verapamil
30. 29. The following statement is not correct for uremic
patients:
A. Attainment of steady-state plasma concentration of drugs
eliminated through the kidney is hastened
B. Pethidine can cause seizures
C. Diazepam produces exaggerated CNS depression
D. Tetracyclines further raise blood urea level
31. 30. In congestive heart failure patients:
A. Volume of distribution of all drugs is increased
B. Hepatic clearance of drugs is unaffected
C. Orally administered diuretics may not be effective,
but the same may work parenterally
D. Inotropic action of digoxin is attenuated